Uworld Review Flashcards

1
Q

Chronic abdominal pain that is postprandial and accompanied by weight loss in a patient with a history of atherosclerosis is highly suspicious for
Findings also show one shrunken, atrophic kidney, and the other being enlarged and HTN indicates

A

Intestinal ischemia

Renal artery stenosis- other kidney compensates and becomes enlarged while the stenotic one becomes atrophied.

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2
Q

Differentiating between tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy with the lepromin skin test (like a PPD test)
MOA of each type

A

Tuberculoid will have an indurated response to the intradermal injection due to the activity of TH1 response. Well defined, few hypopigmented lesions with diminished sensation

Lepromatous leprosy will not have a reaction due to a weak TH1 response. This type is usually due to TH2 response and is a more widespread infection with poorly demarcated plaques and development of leonine facies

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3
Q

Acute cholecystitis is caused by ______ in more than 90% of cases
How will this appear on US and cholescintigraphy?

A

Obstruction with a gallstone of the cystic duct

gallbladder wall thickening, pericholecystic fluid and positive sonography Murphy sign. Presence of gallstones alone is not diagnostic!
*Gallbladder will not be able to be visualized with the radiotracer dye due to obstruction

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4
Q

Tumors cells develop resistance via ______gene; whose product is a ______
Where else in the body is this protein product found?

A

MDR1 gene- produces a P-glycoprotein (normally in intestinal and renal epithelium to eliminate foreign compounds, and on the BBB) that is a TM proteins functioning as an ATP-dependent efflux pump

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5
Q

Normal cardiac pressure readings in the chambers of the heart, PA and aorta are?

A

Systolic atrial pressure= diastolic ventricular pressure since valves are open
Increased by contraction- higher Systolic ventricle pressure=respective valve systolic pressure
Atria only have diastolic pressures*

RA= 5 so RV= 25/5 so PA= 25/10
PCWP estimates LA= 10-12 so LV=130/10 and aorta =130/90

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6
Q

Which diuretic would most likely improve survival in a patient with acute decompensated HF with decreased EF

A

Spironolactone- block the deleterious effect of aldosterone on the heart as well, which typically causes regression of myocardial fibrosis and improvement in ventricular remodeling

Usually given in addition to standard ACE-i and beta blockers

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7
Q

Pathogenesis of diverticulosis (false diverticula) involves what term

What is the term for inflammation and subsequent scarring of the gut wall creating diverticula

A

Pulsion- an increased intraluminal pressure created during strained bowel movements

Traction- results in pulling and out pouching of all gut wall layers- true

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8
Q

BH4 is a cofactor in synthesis of what 3 products?

A

—>Tyrosine—->DOPA

Tryptophan—5HT

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9
Q

________ us a metalloprotease that cleaves and inactivated endogenous peptides including natriuretic peptides, glucagon, oxytocin and bradykinin

Used pharmacologically?

A

Neprilysin

Sacubitril- inhibit this metalloprotease to increase levels of endogenous natriuretic peptides in HF

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10
Q

5 medication classes that are associated with osteoporosis fractures:

A

Anticonvulsants that induce P450 (phenobarbital, phenytoin, CM)- increase vit D catabolism
Aroma tase inhibitor/medroxyprogesterone- decrease estrogen
GnRH agonist- decrease estrogen and testosterone
PPI- decrease calcium absorption
Glucorticoids- decrease bone formation

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11
Q

Carbidopa is added to levodopa to:

What AE is likely to remain or worsen after addition of carbidopa?

A

Decrease the peripheral conversion of levodopa- increases DA in CNS

Anxiety and agitation- central effects of DA (others: insomnia, confusion, hallucinations, behavior changes)

*DA stimulating nausea/vomitting in the emetic center of the brainstem which is located OUTSIDE the BBB, so DA decarboxylase inhibitors help with this AE

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12
Q

Difference in symptom presentations of vWF deficiency and VIII deficiency

A

VWF- bleeding from skin and mucosal sites: gingiva, nasal mucosa, endometrium, GI

VIII- deeper tissue bleeding, joints and muscles, hematuria, GI

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13
Q

Organism that contaminates food and can cause differing presentations in three likely populations of patients
Immunocompromised- invasive infection; meningoencephalitis, sepsis
Pregnant women- flu-like diarrhea, vomiting, muscle aches. Causes preterm labor and newborn has generalized skin rash (or sepsis)

A

Listeria

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14
Q

Stroke affecting the _______ artery, results in vertigo/nystagmus from vestibular nucleus damage, ipsilateral cerebellar signs from inferior cerebellar peduncle damage, loss of pain/temp sensation in ipsilateral face and contralateral body (spinal trigeminal nucleus and spinothalamic tract), and dysphagia due to bulbar weakness of nucleus ambiguous damage, and descending sympathetic fibers damage causing Horner’s

A

PICA- lateral medullary syndrome (Wallenburg)

PICA is a branch of the vertebral artery

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15
Q

An untreated small prolactinoma that is causing elevated prolactin and secondary amenorrhea is at risk for developing ______
MOA?

A

Decreased bone density- low estrogen levels leads to increased production of inflammatory cytokines, especially IL-1 an TNF-alpha, increasing the expression of RANKL and resulting increased osteoclasts activity

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16
Q

LPL is normally bound to ______ on vascular endothelium, allowing it to interact with chylomicrons and VLDL to ______

A deficiency of LPL will have elevated:
Likely clinical outcomes if untreated are:

A

Heparin sulfate (heparin admin releases these lipases allowing LPL to be measured in serum)

Release FFA into adjacent tissues

Chylomicrons and TG- causing acute pancreatitis, milky-appearing vasculature and eruptive xanthomas (extensor surfaces surrounded by erythema)

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17
Q

______ deficiency is likely to cause tendon xanthomas, xanthelasmas (eyelid deposits), and early MI

A

LDL receptor or B100 deficiency

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18
Q

A low frequency, diastolic heart sound is heart shortly after S2 is _________
Best heart with patient in what position and doing what
Best heard where on the chest?

A

S3 heart sound

LLdecubitus and at end expiration (decreasing lung volume and bringing the heart closer to the chest wall)- listening over the cardiac apex

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19
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans can be found in what two morphologies?

A

Yeast with a thick polysaccharide capsules

Round cells with narrow based budding yeast

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20
Q

______ is the tendency of study subjects to change their behavior as a result of their awareness that they are being studied

_____ is selection bias by choosing hospitalized patients as the control group
____ is the effect of when a researcher’s beliefs in the efficacy of treatment can potentially affect the outcome

A

Hawthorne’s effect (observer effect)

Berkson’s bias (selection bias)

Pygmalion effect

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21
Q

The venous components of internal hemorrhoids drain into the ________, which is ligated to cut the blood supply to the hemorrhoid, causing them to degenerate

External hemorrhoids drain via _____

A

Supervisor rectal vein- branch of the inferior mesenteric vein

Via inferior rectal vein into the internal pudendal vein

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22
Q

The most common indicator of obesity-related disease is a reduction in ________

A

Expiration reserve volume

Reduction in chest wall compliance due to increase weight and a reduction in lung compliance due to microatelectasis, results in a restrictive lung disease panel

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23
Q

TSH receptor is also present on ______, which is why Grave’s opthalmopathy is caused by stimulation of orbital ______, leading to excess deposition of extracellular GAGs, accompanied by a massive _______, which expands the extraocular muscles and retro-orbital tissues more

Treatment for Grave’s opthalmopathy?

A

Fibroblasts! (Also on adipocytes and other cell types)
Stimulates orbital fibroblasts by thyrotoxicosis receptor ABs
Accompanied by a massive T cell activation and inflammatory infiltrate

Glucorcorticoids- reduces the inflammation (they also decrease peripheral conversion of T4–>T3

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24
Q

_____ is a 5HT1a receptor agonist for GAD. It does not cause sedation, addiction or tolerance. It takes 1-2 weeks to take effect, so cannot be used for acute anxiety.

A

Buspirone

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25
Q

Patient with recurrent pulmonary infections, unsteady gait and discoordination of eye movements when looking at moving objects, and numerous superificial blanching nests of distended capillaries on sun exposed skin likely a mutation in what?

A

ATM gene—> failure to detect dna damage and failure to half progression of the cell cycle

Ataxia-telangiectasia- Ataxia, Angiomas, igA deficiency, high AFP

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26
Q

Immunocompromised Patient with neutropenia is most likely susceptible to ______
Patient presents with sepsis and multiple dark skin patches with necrotic centers and occasional ulcerations, normal platelet count/PT/PTT likely has _____. What are the four important virulence factors?

How does this infection presentation differ from necrotizing fasciitis?

A

Gram negative sepsis

Ecthyma gangrenosum- strongly associated with P aeroginosa bacteremia* (Dalmatian on sketchy spots)

Exotoxins A- EF-2 ADP ribosylation
Endotoxin- fever, shock
Phospholipase C- degrades cell membranes
Pyocyanin pigment

Presents with a single site of infection with erythema, edema, pain out of proportion to PE, then progresses to pruritic discoloration, bullae, sensory loss due to necrosis

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27
Q

in diabetic ketoacidosis, one enzyme is responsible for the generation of FFA and ketones to be utilized for energy needs
Will appear as a normal fasting serum glucose during starvation and positive urine ketones

A

Hormone sensitive lipase- found in adipose tissue to break down TGs into FFA and glycerol, providing substrates for ketone production and GNG, respectively.

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28
Q

> 90% of Viral causes of meningitis is by what pathogen?

A

Enterovirus (Coxsackie, poliovirus, and echovirus)

Negative gram stain and sterile culture aseptic meningitis

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29
Q

Diphtheria acquires its virulence factor via ________, allowing it to produce pseudomembranous pharyngitis

Strep pneumo acquire the ability to produce capsules via

E.coli acquire the ability to form pili via _____

Environmental influences permitting the toxin synthesis occurs in :

A

Phage conversion of Tox gene, encodes for exotoxin AB

Transformation (bacteria bind and import short pieces naked DNA from prior bacterial cell lysis)

Bacterial conjugation (direct transfer of plasmids via sex pilus)

Spore forming organisms

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30
Q

Patient with cirrhosis presents with vomiting bright red blood and subsequently develops hepatic encephalopathy. What is the precipitating factor for the encephalopathy?

A

GI bleeds cause increased nitrogen delivery to the gut in the form of Hb, which is converted to ammonia and absorbed into the blood

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31
Q

High molecular weight, high plasma protein binding, and high charge and hydrophilicity tend to have low ______

A

Vd (3-5L)

These characteristics trap the drug in the plasma compartment

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32
Q

What occurs if on observation the cell body of the neuron is enlarged, there is an eccentric nucleus, enlargement of the nucleolus and dispersion of Nissl?

Neuronal atrophy will appear as

A

Axonal reaction from loss of axon

Loss of neurons and reactive gliosis

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33
Q

_______ is a SERM used in treatment of estrogen positive breast cancer. It is a prodrug that is metabolized by ______ to its active metabolite

A

Tamoxifen- metabolized by CYP2D to endoxifen

Patients with mutations in the CYP2D are exposed to decreased active substance and have a higher risk of disease relapse

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34
Q

______ is a cell membrane protein that drives efflux of a number of substance out of the cell. It is the primary mechanism by which tumor cells cause multi drug resistance

A

P-glycoprotein

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35
Q

what activities decrease the intensity of a LVOT obstruction murmur
Increase the intensity?
Where is it best hear

A

Decreased murmur by increasing LVEDV or afterload- squatting, hand grip, or passive leg raise

Increased murmur by decreasing LVEDV or afterload- sudden standing, valsalva, NO administration

Best heard at LLS border and apex

36
Q

Harsh, holosystolic murmur increased intensity with hand grip and heard at the LLS border but is otherwise asymptomatic is indicative of:

A

VSD

Increased systemic resistance increases afterload which causes increased flow across the VSD

37
Q

A bacterial organism has a virulence factor, which is a cell wall associated protein that has homology with tropomyosin and myosin. Name the virulence factor and its function for this organism

A

Strep pyogenes is coated with M protein

This prevents phagocytosis and inhibits complement binding

38
Q

X-linked recessive disorders:

X-linked dominant disorder?

A
Ornithine transcarbamylase def
Fabry’s
Wiskott-Aldrich
Ocular albinism 
G6PD def
Hunter syndrome 
Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
Hemophilia
Lesch-Nyah syndrome
Duchenne and Becker

*boys and female patients with turner’s are more likely to have these disorders

Fragile X syndrome- trinucleotide repeat in FMR1 gene causes hypermethylation and decreased expression

39
Q

________ is the unconscious shifting of emotions or desires associated with a person from the past to another person in the present

Whereas _____ is when a person expresses unacceptable feelings meant for someone in their present life toward a different, safer person

A

Transference

Displacement

40
Q

Mutation in fragile X syndrome is on what gene and results in what change to the gene?
What can be used to diagnose the gene mutation?
When does the trinucleotide expansion occur?

A

FMR1 gene on long arm of X chromosome- hypermethylation which inactivates the gene, preventing transcription, which impairs neural development
Souther blot can be used to measure the degree of methylation and number of repeats
Expansion occurs during meiosis of oocytes

41
Q

cancer immunotherapy involves mab that block a specific cell surface receptor found on T lymphocytes to facilitate destruction of cancer cells. What are the 2 cell surface receptors targeted?

A

PD-1 and anti-CTLA-4 ABs

Programmed death receptor (PD-1) binds PD-L1 ligand, downregulating the immune response against tumor cells by inhibiting cytotoxic T cells
Tumor cells evade the immune system by increasing ligand to bind PD1 or CTLA-4
MAB against PD1 blocks T cell inhibition to promote apoptosis of tumor cells

42
Q

Episodic systemic, muscular and GI symptoms and biopsy showing transmural inflammation of mid sized arteries with areas of eosin staining arterial wall necrosis and disruption of internal elastic lamina is indicative of _______
Highly associated with?

A

Polyarthritis nodosa

Hepatitis B!

Different from Buerger disease- intermittent claudication and gangrene/phlebitis and raynaud phenomenon
*intact internal elastic lamina and sparing of vessel walls! Mostly highly cellular inflammatory thrombosis. Associated with smoking

43
Q

arteriovenous concentration gradient of anesthetics is the difference between-
What characteristic of anesthetics affects this gradient?

A

Conc of gas anesthetic in arterial and venous blood

High tissue solubility, large amount is taken up from the blood, which results in low venous conc. So saturation of the blood requires further absorption of anesthetic to replace that which went into peripheral tissues. If blood saturation takes longer, brain saturation is delayed and onset is slower.

Lower tissue solubility has smaller AV gradients as less goes into peripheral tissue

44
Q

Migratory thrombophlebitis should raise suspicion for _______ due to _______

A

Visceral Cancer- many visceral cancers have hypercoagulability as a paraneoplastic syndrome(pancreas, colon, lung)
These adenocarcinomas produce a thromboplastin-like substance capable of causing chronic intravascular coagulations that disseminate and migrate

45
Q

Resistance to ______ group of anti-fungals is accomplished by the organism decreasing its ergosterol incorporation into the cell membrane

A

Amphotericin and Nystatin- polyenes
They typically bind to ergosterol in the cell membrane and create pore and cause cell lysis. Downregulating ergosterol will decrease these drugs efficacy

46
Q
Stress incontinence (with coughing, sneezing etc) is due to:
Urge incontinence (A sudden overwhelming urge to urinate) is due to:
Overflow incontinence (incomplete emptying or persistent involuntary dribbling) is due to:
A

Urethral sphincter dysfunction
Detrusor muscle hyperactivity
Impaired detrusor activity or bladder outlet obstruction

47
Q

Type B aortic dissections of the descending aorta typically originate close to:
Characteristics of B vs A

A

Left subclavian artery (type A are in ascending aorta usually in sinotubular junction)

B- intimal flap. Usually starts a near subclavian
A- intimal tear
Either can propagate proximally or distally (B and A, resp) to involve aortic arch branches. Either can propagate to involve the thoracoabdominal aorta branches (celiac trunk, intercostal arteries, renal arteries)

48
Q

Intermittent claudication is almost always the result of _______ of larger arteries

A

Atherosclerosis- atheromas: lipid filled intimal plaques that bulge into the lumen to prevent sufficient increases in blood flow to muscle

49
Q

What two antiarrhythmics classes prolong the QT interval?

Which drug of these actually has a very low risk of TdP?

A

Class III and IA- both has potassium blocking affects

Amiodarone

50
Q

Risk of UTI can be reduced by 3 interventions when dealing with indwelling catheters:

A

Avoiding unnecessary catheterization, using sterile techniques when inserting them, and removing them as soon as possible

*they should not be changed frequently, only for specific indications like active infection or obstruction!

51
Q

Five species of thermally dimorphic fungi are:
(Forming mold hyphae in ambient temperatures (25-30C) and yeast single cells in body temperatures)
Defining info about each one

A

Sporothrix schenckii- cigar shaped bud yeast, subcutaneous nodules along lymphatics
Coccidioides immitis- thick walled spherules filled with endospores, SW
Histoplasma capsulatum- oval yeast within macrophages, Ohio/Mississippi river, bat and bird droppings
Blastomyces dermatidis- double refractive wall and single broad based bud, Great Lakes region (or ohio and Mississippi River)
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis- budding blastoconidia/pirate wheel shape, central and S. America

52
Q

_______ induces CytP450, causing lower plasma concentrations of drugs like warfarin to decrease their efficacy

A

St. John’s Wort

Others: modafinil, chronic alcohol, phenytoin, phenobarbital, nevirapine, rifampin, griseofulvin, carbamazepine/cyclophosphamide

53
Q

Characteristic findings of this type of hypothyroidism will show intense mononuclear infiltrate consisting of lymphocytes and plasma cells with active germinal centers*. Residual follicles will be surrounded by ______

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Follicles surrounded by large oxyphilic cells filled with granular cytoplasm (Hurthle cells)- represent follicular epithelial cells that have undergone metaplastic change in response to inflammation

54
Q

Course of the median nerve: courses with the brachial artery between biceps and brachialis muscles, then gains access to the medial antecubital fossa where it courses between the humeral and ulnar heads of the _____ muscle. The nerve then travels between what two muscles before entering the wrist and hand within the ________

Difference between proximal and distal lesions

A

Between the heads of the pronator teres
Between flexor digitorum profundus and superficialis muscles
Within the flexor retinaculum

Proximal- supracondylar humerus fracture or entrapment between pronator teres= sensory loss in median n distribution and weakness on thumb flexion/opposition, flexion of 2nd and 3rd digits, and wrist flexion/abduction. Preacher’s hand on attempt to make a fist
Distal- preserved flexion of second and third digits and wrist with normal sensation over the thenar eminence

55
Q

What nerves lies between the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus and typically courses between the olecranon and the medial epicondyle?

Nerve that courses inferior to the teres major within the axilla then through the supinator muscle?

Nerve that penetrates the coracobrachialis before descending between biceps and coracobrachialis toward the brachialis?

A

Ulnar nerve

Radial nerve

Musculocutaneous nerve

56
Q

______ synthesis promotes B cell IgE and IgG

______ synthesis promotes B cell IgA and eosinophils

A

IL-4

IL-5

57
Q

what mitochondrial enzyme of the TCA cycle will most likely be most inhibited in chronic alcoholics?

A

AlphaKG DH- thiamine dependent, which alcoholics are usually deficient in
(Also pyruvate DH and transketolase)

Because of the NADH:NAD+ increased ratio, technically all TCA enzymes requiring NAD+ will be inhibited, but especially those requiring thiamine

58
Q

Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase, urinary hydroxyproline, and urinary deoxypyridinoline reflect ______ cell activity

A

Osteoclasts

*deoxypyridinole is most reliable

59
Q

______ is a potent LONG ACTING full Mu-opioid agonist with good BA. Its prolonged effects suppress withdrawal symptoms and cravings, allowing for opioid abuse/withdrawal treatment.
Important AE?

A

Methadone- respiratory depression and QT prolongation

*buprenorphine is the partial agonist- less respiratory depression

60
Q

Diffuse muscle rigidity, high fever, autonomic instability (HTN, tachycardia), and elevated CK due to rhabdomyolysis is likely due to overdose with:
Treated with

A

Anti-psychotics- neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Add dantrolene- antagonizing the ryanodine receptors, inhibiting calcium ion release.
Or bromocriptine, a DA agonist.

*serotonin syndrome does not cause diffuse muscle rigidity. More so tremors/clonus, hyperreflexia, sweating, HTN, hyperthermia, diarrhea
Treat this with cyproheptadine, 5HT-2 antagonist

61
Q

Reye’s syndrome hepatic damage will result in what appearance on light microscopy and EM

A

LM- microvesicular steatosis; small fat vacuoles in hepatocytes. NO NECROSIS OR INFLAMMATION PRESENT
EM- decreased number of mitochondria and glycogen depletion

62
Q

Child with a lace-like erythematous rash on her stomach, back and extremities. Started two days ago on her cheeks. 3 days prior she had a HA, low-grade fever and congestion. Where does this organism likely replicate?

A

Parvovirus

Replicates in erythrocytes precursors in the bone marrow

63
Q

Organism that causes UTIs in elderly man who just underwent a GU procedure. Gram positive cocci in chains and has PYR positivity, and ability to grow in bile and 6.5% Nacl
What type of hemolysis does it possess?

A

Enterococcus - gamma hemolysis (no hemolysis)

64
Q

A green inspissated mass in the distal ileum is a _____

This is a very specific finding for ________, which death is most commonly from a _______ complication

A

Dehydrated Meconium ileus

Very specific finding for cystic fibrosis- most deaths are from pneumonia

65
Q

Histology of liver showing

  1. Accumulation of large and small vesciles of fat and CLUMPED amorphous eosinophilia intracytoplasmic inclusions
  2. Lymphoid aggregates within the portal tracts and focal macrovesicular steatosis with apoptosis of hepatocytes
  3. Accumulation of finely granular DIFFUSELY homogenous pale eosinophilic cytoplasm
A
  1. Alcoholic steatosis with Mallory bodies: made up of tangled intermediate filaments
  2. Hep C
  3. Hep B, ground-glass hepatocytes* made up of accumulated HB surface antigen within infected cells
66
Q

Marked ballooning and vacuolar degeneration of PCT, multiple oxalate crystals in the lumen of PCT is likely from:

A

ATN from ethylene glycol poisoning

67
Q

_______ deficiency is an inherited enzyme abnormality that results in abnormally slow metabolic degradation of exogenous choline ester drugs like ______. Will present as fasciculations with prolonged muscular paralysis

A

Pseudocholinesterase

68
Q

Most common cause of primary/idiopathic pericarditis is:

A

Viral

69
Q

_______ is a wheel shaped virus that is most notable for infantile gastroenteritis. Major cause of acute diarrhea in the winter
Name the characteristics of this virus

A

Rotavirus- ds RNA with 11 segments icosahedral

70
Q

Dehydration and loose stools in a woman with long standing DM type 1 is likely due to

A

Motility disorder

71
Q

Cholinergic/AchE poisoning is treated with ______ and _______

A

Atropine (competitive inhibitor)

Pralidoxime (regenerates AchE if given early)

72
Q

Antigenic ______ is due to reassortment of viral genome segments

Antigenic ______ is minor changes based on random mutation

A

Shift- human flu A reassort with swine flu B. Pandemics

Drift- mutations in NA or HA. Epidemics

73
Q

Adaptive response at the cellular level of starting a statin is:

A

Increased transcription of HMGcoA reductase

74
Q

Spleen is protected by WHAT RIBS

A

9th-11th ribs

*kidneys are below the 11th- 12th rib

75
Q

Nondisjunction resulting in klinfelter’s syndrome most likely occurred in what stage of spermatogenesis

A

Primary spermatocytes- this form exists after it crosses the blood testis barrier and enters meiosis I.
Meiosis II is secondary spermatocyte
Spermatic are all haploid

76
Q

When the body has enough calcium and you add it to the serum, the pathway will shunt to production of what type of vitamin D?

A

24,25 dihydroxycholecaciferol (inactive metabolite pathway also done by the kidney)

77
Q

What tendons in the hand flex the distal phalanx

A

Flexor digitorum profundus tendon

*superficialis flexes the middle phalanx at the proximal interphalangeal joints

78
Q

Wipe down the workbench with alcohol- what type of virus will be successfully inactivated by this?

A

Enveloped virion- messes up the lipid bilayer

79
Q

Patient comes in with signs of anemia/blood loss from the GI system on labs and occult tests but endoscopy and colonoscopy are negative is likely due to: ______ which is most often on the right side of the colon

A

Angiodysplasia- tortuous dilation of vessels that causes hematochezia

80
Q

Blanching lesions on skin and mucous membranes, recurrent epistaxis and skin discolorations, GI bleeds or hematuria will also likely have
______ (structural abnormality) and this syndrome is called:

A

Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

Will likely also have AVMs

81
Q

Anterior vaginal wall prolapse is indicative of

A

Cystocele- prolapse bladder

82
Q

Scleroderma patients are likely to develop what lung disease

A

Pulmonary HTN or interstitial fibrosis

83
Q

6yo boy is having difficulty with motor coordination, shuffling gait, shows impaired upward gaze and pupillary response to light and an enlarged lateral and third ventricles. Where is the mass most likely located?
What does this mass produce?

A

Pineal gland
Compression of tectum causes vertical gaze palsy and obstructive hydrocephalus from cerebral aqueduct compression

Pinealoma produces beta-HCG which can cause puberty in males

84
Q

What labs do you need to check when put a patient on propylthiouracil?

A

CBC- causes Agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia

85
Q

Necator americanus and ancylostoma parasite infects via _______
These two hook worms may result in a ___________, resulting in fatigue and irritability

A

Larvae enter the body by penetrating exposed skin (especially feet) then travel through the blood stream to lungs and trachea and get swallowed into GI

Microcytic anemia