Uworld Qbank Flashcards

1
Q

mid-systolic click followed by a short late-systolic murmur

disappears with squatting

A

Mitral Valve Prolapse
(MVP)

Squatting increases venous return (preload) and raises peripheral vascular resistance (augmented afterload)

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2
Q

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

A

abnormal collagen formation

over-flexible joints
over-elastic skin
fragile tissues

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3
Q

Start and Stop codons

A

start -
AUG

stop -
UAA, UAG, UGA

5’ –> 3’ translation

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4
Q

Langerhans cells

A

dendritic cells in the skin
APCs
derived from myeloid cell line
racquet shaped intracytoplasmic granules - Birbeck granules

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5
Q

Delayed Type Hypersensitivity (IV)

A

contact dermatitis, granulomatous inflammation, TB skin test, Candida extract skin test

mediated by Th1 lymphocytes, release interferon-g to recruit and stimulate macrophages

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6
Q

Filtration fraction

A

FF = GFR / RPF

fraction of RPF filtered across the glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s space, usually 20%

GFR ~ inulin or creatinine clearance
RPF ~ PAH clearance

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7
Q

Reaction formation

A

replacement of an unpleasant or unacceptable thought or desire with an emphasis on its opposite

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8
Q

irregularly irregular tachyarrhythmia

in a conscious pt

A

Most likely atrial fibrillation

EKG shows absent P waves and irregularly spaced ventricular contractions (variable R-R)

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9
Q

Cisplatin

A

Platinum based chemotherapeutic regimen

Pts should receive aggressive hydration and amifostine (scavenges free radicals) to prevent nephrotoxicity

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10
Q

Flattening of the deltoid muscle after a shoulder injury

A

anterior shoulder dislocation

most commonly results from forceful external rotation and abduction at the shoulder joint

often associated with ancillary nerve injury –> deltoid paralysis, loss of sensation over the lateral arm

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11
Q

Anterior cruciate ligament

A

can be damaged by forceful anterior motion of the tibia with respect to the femur
(anterior drawer test)

athletes are at risk for:
tibial (medial) collateral ligament, meninsci and ACL damage

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12
Q

FSH secretion inhibition (male)

A

Inhibin B produced by sertoli cells (mass significantly reduced in pts with 1 testicle)

LH concentration is controlled primarily by testosterone feedback

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13
Q

varicose veins

A

dilated, tortuous veins resulting from impairment of the venous valves and reflux of venous blood
–> stasis/congestion, edema and increased incidence of superficial venous thrombosis

Venous stasis ulcers are common, often occur over medial malleolus
(thromboembolism is rare)

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14
Q

Seborrheic keratosis

A

benign epidermal tumor

tan/brown, round, flat, greasy, coin-like lesion with stuck on appearance

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15
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

pathogenic fungus with a polysaccharide capsule

appears red on mucicarmine stain and as clear unstained zone in india ink

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16
Q

Activating mutation of

phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase

A

increased production and degradation of purines –> hyperuricemia

Gout!

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17
Q

Acute gouty arthritis tx

A

NSAIDs are first line
inhibit COX and exert broad anti-inflammatory effect: inhibit neutrophils

when NSAIDs are contraindicated, use Colchicine
inhibits neutrophil chemotaxis and phagocytosis by preventing microtubule formation

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18
Q

Delerium

A

reversible, acute-onset confusional state characterized by a fluctuating level of consciousness with deficits in attention, memory, and executive function

vs.
dementia: gradual onset, irreversible, no fluctuations in consciousness

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19
Q

Splenic artery

A

branch of the celiac trunk, the primary blood supply of the foregut

however, the spleen is not a gut derivative
it forms from the mesodermal dorsal mesentery

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20
Q

COPD

A

associated with smoking

may consist of both emphysema (progressive exertion dyspnea) and chronic bronchitis (frequent respiratory infections)

decreased FEV1/FVC ratio
emphysema increases TLC and RV

contrast with:
restrictive lung diseases that can increase FEV1/FVC and reduce lung volumes

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21
Q

Acyclovir

A

tx for herpesviridae family

provide hydration to avoid crystalline nephropathy

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22
Q

Neurophysins function

A

Vasopressin and oxytocin are synthesized within neurons found in the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei and are released into the circulation from axon terminals in the posterior pituitary

Neurophysins are involved in the posttranslational processing and stabilization of oxytocin and vasopressin within neurosecretory vesicles during transport to the posterior pituitary

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23
Q

continuous murmur

best heard in the left infraclavicular region with maximal intensity at S2

A

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

often asymptomatic, usually detected incidentally

occurs most commonly in pts born prematurely and those with cyanotic congenital heart disease

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24
Q

Reassortment

A

exchange of entire genome segments
(more dramatic than point mutations responsible for genetic drift)

Viruses with segmented genomes = orthomyxovieus, rotavirus

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25
Q

ANOVA

analysis of variance

A

compares the difference between the means of 2+ groups

t-test compares the diff btwn means of 2 groups

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26
Q

febrile maculopapular rash that begins on the face and spreads to the trunk and extremities

A

Rubeola (measles) or Rubella (German measles)

Postauricular lymphadenopathy –> rubella (togavirus)

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27
Q

Warfarin - drug interactions

A

Fifampin, phenobarbital and phenytoin are universal enhancers of the cytochrome P450 pathway –> decreased efficacy of warfarin

Cimetidine, amiodarone, TMP-SMX inhibit warfarin metabolism

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28
Q

unilateral vesicular rash localized on a single dermatome in an elderly pt

A

Herpes zoster

post-herpetic neuralgia is the most common neurological complication of varicella zoster virus infection

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29
Q

Primidone

A

narrow spectrum anticonvulsant + first line agent for benign essential tremor

active metabolites include phenobarbital (which can be monitored in blood) and phenylethylmalonamide

Sedation = potential side effect during drug initiation/toxicity

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30
Q

Glucocorticoids

A

catabolic, causing muscle weakness, skin thinning, impaired wound-healing, osteoporosis, and immunosuppression

Increase liver protein synthesis, specifically the enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis and glycogenesis
+ Peripheral antagonism of the effects of insulin
–> hyperglycemia

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31
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

increase the frequency of opening of the CNS GABAa receptor-chloride channels and have anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant effects as well as sedative-hypnotic effects

compare to:
Barbituates - increase the duration of opening of the GABAa receptor-chloride channel, longer half-lifes, hangover effect decreases their use for insomnia

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32
Q

B12 deficiency tx

A

parenteral B21 administration

Poor absorption secondary to gastric atrophy, intrinsic factor deficiency, or terminal ileal disease is the most common cause of deficiency, with dietary vitamin B12 deficiency far less common

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33
Q

Statins

A

metabolized by cytochrome P450 (except pravastatin)

coadministration with drugs that inhibit its metabolism (ex. erythromycin) –> increased incidence of statin induced myopathy and rhabdomyolysis
acute renal failure is a possible sequelea of rhabdo

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34
Q

Hereditary angioedema

A

low C1 esterase inhibitor activity leads to increases in bradykinin activity

ACE inhibitors should not be used in these patients (ACE converts bradykinin to inactive metabolites).

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35
Q

Viral invasion - binding

A

Essential to viral invasion of cells and the viral tropism for specific tissues is the initial attachment of the virion envelope or capsid surface proteins to the complementary host cell surface receptors. Many viruses bind to normal host cell plasma membrane receptors in order to enter host cells.

Known host cell receptor – virion/virion protein binding specificities include: CD4 and HIV gp120; CD21 and EBV gp350; and erythrocyte P antigen and parvovirus B19

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36
Q

Left sided heart disease

Pulmonary effect?

A

Left-sided heart disease can cause pulmonary hypertension by increasing pulmonary venous pressure and congestion. This leads to a passive increase in pulmonary arterial pressure, which is made worse by reactive vasoconstriction and structural remodeling of the pulmonary vasculature secondary to impaired nitric oxide availability and increased endothelin expression.

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37
Q

Minimal Alveolar Concentration

A

MAC

measure of the potency of an inhaled anesthetic (inversely proportional)

concentration of the anesthetic in the alveoli that renders 50% of the pts unresponsive to painful stimuli (ED50)

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38
Q

Transverse spinal cord section

A

more proximal levels have increasing amount of white matter (around the butterfly) and more ovoid sections; lower cervical and lumbosacral regions have large ventral horns; thoracic and early lumbar sections (T1-L2) contain lateral grey matter horns (sympathetic preganglionic neurons)

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39
Q

Iron deficiency

A

decreased serum ferritin, increased serum transferrin, and increased total iron binding capacity

Anemia in a woman of childbearing age is most commonly caused by iron deficiency secondary to menstrual blood loss

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40
Q

PTH action on bone

A

increased bone resorption

PTH acts on osteoclasts by an indirect method, it is the osteoblasts that have PTH receptors.
PTH causes osteoblasts to increase the production of RANK-ligant and monocyte colony stimulating factor (M-CSF)
these two factors stimulate osteoclastic presursors to differentiate into bone-resorbing, mature osteoclasts.

PTH increases serum calcium level and decreases serum phosphate level (lost in urine)

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41
Q

MAP-kinase signal transduction pathway

A

includes Ras protein, a G-protein that exists in inactive (GDP containing) and active (GTP containing) forms

Mutated Ras –> tumors

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42
Q

MEN2B

A

multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B

medullary thyroid cancer
pheochromocytomas
mucosal neuromas
marphanoid habitus

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43
Q

Decreased outward K+ current during the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential

A

–>
results in QT prolongation

The major cardiac pathophysiological consequences of QT prolongation is an increased risk of episodic polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, including torsades de pointes.

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44
Q

Bilateral acoustic neuromas

A

associated with neurofibromatosis type 2, an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation of the NF-2 gene on chromosome 22

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45
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

X-linked recessive myopathy
results from deletion of dystrophin gene

Dystrophin is a protein that allows interaction between extracellular connective tissue and the intracellular contraction apparatus

manifests in boys 2-5 years old with proximal muscle weakness and enlargement of the distal muscles

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46
Q

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis - prognostic factors

A

Age

95% of affected children, but only 60% of affected adults, recover completely

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47
Q

Gastrinoma

A

upper GI ulcerations (jejunal ulcers are specific), abdominal pain and diarrhea

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48
Q

Chi-square test

A

The chi-square test for independence is used to test the association between 2 categorical variables.

In the case of an exposure status and a binomial outcome, patients are divided into 2 groups based on exposure, and the number of pts that experience each outcome is recorded in a 2x2 table

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49
Q

a-adrenergic blockers

side effect

A

a1-mediated vasoconstriction prevents cerebral hypoperfusion upon standing. a-adrenergic blockers disrupt this mechanism and cause orthostatic hypotension

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50
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome

A

occurs when tumors with a high cell turnover are treated with chemo

The lysis of tumor cells causes intracellular ions, such as potassium and phosphorus, and uric acid (metabolite of tumor nucleic acid) to be released into serum

Uric acid is soluble at physiologic pH, but it can precipitate in the normally acidic environment of distal tubules and collecting ducts

prevention: urine alkalinization and hydration

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51
Q

Graft-versus-host disease

A

mediated by T-lymphocytes of the donor tissue that are sensitized against MHC antigens of recipient. Skin, liver and intestine are commonly involved

develops within 1 week of transplant

in severe cases - skin desquamation

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52
Q

Displacement

A

one of the less mature defense mechanisms

redirect emotions from the person/object causing them to a more acceptable, but still inappropriate, person/object

ex. angry at wife, punch wall

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53
Q

Filtration Fraction

A

fraction of plasma flowing through the glomeruli that is filtered across the glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s space

FF=GFR/RPF

renal plasma flow can be determined from renal blood flow by multiplying the renal blood flow by (1-hematocrit)

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54
Q

Left atrium - anatomy

A

The left atrium forms the majority of the posterior surface of the heart and resides adjacent to the esophagus

Enlargement of the left atrium can compress the esophagus and cause dysphagia

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55
Q

Descending thoracic aorta - anatomy

A

lies posterior to the esophagus and left atrium

clearly visualized by transesophageal echocardiography
allowing for the detection of abnormalities such as dissection or aneurysm

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56
Q

Superficial inguinal lymph nodes

A

All the skin from the umbilicus down, including the anus (up to the dentate/pectinate line) but excluding the posterior calf, drains to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes

(testes drain to abdominal aortic lymph nodes)

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57
Q

Gestational Diabetes

tx

A

Insulin is the medication of choice for the tx of gestational diabetes in pts for whom diet and light exercise have failed to control blood glucose levels

Oral hypoglycemic medications are avoided b/c risk of fetal hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia

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58
Q

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

A

PCWP
measures the left atrial end diastolic pressure (LAEDP)

Normal: LAEDP ~ LV end-diastolic pressure (LVEDP)

Mitral stenosis elevates the LAEDP and PCWP relative to the LVEDP

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59
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

mononuclear, parenchymal infiltration with well-developed germinal centers on histology

Most common cause of hypothyroidism (in iodine sufficient areas)

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60
Q

Acetyl-CoA

A

allosteric activator of gluconeogenesis that acts by increasing the activity of pyruvate carboxylase

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61
Q

Ruptured cerebral aneurysm w/ extensive intracranial hemorrhage, young adult

A

Patients with adult-type coarctation of the aorta commonly die of hypertension-associated complications, including left ventricular failure, ruptured dissecting aortic aneurysm, and intracranial hemorrhage.

These pts are at increased risk for ruptured intracranial aneurysms because of the increased incidence of congenital berry aneurysms of the circle of willis as well as aortic arch hypertension

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62
Q

Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase

PNMT

A

conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine

occurs in adrenal medulla

PNMT transcription is unregulated by cortisol (drainage of adrenal cortex goes through medulla, so there’s a high concentration –> catecholamine content 80% epic

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63
Q

Bioavailability

A

Oral administration subjects a drug to a large amount of first-pass metabolism (metabolized by liver and doesn’t reach systemic circulation), whereas IV, sublingual, and rectal administration bypasses some or all of this process and allows more drug to reach the systemic circulation

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64
Q

Enterobius vermicularis tx

A

Enterobiasis occurs most frequently in school-age children and presents with perianal pruritus. Diagnosis is made by the scotch tape test.

Albendazole is the first-line treatment, with pyrantel permeate as an alternative agent preferred in pregnant patients

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65
Q

Ethics - informal treatment to friends

A

Informal treatment to friends is ethically problematic, should be limited to emergency situations or when no other physical is available

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66
Q

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Antibody-mediated (type II) hypersensitivity

caused by pre-existing into-ABO antibodies that bind antigens on transfused donor erythrocytes
–> complement activation: erythrocyte lysis, vasodilation, symptoms of shock

common findings: fever, hypotension, chest and back pain and hemoglobinuria

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67
Q

Hypovolemia: effects on kidney

A

Dehydration –> decrease in RPF and GFR

compensatory activation of the renin-angiotensin mechanism in response to hypotension –> constriction of the efferent arteriole to maintain GFR as best as possible.
Therefore, FF increases

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68
Q

Human papilloma virus (HPV)

A

HPV types 16, 18 and 31 are strongly associated with anal and cervical squamous cell carcinoma. HIV infection increases the prevalence of HPV infection and the risk of anal carcinoma; this risk is further augmented in men who have sex with men

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69
Q

VIPoma

A

non-beta cell pancreatic islet cell tumors that hypersecrete VIP
–> ‘pancreatic cholera’, ‘WDHA syndrome’ (watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria)

VIP increases intestinal chloride loss in the stool, which causes excess losses of the accompanying water, sodium and potassium as well

VIP also inhibits gastric acid secretion

Tx: Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of VIP

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70
Q

central venous catheter - infection prevention measures

A

proper hand washing, full barrier precautions during insertion of a central line, chlorhexidine for skin disinfection, avoidance of the femoral insertion site, removal of catheter when no longer needed

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71
Q

MRSA - colonization site

A

Nasal

In the general population at any given time, 25-30% of individuals have nasal colonization with Staphylococcus aureus. The anterior nares are the most common site of colonization for both methicillin-sensitive and methicillin-resistant staph aureus

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72
Q

Shiga-like toxins

A

aka Vero cytotoxins

produced by EHEC (enterohemorrhagic E. coli), nearly identical to the Shiga toxin produced by Shigella dysenteriae

Inhibit the 60s ribosomal subunit in human cells, thereby blocking protein synthesis by preventing binding of tRNA

[this differs from diphtheria toxin and exotoxin A of pseudomonas, which act on EF-2 not the 60S ribosomal subunit

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73
Q

HSV-1

A

Children aged 1-3 years who develop gingivostomatitis characterized by ulcerative lesions with intranuclear inclusions are likely experiencing primary infection with herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1).

HSV-1 and other herpesviruses are enveloped and possess double-stranded DNA genomes

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74
Q

Isoniazid

A

antimyobacterial agent that specifically inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids

Mycelia acids are essential components of the unique mycobacterial peptidoglycan cell wall. Without mycolic acids, the mycobacteria lose their acid-fastness and become unable to synthesize new cell walls or multiply

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75
Q

Atropine poisoning

A

“Blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, red as a beet, hot as a hare, dry as a bone, the bowel and bladder lose their tone, and the heart runs alone”

Atropine is a reversible cholinergic antagonist that acts selectively on muscarinic receptors. Its effects can be reversed by cholinesterase inhibitors (physostigmine)

Note: Jimson Weed (Datura stramonium) poisoning, also called ‘Gardener’s mydriasis’ is similar to atropine poisoning

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76
Q

Benztropine

A

centrally acting anti-cholinergic used to treat idiopathic and drug-induced Parkinson’s

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77
Q

ACE inhibitors

ex. ramipril

A

block the effect of ACE, decreasing angiotensin II and aldosterone levels

By decreasing angiotensin II levels, ACE inhibitors directly interrupt negative feedback loops, thus increasing renin and angiotensin I levels.

Without effective ACE, bradykinin metabolism decreases and bradykinin levels will increase

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78
Q

Nyastatin

A

Polyene antifungal and the drug of choice for oropharyngeal candidiasis in pts without advanced immunodeficiency

Acts by binding ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, causing the formation of pores and leakage of fungal cell contents

Not absorbed from the GI tract and administered as an oral ‘swish and swallow’ agent

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79
Q

Barr body

A

X-inactivation occurs in genetically normal females and results in conversion of the inactivated X chromosome into compact heterochromatin (Barr body)

Heterochromatin is condensed chromatin composed of heavily methylated DNA in tight association with deacetylated histones. It has a low level of transcriptional activity

In contrast, euchromatin is loosely arranged and exhibits a high level of transcriptional activity

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80
Q

Somatostatinoma

A

Rare pancreatic islet tumor

Somatostatin is secreted from pancreatic ‘delta cells’ and decreases the secretion of secretion, cholecystokinin, glucagon, insulin and gastrin

Gallbladder stones form because of poor gallbladder contractility, which is secondary to inhibition of cholecystokinin release

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81
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

presents with brief episodes of sudden and severe ‘electric shock-like’ or ‘stabbing’ pain in the distribution of CN V (particularly V2 and V3)

Carbamazapine is the drug of choice
Inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing by reducing the ability of Na channels to recover from inactivation
Can cause aplastic anemia
P450 inducer

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82
Q

Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm

A

Associated with HTN
Located in basal ganglia, cerebellum, thalamus, pons
Size

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83
Q

Saccular (berry) aneurysm

A

Associated with ADPKD, Ehlers-Dalos syndrome, HTN
Located in circle of willis
size 2-25mm

Rupture results in subarachnoid hemorrhage
sx include sudden severe headache, focal neuro defecits uncommon

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84
Q

Atherosclerosis pathogenesis

A

Initiated by repetitive endothelial injury, which leads to a chronic inflammatory state in the underlying intima of large elastic arteries as well as large and medium-size muscular arteries

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85
Q

Peroxisomal disease

A

rare inborn errors of metabolism where peroxisomes are either absent or nonfunctional

very long chain fatty acids with branched points at odd-numbered C can not undergo mitochondrial beta-oxidation; these fatty acids are metabolized by a special form of beta oxidation or by alpha oxidation within peroxisomes

These diseases commonly lead to neurologic defects from improper CNS myelination

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86
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

catecholamine-secreting tumor that presents with episodic hypertension, tachycardia, headaches, diaphoresis and tremors. Detection of elevated levels of catecholamines and metanephrines (catecholamine breakdown products) in the urine or plasma confirms diagnosis

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87
Q

Malignant mesothelioma

A

rare neoplasm that arises from the pleura or peritoneum

associated with ASBESTOS exposure (shipbuilding)

Hemorrhagic pleural effusions and pleural thickening are characteristic

EM = gold standard for diagnosis: tumor cells with numerous, long, slender microvilli and abundant tonofilaments

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88
Q

Rickets

A

Unmineralized osteoid matrix and widened osteoid seams

bowed legs, rachitic rosary, Harrison’s sulci, craniotabes, and growth retardation

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89
Q

Atrial fibrillation

A

occurs due to irregular, chaotic electrical activity within the atria

presents with absent P waves, irregularly irregular R-R intervals and narrow QRS complexes

AV node refractory pd regulates the number of atrial impulses that reach the ventricle and determines the ventricular contraction rate in conditions where the atria undergo rapid depolarization

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90
Q

Lacunar infarcts

A

small ischemic infarcts (

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91
Q

Rate of glycogen degradation in skeletal muscle increases after contraction compared to resting state - enzyme activation by ___

A

Ca++

Glycogen degradation is coupled with skeletal muscle contraction due to calcium-mediated myophosphorylase activation. Increased Ca++ in the cytosol allosterically activates phosphorylase kinase, which then phosphorylates (activates) muscle phosphorylase

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92
Q

Colonic diverticula

Pulsion - mechanism
False - structure

A

usually develop due to increased intraluminal pressure, composed of mucosa and submucosa

sigmoid colon most commonly

asymptomatic or manifest with painless rectal bleeding or acute diverticulitis

risk factor: chronic constipation

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93
Q

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

A

Precursor B-ALL: TdT+, CD10+, CD19+

Precursor T-ALL: TdT, CD1a, CD2/3/4…

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94
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

suppresses bacterial protein synthesis by binding the ribosomal 50S subunit and inhibiting the peptide transferase enzyme

can lead to dose-dependent (reversible) and dose independent (irreversible) aplastic anemia (bone marrow failure due to hematopoietic stem cell deficiency CD34+)

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95
Q

Vitamin E deficiency

A

can occur in individuals suffering from fat malabsorption or abetalipoproteinemia

increases susceptibility of the neuronal and erythrocyte membranes to oxidative stress

manifests as neuromuscular disease and hemolytic anemia

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96
Q

Eosinophils:

role in host defense during parasitic infection

A

destroy the parasite via antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity with enzymes from their cytoplasmic granules

Eosiniphils also regulate type 1 hypersensitivity reactions

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97
Q

COPD

A

COPD encompasses a spectrum of disease between chronic bronchitis and emphysema

Emphysema: destruction of interalveolar walls and decreased lung elastic recoil –> increased residual volume, functional residual capacity and total lung capacity

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98
Q

Arginase

A

enzyme of the urea cycle that produces urea and ornithine from arginine

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99
Q

Urethral injury

A

Pelvic fracture - Posterior urethra damage

Straddle injury - Anterior urethra damage

symptoms: Inability to void with full bladder sensation, high-riding boggy prostate, and blood at the urethral meatus

Foley catheter is contraindicated

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100
Q

Highly active antiretroviral therapy for HIV
HAART

side effect

A

Body fat redistribution

subcutaneous lipoatrophy involving the face/extremities is associated with nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (stavudine, zidovudine)

central fat accumulation in the trunk and viscera can occur with any HAART regimen

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101
Q

Endometriosis

A

presence of endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus

asymptomatic or severe dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia and infertility

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102
Q

Embolic phenomena

A

Simultaneous development of stroke, intestinal or foot ischemia and renal infarction

These emboli may arise from left atrial clots, left ventricular clots, valvular vegetations, or aortic atherosclerotic plaques

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103
Q

Boltulism

A

3 main types:
food borne, wound, infant

In food-borne botulism, botulinum neurotoxin in food (produced by the organism Clostridium botulinum) prevents release of acetylcholine from nerve terminals at the neuromuscular junction, thereby preventing muscular contraction

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104
Q

Granulosa cell tumors

A

sex-cord stromal tumors that secrete estrogen

Histology: Call-Exner bodies

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105
Q

Polyethylene glycol

A

osmotic laxative

Diarrhea associated with lactase deficiency is also osmotic

Magnesium hydroxide is another osmotic laxative often used (less evidence though)

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106
Q

TCA-associated cardiac abnormalities

A

Tx = Sodium bicarbonate

TCAs (tricyclic anti-depressants) can have quinidine-like effect on the cardiac conduction system, potentially causing QRS and QT prolongation and cardiac dysrhythmias (inhibit fast Na channels)

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107
Q

Anti-centromere antibodies

A
Found in 40% of pts with: 
CREST syndrome (limited scleroderma) manifests with Calcinoshs, Raynaud's phenomenon, Esophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly and Telangiectasias

Anti-DNA topoisomerase 1 (Scl-70) ab are specific for systemic sclerosis

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108
Q

C. diphtheriae - culture

A

cultured on cysteine-tellurite agar, resultant colonies are black in color
The bacterium produces intracellular polyphosphate granules, called metachromatic granules, that can be detected on microscopy after methylene blue staining

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109
Q

Polymyositis

A

symmetrical proximal muscle weakness

muscle biopsy: inflammation, necrosis, regeneration of muscle fibers

preceding damage to myocytes with subsequent over-expression of MHC class I proteins on the sarcolemma leads to infiltration with CD8+ T lymphocytes and myocyte damage

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110
Q

Vascular reaction to endothelial and intimal injury

A

intimal hyperplasia and fibrosis, predominantly mediated by reactive smooth muscle cells that migrate from the media to the intima

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111
Q

Airway pressure of 0

A

The central airway pressure-volume curve is the functional residual capacity of the lungs, it identifies the resting state where the airway pressure equals 0

At the FRC, the intrapleural pressure is negative with a value of -5 cm H2O (chest wall tendency to expand opposes lungs tendency to collapse)

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112
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes (group A Strep)

A

B hemolytic, bacitracin-susceptible, pyrrolidonyl arylamidase-positive

Glomerulonephritis is associated with prior strep pharyngeal or skin infection

Acute rheumatic fever is associated with prior streptococcal pharyngitis (but not skin infection)

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113
Q

Mitral Regurg

A

Apical holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla

Left ventricular afterload is the major determinant of the forward-to-regurgitant flow ratio in patients with mitral regurgitation

Decreasing afterload will increase forward flow while reducing regurgitant flow

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114
Q

Congenital rubella syndrome

A

The congenital rubella syndrome is predominantly characterized by neonatal defects of the head (microcephaly, mental retardation), eyes (cataracts), ears (deafness) and heart/CV system (PDA)

Vaccine for children, non-pregnant females of childbearing age with live, attenuated rubella virus vaccine

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115
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

A

causes both upper and lower motor neuron lesions

Loss of neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord (LMN lesion) causes muscle weakness and atrophy. Demyelination of the lateral corticospinal tract (UMN lesion) leads to spasticity and hyperreflexia

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116
Q

Effect of increase in circulating volume on pressure-volume loop

A

increase preload and cause a rightward widening of the PV loop

(the PV loop represents the relationship btwn pressure and volume in the left ventricle during systole and diastole)

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117
Q

Septic arthritis

A

High synovial fluid white blood cell count and absent crystals on microscopic examination suggest bacterial joint infection

Septic arthritis requires immediate antibiotic treatment to prevent joint destruction, osteomyelitis and sepsis

Give ceftriaxone

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118
Q

QRS complex

A

corresponds to ventricular depolarization (phase 0 on AP graph)

Ventricular myocyte depolarization is mediated by inward sodium movement and can be modulated by class 1 antiarrhythmics

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119
Q

Ureteral constriction

GFR and FF __

A

acutely decreases GFR and glomerular FF

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120
Q

Gastric acid secretion (phases)

A

The cephalic and gastric phases stimulate gastric acid secretion, while intestinal influences tend to reduce gastric acid secretion

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121
Q

Drug-induced lupus erythematosus (DILE)

A

Procainamide and hydrazine have the highest risk

lupus-like symptoms and positive ANA and anti-histone antibodies (anti-dsDNA ab rarely seen)

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122
Q

Graves’ ophthalmopathy tx

A

High-dose glucocorticosteroids such as prednisone

decrease the severity of inflammation and decrease extra ocular volume

conventional antithyroid drugs do not improve ophthalmopathy

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123
Q

Celecoxib

A

Selective COX2 inhibitor (preferentially expressed at sites of inflammation)

potent anti-inflammatory effects without the side effect of bleeding and GI ulceration associated with non-selective COX inhibitors

Selective COX 2 inhibitors do not impair platelet function because platelets predominantly express COX 1 (physiological role in tissues)

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124
Q

Janeway lesions

A

small, erythematous, possibly hemorrhagic merciless that may appear on the soles of the feet and palms of the hands in a pt with bacterial endocarditis

(blowing holosystolic murmur over apex + dyspnea + fatigue –> mitral regurgitation
fever + acuity –> bacterial endocarditis)

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125
Q

Sarcoidosis

A

hilar adenopathy, pulmonary disease, constitutional symptoms

Histology: non-caveating granulomas (distinguish it from TB)

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126
Q

Trigeminal nerve - origin

A

arises at the level of the middle cerebellar peduncle at the lateral aspect of the mid-pons

Infarcts involving the anterior portion of the medial pons can produce dysarthria and contralateral ataxic hemiparesis

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127
Q

Monospot test

A

positive in most cases of EBV associated mono (serum heterophile antibodies that agglutinate with erythrocytes from unrelated species)

In immunocompetent pts with a heterophile antibody-negative mononucleosis-like syndrome, the most likely diagnosis is cytomegalovirus infection

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128
Q

Vertical diplopia

A

most noticeable when the affected eye looks down toward the nose

usually caused by Trochlear nerve (CN IV) palsy

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129
Q

Meningioma

A

slow growing, well-circumscribed benign tumor

Psammoma bodies (core of dense calcification with surrounding collagen-fiber bundles) are characteristic

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130
Q

Aplastic anemia - diagnosis

A

pancytopenia, bone marrow replaced by fat cells and fibrous stroma, absence to splenomegaly

to distinguish between aplastic anemia and myeloproliferative diseases that also cause pancytopenia, a bone marrow biopsy is required

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131
Q

Galactosemia

A

Galacticol accumulates in the lens of pts, causing osmotic damage –> cataract formation

Galacticol is formed from excess circulating galactose in galactosemia by aldose reductase

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132
Q

Body dysmorphic disorder

A

preoccupation with a perceived defect in appearance and repetitive behaviors in response to the preoccupation. Can present with absent insight/delusional beliefs and result in significant psychosocial dysfunction

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133
Q

Delusional disorder

A

one or more delusions in the absence of other psychotic symptoms. Behavior is not obviously bizarre and functioning is not significantly impaired apart from the direct impact of the delusions

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134
Q

Respiratory component that clears particles lodged in the bronchial tree

A

proximal transport of mucus by ciliated epithelial cells (mucoclliary clearance)

distal to the terminal bronchioles - macrophages

Mucus-secreting cells are present to the level of the larger bronchioles, after which club cells become the prominent secretory cell type

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135
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease

A

X-linked disorder resulting from deficiency of NADPH oxidase, the enzyme responsible for formation of reactive oxygen species in phagosomes. Neutrophils affected by this disorder are unable to kill catalase-producing organisms, resulting in recurrent bacterial and fungal infections that frequently involve the lungs, skin and lymph nodes

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136
Q

Tamoxifen and raloxifene

A

“selective estrogen receptor modulators” (SERMs)

tissue-selective estrogen agonist/antagonist properties

Used in the tx of osteoporosis and breast cancer

associated with an increased incidence of endometrial cancer and thromboembolitic disease

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137
Q

Brown pigment stones

A

typically arise secondary to infection of the biliary tract, which results in the release of B-glucuronidase by injured hepatocytes and bacteria.

The presence of this enzyme contributes to the hydrolysis of bilirubin glucuronides and increases the amount of unconjugated bilirubin in bile

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138
Q

Informed consent

A

should be obtained by the physician performing the procedure

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139
Q

Actinic keratoses (AKs)

A

small (

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140
Q

Right upper quadrant bleeding

A

hepatic artery, portal vein and common bile duct run through the hepatoduodenal ligament (portal triad)

Occlusion of the portal triad (pringle maneuver) is a surgical technique used to distinguish the source of right upper quadrant bleeding. If bleeding persists, the inferior vena cava or hepatic veins are likely to be injured

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141
Q

Kidney - position

A

The left kidney lies immediately deep to the tip of the 12th rib on the left

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142
Q

Glucose filtration

A

glucose is normally filtered at the glomerulus and completely reabsorbed by the proximal tubule

Inhibition of Na-coupled, carrier-mediated transport of glucose by the proximal tubule would cause the glucose clearance to approach the value of the GFR (typically estimated with inulin)

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143
Q

Anterior surface of the heart

A

Right ventricle

A penetrating injury at the left sternal border in the 4th intercostal space would puncture the anterior surface of the heart

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144
Q

Low Vd (3-5L)

A

Characteristics of a drug such as high molecular weight, high plasma protein binding, high charge and hydrophilicity tend to trap the drug in the plasma compartment resulting in a low Vd (3-5 L)

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145
Q

Pulmonary circulation

A

part of a continuous circuit with the systemic circulation

rate of blood flow through the pulmonary circulation must equal the rate of blood flow in the systemic circulation at all times

arterial pressures and oxygen contents of the pulmonary and systemic arterial systems are considerably different both at rest and during exercise

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146
Q

Atypical / malignant phenylketonuria (PKU)

A

Deficient dihydrobiopterin reductase (BH2 –> BH4)

Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4) is a cofactor used in the synthesis of tyrosine, DOPA, serotonin and nitric oxide. Initially, tyrosine is converted to DOPA by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxyls, with BH4 used as a cofactor. Next, DOPA is decarboxylated to dopamine by the enzyme DOPA decarboxylase

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147
Q

Acute v Chronic Mitral Regurgitation

A

Pts with acute mitral regurg have near-normal left atrial compliance. Therefore, they tend to develop marked pulmonary hypertension and pulmonary edema

Pts with chronic mitral regurg acquire an adaptive increase in LA volume and compliance. Thus, they are less prone to pulmonary hypertension/edema but are more prone to atrial fibrillation and mural thromboembolism

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148
Q

Elastin - plasticity and ability to recoil upon release of tension

A

attributable to a unique form of desmosine crosslinking between four different lysine residues on four different elastin chains. This crosslinking is accomplished by the action of extracellular lysyl hydroxylase

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149
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

causes transmural inflammation of any area of the GI tract. The involvement of all layers of the intestinal wall explain the most common complications of chorine’s disease: strictures and fistula formation

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150
Q

Red blood cell fragments, burr cells and helmet cells

A

associated with either microangiopathic hemolytic anemia or mechanical red cell destruction

In pts with prosthetic valves, RBCs are exposed to excessive shear and turbulence in the circulation, causing damage from mechanical trauma

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151
Q

Urge incontinence

A

detrusor overactivity –> sudden, overwhelming or frequent need to empty bladder

Patients with MS most commonly develop urge incontinence due to loss of central nervous system inhibition of detrusor contraction of the bladder

As the disease progresses, the bladder can become atonic and dilated, leading to overflow incontinence

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152
Q

Spleen

A

The spleen acts both a blood filter capable of removing circulating pathogens and as a major site of opsonizing antibody synthesis.

Asplenic pts are prone to infections caused by encapsulated organisms such as Strep pneumo, H influenzae, and N meningitidis

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153
Q

Anemia with neurologic abnormalities

A

vit B12 deficiency

Neurological damage associated with B12 deficiency includes subacute, combined degeneration of the posterior and lateral spinal columns

Increased serum level of methylmalonic acid is diagnostic of vit B12 deficiency

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154
Q

hyperlipidemia tx options and toxicities

A

Statins: used for high LDL, toxicity includes hepatitis and myopathy

Niacin: used for low HDL, toxicity includes cutaneous vasodilation, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia / gout, hepatitis

Fibric acid derivatives (gemfibrozil, fenofibrate): used for high TG, toxicity includes gallstones, myopathy

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155
Q

osteomyelitis in a sickle cell pt

A

Pts with sickle cell disease (SCD) have functional asplenia as a result of multiple infarctions of the spleen, so they are more prone to infection by encapsulated organisms such as Salmonella

Salmonella has a capsule called the ‘Vi antigen’ that protects it from opsonization and phagocytosis

Staph aureus and Salmonella are common causes of osteomyelitis in pts with SCD

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156
Q

Raw shellfish

A

Hep A

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157
Q

Airway resistance

A

Regional airway resistance within the first 10 generations of bronchi contributes to most of the total airway resistance of the lower respiratory tract. Resistance is maximal in the 2-5th generation airways, including the segmental bronchi. In contrast, airways

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158
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

immune mediated acute demyelinatation of the peripheral neuropathy

affects young adults and is usually preceded by a febrile illness (Campylobacter jejuni)

sx: ascending muscle weakness and areflexia

segmental demyelination of peripheral nerves and an endoneural inflammatory infiltrate are seen on microscopy

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159
Q

Kartagener syndrome

A

primary ciliary dyskinesia

situs inversus, chronic sinusitis and bronchiectasis

mutations that impair the structure or function of cilia (dyenein arms)

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160
Q

Foscarnet

A

analog of pyrophosphate that can chelate calcium and promote nephrotoxic renal magnesium wasting. These toxicities can result in symptomatic hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia (seizures)

Foscarnet is used to treat CMV induced retinitis in an HIV-infected pt

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161
Q

Class III antiarrhythmics:

amiodarone, sotalol, ibutilide, dofetilide

A

slow K+ efflux from the ventricular myocyte, prolong repolarization and prolong the refractory period

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162
Q

a-adrenergic agonists

A

increase both systolic and diastolic blood pressure via stimulation of a1-adrenoreceptors in the vascular walls

elevated systemic blood pressure is associated with a reflex increase in vagal tone, resulting in decreased heart rate and slower atrioventricular node conduction velocity

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163
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis

A

severe infection of the subcutaneous tissue and deep fascia, surgical emergency

Can be due to Strep pyogenes (PYR-positive, beta-hemolytic, gram pos cocci that grows in chains)

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164
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

confusion, agitation, tremor, tachycardia, hypertension, clonus, hyperreflexia, hyperthermia, diaphoresis

Any drug that increases serotonin levels (SSRI and MAO inhibitor combinations, high doses of SSRIs) can precipitate this syndrome

Tryptophan is a precursor for serotonin

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165
Q

Cyproheptadine

A

antihistamine with anti-serotonergic properties that can be used in the treatment of the serotonin syndrome

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166
Q

epidural hematoma

A

due to tear of the middle meningeal artery

associated with temporal bone fracture

located between the bone and dura mater

‘lucid interval’ followed by loss of consciousness

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167
Q

McArdle’s syndrome (type 5 glycogen storage disease)

A

glycogenolysis provides immediate energy for strenuous muscle contraction

Myophosphorylase deficiency leads to a failure of glycogenolysis with clinical manifestations of decreased exercise tolerance, myoglobinuria, and muscle pain with physical activity

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168
Q

Viridans streptococci

A

produce dextrans from glucose that aid these organisms in colonizing host surfaces such as dental enamel and heart valves

—> subacute bacterial endocarditis (in pts with preexisting valvular defects after a dentist visit - use antibiotic prophylaxis!)

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169
Q

RANK receptor / RANK-ligand interaction

A

essential for the formation and differentiation of osteoclasts

over-expression of RANK receptors in hypoestrogenic states causes increased bone resorption due to increased osteoclastic activity
(low estrogen –> lower bone mass)

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170
Q

Cerebellar tumor in a child

A

most likely a pilocytic astrocytoma (cystic and solid components on imaging) or a medulloblastoma (always solid)

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171
Q

Psoriasis

A

sharply demarcated salmon-colored plaques covered with loosely adherent silvery scale

frequently associated with psoriatic arthritis - deforming joint disease

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172
Q

localized amyloidosis precursor proteins/peptides

A

Cardiac atria: atrial natriuretic peptide
thyroid gland: calcitonin
pancreatic islets: islet amyloid protein (amylin)
cerebrum: B-amyloid protein
pituitary: prolactin

Immune globulin light chains cause multi-organ amyloid deposition in primary systemic amyloidosis

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173
Q

Effect of the hypothalamus on prolactin secretion

A

inhibitory via dopamine production

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174
Q

Drug induced lupus

A

linked to drugs that are metabolized by N-acetylation in the liver

ex. hydralazine, procainamide

genetic predisposition determines acetylator phenotype - slow –> greater risk

discontinue only in pts with clinical symptoms of lupus

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175
Q

Deep brachial artery

A

courses along the posterior aspect of the humerus with the radial nerve

Midshaft fractures of the humerus risk injury to these structures

supracondylar fractures are associated with injury to the brachial artery

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176
Q

Selective IgA deficiency

A

predisposes to recurrent sinopulmonary and GI tract infections due to the absence of secretory IgA. It is also associated with anaphylactic response to transfused blood products due to an immune response against transfused blood products due to an immune response against transfused IgA which the pts body recognizes as foreign

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177
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

delayed seperation of the umbilical cord, recurrent cutaneous infections without pus formation and poor wound healing

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178
Q

insulin resistance - factors

A

FFA and serum triglycerides increase insulin resistance in overweight people

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179
Q

Age 3 developmental milestones

A

play in parallel (social), speak in simple sentences (language), copy a circle and use utensils (fine motor) and ride a tricycle (gross motor)

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180
Q

Overflow incontinence

A

often caused by diabetic autonomic neuropathy in type 1 diabetics, causes overflow incontinence due to inability to sense a full bladder and incomplete emptying

Postvoid residual (PVR) testing with ultrasound or catheterization can confirm inadequate bladder emptying

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181
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

In absence of normal intestinal microbial flora (ex. after antibiotics), C diff can overgrow and produce enterotoxin (toxin A) and cytotoxin (toxin B). Clinical disease resulting from C. difficile overgrowth can range from transient diarrhea to severe pseudomembranous colitis

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182
Q

Superior mesenteric artery syndrome

A

transverse portion of the duodenum is entrapped between the SMA and aorta, causing symptoms of partial intestinal obstruction

occurs when the aortomesenteric angle critically decreases, secondary to diminished mesenteric fat, pronounced lordosis, or surgical correction of scoliosis

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183
Q

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) replication

A

double stranded DNA –> +RNA template –> double-stranded DNA progeny

Although it is a DNA virus it replicates via reverse transcription

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184
Q

Insulin

A

anabolic hormone that acts via a tyrosine kinase second messenger system to stimulate the synthesis of glycogen, proteins, fatty acids and nucleic acids

Tyrosine kinase leads to the activation of protein phosphatase within cells, and protein phosphatase directly modulates the activity of enzymes in the metabolic pathways regulated by insulin

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185
Q

Helicase

A

unwinds DNA at the replication fork and separates dsDNA into ssDNA during the replication process

Initial separation of dsDNA at the origin of replication is facilitated by DnaA protein and strand binding proteins (SSB) proteins.

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186
Q

Osteoarthritis v Rheumatoid

A

usually involves the distal interphalangeal joints whereas rheumatoid arthritis typically affects the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints

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187
Q

Acute Pancreatitis

A

Acute Interstitial pancreatitis: pancreas is grossly edematous, focal areas of fat necrosis, calcium deposition and interstitial edema are seen on light microscopy

Necrotizing (hemorrhagic) pancreatitis: chalky-white areas of fat necrosis interspersed with hemorrhage are seen on macroscopic exam

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188
Q

Akathisia

A

extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medication characterized by inner restlessness and an inability to sit or stand in one position. Akathisis is frequently misdiagnosed because the restlessness is misinterpreted as worsening psychotic agitation. The pts antipsychotic dose is often increased rather than decreased, exacerbating the akathisia

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189
Q

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

A

common dysrhythmia that frequently occurs in pts with no other heart disease

cause: re-enterant circuit in the AV node
tx: adenosine, vagal maneuvers (carotid sinus massage and valsalva - increase baroreceptor firing –> increased parasympathetic influence –> prolonged AV node refractory pd)

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190
Q

Mu receptors

A

G protein-linked receptors whose actions are mediated through various secondary messenger pathways, including
increased potassium efflux

Binding of morphine to mu receptors results in G protein-coupled activation of potassium conductance. Potassium efflux increases and causes hyperpolarization of postsynaptic neurons effectively blocking pain transmission

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191
Q

Dimorphic fungi

A

grow as molds at 25-30C and as yeast at body temperatures (35-37C)

ex. Sporothrix, Coccidioides, Histoplasma, Blastomyces, Paracoccidioides

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192
Q

Kleinfelter syndrome - gonadal failure

A

reflected by increased FSH

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193
Q

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

A

useful in pts with atypical depression (mood reactivity, rejection sensitivity, increased sleep and appetite) and treatment-resistant depression

phenelzine, tranylcypromine

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194
Q

radial nerve

A

extension of the hand

damage –> wrist drop

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195
Q

Peptidoglycan cell wall of Gram + and Gram - organisms

A

gives them the ability to survive osmotic stress

disrupted by: penicillins, cephalosporins (ex. Cefuroxime), vanco

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196
Q

Pituitary adenoma

A

most common type is a prolactinoma, sometimes called a lactotroph adenoma

(somatotrophs, which secrete GH, are the most common cell type in the normal pituitary though)

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197
Q

Effect of age on renal clearance

A

Elderly pts typically have age-related renal insufficiency, even in the presence of normal creatinine levels

the dose of drugs that are renally cleared (like digoxin - a cardiac glycoside) should be reduced to prevent toxicity

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198
Q

Erythrocytosis

A

hematocrit >52% in men and >48% in women

RBC mass - distinguish absolute from relative

normal RBC mass indicates plasma volume contraction as the cause

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199
Q

Daptomycin

A

lipopeptide antibiotic with activity limited to Gram+ organisms, including MRSA

causes depolarization of bacterial cellular membrane and inhibition of DNA, RNA and protein synthesis

associated with increased CPK levels and an increased incidence of myopathy

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200
Q

phosphoinositol second messenger system

A

begins with the ligand-receptor binding and Gq-protein activation leading to activation of phospholipase C (PLC). PLC then hydrolyzes phosphatidyl inositol bisphosphate and forms diacylglycerol and inositol triphosphate (IP3). Finally, IP3 activates protein kinase C via an increase in intracellular Ca++

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201
Q

First generation antipsychotics -
Side effects of high v low potency

Low: Chlorpromazine, Thioridazine

High: Haloperidol, Fluphenazine

A

Low potency: non-neuro side effects (sedation, anticholinergic effects, orthostatic hypotension)

High potency: extrapypamidal symptoms (Potent =extraPyramidal)
ex. acute dystonia, akathisia

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202
Q

Angioedema

A

rare but serious adverse effect of ACE inhibitor therapy

most commonly involves swelling of the tongue, lips, or eyelids and pts can also experience laryngeal edema and difficulty breathing

most likely due to increased bradykinin levels as a result of ACE inhibition

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203
Q

Lyme disease stages

A

Early - flu-like symptoms, erythema chronicum migrans

Second stage - AV block, Bell’s palsy

Chronic - chronic asymmetric large joint arthritis and encephalopathy

Treat with doxycycline or penicillin-type antibiotic

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204
Q

Foscarnet

A

one of the few antiviral agents that bind and inhibit DNA polymerase in herpesvirus and reverse transcriptase in HIV that does not require intracellular activation by viral or cellular kinases

pyrophosphate analog

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205
Q

Sarcoidosis diagnosis

A

dry cough, pulmonary infiltrates, hilar adenopathy, non-caseating granulomas on lung biopsy, African American

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206
Q

Scleroderma - effect on lung

A

Pulmonary hypertension develops as a result of damage to the pulmonary arterioles

manifests with an accentuated pulmonary component of the second heart sound and signs of R heart failure

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207
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum

A

defect in DNA excisional repair

increased sensitivity to UV radiation
high incidence of all forms of cutaneous malignancy

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208
Q

Enterococcus

A

component of the normal colonic flora, capable of growing in hypertonic saline and bile
gamma-hemolytic, catalase-negative, pyrrolidonyl arylamidase-positive

genitourinary instrumentation or catheterization has been associated with enterococcal endocarditis

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209
Q

Vasectomy - what to expect post-surgery

A

After vasectomy, viable sperm remain in the portion of the vas deferens proximal to the ligation
Twenty percent of pts still have viable sperm in their ejaculate after 3 months and at least 20 ejaculations

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210
Q

acute rheumatic fever (ARF) - main cause of death

A

heart failure due to severe myocarditis
(rare)

mitral stenosis after ARF requires years or decades to develop

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211
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus

A

presents with progressive dysphagia

risk factors: chronic alcohol, cigarette smoke

light microscopy: squamous cells with various degrees of atypia, foci of keratinization (if well-differentiated)

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212
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

A

(most commonly)
relapsing-remitting central nervous system disorder characterized by recurrent episodes of demyelination and subsequent partial remyelination

relative preservation of axons in acute MS plaques, with axonal degeneration seen mostly in chronic plaques

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia and optic neuritis are common symptoms

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213
Q

Adenomyosis

A

uniformly enlarged uterus with normal appearing endometrial tissue within the myometrium

menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea are common presenting sx

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214
Q

Organophosphates

A

stimulate muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors (clinical presentation = DUMBELS.. liquid from everywhere)

Atropine reverses the muscarinic effects but does not prevent the development of nicotinic effects such as muscle paralysis

pralidoxime is the only medication that reverses both, by ‘restoring’ cholinesterase from its bond with these substances

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215
Q

Odds Ratio

A

measure of association between an exposure and an outcome

OR = ad/bc

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216
Q

Aortic coarctation

A

in a child/young adult:
presents with lower-extremity claudication (pain and cramping with exercise), blood pressure discrepancy between the upper and lower extremities, and delayed or diminished femoral pulses

Turner syndrome (45, XO) is associated with coarctation of the aorta in up to 10% of cases

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217
Q

Ethambutol

A

antimyobacterial agent that inhibits carbohydrate polymerization, thereby preventing peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis

unique adverse effect: optic neuritis, typically presents in conjunction with decreased visual acuity, central scotoma and color blindness

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218
Q

Schizophrenia

A

2 of the following:
delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized behavior, and negative symptoms

one must be delusions, hallucinations or disorganized speech

total illness duration must be at least 6 months (including prodromal and residual pds) with at least 1 month of active symptoms

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219
Q

Diffuse esophageal spasm (DES)

A

occurs due to uncoordinated contractions of the esophagus

inefficient in propelling food into the stomach
may cause symptoms of dysphagia and chest pain

Chest pain may mimic unstable angina (do a cardiac workup)

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220
Q

Para-aminohippuric acid (PAH)

A

primarily secreted into the nephron by the proximal tubule

some is freely filtered by the glomerulus

not reabsorbed by any portion

tubular fluid concentration of PAH is lowest in Bowman’s space

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221
Q

Testes - lymph drainage

A

para-aortic lymph nodes

however,
the scrotum drains to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes

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222
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea

A

nocturnal upper airway obstruction (manifested by snoring) and episodic nocturnal apnea

associated with systemic hypertension

prolonged, untreated obstructive sleep apnea can also cause pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure

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223
Q

Celiac disease

A

hypersensitivity to gluten, manifests with symptoms of malabsorption (diarrhea, steatorrhea, flatulence, and symptoms of nutrient deficiencies)

serologic testing for IgA anti-endomysial and anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies for diagnosis

small bowel biopsy: atrophy of villi, flattening of the mucosa and chronic inflammation of the lamina propria

tx: gluten free diet

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224
Q

Cause of the rapid plasma decay of thiopental (and other barbituates)

A

redistribution of the drug to other tissues throughout the body

not metabolism

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225
Q

Medications that cause seizures

A
bupropion (antidepressant)
clozapine (antipsychotic at high doses)
isoniazid (anti-TB drug, if given without pyridoxine)
ciprofloxacin (antibiotic)
imipenem (antibiotic)
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226
Q

Motion sickness prevention

A

antimuscarinic agents and antihistamines with antimuscarinic action

ex. meclizine, dimendyrinate, scopolamine

side effects: blurry vision, dry mouth, palpitations, urinary retention, constipation

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227
Q

2,3-BPG

A

increased concentrations in erythrocytes enable increased oxygen delivery in the peripheral tissues in the presence of lower blood oxygen concentration b/c 2,3-BPG decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen

Produced from 1,3-BPG by the enzyme bisphosphoglycerate mutase
consumes energy that would otherwise have been used by the erythrocyte to produce ATP

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228
Q

Huntington disease

A

inherited, autosomal dominant (CAG)n

progressive dementia and choreiform movements

loss of neurons in the caudate nucleus and putamen

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229
Q

hepatitis D

A

The HBsAg of hepatitis B virus must coat the HDAg of hepatitis D virus before it can infect hepatocytes and multiply

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230
Q

Pulsus paradoxus

A

decrease in systolic blood pressure of greater than 10 mmHg with inspiration

occurs in the setting of acute cardiac tamponade, constrictive pericarditis, severe obstructive lung disease, and restrictive cardiomyopathy

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231
Q

Acute asthma tx

A

Beta-adrenergic agonists (Gs coupled, activate adenylyl cyclase) control acute asthma exacerbations by causing bronchial smooth muscle relaxation via increased intracellular cAMP

Pulsus paradoxus can occur in the setting of severe obstructive pulmonary disease such as asthma

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232
Q

Niacin (vit B3)

A

Can be endogenously synthesized from tryptophan

essential component of NAD
(coenzyme in the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates and amino acids) and NADPH (HMP shunt)

deficiency –> pellagra: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia

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233
Q

Arteriovenous (AV) shunt

A

acquired forms can result from medical interventions or penetrating injuries

increase preload and decrease afterload by routing blood directly from the arterial system to the venous system, bypassing the arterioles

High output AV shunts can lead to high-output cardiac failure

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234
Q

Candida: risk factors

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics suppresses the normal bacterial flora of the vagina and facilitate Candida overgrowth

contraceptive use, systemic corticosteroid use, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression

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235
Q

Pseudomonas aerginosa tx

A

major pathogen in burn patients

Only a few specific penicillins (ticarcillin, piperacillin) and cephalosporins (ceftazidime, cefepime) have activity against it. Certain aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) and carbapenems (imipenem, meropenem) are also effective

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236
Q

Superior gluteal nerve injury

A

weakness/paralysis of gluteus medius, gluteus minimus and tensor fascieae latae muscles

Trendelenburg sign: pelvis tilts downward toward the contralateral side

Gluteus medius gate: pts lean toward ipsilateral side when walking to help stabilize the pelvis

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237
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A

block Na+/Cl- symporters in the distal convoluted tubules, causing enhanced Na, Cl and water excretion

not as efficacious as loop diuretics

can cause hypercalcemia

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238
Q

Protein A

A

virulence factor found in the peptidoglycan wall of Staphylococcus aureus that binds to the Fc portion of IgG, leading to impaired complement activation, opsonization and phagocytosis

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239
Q

Maternal antibodies

A

With maternal blood types A and B, erythroblastosis fetalis and hemolytic disease of the newborn do not occur, as the naturally occuring antibodies (anti-A and -B) are of the IgM type and cannot cross the placenta

In type O mothers, the antibodies are predominantly IgG and can cross the placenta to cause fetal hemolysis

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240
Q

Wilson disease- brain anatomy

A

cystic degeneration of the putamen as well as damage to other basal ganglia structures

The putamen is located medial to the insula and lateral to the globus pallidus on coronal sections

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241
Q

Signal pathways in the autonomic nervous system:

cAMP, IP3, ion channels

A

Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that open after binding acetylcholine. This results in immediate influx of Na+ and Ca++ into the cell and an outflux of K+ from the cell

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242
Q

Clopidogrel

A

antiplatelet agent that works by inhibiting the platelet surface ADP receptor

as efficacious as aspirin in the prevention of thromboembolic disease

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243
Q

PID

A

mucopurulent cervicitis with cervical motion tenderness is a frequent indicator of PID caused by N. gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia trachomatis

can potentially lead to ectopic pregnancy and infertility due to salpingitis leading to scarring of the fallopian tubes if not treated appropriately

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244
Q

protein structure

A

Primary: amino acids linked by covalent peptide bonds

Secondary: hydrogen bonds (ex. a-helix v B-sheet)

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245
Q

Wet age-related macular degeneration

A

characterized by retinal neovascularization due to increased vascular endothermal growth factor (VEGF) levels

Acute vision loss and metamorphosia (distorted lines)
fundoscopy showing a grayish-green subretinal membrane and/or subretinal hemorrhage

tx: smoking cessation and VGEF inhibitor (ranibizumab, bevacizumab)

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246
Q

Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

presentations range from neonatal death to mild episodic symptoms in adulthood

by preventing the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA, pyruvate is shunted to lactic acid resulting in lactic acidosis

Lysine and leucine are exclusively ketogenic and would not increase the blood lactate level in pts suffering from pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency

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247
Q

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

occurs due to rupture of saccular (berry) aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation.

Severe vasospasm 4-12 days after the initial insult is the major cause of morbidity and mortality in pts recovering from SAH

Nimodipine (selective calcium channel blocker) is often prescribed to prevent this vasospasm

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248
Q

Sarcomere: H band

A

region of the sarcomere containing only myosin thick filaments

part of the A band on either side of the M line where myosin thick filaments do not have any overlapping actin thin filaments

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249
Q

Organ susceptibility to infarct after occlusion of a feeding artery:

A

Greatest to least -
Central nervous system, myocardium, kidney, spleen, and liver

The presence of dual and/or collateral blood supply (as seen in the liver, which is supplied by the hepatic artery and portal vein) enables an organ to tolerate arterial occlusion better than those with end-arterial circulations

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250
Q

Shock + hyponatremia + hyperkalemia + hypoglycemia

A

adrenal crisis!

Meningococcal septicemia can cause adrenal hemorrhage leading to acute adrenal crisis

(Neisseria meningitidis septicemia + adrenal hemorrhage = Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome)

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251
Q

Differential cyanosis restricted to the lower body in a child

A

most suggestive of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) with late onset reversal of shunt flow (from L-to-R to R-to-L)

Whole body cyanosis results when there is shunt reversal in pts with septal defects or tetralogy of Fallot.

Coarctation of the aorta can limit lower-extremity exercise tolerance but does not cause cyanosis in children or adults

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252
Q

Phrenic nerve

A

arises from the C3-5 segments of the spinal cord and innervates the ipsilateral hemidiaphragm
Intrathoracic spread of a lung cancer may irritate the phrenic nerve, causing hiccups and diaphragmatic paralysis with dyspnea

brachial plexus involvement can cause pain in the distribution of the C8, T1 and T2 nerve roots

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253
Q

Early visceral manifestation of systemic sclerosis

A

esophageal hypomotility and incompetence of the lower esophageal sphincter due to atrophy and fibrous replacement of the esophageal muscles

esophageal dilation causes reflux, which increases the risk of Barrett esophagus and esophageal adenocarcinoma

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254
Q

CREST

A
Calcinosis
Raynaud
Esophageal dysmotility
Sclerodactyly
Telangiectasia
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255
Q

Major determinant of whether a coronary artery plaque will cause ischemic myocardial injury

A

rate at which it occludes the involved artery

A slowly developing occlusion would allow for formation of collaterals that could prevent myocardial necrosis

A thin fibrous cap, rich lipid core, and active inflammation in the atheroma would all decrease plaque stability and thus potentially promote rapid coronary occlusion via superimposed thrombosis if the plaque were to rupture

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256
Q

Atopic dermatitis (eczema)

A

common chronic inflammatory skin disorder of childhood

presents with pruritis and erythematous, weeping/crusted papules and plaques that occur in response to certain environmental antigens

associated with other atopic diseases: allergic rhinitis, asthma

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257
Q

Glomangioma (benign glomus tumor)

A

can produce a very tender, small (mm diameter) red-blue lesion under the nail bed

originates from the modified smooth muscle cells that control thermoregulatory functions of dermal glomus bodies

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258
Q

Migraine headaches

A

unilateral, pulsatile or throbbing quality, associated with photophobia, phonophobia and nausea

Triptans are serotonin 5-HT agonists used as abortive therapy during an acute migraine

Beta blockers, antidepressants (amitriptyline, venlafaxine) and anticonvulsants (valproate, topiramate) are commonly used for migraine prophylaxis

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259
Q

Psoriasis tx

A

Topical vitamin D analogs (calcipotriene, calcitriol, and tacalcitol) bind to the vitamin D receptor (a nuclear transcription factor) and inhibit keratinocyte proliferation and stimulate keratinocyte differentiation

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260
Q

Desmopressin analog DDAVP

A

used in patients with von Willebrand disease because it induces endothelial procoagulatory protein release (including vWF). (It has a minimal effect on the V1 vasopressin receptor). Desmopressin can also be used for the treatment of enuresis

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261
Q

Atypical lymphocytes observed in peripheral blood smears of patients with infectious mononucleosis

A

(large, eccentric nucleus, cell membrane conforming to borders of neighboring cells)

activated CD8+ cytotoxic T-lymphocytes. These activated T-lymphocytes function to destroy virally infected B-lymphocytes

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262
Q

Isoniazid monotherapy

A

patients who have a positive PPD and a negative chest x-ray (no clinical disease)

Active tuberculosis is never treated with drug monotherapy due to the fast emergence of mycobacterial antibiotic resistance from rapid, selective gene mutations

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263
Q

Gallstone ileus

A

rare type of mechanical bowel obstruction caused when a large gallstone erodes into the intestinal lumen. Pneumobilia (air in the biliary tract) is suggestive of the diagnosis

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264
Q

medial femoral artery

A

provides the majority of the blood supply to the femoral head and neck; injury to this vessel can cause avascular necrosis of the femoral head

A femoral neck fracture can damage the blood supply to the femoral head and neck. This is most common with displaced fractures.

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265
Q

Silicosis

A

disruption of macrophage phagolysosomes by internalized silica particles. Macrophage killing of intracellular mycobacteria may be impaired as a result, causing increased susceptibility of patients with silicosis to pulmonary TB

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266
Q

Naloxone

A

pure opioid receptor antagonist used for treating opioid intoxication or overdose. Although it binds to mu, kappa and delta opioid receptors, it has the greatest affinity for mu receptors, making it an ideal agent for treating opioid intoxication. Mu receptors: physical dependence, euphoria, respiratory and cardiac depression, reduced GI motility, sedation

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267
Q

ascending limb of the loop of Henle

A

impermeable to water regardless of serum vasopressin levels. Reabsorption of electrolytes by the Na+/K+/2Cl- cotransporter occurs in the thick ascending limb and contributes to formation of the corticomedullary concentration gradient

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268
Q

Folic acid deficiency anemia

A

commonly occurs in the setting of chronic alcoholism. It is a megaloblastic anemia that develops due to decreased synthesis of purines and thymidine. The peripheral blood smear reveals macrocytosis, ovalocytosis and neutrophils with hypersegmented nuclei.

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269
Q

V/Q ratio - apex v base of lung

A

Perfusion greatly increases from the apex of the lung to the base; ventilation increases slightly from the apex to the base. Therefore, the ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q) decreases in the lung from apex to base

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270
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

causes meningeocephalitis in HIV (+) pts. The latex agglutination test detects the polysaccharide capsule antigen of Cryptococcus and is used for diagnosis. India ink staining of the CSF shows round or oval budding yeast. Present in soil and pigeon droppings.

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271
Q

Splenic artery

A

originates from the celiac artery and gives off several branches to the stomach and pancreas (pancreatic, short gastric, and left gastroepiploic arteries) before finally reaching the spleen. Due to poor anastomoses, the gastric tissue supplied by the short gastric arteries is vulnerable to ischemic injury following splenic artery blockage.

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272
Q

Androgenic alopecia

A

most common cause of hair loss in both males and females, and demonstrates polygenic inheritance with variable penetrance. The pattern and severity of the baldness varies between males and females, and circulating androgen levels along with the degree of genetic predisposition are thought to play a prominent role in determining clinical manifestations

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273
Q

Fabry disease

A

inherited deficiency of alpha-galactosidase A that causes accumulation of the globoside ceramide trihexoside in tissues.

The earliest manifestations of Fabry disease are angiokeratomas (punctuate, dark red, non-blanching macules and papules that classically occur between the umbilicus and the knees), hypohidrosis and acroparesthesia (episodic, often debilitating, burning neuropathic pain in the extremities).

Without enzyme replacement, patients typically develop progressive renal failure.

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274
Q

RVH

A

Under normal circumstances, the right ventricular thickness is between 3-4mm during diastole, significantly thinner than the left ventricular wall thickness (1 cm).

RVH is a feature of cor pulmonale, a condition caused by pulmonary hypertension resulting from disease of the lung parenchyma or the pulmonary vasculature.

In young females between 20-40, primary pulmonary hypertension may be responsible for cor pulmonale.

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275
Q

Listeria tx

A

Ampicillin is the treatment of choice for Listeria (facultative intracellular organism). It is not sensitive to cephalosporins. Listeria causes disease in neonates and immunocompromised adults (deficiencies of cell-mediated immunity).

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276
Q

Cancer risk associated with ulcers

A

Duodenal ulcers are not associated with an increased risk of carcinoma in the same location. In contrast, esophageal, gastric, and colorectal cancers are frequently identified as ulcerative lesions on endoscopy. Ulcerative colitis is associated with increased risk of colorectal cancer

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277
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

A bicuspid valve is a common cause of aortic stenosis in the US.

The classic auscultatory finding in patients with aortic stenosis is a harsh, crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur heard best in the right second intercostal space with radiation to the carotids.

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278
Q

Mitral valve prolapse

A

mid-systolic click and late systolic murmur

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279
Q

A febrile upper respiratory illness in a child followed by sudden appearance of red, flushed cheeks approximately 2-5 days later

A

characteristic of erythema infectiosum (‘fifth disease’, parvovirus B19 infection – small, nonenveloped DNA virus). This virus is highly tropic for erythroid precursor cells and replicates predominantly in the bone marrow.

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280
Q

most common malignant hepatic lesion

A

metastasis from another primary site (breast, lung, colon), not hepatocellular carcinoma. The liver is the second most common site of metastatic spread after lymph nodes

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281
Q

Pulmonary actinomycosis

A

develops most commonly following aspiration and can be confused with lung abscess, malignancy, or TB.

Microscopic findings include filamentous, branching, gram-positive bacteria and sulfur granules.

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282
Q

Myocardial infarction: cardiac function curve

A

causes a sharp decrease in cardiac output due to loss of function of a zone of myocardium. On a cardiac function curve, myocardial infarction would decrease both the slope and the maximal height of the line

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283
Q

Sedation - drug side effect

A

First generation Hi-histamine receptor antagonists, including diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and chlorpheniramine, can cause significant sedation, especially when used with other medications that cause CNS depression (such as benzodiasepines)

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284
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

responsible for tetanus, a toxim-mediated disease that causes uncontrolled muscle spasms and respiratory failure. Toxin travels within the motor neuron by retrograde transport into the spinal cord where it causes inhibition of inhibitory interneurons and unregulated firing of primary motor neurons

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285
Q

secretion of prolactin

A

controlled by the inhibitory effect of hypothalamic dopamine. Hyperprolactinemia causes hypogonadism by inhibiting the release of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus. Rispiridone and other antipsychotics cause hyperprolactinemia by their antidopaminergic action

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286
Q

Vit D deficiency

A

The diarrhea caused by celiac disease can lead to vitamin D deficiency through malabsorption. Patients with vitamin D deficiency have decreased serum phosphorus, increased serum parathyroid hormone (secondary hyperparathyroidism), and low serum calcium. They may also have symptoms such as bone pain and muscle weakness.

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287
Q

Neonates born to mothers with poorly controlled diabetes during pregnancy …

A

are exposed to high maternal glucose levels in utero, resulting in excessive fetal insulin production and islet hyperplasia. Fetal hyperinsulinemia persists for several days following birth and predisposes the infant to transient hypoglycemia

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288
Q

Methadone

A

drug of choice for treating heroine addiction and abuse. It is a very potent, long acting opiate with good oral bioavailability. Its long half-life allows for prolonged effects to suppress withdrawal symptoms in heroin dependent patients

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289
Q

Isoniazid

A

chemically related to pyridoxine, also known as Vitamin B6. It inhibits mycolic acid synthesis in mycobacterial cells and is specific to the mycobacteria. Myocolic acid is a long branched chain saturated fatty acid used in the mycobacterial cell wall and in the formation of virulence factors

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290
Q

Calcification

A

Dystrophic calcification occurs in damaged or necrotic tissue in the setting of normal calcium levels; metastatic calcification occurs in normal tissues in the setting of hypercalcemia

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291
Q

Anorexia nervosa

A

eating disorder characterized by low body weight, intense fear of becoming fat, and distorted body image. Medical complications, including bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, amenorrhea, and cardiac atrophy are a result of malnutrition and starvation

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292
Q

Nephritic / Nephrotic syndrome

A

Nephritic syndrome is manifested by hypertension, mild proteinuria (3.5g/day), lipiduria, absence of RBC casts in the urine, and usually normal renal function.

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293
Q

Opsoclonus-myoclonus

A

paraneoplastic syndrome associated with neuroblastoma. This tumor, associated with an increased number of copies of the N-myc gene, is the most common extracranial neoplasm in children.

Clinical presentation: retroperitoneal mass, hypertension, anorexia, weight loss, increased excretion of catecholamines in urine

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294
Q

Atrial myxoma

A

Constitutional symptoms, a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur heard best at the apex, positional cardiovascular symptoms (dyspnea, syncope), embolic symptoms, and a large pedunctulated mass in the left atrium

Histologically, these tumors are composed of scattered cells within a mucopolysaccharide stroma, abnormal blood vessels and hemorrhaging

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295
Q

Pure red blood cell aplasia

A

rare form of bone marrow failure characterized by severe hypoplasia of marrow erythroid elements in the setting of normal granulopoiesis and thrombopoiesis. Pure red blood cell aplasia (often involves the inhibition of erythropoietic precursors and progenitors by IgG autoantibodies or cytotoxic T lymphocytes) is associated with thymoma, lymphocytic leukemias, and parvovirus B19 infection

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296
Q

Fibrinolytics

A

may cause reperfusion arrhythmia on arterial re-opening. These arrhythmias are usually benign. Thrombolytic or bibrinolytic drugs increase clot lysis by increasing the formation of plasmin from plasminogen. Fibrinolytic drugs can be nonfibrin specific (like streptokinase) or fibrin-specific, such as tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), and reteplase, tenecteplase (these act only on fibrin attached to recently focmed clot, no systemic activation)

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297
Q

Viridans streptococci

A

normal inhabitants of the oral cavity and are a cause of transient bacteremia after dental procedures in healthy and diseased individuals. In order to cause subacute bacterial endocarditis they require preexisting valve damage leading to the local deposition of fibrin required for them to adhere

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298
Q

Acanthosis nigricans

A

thickening and hyperpigmentation of skin in the flexural areas. The lesions have a classic ‘velvety’ texture. Acanthosis nigricans is commonly associated with insulin-resistant states (diabetes mellitus, acromegaly, obesity) and gastrointestinal malignancies.

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299
Q

Acid maltase (alpha glucosidase) deficiency

A

leads to glycogen accumulation within lysosomal vesicles.

Clinical manifestations of this disease include hepatomegaly, cardiomegaly, macroglossia, hypotonia, and mental retardation in its most severe form

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300
Q

Secondary lactase deficiency

A

can occur after viral gastroenteritis or other diseases that damage the intestinal epithelium. This disease causes abdominal distention, flatulence, and diarrhea after lactose ingestion (lactose = galactosyl beta-1,4-glucose)

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301
Q

Propionyl CoA

A

derived from amino acids (Val, Ile, Met, Thr), odd numbered fatty acids and cholesterol side chains. Congenital deficiency of propionyl CoA carboxylase, the enzyme responsible for the conversion of propionyl CoA to methylmalonyl CoA, leads to the development of propionic acidemia

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302
Q

Autoimmune platelet destruction (immune thrombocytopenic purpura)

A

common cause of thrombocytopenia and should be suspected in patients with ecchymoses, petechiae, and mucosal bleeding without signs or symptoms of TTP/HUS, pancytopenia, marrow failure, or splenomegaly

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303
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

Commonly used drugs such as the analgesic tramadol, the antiemetic ondansetron, and the antibiotic linezolid can induce serotonin syndrome (neuromuscular excitation, autonomic stimulation, altered mental status) when used concomitantly with other serotonergic drugs (many antidepressants)

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304
Q

Acute cardiac transplant rejection

A

occurs weeks following transplantation and is primarily a cell-mediated process.

On histopathologic analysis of an endomyocardial biopsy, a dense mononuclear lymphocytic infiltrate with cardiac myocyte damage will be visualized.

Treatment with immunosuppressive drugs is aimed primarily at preventing this form of rejection.

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305
Q

Pituitary tumor

A

Anytime a pt has bitemporal hemianopsia, a pituitary tumor should be suspected. The most common functional pituitary tumor is a prolactinoma. Secreting prolactinomas inhibit the entire axis of GnRH-LH/FSH-sex hormones, causeing impotence in men and amenorrhea in women of reproductive age (hypogonadotropic amenorrhea)

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306
Q

Folate deficiency

A

inhibits the formation of deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP), which limits DNA synthesis and promotes megaloblastosis and erythroid precursor cell apoptosis.

Because thymidine supplementation can moderately increase dTMP levels, it can reduce erythroid precursor cell apoptosis

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307
Q

Bartonella henselae

A

causes cat-scratch disease, bacillary angiomatosis and culture-negative endocarditis. Cat-scratch disease is characterized by low fever, lymphadenopathy and self-limited course

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308
Q

Course of the ureters

A

The ureters cross over the common / external iliac vessels and under the gonadal vessels (and uterine vessels in females). They lie anterolateral to the internal iliac vessels and medial to the ovarian vessels within the true pelvis

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309
Q

Bone pain and an elevated level of alkaline phosphatase in an elderly patient

A

suggestive of Paget disease of bone (PDB); biopsy showing a mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is diagnostic. The initial abnormality in PDB is an increase in the number and activity of osteoclasts (excessive RANK signaling and NF-kB activation), followed by increased osteoblastic activity and bony overgrowth

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310
Q

Small cell carcinoma (oat cell)

A

strongly associated with smoking and usually is centrally located. This tumor arises from the primitive cells of the basal layer of the bronchial epithelium. Immunohistochemical stains are frequently positive for neuroendocrine markers, such as neuron specific enolase, chromogranin and synaptophysin

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311
Q

treatment of choice for diabetic ketoacidosis

A

intravenous hydration with normal saline and insulin. These therapies will result in decreases in the serum glucose, osmolality, and potassium, as well as increases in serum bicarbonate and sodium.

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312
Q

Hep B virus

A

associated with a serum-sickness like syndrome (malaise, fever, skin rash, pruritis, lymphadenopathy, joint pain) in the prodromal period. ALT > AST, both elevated

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313
Q

Beta-thalassemia

A

caused by mutations that result in defective transcription, processing, and translation of beta-globin mRNA. This leads to deficiency of the beta-globin chains required for normal hemoglobin synthesis. Patients who are heterozygous for these mutations are typically asymptomatic and have what is termed beta-thalassemia minor. Laboratory tests will show a mild hypochromic microcytic anemia with increased hemoglobin F, hemoglobin A2 and target cells

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314
Q

Essential fructosuria

A

benign disorder of fructose metabolism caused by fructokinase deficiency. In patients with essential fructosuria, some of the dietary fructose load is converted by hexokinase to fructose-6-phosphate, which can then enter glycolysis; this pathway is not significant in normal individuals

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315
Q

GLUT-4

A

expressed primarily in muscle cells and adipocytes and is the major glucose transporter that is responsive to insulin

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316
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

substitute for the action of alcohol on GABA receptors and are indicated for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal. Long acting benzodiazepines (chlordiasepoxide, diazepam) are first line medications. Short acting Benzodiazepines (lorazepam, oxazepam) are preferred in patients with advanced liver dysfunction

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317
Q

Nontypable strains of Haemophilus influenzae

A

strains of H. influenza that do not form an antiphagocytic capsule. They are part of the normal flora of the upper respiratory tract, but can cause otitis media, sinusitis and bronchitis. Immunity to nontypable strains, as well as capsular strains other than type b, is not conferred by vaccination with the Hib vaccine (just memory B-lymphocytes, humoral immunity to Hib)

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318
Q

amiodarone: side effects

A

Thyroid function tests should be monitored in patients receiving amiodarone therapy (class III anti-arrhythmic agent used to suppress life threatening cardiac conduction abnormalities). Amiodarone is associated with many side effects: thyroid dysfunction, corneal micro-deposits, blue-gray skin discoloration, drug-related hepatitis and pulmonary fibrosis

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319
Q

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome

A

occurs in infants and children due to the production of the exotoxin exfoliatin (EXfoliatin is an EXotoxin, not endotoxin) by Staphylococcus species. It causes widespread epidermal sloughing, especially with gentle pressure (Nikolsky’s sign)

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320
Q

Familial retinoblastoma

A

occurs as a result of mutations of each of the two Rb genes (‘two hits’). These patients have an increased risk of secondary tumors, especially osteosarcomas, later in life. Dephosphorylated Rb is active and does not allow the cell to proceed from G1 to the S stage of the cell cycle

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321
Q

Heart - anatomy

A

The left ventricle forms the apex of the heart and reaches as far as the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line. All other chambers of the heart lie medial to the left midclavicular line. The lungs overlap much of the anterior surface of the heart

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322
Q

elevated CK

A

Hypothyroidism is a common cause of elevated creatinine kinase (CK) due to hypothyroid myopathy (myocyte damage and leakage of muscle enzymes). It can be the first manifestation of hypothyroidism. Other causes of elevated CK include autoimmune diseases (polymyositis, dermatomyositis), muscular hystrophies, and medications such as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors

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323
Q

Antidepressant side effects

A

Antidepressants (such as Venlafaxine, a serotonin-norepi reuptake inhibitor) can induce mania in susceptible patients, especially those with unrecognized bipolar disorder. Patients treated with antidepressants should be monitored for mood elevation and symptoms suggestive of mania that require emergency treatment.

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324
Q

Zolpidem

A

short-acting hypnotic medication chemically unrelated to benzodiazepines (such as temazepam, estazolam, triazolam, flurazepam). It has the same mechanism of action as benzodiazepines, but a much lower risk of tolerance and dependence

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325
Q

Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine

A

contains bacterial capsular polysaccharide conjugated with diphtheria toxoid

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326
Q

Kallmann syndrome

A

an absence of GnRH secretory neurons in the hypothalamus due to defective migration from the olfactory placode. These patients have central hypogonadism and anosmia, and present with delayed puberty

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327
Q

Cocaine

A

acts as an indirect sympathomimetic by inhibiting the presynaptic reuptake of norepinephrine, dopamine, and serotonin. Intoxicated pts develop agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, and light-responsive mydriasis due to increased sympathetic activity. Cocaine is also a potent vasoconstrictor that can cause myocardial ischemia and atrophy of the nasal mucosa and septum

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328
Q

Clozapine

A

Unlike other traditional antipsychotics, which act on D2 receptors, clozapine acts on D4 receptors.

Effective in tx of treatment-resistant schizophrenia.

Due to the risk of life-threatening agranulocytosis with clozapine, the FDA requires periodic monitoring of the WBC count for the duration of treatment. The other important side effect of clozapine is seizures

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329
Q

An old infarct (months or years since onset of ischemia)

A

consists of a cystic cavity surrounded by a dense wall. The wall of this cyst is formed by astrocyte processes

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330
Q

Winging of the scapula

A

serratus anterior muscle serves to fix the scapula against the posterior chest wall and rotate the scapula to allow abduction of the arm over the head.

Paralysis of this muscle occurs with injury to the long thoracic nerve and results in winging of the scapula

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331
Q

Adrenal insufficiency

A

Depression of the entire hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis by glucocorticoid therapy is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency. Adrenal crisis can be precipitated in these patients under stressful situations (infections, surgery) if their glucocorticoid dose is not appropriately increased

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332
Q

Nitrate drugs (like nitroglycerin infusion)

A

mimic the action of endothelial derived relaxing factor (nitric oxide, NO). They are transformed to NO at the vascular smooth muscle cell membrane which leads to increased cGMP, decreased intracellular calcium and myosin dephosphorylation (→ pain relief and decreased BP)

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333
Q

Actinic keratosis

A

develops on chronically sun-exposed areas of the skin in predisposed individuals. The lesions consist of erythematous papules with a central scale and a rough ‘sandpaper-like’ texture. AKs are considered premalignant lesions and have the potential to progress to squamous cell carcinoma

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334
Q

Duchenne muscle dystrophy

A

manifests with proximal muscle weakness and atrophy. True hypertrophy of the distal muscle is noted early in the disease as distal muscles compensate for weak proximal ones. Later, muscle fibers of the distal extremities are replaced by fat and connective tissue (pseudohypertrophy)

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335
Q

Enterococci

A

produce aminoglycoside-modifying enzymes that transfer different chemical groups (acetyl, adenyl or phosphate) to the aminoglycoside molecule and therefore impair antibiotic binding to ribosomal subunits

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336
Q

Pericarditis

A

In contrast to angina, the chest pain of pericarditis is sharp and pleuritic, and may be exacerbated by swallowing or relieved by leaning forward.

Early-onset pericarditis develops in about 10-20% of patients between days 2 and 4 following a transmural myocardial infarction. It represents an inflammatory reaction to cardiac muscle necrosis that occurs in the adjacent visceral and parietal pericardium.

Late-onset post-MI pericarditis (Dressler’s syndrome) begins one week to a few months following the MI, and affects less than 4% of cases. Dressler’s syndrome is thought to be an autoimmune polyserositis

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337
Q

Theca and granulosa cell functions

A

LH stimulates the theca interna cells of the ovarian follicle to produce androgens.

Aromatase within the follicle’s granulosa cells subsequently converts these androgens to estradiol under FSH stimulation.

The theca externa cells serve as a connective tissue support structure for the follicle

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338
Q

Scarlet fever

A

characterized by fever, pharyngitis, sandpaper-like rash, circumoral pallor, and a strawberry tongue. It is caused by strains of Group A streptococcus that produce pyrogenic exotoxins. Scarlet fever can predispose to acute rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis

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339
Q

alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

should be suspected in all patients with premature onset (

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340
Q

Acute bacterial arthritis

A

Acute bacterial arthritis in sexually active young adults is commonly caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which are facultative intracellular organisms often seen within neutrophils

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341
Q

Holoprosencephaly

A

results from failure of forebrain cleavage into cerebral hemispheres.

It is an example of a congenital malformation, a primary abnormality in a development process.

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342
Q

Disruption v deformation v sequence

A

Amniotic band syndrome is an example of a disruption (secondary destruction of a previously well-formed tissue or organ)

Congenital hip dislocation, clubbed feet and flat facies (Potter syndrome) are examples of deformations (secondary to extrinsic compression)

Potter syndrome is also an example of a sequence (number of abnormalities from a single defect – oligohydramnios, low volume of amniotic fluid)

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343
Q

Screening test for primary hypothyroidism

A

Serum TSH level is the most sensitive

Although TSH is not elevated in patients with central hypothyroidism, this form of hypothyroidism is uncommon and usually occurs in pts with hypothalamic or pituitary dysfunction

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344
Q

Holosystolic murmur that increases with intensity on inspiration

A

most likely represents tricuspid regurgitation

tricuspid regurg is loudest near the left lower sternal border

(Mitral regurg and VSD do not typically increase with inspiration)

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345
Q

Negative predictive value

A

probability of not having a disease given a negative test result

varies based on prevalence (inversely proportional)

NPV = d/(c+d)

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346
Q

systems-based approach to addressing problems in the hospital

A

Root cause analysis is a quality improvement measure that identifies what, how and why a preventable adverse outcome occurred. It involves collecting data mainly through interviewing multiple individuals involved in the steps leading to the outcome

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347
Q

Hernias

A

Indirect inguinal hernias are located lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. They can continue into the scrotum and are felt by deep palpation of the external inguinal ring with the tip of the finger

Direct inguinal hernias are located medially to the inferior epigastric vessels. They do not protrude into the scrotum and are best felt with the pulp of the finger

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348
Q

Phrenic nerve

A

Irritation of the mediastinal or diaphragmatic parietal pleura will cause sharp pain, worse on inspiration, in the C3-C5 distribution. Pain sensation from these areas is carried by the phrenic nerve

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349
Q

Glioblastoma multiforme

A

most common primary brain tumor in adults

areas of necrosis and hemorrhage seen on gross exam

light micrsoscopy shows pseudopalisading tumor cells around areas of necrosis

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350
Q

Effect of stimulation of the vagus nerve branches that supply the lung

A

bronchoconstriction and increased bronchial mucus secretion (ACh acts on M3)

These effects increase airway resistance and the work of breathing

Anticholinergic agents such as tiotropium and ipatropium work to counteract these effects

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351
Q

Nondisjunction

A

failure of chromosome pairs to separate properly during cell division. This could be due to failure of homologous chromosomes to separate in meiosis I or failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis II or mitosis

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352
Q

Hypo- or hyperpigmented skin patches that become more visible after tanning

A

characteristic of pityriasis versicolor, a condition caused by Malassezia furfur. KOH preparation of skin scrapings reveals a ‘spaghetti and meatballs’ appearance on light microscopy

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353
Q

Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)

A

caused by a defect in a-keto acid dehydrogenase, leading to an inability to degrade branched chain amino acids beyond their deaminated a-keto acid state

classically results in dystonia and poor feeding as well as the ‘maple syrup scent’ of the pts urine within the first few days of life

tx: dietary restriction of branched-chain amino acids

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354
Q

Optic nerve, light reflex

A

The afferent limb of the light reflex pathway is the optic nerve

The efferent limb is the parasympathetic fibers of the oculomotor nerve

When an optic nerve is damaged, light in that eye will cause neither pupil to constrict (the nerve can’t sense the light). However, light in the contralateral eye will cause both pupils to constrict (because the motor pathways are intact)

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355
Q

Digitalis: mechanism of action

A

inhibition of the Na-K-ATPase in cardiac pacemaker cells leading to AV nodal blockade (increased diastolic filling time for greater contraction by the Frank-Starling mechanism) and increased contractility from increased intracellular calcium

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356
Q

most common cause of calcium kidney stone disease

A

idiopathic hypercalciuria

normal serum calcium levels with high levels of Ca++ excreted in the urine

other causes of calcium nephrolithiasis include hyperoxaluria, hyperuricosuria, low urinary volume, and hypocitraturia

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357
Q

Hemoglobin S (HbS) - sickling

A

aggregated in the deoxygenated state

HbS polymers form fibrous strands that reduce RBC membrane flexibility and promote sickling.

Sickling occurs under all conditions associated with anoxia including low pH and high 2,3-DPG.

These inflexible erythrocytes predispose to microvascular occlusion and microinfarction

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358
Q

Diphenoxylate

A

opiate anti-diarrheal structurally related to meperidine. It binds to mu opiate receptors in the GI tract and slows motility. Low therapeutic doses allow for potent anti-diarrheal effects without euphoric effects. Since higher doses can lead to euphoria and physical dependence, the drug is combined with atropine at therapeutic doses to discourage abuse

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359
Q

Octreotide

A

helpful for secretory diarrhea

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360
Q

Polycythemia vera (PV)

A

clonal myeloproliferative disease of pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells

increased RBC mass, increased plasma volume, low erythropoietin levels

majority of pts have a JAK2 V617F mutation, rendering te hematopoietic stem cells more sensitive to growth factors

secondary polycythemia is a misnomer (only red cells increase, not all). Should be called secondary erythrocytosis

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361
Q

Normal (adult) pressures in the cardiac chambers and pulmonary artery (mmHg)

A
RA: 0-8
RV: 4-25
PA: 9-25
LA: 2-12
LV: 9-130
Aorta: 70-130
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362
Q

impaired CFTR transmembrane protein

A

Respiratory and gastric glands: reduces luminal Cl- secretion and increases Na+ and net water absorption, resulting in dehydrated mucus and a more negative transepithelial potential difference

Sweat glandsL reduced luminal salt absorption, leading to the production of hypertonic sweat with high Cl- content

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363
Q

Hepatitis E

A

unenveloped, single-stranded RNA virus spread through the fecal-oral route

high mortality rate observed in infected pregnant women

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364
Q

Aspergillus fumigatus infection

A

this fungus produces thin, septate hyphae with acute V-shaped branching. It causes invasive aspergillosis, aspergillomas, and allergic pulmonary aspergillosis

Immunosuppressed pts are at risk

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365
Q

Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in pulmonary alveoli

A

indicates chronic elevation of pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressures, which is usually the result of left-sided heart failure

Golden cytoplasmic granules that turn dark blue with Pussian blue staining (Prussian blue stain detects intracellular iron)

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366
Q

Vibrio cholera and enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

A

cause a purely toxin-mediated watery diarrhea

toxins secreted by these organisms modify electrolyte handling by enterocytes but do not cause cell death, therefore no erythrocytes or leukocytes are typically noted on stool microscopy

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367
Q

Class 3 antiarrythmic agents (ex. dofetilide)

A

block potassium efflux from cardiac myocytes and prolong phase 3 of the myocyte action potential

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368
Q

Loss of conciousness from severe hypoglycemia tx

A

intramuscular glucagon in the nonmedical setting and intravenous dextrose in the medical setting

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369
Q

Second generation antihistamines

A

fexofenadine - minimal sedative and antimuscarinic effects

v 1st gen: hydroxyzine, promethazine, chlorpheniramine, diphenhydramine

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370
Q

lymphokines -

A

Sensitized Th2 cells secrete IL-4 and IL-13, which together promote B-lymphocyte class switching for IgE synthesis. They also secrete IL-5, which activates eosinophils and promotes IgA synthesis

An excess of these Th2-produced lymphokines may contribute to the pathogenesis of extrinsic allergic asthma

IL-1 is secreted by macrophages to stimulate helper T-cells
IL-3 from helper T-cells recruits bone marrow stem cells
y-interferon from helper T-cells functions mainly to activate macrophages
TGF-B is a growth factor involved in tissue regeneration and repair

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371
Q

Kidney stone formation

A

Renal calculi occur when there is an imbalance of factors that facilitate and prevent stone formation

increased concentration of calcium, phosphate, oxalate, and uric acid promotes salt crystallization, wheras increased citrate and high fluid intake help prevent calculi formation

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372
Q

Dobutamine

A

relatively selective B1-adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate, contractility, conduction velocity and myocardial oxygen consumption

used in the tx of acute heart failure associated with decreased myocardial contractility (cardiogenic shock)

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373
Q

Type II diabetes: defects of the KATP channel gene

A

ATP is the regulatory substance that stimulates KATP channel closure in insulin-producing pancreatic beta cells

(closure –> depolarization –> opening of voltage gated Ca++ channels –> insulin release)

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374
Q

D-Ala-D-Ala

A

amino acid sequence on peptidoglycan precursor molecules that is recognized by the enzyme transpeptidase

Penicillins are structural analogs of D-Ala-D-Ala that inhibit this enzyme by binding convalently to its active site. The result is failed synthesis of the bacterial peptidoglycan wall

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375
Q

Mifepristone

A

anti-progestin agent that can be used to terminate early pregnancy

The prosteglandin-E1 analogue (–> uterine contraction and cervical dilation), misoprostol, is available for clinical use in combination with the abortifactant, mifepristone

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376
Q

Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome

A

one of the most common congenital long-QT syndromes. This is an autosomal recessive condition which is accompanied by congenital neurosensory deafness. QT-interval prolongation predisposes to syncopal episodes and possible sudden cardiac death due to torsades de pointes

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377
Q

Verrucous endocarditis (Libman-Sacks endocarditis)

A

occurs in up to 25% of pts with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

can cause small cardiac valvular vegetations on either side of a valve, resulting in fibrotic valve thickening and deformity

may cause an acute coronary syndrome at a young age even with angiographically normal coronary arteries

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378
Q

Secretin

A

Pancreatic exocrine secretions are the major source of bicarbonate entering the duodenum

Secretin is the hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate-rich secretions from the exocrine pancreas. Secretin is produced by S enteroendocrine cells in the duodenal mucosa in response to stimulation by intraluminal acidity. Hydrochloric acid is the most potent stimulus for secretin release

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379
Q

Pancreatic islet amyloid deposition

A

characteristic of type 2 diabetes mellitus

A strong linkage with HLA class II gene makeup (DR3, DR4), pancreatic islet infiltratio with leukocytes (insulitis) and antibodies against islet antigens are frequently seen in type 1 diabetes

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380
Q

Males with classic, non-salt wasting 21-hydroxylase deficiency

A

present at age 2-4 years with early virilization, increased linear growth, elevated levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone and androgens

Females with classic 21-hydroxylase deficiency (with or without salt-wasting) present with ambiguous genitalia at birth

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381
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia tx

A

low doses of exogenous corticosteroids to suppress excessive ACTH secretion and reduce stimulation of the adrenal cortex

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382
Q

Erythropoietin

A

Renal cortical cells sense hypoxia and respond by synthesizing and releasing erythropoietin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of erythrocytes in the bone marrow

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383
Q

middle-aged Caucasian female with a long history of pruritis and fatigue who now develops pale stool and xanthelasma (suggestive of cholestasis)

A

Classic picture of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC)

chronic liver disease characterized by autoimmune destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts and cholestasis

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384
Q

Herpes zoster (shingles)

A

develops due to reactivation of varicella-zoster virus in the dorsal root ganglia (sensory neurons)

presents with painful vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution

Light microscopy: intranuclear inclusions in keratinocytes and multinucleated giant cells are seen

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385
Q

blood/gas partition coefficient

A

The onset of action of a gas anesthetic depends on its solubility in the blood (blood/gas partition coefficient).

Drugs with high blood/gas partition coefficients are more soluble in the blood, demonstrate slower equilibration with the brain and have longer onset times

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386
Q

mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA)

A

most common non-nuclear DNA found in eukaryotic cells

resembles prokaryotic DNA and is maternally derived

mutations involving mtDNA or nuclear DNA that codes for mitochondrial proteins can cause a variety of mitochondrial disorders, including Leigh syndrome and MELAS

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387
Q

oxidative reactions of the HMP

A

necessary for anabolic reactions that use NADPH as an electron donor (including cholesterol and fatty acid synthesis). In addition, NADPH produced via the HMP shunt is the only method of reducing glutathione (and thus repairing oxidative damage) available to red blood cells

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388
Q

carboxy terminal of the Fc portion of the heavy immunoglobulin chains

A

site that binds to the Fc receptors on neutrophils and macrophages. Antibody bound to antigen is able to signal for the phagocytosis of that antigen by a conformational change of the Fc region allowing binding to the Fc receptor on phagocytes. This leads to subsequent phagocytosis of the organism / antibody complex and subsequent destruction of the organism

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389
Q

Hep A

A

most commonly silent or subclinical (‘anicteric’) in young children but can also present as an acute, self-limited illness characterized by jaundice, malaise, fatigue, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, right upper quadrant pain, or an aversion to smoking (would have anti-hep A IgG positive, current infection would be anti-HAV IgM)

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390
Q

Silicosis

A

Of the pneumoconiosis that can cause exertional dyspnea and interstitial densities on chest x-ray, silicosis is the only one that produces eggshell calcifications of hilar nodes and birefringent particles surrounded by fibrous tissue on histologic exam.

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391
Q

pneumoconiosis

A

o Asbestosis is associated with calcified pleural plaques and ferruginous bodies.

o Berryliosis and hypersensitivity pneumonitis may produce noncaseating granulomas.

o Coal miner’s lung is associated with perilymphatic accumulations of coal dust-laden macrophages

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392
Q

Wide, fixed splitting of the second heart sound

A

characteristic auscultatory finding in patients with ASD. A hemodynamically significant ASD can produce chronic pulmonary hypertension as a result of left-to-right intracardiac shunting.

Eisenmenger syndrome is the late-onset reversal of a left-to-right shunt due to pulmonary vascular sclerosis resulting from chronic pulmonary hypertension. Closure of the ASD may be required to prevent irreversible pulmonary vascular sclerosis and a permanent Eisenmenger syndrome

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393
Q

thalamic syndrome

A

total sensory loss on the contralateral side of the body. Although there are no motor deficits, proprioception is often profoundly affected and may lead to difficulty ambulating and falls.

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394
Q

brain lesions

A

o Frontal cortex lesions – deficits of higher brain functioning, creativity, sexual interest, social behavior
o Internal capsule – motor deficit
o Pons – coma, bilateral paralysis, decerebrate rigidity, pinpoint pupils, death
o Caudate nucleus – transient hemiparesis, frontal lobe symptoms (inattentiveness, forgetfulness), agitation, psychosis, choreoathetosis, dyskinesias

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395
Q

Lacunar infarctions

A

result of small vessel lipohyalinosis and atherosclerosis involving the penetrating vessels supplying the deep brain structures. Uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes mellitus are risk factors for this condition

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396
Q

Type 1 slow twitch muscles

A

Postural skeletal muscles such as the soleus and paraspinal muscles contain predominantly Type 1 slow twitch, red muscle fibers that derive ATP primarily from oxidative (aerobic) metabolism (so high myoglobin (oxygen storage) and mitochondrial (aerobic respiration) concentrations). Low level sustained force.

Type II are specialized for rapid, forceful pulses of movement

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397
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune disease that results in a decrease in functional acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic terminal of the neuromuscular junction.

This results in decreased ability of acetylcholine to bind and open postsynaptic cation channels, thereby decreasing the end-plate potential and preventing the formation of muscular action potentials.

o Fluctuating weakness of certain voluntary muscles (particularly innervated by motor nuclei of brainstem)
o Progressive weakening of muscle groups over course of day / with exercise
o Decreased compound muscle action potential amplitude on EM with repeated excitation
o Rapid restoration of strength of affected muscle with rest
o Improvement in strength following administration of cholinesterase inhibitors
o Caused by autoantibodies against postcynaptic nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

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398
Q

myasthenia gravis tx

A

cholinesterase inhibitors, immunosuppressants, and possible thymectomy. Cholinesterase inhibitors may cause adverse effects related to muscarinic overstimulation, which can be ameliorated by use of an antimuscarinic agent such as scopolamine (doesn’t affect nicotinic receptors in skeletal muscle)

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399
Q

Vitamin supplements for breastfed newborns

A

The breast milk content of vitamins D and K is typically insufficient for the nutritional needs of the newborn. Vit K is given parenterally at birth to prevent hemorrhagic disease in the newborn. Exclusively breastfed infants may develop vit D deficiency due to lack of sun exposure

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400
Q

Cause of anaplastic crisis

A

In pts with sickle cell anemia and other chronic hemolytic disorders, the most common viral cause of an aplastic crisis is infection of erythroid progenitor cells with parvovirus B19, a non-enveloped, single-stranded DNA virus

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401
Q

mid-systolic click followed by a murmur during the remainder of systole

A

specific for mitral valve prolapse (MVP). MVP is most often caused by defects in mitral valve connective tissue proteins that predispose to myxomatous degeneration. This results in stretching and elongation of the valve leaflets and chordae tendineae by chronic hemodynamic stress

402
Q

collagen synthesis

A

Procollagen is synthesized within the ER as a central helical structure flanked by globular extensions. It is then transported through the golgi apparatus and released into the extracellular space, converted to tropocollagen by procollagen peptidases that remove the globular portions of the molecule. The resulting tropocollagen monomers self-assemble into collagen fibrils that are then covalently crosslinked by lysyl oxidase

403
Q

DKA

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs most commonly in patients with type 1 diabetes and presents with nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, volume depletion (hypotension, tachycardia) and ketones and glucose in the urine. Regular insulin administered as an intravenous infusion is preferred for acute treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis (peaks at 2-4 hours, lasts 5-8)

404
Q

Secretin secretion

A

Duodenal S-cells secrete secretin in response to increasing H+ concentrations. Secretin increases pancreatic bicarbonate secretion. The chloride content of pancreatic secretions decreases in proportion to bicarbonate concentration increases (they’re exchanged for one another at the apical surfaces of pancreatic ductal cells).

405
Q

maintenance dose

A

Clearance (CL) determines the dose rate required to maintain a steady state plasma concentration (CPss). Maintenance dose = CPss x CL / [biavailability fraction]. The bioavailability fraction is 1 if administered intravenously

406
Q

PCP

A

most likely to induce violent behavior. Violence and subsequent trauma are the most common causes of death with PCP intoxication. Other lethal side effects commonly associated with drug abuse include myocardial infarction and stroke with cocaine and respiratory depression with opioids.

407
Q

Cholestasis complication

A

Degestive disorders such as cholestasis (characterized by the deposition of bile pigment within the hepatic parenchyma and the presence of green-brown plugs in the dilated bile canaliculi) can cause malabsorption and nutritional deficiencies of the fat-soluble vitamins. This may result in osteomalacia, which is frequently associated with vitamin D deficiency

408
Q

Recurrent laryngel nerve

A

nerve travels in close approximation to the inferior thyroid artery and can be injured in surgical procedures of the anterior neck (thyroidectomy), resulting in laryngeal muscle paralysis, hoarseness and dyspnea

409
Q

Lamotrigine

A

can be used to treat partial and generalized seizures and works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are rare, life-threatening adverse effects characterized by flu-like symptoms followed by widespread mucocutaneous epidermal necrosis (also associated with carbamezapine, phenobarbital and phenytoin)

410
Q

haloxone exposure

A

Massive hepatic necrosis is a rare but severe complication of halothane exposure (inhalation anesthetic. It occurs due to direct liver injury by halothane metabolites and formation of autoantibodies against liver proteins. Light microscopy shows massive centrilobular hepatic necrosis.

411
Q

pulmonary anthrax (woolsorters disease)

A

caused by inhalation of spores most commonly while while working with goat hair or hides. Hemorrhagic mediastinitis evident as widened mediastinum on chest x-ray is an important clue. On microscopy it forms long chains that are described as being ‘serpentine’ or ‘medusa head’ on appearance. Bacillus anthracis produces an antiphagocytic capsule that is required for pathogenicity. The capsule is unique in that it contains D-glutamate instead of polysaccharide

412
Q

Hep B replication

A

occurs within a newly synthesized capsid through the action of reverse transcriptase on an RNA template. The mature capsid contains partially double-stranded circular DNA and reverse transcriptase

413
Q

Muscarinic antagonists / botulinum neurotoxin / organophosphates

A

Anticholinergic poisoning, botulism, and organophosphate toxicity (acetylcholinesterase inhibitors) affect nicotinic and muscarinic acetylcholine receptors differently, and thus produce different symptomatologies.

Muscarinic antagonists inhibit the postsynaptic action of acetylcholine, botulinum neurotoxin blocks the presynaptic exocytosis of acetylcholine vesicles, and organophosphates prevent the degradation of acetylcholine within the synaptic cleft

414
Q

Crigler-Najjar

A

autosomal recessive disorder of bilirubin metabolism caused by a genetic lack of the UGT enzyme needed to catalyze bile glucuronidation. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia develops in these infants, causing kernicterus and often death

415
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A

effectively increase calcium reabsorption from the nephron (inhibit Na/Cl cotransporter on the apical side of the distal convoluted tubule, activating basolateral Na/Ca++ antiporter, decreased Ca++ intracellular concentration enhances luminal Ca++ reabsorption) (hypovolemia induzed by thiazides → increased Na and H20 reabsorption in proximal tubule, passive increase in Ca++ paracellular reabsorption). They are indicated in pts with nephrolithiasis secondary to hypercalciuris and contraindicated in hypercalcemia

416
Q

1st generation antihistamines

A

The first generation antihistamines, chlorpheniramine and diphenhydramine, have antimuscarinic (blurry vision), anti-alpha adrenergic (pupillary dilation, dry mouth, constipation) and serotonergic properties that are responsible for the majority of side effects

417
Q

Role of sorbitol in diabetes

A

During hyperglycemia, excess plasma glucose is converted to sorbitol by aldose reductase. Sorbitol accumulates within some cells and attracts water into these tissues leading to osmotic cellular injury. This mechanism is implicated in the pathophysiology of cataracts and peripheral neuropathy in diabetes

418
Q

ACEi replacement

A

The best treatment of chronic dry cough caused by an ACE inhibitor (like captopril) is replacement of this drug with an angiotensin receptor blocking drug (ARB), such as losartan. Remember that ARBs are also beneficial for both hypertension and diabetic neuropathy and do not interfere with the catabolism of bradykinin as ACE inhibitors do

419
Q

Listeriosis

A

most commonly transmitted through food ingestions and can cause meningitis in immunocompromised adults. Listeria is a gram positive rod with tumbling motility. It grows well in cold temperatures and can therefore contaminate refrigerated food

420
Q

E coli

A

frequent cause of neonatal meningitis, second only to group B streptococci. E coli strains that cause neonatal meningitis possess the K1 capsular antigen. The K1 capsule is a virulence factor that allows the bacteria to survive in the bloodstream and establish meningeal infection

Organisms that ferment lactose (e coli, klebsiella, enterobacter) cause a local drop in pH, resulting in colonies with a pink-red appearance

421
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea

A

most common medical cause of excessive daytime sleepiness in the US. It occurs due to poor oropharyngeal tone and results in daytime sleepiness, morning headaches and depression

422
Q

HBsAg

A

A component of the hepatitis B virus envelope, HBsAg is a noninfective glycoprotein that forms spheres and tubules 22nm in diameter. Infected hepatocytes may secrete enormous quantities of HBsAg, often considerably exceeding the amount of HBcAg produced

423
Q

greatest degree of atrophy in Alzheimer’s disease

A

The hippocampus is the area of the brain demonstrating the greatest degree of atrophy in Alzheimer’s disease. Hippocampal atrophy on MRI is highly suggestive of the diagnosis

424
Q

Global cerebral ischemia (also called hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy)

A

result of systemic hypoperfusion. The cells most susceptible to ischemia are the pyramidal cells of the hippocampus and neocortex and the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum. The hippocampus is the first area damaged during global cerebral ischemia

425
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis (papulovesicular skin rash on extensor surfaces)

A

associated with celiac disease. Dermatitis herpetiformis describes groups of small vesicles that occur symmetrically on the extensor surfaces and are extremely pruritic. Immunofluorescence reveals IgA deposits in the tips of the dermal papillae

426
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

lacks peptidoglycan within the cell wall, and Ureaplasma urealyticum lacks a cell wall entirely. Therefore, they are not effectively treated by penicillins and cephalosporins. Antiribosomal antibiotics, like macrolides and tetracyclines, are effective against these organisms

427
Q

Aschoff bodies

A

Interstitial myocardial granulomas, or Aschoff bodies, are typically found in acute rheumatic carditis (preceded by group A strep pharyngitis). Aschoff bodies contain plump macrophages with abundant cytoplasm and central, round-to-ovoid nuclei with central, slender ribbons of chromatin (Anitschkow cells, ‘caterpillar cells’)

428
Q

Meniére’s disease

A

characterized by the triad of tinnitus, vertigo and sensorineural hearing loss. Its pathogenesis is related to increased volume and pressure of endolymph in the vestibular apparatus

429
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

associated with oxalate kidney stones. Impaired bile acid absorption in the terminal ileum leads to loss of bile acids in the feces with subsequent fat malabsorption. Lipids then bind calcium ions, and the resulting soap complex is excreted. Free oxalate (which is normally bound by calcium ions to form an unabsorbable complex) is absorbed and forms urinary calculi

430
Q

Auer rods

A

deformed azurophilic granules found in the cytoplasm of myeloblasts that stain positively for myeloperoxidase. Auer rods are found in abundance in AML M3 (acute promyelocytic leukemia). The clinical manifestations of AML are anemia (fatigue, pallor), thrombocytopenia (petechiae, hemorrhages), and neutropenia (fever, opportunistic infections) and are the result of marrow replacement by leukemic cells

431
Q

Turner syndrome manifestations

A

include primary amenorrhea, short stature, a high arched palate, and widely spaced nipples. Primary amenorrhea occurs in these patients due to in utero degeneration of the ovarian follicles (gonadal dysgenesis). Menstruation and breast development are estrogen-dependent processes, so they do not occur when the ovaries are nonfunctional

432
Q

Peau d’orange

A

pitting edema in subcutaneous breast tissue accompanied by skin thickening around exaggerated hair follicles. The pitting edema occurs when neoplastic cells plug the dermal lymphatic channels

433
Q

S. bovis endocarditis and S. bovis bacteremia

A

associated with GI lesions (colon cancer) in more than 25% of cases. When S. bovis is cultered in the blood, workup for colonic malignancy with colonoscopy is essential

434
Q

Metalloproteinases

A

Zn-containing enzymes that degrade extracellular matrix. They participate in the normal tissue remodeling and in tumor invasion through the basement membrane and connective tissue

435
Q

Alpha-1-blockers

A

Doxazosin, Prazosin and Terazosin are useful for the treatment of both benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension

436
Q

hypertension tx

A

o Patients with coronary artery disease and heart failure along with hypertension will benefit from cardioselective beta-blockers
o Hydrochlorathiazide is presently the first line medication for the treatment of essential hypertension in the general population

437
Q

Acute stress disorder and post-traumatic stress disorder

A

present with identical symptoms (recurrent nightmares and flashbacks, potential memory loss, and exaggerated startle response). Acute stress disorder can last no more than 4 weeks, however, while PTSD lasts longer than 4 weeks

438
Q

Hypocretin-1 (orexin-A) and hypocretin-2 (orexin-B)

A

neuropeptides produced in the lateral hypothalamus that function to promote wakefulness and inhibit REM sleep-related phenomena. Most patients who have narcolepsy with cataplexy demonstrate undetectable levels of hypocretin-1 in their cerebrospinal fluid

439
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

consists of the triad of eczema, thrombocytopenia and combined B-lymphocyte and T-lymphocyte deficiency. Onset of disease is early in life with thrombocytopenia present at birth and eczema and repeated infections, particularly by encapsulated organisms, following at 6 to 12 months of age. Tx = HLA-matched bone marrow transplant

440
Q

Serum sickness

A

type III hypersensitivity reaction to nonhuman proteins characterized by vasculitis resulting from tissue deposition of circulating immune complexes. Clinical findings include fever, pruritic skin rash, arthralgias, and low serum C3 and C4 complement levels (7-14 days after exposure to antigen)

441
Q

Pulmonary Embolism

A

The combination of acute-onset dyspnea, calf swelling, obesity, and history of prolonged immobility is strongly suggestive of pulmonary embolism (PE). PE is most often associated with hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis

442
Q

Glossopharyngeal nerve

A

Lesions of the glossopharyngeal nerve result in loss of the gag reflex (afferent limb), loss of sensation in the upper pharynx, posterior tongue, tonsils, and middle ear cavity, and loss of taste sensation on the posterior one-third of the tongue

o Taste sensation from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve (CN VII)
o Protrusion of the tongue is mediated by motor efferent fibers carried by the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

443
Q

Hyoplipidemic drugs side effects

A

Treatment with many hypolipidemic drugs (especially statins – first line therapy for pts with hypercholesterolemia, structural analogs to HMG-CoA → competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, the enzyme responsible for the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis) warrants monitoring of liver function tests. Statins are known to cause myopathy and liver toxicity in some pts.

444
Q

Secretory phase of the menstrual cycle

A

occurs from day 15 through day 28 of the normal menstrual cycle (between ovulation and the onset of menses). Progesterone released by the corpus luteum causes the uterine glands to coil and secrete glycogen-rich mucus. The endometrial stroma becomes edematous and completely traversed by tortuous spiral arteries that extend from the deeper layers to the uterine lumen

o The proliferative phase (menstruation – ovulation) shows compact, non-edematous stroma, relatively straight uterine glands

445
Q

Lactogenesis - negative feedback

A

High circulating levels of estrogen and progesterone prevent lactogenesis while promoting breast growth and development during pregnancy

446
Q

Phosphorylation of ___ leads to insulin resistance

A
  • Aberrant serine and threonine residue phosphorylation by serine kinase leads to insulin resistance (inhibit IRS-1 tyrosine phosphorylation by insulin). These aberrant phophorylations can occur in the presence of TNF-a, catecholamines, glucocorticoids, and glucagon.
447
Q

Vit A overdose

A

Vitamin A overdose can result in intracranial hypertension (papilledema), skin changes and hepatosplenomegaly

448
Q

Vitamins (thiamine, niacin, B12, E)

A

o Thiamine deficiency: beriberi, Wernicke-Korsakoff
o Niacin deficiency – pellagra (dementia, dermatitis, diarrhea)
o B12 cobalamin deficiency – pernicious anemia
o B2 riboflavin deficiency – cheilosis, stomatosis, glossitis, dermatitis
o Vit E overdose – hemorrhagic strokes, necrotizing enterocolitis

449
Q

Metformin contraindications

A

Metformin (most common prescription for DM type 2, elevates lactate levels) is absolutely contraindicated in patients with renal failure (high serum creatinine), due to a risk of lactic accumulation. In fact, metformin is contraindicated in any situation that might precipitate lactic acidosis, such as liver dysfunction, congestive heart failure, alcoholism and sepsis

450
Q

Cortisol receptors

A

Receptors for cortisol are located within the cytoplasm and are translocated to the nucleus after binding to cortisol. In the nucleus, the cortisol-receptor complex binds to the hormone responsive elements, causing an alteration in the transcription of target genes. Cortisol increases the transcription of enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis (formation of glucose from fat and protein substrate)

451
Q

Dubin-Johnson syndrome

A

characterized by a defect in hepatic excretion of bilirubin glucuronides across the canalicular membrane. Benign condition with conjugated chronic hyperbilirubinemia. Grossly, the liver is strikingly black. Histological features are normal, though a dense pigment composed of epinephrine metabolites within the lysosomes can be seen

452
Q

Gallbladder hypomotility

A

often results in bile precipitation and the formation of biliary sludge

453
Q

Strongyloides stercoralis

A

infection begins following skin penetration by filariform (infectious) larva and can be diagnosed by finding rhabditiform (noninfectious) larvae in the stool. Rhabditiform larvae can mature into filariform larva in the human gastrointestinal tract, precipitating an autoinfection cycle that occurs entirely within the affected individual. This can result in hyperinfection syndrome characterized by massive dissemination of the organism, leading to multiorgan dysfunction and septic shock.

454
Q

Parasite diagnostic tests

A

o Shistosoma mansoni – parasite eggs in stool
o Enterobius vermicularis (pinworms) – eggs on scotch tape around perianal region
o Intestinal tapeworms (T solium, T saginata, D latum) – proglottids
o Giardia lamblia, E histolytica – Trophosoites and cysts

455
Q

A diastolic sound on cardiac auscultation that immediately precedes S1

A

most often a fourth heart sound (S4). An abnormal S4 can be heard in patients with reduced ventricular compliance (e.g. hypertensive heart disease, aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy). It is caused by a sudden rise in end-diastolic pressure following atrial contraction. Best heard with the pt in the left lateral decubitus position, intensifies during expiration due to increased blood flow from lungs to left atrium

456
Q

Acid fast stain

A

identifies organisms that have mycolic acid present in their cell walls, including Myobacterium and some Nocardia species. Acid-fast staining is carried out by applying an aniline dye (eg carbofuchsin) to a smear and then decolarizing with acid alcohol to reveal whether the organisms present are ‘acid fast’

457
Q

Thayer-Martin VCN medium

A

Neisseria organisms can be isolated by culture on selective media such as the Thayer-Martin VCN medium, which inhibits the growth of contaminants such as Gram positive organisms, Gram negative organisms other than Neisseria, and fungi

458
Q

Mycoplasma tx

A

All organisms in the Mycoplasma genus, including Ureaplasma, lack peptidoglycan cell walls and are therefore resistant to agents that attack the peptidoglycan cell wall such as penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems and vancomycin.

Mycoplasma infections can be treated with anti-ribosomal agents like tetracycline and erythromycin

459
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris

A

autoimmune bullous disease characterized by autoantibodies directed against desmosomal proteins 3 and 1 (painful, flaccid bullae with erosions of the skin and mucosal membranes).

Bullous pemphigoid is characterized by autoantibodies against hemidesmosomal proteins (bullae usually remain intact and mucosal involvement is uncommon)

460
Q

Phenytoin, carbamazepine and valproic acid - mechanism of action

A

Phenytoin, carbamazepine and valproic acid inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing by reducing the ability of sodium (Na+) channels to recover from inactivation

461
Q

Vit A deficiency

A

can cause night blindness. Vitamin A deficiency may result from any cause of fat soluble vitamin malabsorption, including chronic cholestasis from biliary obstruction

462
Q

Colchicine

A

second-line agent for treating acute gouty arthritis (NSAIDs are mainstay treatment, but contraindicated in pts with renal failure or peptic ulcer disease). It inhibits tubulin polymerization and microtubule formation in leukocytes, reducing neutrophil chemotaxis and emigration to sites inflamed by tissue deposition of monosodium urate crystals.

Gastrointestinal mucosal function is also impaired by microtubule disruption, leading to diarrhea and, less commonly, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain

463
Q

Glucagon

A

increases serum glucose by increasing hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Glucagon also stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas. Unlike epinephrine, glucagon has an insignificant effect on glucose homeostasis in the skeletal muscle, adipose tissue and renal cortex

464
Q

Turner syndrome

A

may have karyotype 45,X (complete monosomy), 45,X/46,XX (mosaicism), or 46,XX (with partial deletion of one chromosome X). The complete or partial loss on an X chromosome usually results from paternal meiotic nondisjunction. Meiotic nondisjunction is also responsible for Klinefelter syndrome and trisomies 13, 18 and 21

465
Q

Ornithine

A

Ornithine transport into mitochondria is essential for urea formation, as ornithine is needed to combine with caramoyl phosphate within the mitochondria to form citrulline in the second step of the urea cycle. Urea cycle defects cause neurologic damage primarily due to the accumulation of ammonia. Protein restriction would improve this condition (usually, high protein diet, digested into amino acids, deamination converts nitrogen from the aa into ammonia → increase in urea excretion)

466
Q

Dapsone side effect

A

Hemolytic anemia is a possible side effect of dapsone (second line tx for pneumocystic jiroveci pneumonia prophylaxis in HIV pts) and is most significant in patients deficient for glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD). G6PD deficiency anemia is characterized by episodes of hemolytic anemia precipitated by oxidative stress (drugs, infections, fava beans, diabetic ketoacidosis). Peripheral smear typically shows bite cells (oxidant induced damage, result of phagocytic removal of Heinz bodies) and Heinz bodies

467
Q

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

(HIT) is treated with direct thrombin inhibitors (DTIs) such as argatroban. Both high molecular weight heparin and LMWH should be avoided in these pts

468
Q

The most commonly injured structure in rotator cuff syndrome

A

is the tendon of the supraspinatus muscle (prone to repeated impingement trauma between the humeral head and the acromion). Because the supraspinatus is an abductor of the humerus, injury to its tendon causes pain on abduction of the arm

469
Q

High altitude exposure

A

High altitude exposure lasting more than a few days results in hypoxemia with a chronic respiratory alkalosis (PaO2 declines, hypoxemia stimulates chemoreceotors which increase ventilator drive, hyperventilation). The corresponding decrease in serum bicarbonate levels reflects renal compensation

470
Q

Pathogenesis of Wilson’s disease (hepatolenticular degeneration)

A

involves an excess of non-ceruloplasmin-bound serum copper, leading to injurious accumulation of this element in the liver, CNS lenticular nucleus, and cornea. Chelation therapy with penicillamine is indicated to remove excess loosely bound serum copper

471
Q

Lead + iron poisoning tx

A

o Dimercaprol and EDTA are chelating agents used to treat lead poisoning

o Deferoxamine is an iron-chelating agent used to treat hemochromatosis

472
Q

Sickle cell disease effect on spleen

A

Sickle cell disease is characterized by repeated splenic infarctions that ultimately result in splenic atrophy or asplenia, which is typically completed by young adulthood. After autosplenectomy, patients are predisposed to infections with encapsulated bacterial organisms

473
Q

Folic acid deficiency - risk factor

A

Patients with chronic hemolytic anemia (like sickle cell disease) are predisposed to folic acid deficiency and macrocytic changes due to increased erythrocyte turnover

474
Q

BPH

A

common age-related condition that causes urinary symptoms and can be medically treated with a-adrenergic blockers (relax smooth muscle in the bladder neck) or 5-a-reductase inhibitors (reduce hormonal influence on the prostate by preventing conversion of testosterone to DHT). The prostate is located between the pubic symphysis and the anal canal in inferior sections of the pelvis on CT scan

475
Q

Malignant HTN - arterioles

A

Hyperplastic arteriosclerosis in renal arterioles can result from and perpetuate malignant hypertension. The pathological lesion is an onion-like concentric thickening of the arteriolar walls in the renal vasculature and elsewhere

476
Q

Myasthenia Gravis and Lamber-Eaton syndrome

A

caused by poor signal transmission at the neuromuscular junction. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is associated with underlying malignancy. Antibodies to voltage-gated presynaptic calcium channels are found in these pts

o Myasthenia Gravis: weakness is worse at the end of the day or with exertion, extraocular muscles affected first (ptosis, diplopia), risk of thymoma, antibodies against acetylcholine receptors, improvement or resolution of weakness with tensilon test (edrophonium), decremental response to nerve stimulation

o Lambert-Eaton syndrome: weakness improves during the day and with exercise. Weakness of proximal muscles. Pre-existing malignancy associated, antibodies against pre-synaptic calcium channels, no clinical improvement with tensilon test, incremental response to nerve stimulation studies

477
Q

Hyperaldosteronism

A

Patients with primary mineralocorticoid excess (hyperaldosteronism) have hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and low renin levels (question 609790)

478
Q

Epinephrine

A

Epinephrine increases the systolic blood pressure (a1 + B1), increases heart rate (B1), and either increases or decreases diastolic blood pressure depending on the dose (either a1 or B2 predominates – B2 decreases through vasodilation, predominates at low dose).

Pretreatment with propranolol eliminates the B effects of epinephrine (vasodilation and tachycardia), leaving only the a effect (vasoconstriction)

479
Q

X-linked recessive inheritance

A

affected males will always produce unaffected sons and carrier daughters

carrier females have a 50% chance of producing affected sons and carrier daughters

G6PD deficiency follows this inheritance pattern and causes acute hemolytic anemia in response to oxidant drugs

480
Q

Third branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3)

A

exits the skull through the foramen ovale and innervates the muscles of mastication, including the masseter, the medial and lateral pterygoids, and the temporalis muscles

[ CN V2, maxillary, exits via the foramen rotundum; the jugular foramen contains CN IX, X, XI]

481
Q

Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)

A

work by blocking angiotensin II type 1 receptors, inhibiting the effects of angiotensin II. This results in arterial vasodilation and decreased aldosterone secretion. The resulting fall in blood pressure increases renin, angiotensin 1 and angiotensin II levels.

ARBs do not affect the activity of angiotensin-conversting enzyme, and therefore they do not affect bradykinin degradation and do not cause cough

482
Q

Cardiac pacemakers

A

phase 0 depolarization is mediated by an inward influx of calcium

differs from phase 0 of cardiomyocytes and purkinje cells, which result from inward Na current

483
Q

Adenovirus

A

cause of pharyngoconjuctival fever that classically occurs in small outbreaks among individuals living together in close quarters (such as military barracks or camp dormitories

484
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A

skin and mucous membranes, flesh colored pruritic papules with an umbilicated center that typically contains white, curdlike material (anogenital area + trunk)

485
Q

Tibial nerve

A

innervates the flexors of the lower leg, the extrinsic digital flexors of the toes and the skin of the sole of the foot (plantar sensation)

injury to the tibial nerve: foot is dorsiflexed and everted

486
Q

Cricothyrotomy

A

indicated when an emergency airway is required and orotracheal or nasotracheal intubation is either unsuccessful or contraindicated

The cricothyrotomy incision passes through the superficial cervical fascia, pretracheal fascia, and the cricothyroid membrane

487
Q

Omeprazole

A

Parietal cells release hydrogen ions into the gastric lumen by means of the H/K ATPase, which requires hydrolysis of ATP and is therefore an active transport mechanism.

Omeprazole and other proton pump inhibitors suppress the activity of the gastric parietal cell H/K ATPase leading to an increase in the pH of the gastric lumen

488
Q

Myxomatous changes in the media of large arteries

A

found in cystic medial degeneration (characterized by the fragmentation of elastic tissue), which predisposes to the development of aortic dissections and aortic aneurysms.

Medial degeneration is frequently seen in younger individuals with Marfan syndrome

489
Q

Acetylcholine and adenosine - effect on cardiac pacemakers

A

The action potential of pacemaker cells includes phases 0, 3, and 4. Phase 4 consists of spontaneous depolarization and occurs due to the closure of K+ channels, the slow influx of Na+, and the opening of T- and L-type Ca++ channels.

Acetylcholine and adenosine reduce the rate of spontaneous depolarization in cardiac pacemaker cells

490
Q

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

A

DIC is a common complication associated with sepsis, particularly in gram negative infections:
Patients bleed, coagulation cascade activated, PT and PTT prolonged, low fibrinogen and increased FDP

TTP-HUS
usually do not bleed, only platelets are activated, normal PT and PTT, normal fibrinogen

491
Q

Aldose B deficiency

A

causes hereditary fructose intolerance

this disease manifests after indroduction of fructose into the diet with vomiting and hypoglycemia about 20-30 minutes after fructose ingestion. These infants can present with failure to thrive, jaundice and hepatomegaly

492
Q

The PI3K/Akt/mTOR pathway

A

intracellular signaling pathway important for anti-apoptosis, cellular proliferation, and angiogenesis

mutations in growth factor receptors, Akt, mTOR or PTEN that enhance the activity of this pathway contribute to cancer pathogenesis

493
Q

Primase

A

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that incorporates short RNA primers into replicating DNA

494
Q

Chronic renal allograft rejection

A

manifests months to years after transplantation and presents with worsening hypertension and a slowly progressive rise in serum creatinine

mediated by a chronic, indirect immune response against donor alloantigens and results in obliterative intimal thickening, tubular atrophy, and interstitial fibrosis

495
Q

Acute cholecystitis

A

most often caused by gallstones obstructing the cystic duct. The diagnosis can be made by identifying signs of gallbladder inflammation (wall thickening, pericholecystic fluid) on ultrasonography. When ultrasound is inconclusive, nuclear medicine hepatobiliary scanning (cholescintigraphy) can be used to assess cystic duct patency and make the diagnosis (if there’s an obstruction the gallbladder will not be visualized)

496
Q

Flutamide

A

non-steroid anti-androgen that competes with testosterone and DHT for testosterone receptors

used for treatment of prostate cancer in combination with GnRH agonists

497
Q

Functional heart murmur

A

Acute hemodynamic changes can produce functional heart murmurs, in the absence of any fixed valve lesion.

Dilation of the left ventricle in response to increased preload can result in functional mitral regurgitation, which can be eliminated by preload reduction and reduced afterload reduction

498
Q

ID50 (50% infectious dose)

A

Depending on the age and the condition of the host and species of Shigella, as few as 10-500 cells can cause infection

Other organisms that need a small inoculum: Campylobacter jejuni, Entamoeba histolytica, and Giardia lamblia

499
Q

Shigella

A

non-motile, non-lactose fermenting organism that does not produce H2S when grown on triple sugar iron agar

Mucosal invasion of the M cells that overlie Peyer’s patches is an essential pathogenic mechanism for Shigella infection. Shigella then escapes the phagosome and spreads laterally to other epithelial cells via actin polymerization

500
Q

Measles (rubeola)

A

Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis, and Koplic spots are diagnostic of measles (rubeola) infection

Koplik spots are tiny white or blue-gray lesions on the buccal mucosa that precede the maculopapular skin rash

501
Q

Asbestosis

A

Incidental chest c-ray finding of fibrocalcific parietal pleural plaques (pleural thickening with calcification) in the posterolateral mid-lung zones and over the diaphragm

502
Q

Lung abscess tx

A

Alcoholics are more likely than the general population to develop pulmonary infections and abscesses involving combinations of anaerobic oral flora (Bacterioides, Prevotella, Fusobacterium and Peptostreptococcus) and aerobic bacteria. Clindamycin covers most of these organisms and is thus the antibiotic of choice for treating lung abscesses

503
Q

Cromolyn and nedocromil

A

mast cell stabilizing agents

Inhibit mast cell drgranulation independent of stimuli present

less effective than inhaled glucocorticoids, considered 2nd line tx for allergic rhinitis and bronchial asthma

504
Q

Genital structures - Epithelial lining

A

Ovary - simple cuboidal (associated with serous, mucinous, endometrioid, clear cell and brenner tumors)

Fallopian tube - simple columnar

Uterus - simple (pseudostratified) columnar

Cervix - simple columnar (endocervix), stratified squamous (ectocervix)

Vagina - stratified squamous non-keratinized

505
Q

Prefrontal lobe injury

A

behavioral and personality changes, secondary to impairment of the organizational, restraint, and motivational systems

Frontal lobe syndrome can manifest in variable ways, but can often be categorized into disorganized, disinhibited and apathetic types

506
Q

Primary polydipsia

A

During a water deprivation test, most pts with primary polydipsia will demonstrate a significant increase in urine osmolality. Additionally, pts with primary polydipsia will have low serum sodium levels and osmolality. Restriction of water intake normalizes urine output in pts with primary polydipsia

507
Q

Raloxifene

A

As a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), raloxifene binds to estrogen receptors and exhibits tissue-specific behavior that either imitates or antagonizes the effects of natural estrogen. In bone, the estrogen agonist effects of raloxifene predominate and osteoporosis is inhibited. In mammary tissue, the estrogen antagonist effects of raloxifene predominate and protection is provided against estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer

508
Q

Nausea tx

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonists are useful for the treatment of visceral nausea due to gastrointestinal insults, such as gastroeinteritis, chemotherapy, and general anesthesia

Antihistamines and anticholinergics are recommended for vestibular nausea

Dopamine antagonists are useful for nausea associated with migraines

509
Q

Phenytoin - side effect

A

Gingival hyperplasia is a common side effect of phenytoin and is sometimes reversible when phenytoin is withdrawn. Phenytoin causes increased expression of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF). When gingival macrophages are exposed to increased amounts of PDGF, they stimulate proliferation of gingival cells and alveolar bone. Phenytoin toxicity mainly affects the cerebellum and vestibular system, causing ataxia and nystagmus

510
Q

Muscarinic receptor blockade

A

–> flushed skin and mydriasis

Medications with anti-muscarinic effects: atropine, tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline), H1 receptor antagonists (diphenhydramine), neuroleptics, and antiparkinsonian drugs

511
Q

21-hydroxylase deficiency

A

most common form of congenital adrenal hyperplasia

affected female infants present at birth with ambiguous (virilized) genitalia

male infants have normal genitalia and present later with salt-wasting or precocious puberty

high serum level of 17-hydroxyprogesterone is diagnostic

512
Q

Leptin

A

protein hormone produced by adipocytes in proportion to the quantity of fat stored. Leptin acts on the arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus to inhibit production of neuropeptide Y (decreasing appetite) and stimulate production of alpha-MSH (increasing satiety). Mutations in the leptin gene or receptor result in hyperphagia and profound obesity

513
Q

Pulmonary embolism

A

common in hospitalized pts

Large emboli lodge in the pulmonary artery bifurcation. Smaller emboli occlude the peripheral branches of the pulmonary artery, producing wedge-shaped, red ‘hemorrhagic’ infarcts. This condition is precipitated by hypercoagulability and can be prevented by the anticoagulant heparin

514
Q

Drug interaction: non-dihydropyridine-type calcium blockers and B-adrenergic blocking agents

A

Combined use of non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (verapamil, diltiazem) and B-adrenergic blockers (atenolol) can have additive negative chronotropic effects yielding severe bradycardia and hypotension

515
Q

Multiple myeloma (plasma cell neoplasm)

A

The finding of a high peak in the gamma-globulin region on serum protein electrophoresis (SPEP) usually represents an M protein consisting of an overproduced monoclonal immunoglobulin. Multiple myeloma causes an M protein peak on SPEP as well as anemia (weakness), lytic bone lesions (back pain, pathologic fractures), and renal insufficiency (related to amyloid deposition and hypercalcemia)

516
Q

Cystinuria

A

results from defective dibasic amino acid transport in intestinal and proximal renal tubular epithelium cells. It most often presents with recurrent stone formation at a young age due to decreased reabsorption of cysteine from the urine. Urinalysis shows pathognomonic hexagonal cystine crystals, and the sodium cyanide-nitroprusside test can be used to detect excess cystine in the urine

517
Q

Rapid correction of chronic hyponatremia -

A

may lead to osmotic demyelination of the axons in the central part of the pons. This condition is called central pontine myelinolysis. It manifests with spastic quadriplegia and pseudobulbar palsy

518
Q

Asthma - risk factor

A

Asthma develops due to the interaction of genetic and environmental factors

Pts are born with a genetic predisposition to have an imbalance between Th1 and Th2 lymphocytes. Environmental irritants, such as smoking, trigger bronchospasm in predisposed individuals

519
Q

Sickle cell pts - high risk for:

A

Sickle cell pts become functionally asplenic, and thus are at an especially increased risk for infection by encapsulated organisms (Streptococcus pneumoniae and Hemophilus influenza). Salmonella is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in children with sickle cell disease; Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli are the next most common causes of osteomyelitis in these pts

520
Q

AML

A

The diagnosis of AML requires >20% myeloblasts in the peripheral blood or marrow. The finding of Auer rods, linear, purple-red inclusions within immature myeloid precursors, is helpful in making the diagnosis. Auer rods are not found in ALL. In CML, there are more mature cells and fewer blasts (

521
Q

Friedreich ataxia

A

cerebellar ataxia (spinocerebellar tract degeneration), loss of position and vibration sensation, kyphoscoliosis, and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Foot abnormalities and diabetes mellitus are also common

522
Q

Unilateral renal artery stenosis

A

cause of secondary hypertension in 2-5% of hypertensive pts

the kidney affected by the stenosis may become atrophied due to oxygen and nutrient deprivation

histology: crowded glomeruli, tubulointerstitial atrophy and fibrosis, focal inflammatory infiltrates

523
Q

Nucleolus

A

site of ribosomal subunit maturation and assembly

RNA polymerase I synthesizes the vast majority of rRNA from within the nucleolus

524
Q

Anaphylaxis (type 1 hypersensitivity)

A

systemic version of a local allergic response

systemic vasodilation and increased vascular permeability as well as airway constriction are mediated by agents such as histamine, heparin and other vasoactive peptides released from mast cells and basophils after cross-linking of at least 2 molecules of surface IgE delivers the signal for degranulation

525
Q

Asbestos exposure

A

risk for developing asbestosis, pleural disease, and malignancies such as bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma.

Bronchogenic carcinoma is the most common malignancy in this population, followed by mesothelioma

526
Q

Amphotericin B

A

binds the ergosterol of fungal cell membranes to exert its antifungal effects

howerver, it also binds cholesterol to some degree, causing toxicity to human tissues

the most important adverse effects of ampho B are nephrotoxicity, hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia

527
Q

Aspiration - anatomy

A

Due to gravity, supine pts typically aspirate into the posterior segments of the upper lobes and superior segments of the lower lobes

Pts who are upright (semi-recumbent) tend to aspirate into the basilar segments of the lower lobes

Aspirated material is more likely to travel down the right main bronchus

528
Q

green sputum

A

The green discoloration of pus or sputum noted during bacterial infections is associated with the release of myeloperoxidase (MPO) from neutrophil azurophilic granules. MPO is a heme-containing pigmented molecule

529
Q

Fat embolism syndrome

A

The development of respiratory distress, diffuse neurological impairment (confusion) and an upper body petechial rash (due to thrombocytopenia) within days of severe long bone fractures is characteristic of the fat embolism syndrome. The multiple fat emboli occluding the pulmonary microvasculature stain black with osmium tetroxide

530
Q

Theophylline intoxication

A

seizures are the major cause of morbidity and mortality from throphylline intoxication

tachyarrhythmias are the other major concern

531
Q

group B strep (GBS)

A

Universal prenatal screening for group B strep colonization by vaginal-rectal culture at 35-37 weeks gestation is recommended to identify colonized women who require INTRAPARTUM antibiotics, most frequently with penicillin or ampicillin, to prevent neonatal GBS sepsis, pneumonia and meningitis

532
Q

H. influenzae type b

A

rapidly progressing fever, severe sore throat, drooling and progressive airway obstruction potentially accompanied by stridor are the presenting symptoms of acute epiglottitis.

This illness is most commonly caused by H. influenzae type b, but the Hib vaccine has dropped the incidence of this disease considerably.

H. influenzae type b can still cause disease in unimmunized or improperly immunized pts as well as fully immunized pts in some cases

533
Q

Coccidioides immitis

A

can be asymptomatic or can cause pulmonary disease ranging from a flu-like illness to chronic pneumonia

causes disseminated disease in immunocompromised patients

spherules containing endospores are found in tissue samples

534
Q

Streptomycin

A

inhibits the initiation of protein synthesis by binding to and distorting the structure of the prokaryotic 30S ribosomal subunit

535
Q

Exercising muscles - BP change

A

Exercising muscles can receive up to 85% of the total cardiac output during periods of strenuous activity thanks to local release of vasodilatory factors.

Although sympathetic discharge during exercise causes an increase in cardiac output and increased contraction of blood vessels, there is only a modest blood pressure increase because the vasodilatation within muscles so significantly decreases the total systemic vascular resistance

536
Q

Virchow’s triad

A

endothelial injury, venous stasis, hypercoagulable state

Pathophysiologically, deep venous thrombosis arises due to these factors

537
Q

number needed to treat (NNT)

A

number of pts that need to be treated with a medication to avoid a negative outcome in the patient

NNT is calculated by dividing 1 by the absolute risk reduction (event rate in the control group - event rate in the treatment group)

Lower NNT values represent more beneficial treatments

538
Q

Heart failure

A

In pts with HF, compensatory activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway and sympathetic nervous system results in increased afterload (from excessive vasoconstriction), excess fluid retention, and deleterious cardiac remodeling

539
Q

Norepinephrine

A

stimulates cardiac B1 adrenoreceptors, which utilize the cAMP signal transduction pathway

stimulation of these receptors by norepinephrine causes increases in cAMP concentration within cardiac myocytes

NE also acts on a1 (increases IP3, peripheral vasoconstriction), a2 (decreases cAMP, decreased release of norepinephrine and insulin)
B2 adrenoreceptors increase cAMP –> bronchodilatation, vasodilatation

540
Q

Nitroprusside

A

short-acting balanced venous and arterial vasodilator that decreases both preload and afterload
(hypertensive heart failure tx)

since these changes are balanced, stroke volume is maintained

541
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

Patients with CF produce eccrine sweat that contains high concentrations of sodium and chloride compared to normal individuals

can lead to hypovolemia due to excessive sodium loss and intravascular volume contraction

542
Q

Pathogenesis of atherosclerotic plaques

A

release of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) by locally adherent platelets, endothelial cells, and macrophages promotes the migration of smooth muscle cells from the media into the intima and their subsequent proliferation

543
Q

Jugular venous pressure tracings

A

The first peak is the ‘a’ wave, which is generated by atrial contraction

[This is notably absent in pts with atrial fibrillation]

c wave - bulging of the tricuspid into the R atrium
v wave - passive increase in pressure and volume of the R atrium as it fills

x-descent - relaxation of the R atrium
y-descent - decrease in R atrial pressure after the tricuspid valve opens

544
Q

constrictive pericarditis

A

Calcification and thickening of the pericardium >4mm are common features of constrictive pericarditis on CT

Clinical findings include slowly progressive dyspnea, peripheral edema and ascites

can be caused by TB

545
Q

Mitral Regurgitation

A

In a pt with mitral regurgitation (MR), the most reliable auscultatory finding indicating a high regurgitant volume (severe MR) and left ventricular volume overload is a left-sided S3 gallop.

The intensity of the holosystolic murmur does not correlate well with regurgitant volume as larger regurgitant orifices often present with softer murmurs

546
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)

A

In pts with TOF, the degree of RV outflow tract obstruction is the major determinant of the degree of R-to-L intracardiac shunting, and thus of hypoxemic symptom severity

547
Q

Niacin side effects

A

The cutaneous flushing associated with niacin is mediated by prostaglandins and can be prevented with aspirin pre-treatment

Capsaicin reduces pain by decreasing the level of substance P in the peripheral nervous system

548
Q

ACE inhibitor side effect

A

Cough

dry, nonproductive, persistent

mechanism: accumulation of bradykinin, substance P or prostaglandins

ARBs do not affect ACE activity, and so do not cause cough

549
Q

familial erythrocytosis

A

2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) normally forms ionic bonds with the beta subunits of deoxygenated hemoglobin A, facilitating oxygen release in the peripheral tissues. Mutations that result in loss of the 2,3-BPG binding pocket’s positive charge cause hemoglobin A to resemble fetal hemoglobin, which binds oxygen with a higher affinity due to its inability to interact with 2,3-BPG

550
Q

Internal laryngeal nerve

A

The internal laryngeal nerve mediates the afferent limb of the cough reflex above the vocal cords

foreign bodies (ex. fish bones) can become lodged in the piriform recess and may cause damage to the nerve, impairing the cough reflex

551
Q

Varenicline

A

partial agonist of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

can assist pts with cessation of tobacco by reducing withdrawal cravings and attenuating the rewarding effects of nicotine

552
Q

Rifampin

A

prophylaxis for persons who have been exposed to N. meningitidis
can eliminate the carrier state as well as prevent active infection in those who have been exposed

also used as a component of multi-agent therapy for both typical and atypical myobacterial pulmonary infections, leprosy and staph endocarditis

when used alone, bacteria rapidly acquire resistance to rifampin through spontaneous genetic mutations of the bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

553
Q

Major causes of hypoxemia (low PaO2)

A

Alveolar hypoventilation, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, diffusion impairment, and right-to-left shunting

The A-a gradient is normal with alveolar hypoventilation and helps to distinguish it from the other forms of hypoxemia

554
Q

Sotalol

A

both beta-adrenergic blocking properties and class 3 antiarrhythmic (K+ channel blocking) properties

prolongs the PR interval and the QT interval

555
Q

Streptokinase

A

Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent that acts by converting plasminogen into plasmin, which subsequently degrades fibrin

most common side effect is hemorrhage

streptokinase is a foreign protein derived from Streptococci and can induce hypersensitivity reactions

556
Q

Apical tumors (pancoast tumors)

A

can cause Horner syndrome (ipsilateral miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis), SVC syndrome, arm weakness, arm paresthesias and hoarseness

557
Q

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)

A

due to Aspergillus fumigatus

may complicate asthma
ABPA can result in transient recurrent pulmonary infiltrates and eventual proximal bronchiectasis

558
Q

CMV

A

In a transplant pt, pneumonia with intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusion bodies histologically points to opportunistic infection with cytomegalovirus, an enveloped virus that contains a double-stranded DNA genome

559
Q

Pts with sarcoidosis or other granulomatous diseases are prone to developing: (vitamin)

A

hypercalcemia secondary to high levels of active vitamin D (calcitriol)

560
Q

Aminoglycoside streptomycin

A

inhibits protein synthesis by inactivating the 30S (small) ribosomal subunit

561
Q

Isoniazid resistance

A

decreased activity of bacterial catalase-peroxidase is one mechanism of myobacterial resistance to isoniazid

562
Q

Rifampin resistance

A

structural alteration of enzymes involved in RNA synthesis (DNA-dependent RNA polymerase) is the mechanism through which organisms become resistant to rifampin

563
Q

Cyanotic spells

A

common with TOF

5 Ts of cyanotic congenital heart disease: tetralogy of fallot, tricuspid atresia, transposition of the great vessels, truncus arteriosus, and total anomalous pulmonary venous return

ASD, VSD, PDA and aortic coarctation are generally considered noncyanotic congenital heart diseases

564
Q

diamond shaped (crescendo-decrescendo) systolic murmur

A

aortic stenosis

most common cause is degenerative (senile) calcinosis of the aortic leaflets

565
Q

ARDS

A

The interstitial and alveolar edema and exudate in ARDS result in large part from an increased pulmonary capillary permeability. The result is a decrease in lung compliance, an increase in the work of breathing, and worsened V/Q mismatching. The pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) is typically normal.

An elevated PCWP would be more suggestive of a cardiogenic cause in a pt with pulmonary edema

566
Q

Panic attack, pCO2

A

hyperventilation and decreased pCO2

hypocapnia causes cerebral vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral blood flow

567
Q

Anovulation

A

common in the first several years after menarche and the last few years before menopause

manifests with marked menstrual cycle variability

568
Q

Lesion of the jugular foramen

A

Vernet syndrome

dysfunction of CN IX, X, XI

loss of taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue (IX), loss of gag reflex and dysphagia (IX, X), hoarseness (X)

569
Q

Total gastrectomy - need lifelong replacement of __

A

Intrinsic factor (IF) is a glycoprotein that is normally secreted by parietal cells in the stomach and is necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. Pts who have undergone a total gastrectomy require lifelong parenteral vit B12 administration due to inability to produce IF

570
Q

Succinylcholine

A

depolarizing neuromuscular-blocking agent, attaches to nAChR

can cause significant potassium release and life threatening arrythmias in pts at high risk for hyperkalemia (burns, myopathies, crush injuries, denervating injuries)

571
Q

Parents authority to make medical decisions for their children

A

can be challenged in cases in which a child is at significant risk for harm

physicians are justified in obtaining a court injunction to proceed with life-saving medical treatment of the child

572
Q

Valsalva maneuver

A

increases vagal tone and can be used to abolish paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

the rectus abdominis is the most important muscle in achieving the increased intraabdominal and intrathoracic pressure of the Valsalva maneuver

573
Q

Pyramidal signs (upper motor neuron lesion)

A

Babinski sign (dorsiflexion of the toes), hyperreflexia, muscle weakness and spasticity indicate an upper motor neuron lesion

LMN: atrophy, fasciculations, loss of tendon reflexes

574
Q

Pancreas

A

On abdominal CT scans, the pancreas can be identified by its head in close association with the second part of the duodenum; by its body overlying the left kidney, aorta, IVC and superior mesenteric vessels; and also by the tail lying in the splenorenal ligament

(exocrine pancreatic insufficiency: inability to normally metabolize fat)

575
Q

tracheal and alveolar pO2

A

Normal tracheal pO2 is 150 mm Hg and normal alveolar pO2 is 104 mm Hg. The equilibration of O2 in a normal individual at rest is perfusion-limited.

Situations where O2 equilibration can become diffusion limited include disease states such as emphysema and pulmonary fibrosis, and physiologically in states of very high pulmonary blood flow, such as during exercise

576
Q

pyelonephritis

A

WBC casts are formed in tubules, and are pathognomonic for acute pyelonephritis when accompanied by systemic manifestations of febrile illness.

WBC casts are also seen with acute interstitial nephritis, but clinical presentation is different in that pts only have a low-grade fever and do not experience painful urination.

Pyuria and bacteriuria are non-specific and are found in both upper and lower UTIs

577
Q

Maple Syrup Urine Disease - coenzymes

A

Branched chain a-ketoacid dehydrogenase, similar to pyruvate and a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, requires several coenzymes:
Thyamine pyrophosphate, Lipoate, Coenzyme A, FAD, NAD
(‘Tender Loving Care For Nancy’)

Some pts with maple syrup urine disease improve with high-dose thiamine treatment (thiamine-responsive), but most still require lifelong dietary restrictions

578
Q

Lynch syndrome

A

autosomal dominant disease caused by abnormal nucleotide mismatch repair.

The mismatch repair system involves several genes, including MSH2 and MLH1, which code for components of the human MutS and MutL homologs. Mutations in these 2 genes account for around 90% of cases of Lynch syndrome

579
Q

UMN v LMN

A

Upper motor neuron damage leads to spastic paralysis, hyperreflexia and an upgoing plantar reflex (Babinski)

LMN lesions are from damage to the motor neurons of the anterior horn. Cause flaccid paralysis, areflexia, atrophy and fasciculation

580
Q

Amino acid in collagen

A

Glycine is the most abundant amino acid in the collagen molecule

It occurs AT LEAST every 3rd amino acid position. The amino acid formula of collagen is (-Gly-X-Y)333

581
Q

Gallstone disease - risk factor

A

‘forty, fat, female, fertile’

Estrogen-induced hypersecretion and progesterone-induced gallbladder hypomotility are responsible for the increased incidence of cholelithiasis in women who are pregnant or using oral contraceptives

582
Q

ANP release from ventricles

A

Both ventricular hypertrophy and volume overload cause release of both ANP and BNP from the ventricular myocytes to facilitate natriuresis and diuresis

583
Q

PSGN

A

Pts with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis present with edema, hematuria, and an antecedent history of streptococcal infection (impetigo, cellulitis, pharyngitis). Infection must be caused by a nephritogenic strain of group A B-hemolytic Streptococcus. The glomerulonephritis is mediated by a type III (immune complex) hypersensitivity reaction

584
Q

Insulin v Glucagon

A

Insulin opposes glucagon action

Glucagon stimulates glycogenolysis, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and ketone body production

insulin increases glucose, amino acid and potassium uptake by cells, inhibits ketoacid formation and inhibits lipolysis

585
Q

tRNA

A

small, noncoding form of RNA that contains unusual nucleosides such as pseudouridine and thymidine.

tRNA has a CCA sequence at its 3’ end that is used as a recognition sequence by proteins, and that the 3’ terminal hydroxyl group of the CCA tail is used as the binding site for the amino acid

586
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

oxidase-positive, non-lactose fermenting, gram negative organism

common cause of UTIs in pts with indwelling catheters

587
Q

Deletions of the long arm of chromosome 22

A

associated with DiGeorge syndrome (congenital thymic and parathyroid aplasia, congenital cardiovascular anomalies)

588
Q

Protease inhibitors (Idinavir)

A

anti-HIV medications that inhibit cleavage of the polypeptide precursor into mature viral proteins

side effects: hyperglycemia, lipodystrophy, drug-drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome p-450

589
Q

Acetaminophen toxicity

A

treated by sulfhydryl group supplementation

N-acetyl cysteine provides the sulfhydryl groups

NAC also acts as a glutathione substitute and binds to the toxic metabolite

590
Q

CF - failure to thrive tx

A

causes steatorrhea and failure to thrive due to malabsorption secondary to pancreatic insufficiency, which can be corrected by pancreatic enzyme supplementation

591
Q

Cord factor

A

virulent mycobacteria will grow as ‘serpentine’ cords on enriched media secondary to the presence of cord factor, a mycoside.

Cord factor establishes virulence through neutrophil inhibition, mitochondrial destruction, and the induced release of tumor necrosis factor

592
Q

Leuprolide

A

Used in tx of prostate cancer

GnRH agonist that causes first a transient increase, then a decrease in both testosterone and DHT levels

Finasteride causes a discordant decrease in DHT level

593
Q

retinitis in HIV+ pt

A

most common cause is cytomegalovirus infection

CMV retinitis most frequently affects AIDS pts with a CD4+ lymphocyte cound

594
Q

Piperacillin-tazobactam

A

combination of extended-spectrum penicillin with B-lactamase inhibitor

effective against most Gram (-) enteric rods, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Bacteroides fragilis

595
Q

Ethambutol (TB tx) - side effect

A

noted for causing optic neuritis that results in color blindness, central scotoma, and decreased visual acuity

may be reversible with discontinuation of the drug

596
Q

cholesterol lowering medications

A

Niacin is believed to inhibit hepatic VLDL production, mainly used to increase HDL levels (side effect: cutaneous flushing and pruritis, pre-treat with aspirin)

Statins inhibit cholesterol synthesis and thereby up-regulate the LDL receptors

Bile acid binding resins can cause constipation and abdominal bloating (potentially worsening diverticulosis), hypertriglyceridemia, cholesterol gallstones and vit K malabsorption

597
Q

Wilson disease diagnosis

A

advanced wilson disease is often characterized by neuropsychiatric symptoms, including Parkinsonian-like tremor, rigidity, ataxia, slurred speech, drooling, personality changes, depression, paranoia and catatonia

almost all pts with neuropsychiatric involvement will also have Kayser-Fleischer rings, which can be identified on slit lamp examination

598
Q

Non-pathogenic Corynebacterium

A

can cause severe pseumembranous pharyngitis after acquiring the Tox gene via lysogenization by a temperate bacteriophage

599
Q

Typhoid fever

A

Cases of typhoid fever in developed countries usually occur after a pt has traveled to an endemic region. Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella Typhi or Paratyphi and presents with:

escalating fever (with initial diarrhea or constipation), followed by abdominal pain, formation of rose spots on the chest/abdomen, and hepatosplemomegaly and hemorrhagic enteritis with possible bowel perforation

600
Q

ADPKD - risk for

A

Intracranial berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis are often seen in pts with ADPKD

when ruptured, they cause subarachnoid hemorrhage that presents with sudden onset of ‘thunderclap headache’ (+ nuchal rigidity)

601
Q

Toxoplasmosis

A

The finding of multiple ring-enhancing lesions in an HIV pt is most likely due to toxoplasmosis

602
Q

Subdural hematoma

A

occurs due to rupture of cortical bridging veins.

In young pts, it results from a fall or motor vehicle accident, and manifests with gradual onset of headache and confusion

In elderly pts it may occur after a minor trauma and presents with a variety of neurologic symptoms (also gradual onset).

Crescent shape on CT

603
Q

Spherocytosis

A

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is increased due to mild dehydration of the red blood cell.

Markers of hemolysis are often evident and include elevated lactate dehydrogenase, reticulocytosis, increased indirect bilirubin and decreased haptoglobin

604
Q

lightening injury

A

rare, but associated with 25% fatality rate

2/3 of lightening-related deaths occur within the first hour after injury, with fatal arrhythmias and respiratory failure as the most common causes. Pts with minor cutaneous involvement may still have major internal injury after lightening strikes and high-voltage electrical contact

605
Q

Hamartomas

A

most common benign lung tumor

present as asymptomatic peripherally located ‘coin lesions’ in pts 50-60 years old

composed of disorganized cartilage, fibrous and adipose tissue

606
Q

Celiac disease

A

IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase and IgA endomysial antibody are very sensitive and specific for the diagnosis of celiac disease

small intestinal biopsy is confirmatory; severe atrophy and blunting of the villi along with a chronic inflammatory infiltrate of the lamina propria is seen

symptoms (diarrhea, steatorrhea, nutritional deficiencies) subside with exclusion of gluten-containing products from the diet

607
Q

DIC

A

A retained dead fetus in the uterus is associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and progressive hypofribrinogenemia

monitoring of fibrinogen and platelet count is helpful in early identification of the onset of DIC in high risk pts

Findings of DIC:
prolonged PTT and PT, thrombocytopenia and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, low fibrinogen, elevated fibrin split products (D-dimer), low factor V and VIII levels

608
Q

Multiple Sclerosis

A

autoimmune demyelinating disease

within the plaques, loss of myelin sheaths and depletion of oligodendrocytes is seen

oligoclonal bands of IgG may be detected in cerebrospinal fluid

oligodendrocyte depletion is also seen in progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

609
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

A

Insidious-onset progressive exertional dyspnea, pulmonary function tests showing a restrictive profile, and surgical biopsy showing extensive interstitial fibrosis together with paraseptal and subpleural cystic airspace enlargement (honeycomb lung) are characteristic of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

610
Q

Base excision repair

A

used to correct single-base DNA defects induced spontaneously or by exogenous chemicals

Glycosylases remove the defective base, and the corresponding empty sugar-phosphate site is cleaved and removed by the action of endonuclease and lyase. DNA polymerase then replaces the missing nucleotide, and ligase seals the final remaining nick

611
Q

Three variables affect the oxygen content of blood:

A

Hemoglobin concentration

Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2)

Partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in blood (PaO2)

612
Q

Classical conditioning

A

involves a neutral stimulus being repeatedly paired with a non-neutral stimulus that elicits a reflexive, unconditioned response. Over time, the formerly neutral stimulus is able to evoke a conditioned response by itself in the absence of the non-neutral stimulus

613
Q

Broad spectrum anticonvulsants

A

lamotrigine, levetiracetam, topiramate, valproic acid

successfully treat most seizure types (focal or generalized at onset)

[generalized: tonic-clonic, myoclonic]
[for absence use ethosuximide]

614
Q

Narrow spectrum anticonvulsants

A

carbamazepine, gabapentin, phenobarbital, phenytoin

favored for focal onset seizures (involves 1 cerebral hemisphere at onset) and should usually be avoided in generalized epilepsy syndromes as they may aggravate seizure

615
Q

Heart Failure - diastolic v systolic dysfunction causes

A

Heart failure due to left ventricular (LV) diastolic dysfunction is the result of a decrease in diastolic LV compliance. Restrictive cardiomyopathy, as can be caused by amyloidosis, may cause diastolic dysfunction

Infectious myocarditis and cardiotoxic agents including alcohol and doxorubicin tend to produce a dilated cardiomyopathy with predominantly systolic dysfunction

616
Q

Thoracocentesis

A

should be performed above the 7th rib in midclavicular line, the 9th rib along midaxillary line and the 11th rib along posterior scapular line

Insertion of a needle lower than these points increases the risk of penetrating abdominal structures, and insertion of the needle on the inferior margin of the rib risks striking the subcostal neurovascular bundle

617
Q

Aldosterone

A

component of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system that acts on the principal and intercalated cells of the renal collecting tubules to cause resorption of sodium and water and loss of potassium and hydrogen ions

618
Q

Injury to Meyer’s loop in the temporal lobe

A

contralateral superior quadrantanopia

[the lower fibers of the optic radiation carry information from the lower retina (upper contralateral visual field) and take a circuitous route anteriorly into the temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop) before reaching the lingual gyrus of the striate cortex]

619
Q

Carotid sinus

A

The carotid sinus is a dilatation of the internal carotid artery that lies at the bifurcation of the carotid artery. Blood pressure increases or external pressure on the carotid sinus walls, leading to vasodilatation, a decrease in heart rate and contractility, and a decrease in blood pressure

Afferent fibers from the carotid sinus stretch receptors form a small carotid sinus nerve, Hering’s nerve, which is a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

620
Q

Anti-dsDNA

A

specific for SLE

only present in 60% of cases, so absence does not rule out diagnosis

Anti-Smith antibodies (anti-snRNPs) are also specific for SLE

621
Q

prokaryotic 16S rRNA sequence

A

found in the 30S ribosomal subunit

contains a sequence complementary to the Shine-Dalgarno sequence on mRNA

binding of these 2 complementary sequences is necessary for initiation of protein translation

622
Q

Ether - effect on viruses

A

Ether and other organic solvents dissolve the lipid bilayer that makes up the outer viral envelope

loss of infectivity after ether exposure is a characteristic feature of enveloped viruses

623
Q

Lactic acidosis in septic shock

A

occurs in pts with septic shock because of tissue hypoxia, which results in impaired oxidative phosphorylation and the shunting of pyruvate to lactate following glycolysis. Hepatic hypoperfusion also contributes to the buildup of lactic acid, as the liver is the primary site of lactate clearance

624
Q

Aspiration pneumonia - risk factor

A

Elderly patients with dementia or hemiparesis may also have dysphagia, which is a risk factor for aspiration pneumonia. Dependent lung consolidation (superior region or lower lobes, posterior regions of upper lobes) is commonly seen in aspiration pneumonia

625
Q

Hemoglobin A2

A

elevated in beta-thalassemia as beta-globin chain underproduction leads to decreased hemoglobin A synthesis

glycemic control in diabetes mellitus is assessed by measuring glycated hemoglobin (HbA1c) levels, which correspond most closely with the average blood glucose levels over the previous 10-12 weeks

HbA1c levels can be affected by alterations in red blood cell survival

626
Q

Acute erosive gastropathy

A

can be caused by:
NSAID use, head trauma, severe burns, acute stress, alcohol or tobacco use

Erosions are mucosal defects that do not fully extend through the MUSCULARIS MUCOSA

Acute erosive gastropathy can cause upper GI hemorrhage that leads to melena

[vs an ulcer - penetrated through the mucosal layer and extends into the submucosal layers]

627
Q

MEN1

A
3 Ps:
Parathyroid tumor (hypercalcemia), pancreatic tumor (gastrin), pituitary adenoma (prolactin, ACTH)

Check family history in anyone with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Genetic defect involves the MENIN gene on chromosome 11

628
Q

MEN2

A

MEN2a:
Medullary carcinoma of thyroid (calcitonin), pheochromocytoma, parathyroid tumor

MEN2b:
medullary carcinoma of thyroid, pheochromocytoma, marfanoid habitus/mucosal neuromas

629
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy

A

a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase requires thiamine as a cofactor

administration of glucose to thiamine-deficient pts (alcoholics) will result in Wernicke encephalopathy due to increased thiamine demand

Wenicke encephalopathy presents with acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia

630
Q

Meningiomas

A

located adjacent to the cerebral surface

parasagittal meningiomas cause contralateral spastic paresis of the leg due to compression of the leg-foot motor area

Benign and slow growing tumors (2nd most common in adults), psammoma bodies

631
Q

Xanthelasma

A

A yellowish eyelid papule or plaque containing lipid-laden macrophages is most likely xanthelasma.

Xanthelasma may occur in association with primary or secondary hyperlipidemia

Cholestatic conditions such as primary biliary cirrhosis are a potential cause of hypercholesterolemia leading to xanthelasma

632
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum

A

can survive intracellularly within macrophages

can cause disseminated mycosis in immunocompromised pts

clinical features: systemic symptoms (fever, weight loss), painful oral ulcers, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly

633
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis

A

Enthesopathies (inflammation at sites of tendon insertion) are common in ankylosing spondylitis

involvement of the costovertebral and costosternal junctions may cause limitation of chest movements, resulting in hypoventilation

[monitor chest expansion]

634
Q

Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)

ex. pioglitazone

A

TZDs decrease insulin resistance by binding to peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma), which is a transcriptional regulator of genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism

Adiponectin levels are low in type 2 diabetes, and treatment with TZDs increases th levels of adiponectin

635
Q

Hyperpyrexia

A

body temperature greater than 40C is called hyperpyrexia

may lead to permanent brain damage if left untreated

emergent treatment should consist of increasing body heat loss (cooling) and is effective immediately as opposed to antipyretics (NSAIDs, acetaminophen)which take time to act

636
Q

Bisphosphanates

suffix: -dronate
ex. alendronate

A

structural analogues of pyrophosphate, an important component of hydroxyapatite

used in the treatment of osteoporosis, Paget’s disease of the bone, and malignancy-induced hypercalcemia

administered in the fasting state with plenty of water. The pt must stay upright for at least 30 mins to prevent reflux esophagitis

637
Q

Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus

A

result of lithium’s antagonizing effect on the action of vasopressin on principal cells within the collecting duct system

638
Q

Vancomycin resistance

A

The mechanism of vanco resistance in organisms such as VRE is a substitution of D-lactate in the place of D-alanine during the process of peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis. This prevents the binding of vanco to its usual D-ala-D-ala binding site on the cell wall

639
Q

MHC class 1

A

Heavy chain and B2-microglobulin

on all nucleated cells

presents antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T-cells

type of antigen includes viruses, tumor proteins

lears to apoptosis of the presenting cell

640
Q

MHC class II

A

alpha and beta polypeptide chains

APCs (Langerhans, macrophages, dendritic, B cells)

present antigen to CD4+ T helper lymphocytes

antigens are bacterial

leads to activation of TH cells, stimulates immune response

641
Q

Case-control study

A

used to compare the exposure of people with the disease (cases) to the exposure of people without the disease (controls)

main measure of association is the exposure odds ratio

642
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

may cause exertional syncope

AS murmur is a systolic ejection-type, crescendo-decrescendo murmur that starts after the first heart sound and typically ends before the A2 component of the second heart sound. The intensity of the AS murmur is proportional to the magnitude of the left ventricle-to-aorta pressure gradient during systole

643
Q

Iron absorption

A

occurs predominantly in the duodenum and proximal jejunum

bypass of this segment of small bowel by gastrojejunostomy results in iron deficiency anemia

malabsorption of Vit B12, folate, fat-soluble vitamins (especially D) and calcium may also be observed following gastric bypass procedures

644
Q

Arterial PaCO2

A

direct indicator of alveolar ventilation status

hypocapnia implies ongoing alveolar hyperventilation

upper airway obstruction, reduced ventilatory drive, respiratory muscle fatigue, and decreased chest wall compliance are possible causes of alveolar hypoventilation and hypercapnia

645
Q

Intestinal metaplasia in the esophagus

A

Squamous –> columnar

complication of long standing GERD and is called Barrett esophagus

originally a protective response to injury by acidic stomach contents, Barrett esophagus significantly increases the risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma

646
Q

irreversible ischemic injury –>

A

Lethal tissue ischemia causes coagulative necrosis in most tissues, including the myocardium

tissue architecture is preserved, anucleated cells

the exception is ischemic cell death in the central nervous system, which causes liquifactive necrosis

647
Q

Opioid withdrawal

A

abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, piloerection, lacrimation and diaphoresis, yawning

can occur following cessation or reduction in use of narcotics (like heroine)

Non-life threatening, no seizures (as in alcohol and benzodiazepine withdrawal)

648
Q

EBV

A

Pts with HIV often experience reactivation of latent EBV infections, with a resulting increased incidence of EBV-induced lymphoproliferative disorders

649
Q

Megaloblastic anemia differential

A

Vit B12 and folic acid deficiencies cause similar hematological pictures

howerver, neurological dysfunction is only seen in pts with vit B12 deficiency

If megaloblastic anemia due to vit B12 deficiency is mistakenly treated with folate alone, the neurologic dysfunction can worsen

650
Q

Reye syndrome

A

occurs in children with febrile illness treated with salicylates (aspirin)

consists of hepatic failure and encephalopathy

histology: microvesicular steatosis of hepatocytes without inflammation and cerebral edema

651
Q

HIV gp41 protein

A

Antiretroviral agents that selectively bind to the HIV envelope transmembrane glycoprotein gp41 prevent the conformational changes necessary for the viral membrane to fuse with the target cellular membrane

these agents are therefore known as ‘fusion inhibitors’

652
Q

Pilocytic astrocytoma

A

A cystic tumor in the cerebellum of a child is most likely a pilocytic astrocytoma

biopsy will show a well-differentiated neoplasm comprised of spindle cells with hair-like glial processes that are associated with microcysts

these cells are mixed with rosenthal fibers and granular eosinophilic bodies

653
Q

H pylori

A

can cause duodenal ulcers and is typically found in greatest concentration in the prepyloric area of the gastric antrum (site to biopsy)

654
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

primary virulence factor (without which it cannot cause disease) is a polysaccharide capsule that inhibits phagocytosis

655
Q

Digoxin

A

second line tx for atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response

increases cardiac contractility by blocking the Na-K-ATPase in cardiac myocytes leading to an increased intracellular calcium concentration, and it will decrease AV nodal conduction by a mechanism of increased parasympathetic tone

656
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

nonselective, irreversible a-1 and a-2 adrenergic antagonist that effectively reduces the number of receptors available for NE binding

Because phenoxybenzamine is an irreversible antagonist, even high concentrations of NE cannot overcome its inhibitory effects

657
Q

Norepinephrine

A

agonist at a-1 (vasoconstriction) and B1 receptors, less action at B2 (vasodilation)

658
Q

Von Willebrand disease (vWF deficiency)

A

causes impairments of platelet function and coagulation pathway abnormalities

associated with prolonged bleeding time, prolonged PTT and decreased platelet aggregation in response to ristocetin

659
Q

Defense against Candida

A

Local defense against Candida is performed by T-cells, wheras systemic infection is prevented by neutrophils

For this reason, localized candidiasis is common in HIV-positive pts while neutropenic individuals are more likely to have systemic disease

660
Q

Transference

A

unconscious shifting of emotions or desires associated with one person (ex. parent) to another (ex. therapist)

can be positive or negative

661
Q

Trisomy 21 - increased risk of __

A

detectable by cytogenetic karyotype analysis and is the most common genetic cause of congenital mental retardation

Pts with Down syndrome are at increased risk of developing acute lymphoblastic leukemia and acute myelogenous leukemia

662
Q

Syringomyelia

A

The combination of fixed segmental loss of upper extremity pain and temperature sensation, upper extremity lower motor neuron signs, and/or lower extremity upper motor neuron signs in the setting of scoliosis suggests a diagnosis of syringomyelia

663
Q

The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve

A

At risk of injury during thyroidectomy due to its proximity to the superior thyroid artery and vein

This nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle

664
Q

Hirschsprung disease

A

submucosal (Meissner) and myenteric (Auerbach) autonomic plexi are absent in the affected segment of the bowel in Hirschsprung disease. The submucosa of the narrowed area is the most superficial layer where the absence of ganglion cells can be seen (biopsy there)

665
Q

Neurophysins

A

carrier proteins for oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH)

carried by unique neurophysins from their site of production in the cell bodies of the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei to their site of release in the axon terminals of the posterior pituitary

point mutations in neurophysin II underlie most cases of hereditary hypothalamic diabetes insipidus, a disorder resulting from insufficient ADH release into the systemic circulation

666
Q

Digoxin toxicity

A

presents with onspecific gastrointestinal (anorexia, nausea, vomiting) and neurologic (fatigue, confusion, weakness) symptoms

changes in color vision are a more specific, but rarer, finding

life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias are the most serious complication

667
Q

B1 receptors

A

found in cardiac tissue and on renal juxtaglomerular cells, but not on vascular smooth muscle

blockade of the B1 receptor leads to decreasing cAMP levels in cardiac and renal tissue without affecting cAMP levels in vascular smooth muscle

Atenolol is a selective B1 adrenergic antagonist at low doses

668
Q

cAMP signaling pathway

A

Gs –> adenylyl cyclase –> ATP to cAMP –> protein kinase A activation

669
Q

Phosphatidylinositol signaling pathway

A

Gq –> phospholipase C –> DAG + IP3 –> protein kinase C activation and calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum

670
Q

Pulsatile administration of GnRH agonists

A

stimulates FSH and LH release and is useful for the treatment of infertility

Nonpulsatile (constant) infusion of GnRH, or a longer-lasting analogue, suppresses FSH and LH release and is useful for the treatment of prostate cancer, endometriosis etc

671
Q

Dietary fructose

A

phosphorylated in the liver to F1P and rapidly metabolized because it bypsses PFK-1, the major rate limiting enzyme of glycoysis

other sugars (glucose, galactose, mannose) enter glycolysis prior to PFK-1 and as a result are metabolized more slowly

672
Q

Sickle cell - clinical features and protein change

A

Exertional dyspnea, pneumonia resulting in life-threatening acute chest syndrome, and recurrent abdominal and bone pain are clinical features of sickle cell anemia

sickle cell anemia results from a point mutation that causes valine to substitute for glutamic acid in the 6th position of the b-globin chain of hemoglobin

673
Q

Polyol pathway

A

Aldose reductase converts glucose into sorbitol, which is further matabolized into fructose by sorbitol dehydrogenase

this pathway is most active in the seminal vesicles

the lens also contains significant levels of sorbitol dehydrogenase, which become overwhelmed in the setting of hyperglycemia

other tissues, such as the retina, renal papilla, and schwann cells, have much less sorbitol dehydrogenase activity

674
Q

CHF

A

Decreased cardiac output triggers a number of compensatory mechanisms

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone activation and increased sympathetic output raise arterial resistance (afterload) and exacerbate heart failure by making it more difficult for the failing heart to pump blood to the tissues

675
Q

Gemfibrozil (fibrate) and Cholestyramine (bile acid-binding resin)

A

increase cholesterol excretion by the liver (increase cholesterol content of bile). Along with the reduction in serum LDL, there is an increased risk for gallstone formation

676
Q

Papillary thyroid cancer

A

most common type of thyroid cancer

diagnosis can be made on FNA by characteristic cell morphology showing large cells with nuclei containing finely dispersed chromatin with a ground-glass appearance (orphan annie eyes)

677
Q

Alzheimer disease

A

decreased levels of acetylcholine in the nucleus basalis of Meynert (memory and cognition) and hippocampus (new memory formation)

caused by diminished activity of choline acetyltransferase in these cerebral structures

678
Q

atrophy of the nucleus caudatus

A

huntington disease

NMDA receptors are depleted in the striatum

679
Q

loss of dopaminergic neurons of the substantia nigra

A

parkinson disease

680
Q

Pudendal nerve block

A

can be performed by injecting anesthetic intravaginally in the region of the ischial spine

blocking the pudendal nerve provides anesthesia to the majority of the perineum; additional blockade of the genitofemoral and ilioinguinal nerves would provide complete perineal and genital anesthesia

681
Q

Guillan-Barre syndrome

A

infection can lead to Guillan-Barre syndrome (GBS) in rare instances

GBS is a demyelinating syndrome of the peripheral nerves characterized by ascending muscle weakness and paralysis

682
Q

Group A Strep (streptococcus pyogenes)

A

Rheumatic fever and acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are the late sequelae of Group A Strep infections

PSGN can follow either a skin infection (impetigo) or an episode of streptococcal pharyngitis, whereas rheumatic fever is associated only with streptococcal throat infection

683
Q

Lipofuscin

A

product of lipid peroxidation and free radical injury, accumulating in aging cells (especially in pts with malnutrition and cachexia)

sign of ‘wear and tear’ or aging, yellow-brown and finely granular

684
Q

Myasthenia gravis tx

A

Exacerbation of myasthenia gravis in a pt treated with cholinesterase inhibitors occurs due to myasthenic or cholinergic crisis

The endrophonium (Tensilon) test helps to differentiate these 2 conditions

clinical improvement after edrophonium administration indicates that the pt is undertreated (myasthenic crisis)

685
Q

Prednisone side effect

A

Osteoporosis is a common cause of pathological vertebral fractures

chronic systemic use of corticosteroids such as prednisone promotes osteoporosis, and therefore may cause such fractures

686
Q

Timolol

A

(and other B-blockers)
decrease aqueous humor production by the ciliary epithelium

Glaucoma is due to increased intraocular pressure, develops due to decreased outflow or increased production of aqueous humor

687
Q

Visualization of spirochetes (such as T. pallidum, the causative agent of syphillis)

A

use darkfield microscopy, reveals helical motile organisms

688
Q

Acute renal allograft rejection (

A

can be antibody- or cell-mediated

acute cellular rejection is associated with diffuse lymphocytic infiltration of the renal vasculature (endothelitis), tubules, and interstitium

689
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) O157:H7

A

causes at least 80% of cases of hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) in north america

recognized as a common cause of bloody diarrhea in developed countries

associated with consumption of undercooked ground beef and elaborates a Shiga-like toxin capable of inhibiting protein synthesis in colonic mucosal cells and renal endothelial cells

this strain of E. coli is unable to ferment sorbitol and does not produce a glucuronidase

690
Q

PABA esters

A

widely used UVB radiation absorbers

(UVB is the major cause of sunburns etc)

do not significantly absorb or block radiation in the UVA wavelength range (zinc-oxide containing sunscreens do)

691
Q

Eosinophils

A

bilobed nuclei packed with large eosinophilic granules

major basic protein released by eosinophils normally functions to kill helminths

it is also thought to contribute to the bronchial epithelial damage sustained by pts with atopic (extrinsic allergic) asthma

692
Q

Ethylene glycol ingestion

A

leads to acute renal failure due to the precipitation of calcium oxalate crystals in renal tubules and subsequent damage to tubular epithelium

typical clinical findings include anion gap metabolic acidosis, increased osmolar gap, and presence of calcium oxalate crystals in urine

693
Q

Folinic acid (leucovorin)

A

can reverse the toxicity of methotrexate in non-cancerous cells in the GI mucose and bone marrow if administered at the appropriate time

leucovirin, a 5-formyl-derivative of tetrahydrofolic acid, does not require the action of dihydrofolate reductase for its conversion to tetrahydrofolate

694
Q

accelerated bone loss

A

Osteoporosis (porous bone) represents loss of ‘total bone mass’ that results in trabecular thinning

subperiostial resorption with cystic degeneration is characteristic of hyperparathyroidism

Vit D results in ‘excessive unmineralized osteoid’ resulting in low mineral density

Osteopetrosis is characterized by the ‘persistence of primary unmineralized spongiosa in the medullary canals’

695
Q

Hyperprolactinemia complication

A

Low bone density is a well-known complication of hyperprolactinemia that is associated with prolactin-induced hypogonadism (low estrogen). Vaginal dryness is another very common manifestation of estrogen deficiency

696
Q

Homocysteinuria

A

caused by cystathionine synthetase deficiency

affected individuals manifest with symptoms resembling those of Marfan syndrome, particularly ectopia lentis, and many experience some form of developmental delay

They are also at risk of developing thromboembolism.

About 50% of affected pts respond to high doses of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

697
Q

Primary spontaneous pneumothorax

A

most common cause is rupture of apical subpleural blebs

these blebs may arise due to distal acinar (paraseptal) emphysema

tall, thin, young men are most commonly affected

other types of emphysema may predispose to a secondary spontaneous pneumothorax

compensatory and obstructive hyperinflation cause distention of normal lung parenchyma and would be unlikely to cause pneumothorax

698
Q

Polyps

A

Non-neoplastic polyps (hyperplastic, hamartomatous, inflammatory) usually do not progress into adenocarcinoma of the colon

Adenomatous polyps can undergo malignant transformation
Villous adenomas are more likely than tubular adenomas to progress to adenocarcinoma

699
Q

Arnold-Chiari malformations

A

congenital abnormalities

caused by impaired development of the posterior fossa

Arnold-Chiari type I is relatively benign and may manifest in adulthood (headaches, ataxia)

Arnold-Chiari type II is severe and evident in the newborn

700
Q

Keratin

A

marker of epithelial cell origin

701
Q

Pseudogout (calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease, CPPD)

A

presence of rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals is diagnostic

positively birefringent under polarized light (opposite of gout)

Knee joint is involved in more than 50% of cases

702
Q

Action potential

A

results from changes in the membrane permeability to K+ and Na+ ions

Depolarization results from massive influx of Na+ through voltage-gated Na+ channels

Repolarization occurs due to closure of voltage-gated Na+ channels and opening of voltage-gated K+ channels

K+ ion permeance is highest during the repolarization phase of the action potential

703
Q

Down syndrome - quadruple test (diagnosis)

A

low levels of maternal serum a-fetoprotein and estriol and increased levels of B-hCG and inhibin A

elevated a-fetoprotein levels are seen in multiple gestation, open neural tube defects and abdominal wall defects

704
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

autosomal recessive genetic absence of CD18
–> inability to synthesize integrins

Integrins are necessary for leukocytes to exit the bloodstream, and sequelae of this illness include recurrent skin infections WITHOUT pus formation, delayed detachment of the umbilical cord and poor wound healing

705
Q

Hib vaccine

A

The Hib vaccine consists of PRP capsular polysaccharide conjugated with either tetanus or diphtheria toxoid

protein conjugation causes a T-cell mediated immune response leading to immunoglobulin class switching and generation of memory B-lymphocytes

this response would not occur with pure polysaccharide immunization

706
Q

Diabetic nephropathy (nephrotic syndrome)

A

Moderately increased albuminuria (urine albumin

707
Q

Traumatic aortic rupture

A

most often caused by the rapid deceleration that occurs in motor vehicle collisions

The most common site of injury is the aortic isthmus, which is tethered by the ligamentum arteriosum and is relatively fixed and immobile compared to the adjacent descending aorta

708
Q

Status epilepticus (tonic-clonic seizures > 30 mins w/out return to consciousness) - treatment

A

Benzodiazepines (lorazepam) are first-line agents in the management of status epilepticus

Phenytoin (or fosphenytoin) is administered simultaneously to prevent the recurrence of seizures. Phenytoin inhibits neuronal high-frequency firing by reducing the ability of Na+ channels to recover from inactivation

709
Q

Paradoxical embolism

A

occurs when a thrombus from the venous system crosses into the arterial circulation via an abnormal connection between the right and left cardiac chambers (patent foramen ovale, atrial septal defect, or ventricular septal defect).

Atrial left-to-right shunts cause wide and fixed splitting of S2 and can facilitate paradoxical embolism due to periods of transient shunt reversal

710
Q

Warfarin metabolism

A

Many drugs can accelerate (induce) the hepatic metabolism of warfarin leading to reduced anticoagulation and enhanced thrombotic risk. These include antibiotics such as rifampin and griseofulvin as well as antiepileptic drugs such as barbituates, carbamazepine, and phenytoin

Warfarin metabolism may be inhibited by antibiotics such as trimethoprim, isoniazid and fluconazole, as well as other drugs such as cimetidine. Inhibition of warfarin metabolism can increase the risk of bleeding

711
Q

S3

A

An S3 is a low frequency heart sound that can be physiologic in younger individuals. It is typically pathologic in older adults, and in these pts, it generally results from left ventricular systolic failure or restrictive cardiomyopathy

The S3 sound can be accentuated by having the pt lie in the left lateral decubitus position and fully exhale (decreases volume in lungs to move heart closer to chest wall)

712
Q

Perchlorate and pertechnetate ions (as well as all iodide isotopes)

A

are absorbed into the thyroid gland via the sodium-iodide symporter. High levels of any one substance will significantly reduce the uptake of the others due to competitive inhibition

713
Q

Risk factor for the development of intimal tears leading to aortic dissection

A

Hypertension!

Hypertension, smoking, diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia are all major risk factors for atherosclerosis, which predisposes more to aortic aneurysm formation than aortic dissection

714
Q

LaPlace’s law

A

as the radius of a sphere with constant surface tension decreases, the distending pressure increases; thus, smaller spheres collapse before larger ones. Surfactant counteracts alveolar collapse by decreasing surface tension as the alveolar radius decreases

715
Q

lead poisoning - blood smear

A

Coarse erythrocyte basophilic stippling and microcytic hypochromic anemia are common peripheral blood smear findings in lead poisoning.

High-risk groups include young children ingesting paint chips and industrial workers inhaling particulate lead

716
Q

Combination oral contraceptives

A

inhibit ovulation by decreasing synthesis of FSH and LH in the anterior pituitary. Their effects on cervical mucus and endometrium play a minor role

717
Q

Neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage

A

usually occurs in the fragile germinal matrix and increases in frequency with decreasing age and birth weight. Common complication of prematurity that can lead to long-term neurodevelopmental impairment

718
Q

Chronic rejection

A

months - years following transplant

In lung transplant, the immune reaction affects the small airways, causing bronchiolitis obliterans syndrome. Symptoms include dyspnea and wheezing

719
Q

Winters formula

A

Normally, metabolic acidosis is partially compensated for by respiratory alkalosis

when the steady-state PaCO2 persists above the range given by Winter’s formula
PaCO2 =1.5*HCO3- +8+/-2
the patient has a superimposed respiratory acidosis (respiratory failure)

720
Q

Allopurinol

A

best long-term treatment choice for chronic tophaceous gout regardless of the urinary excretion of uric acid

In pts who excrete large amounts of uric acid, uricosuric drugs (probenecid, sulfinpyrazone) should be avoided to prevent uric acid nephrolithiasis

721
Q

Vitamin B1 deficiency

A

–>
High output congestive heart failure and neurological symptoms are strongly suggestive of wet beriberi (thiamine deficiency)

722
Q

herpesvirus

A

Most enveloped nucleocapsid viruses acquire their lipid bilayer envelope by budding through the plasma membrane of the host cell

exceptions include the herpesviruses, which bud through and acquire their envelope from the host cell nuclear membrane

723
Q

Amatoxins

A

found in a variety of poisonous mushrooms (Amanita phalloides, known as death cap) and are potent inhibitors of RNA polymerase II (halting mRNA synthesis)

724
Q

Protein M

A

Protein M is the major virulence factor for Strep pyogenes. It inhibits phagocytosis and complement activation, mediates bacterial adherence, and is the target of type-specific humoral immunity to S. pyogenes

725
Q

pulmonary fibrosis

A

Reduction in the slope of the curve depicting lung volume versus distending pressure indicates decreased lung compliance (the hallmark of pulmonary fibrosis)

726
Q

Small bowel mucosa of pts with lactase deficiency

A

normal on histologic examination

727
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

most commno lung cancer in the general population

also the most common subtype in women and nonsmokers

located peripherally and consists of tumor cells that form glandular or papillary structures

728
Q

Hep B transmission

A

the main modes of transmission of hep B virus include sexual and percutaneous

the risk of sexual transmission of hep C is low

729
Q

Postpartum mood disturbances

A

postpartum blues - benign, delf-limited change in affect that lasts up to 10 days postpartum. Treated with watchful waiting and the knowledge that up to 20% of these women will develop postpartum depression

730
Q

Congenital torticollis

A

typically noted by 2-4 weeks of age, after which the child prefers to hold the heard tilted to one side

most commonly the result of malposition of the head in utero or birth trauma

most cases resolve with conservative therapy and stretching exercises

731
Q

Hemophilia A

A

X-linked recessive, mutations in gene coding for factor VIII

Factor VIII is synthesized by the liver and stored in endothelial cells

Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is a synthetic vasopressin analog that releases von Willebrand factor and factor VIII from the endothelium. It is used in the treatment of mild-moderate hemophilia A

732
Q

Amiodarone

A

(and other class III and class IA antiarrhythmic agents) cause lengthening of the cardiac action potential, which manifests as QT interval prolongation on ECG. In contrast to other drugs, QT prolongation caused by amiodarone is associated with very low risk of torsades de pointes and other proarrhythmias

733
Q

Adenosine

A

rapidly acting antiarrhythmic used to quickly convert people out of PSVT (drug of choice)

rapidly cleared and has a half-life of only less than 10 seconds

commonly causes chest burning (bronchospasm), flushing and high grade block as adverse reactions (used for chemical stress tests)

734
Q

vasovagal syncopal episode

A

The vagus nerve provides some cutaneous sensation to the posterior external auditory canal via its small auricular branch

sensation to the rest of the canal is from CNV3

a vasovagal syncopal episode results from stimulation of the vagus nerve, leading to a decrease in blood pressure and heart rate

735
Q

d-Aminolevulinate dehydratase

A

The zinc containing d-Aminolevulinate dehydratase and ferrochelatase are enzymes in the heme biosynthetic pathway that are inactivated by lead. Thus, in lead poisoning, d-ALA and protoporphyrin IX accumulate, and the production of heme is decreased, leading to microcytic anemia secondary to a lack of hemoglobin

736
Q

Adult (postductal) type of congenital aortic coarctation

A

can present with symptoms / signs of hypertension in the arterial tree proximal to the coarctation, and of hypofusion of the lower extremities, especially during ambulation.

Collateral circulation to the distal aorta results in dilated intercostal arteries. The triad of upper body hypertension, diminished lower extremity pulses, and enlarged intercostal artery collaterals is typical of adult-type coarctation and is not seen in other congenital cardiovascular malformations

737
Q

Mitral regurgitation - heart catheterization findings

A

An abnormally prominent, upsloping left atrial ‘v wave’ during cardiac catheterization is a major hemodynamic finding of mitral regurgitation

738
Q

Urethritis in a young male

A

most likely due to N. gonorrhoeae or C. trachomatis, both of which cause dysuria and mucopurulent urethral discharge. The standard of treatment for sexually transmitted urethritis presumes infection by both organisms: ceftriaxone is given for N. gonorrhea and doxycycline or azithromycin is given for C. trachomatis

739
Q

Alanine

A

major amino acid responsible for transferring nitrogen to the liver for disposal.

During the catabolism of proteins, amino groups are transferred to a-ketoglutarate to form glutamate.

Glutamate is then processed in the liver to form urea, the primary disposal form of nitrogen in humans.

Free ammonia is also excreted into the urine by the kidney for regulation of acid-base status

740
Q

TNF-a inbitors - what should you test before beginning treatment?

A

all pts beginning treatment with TNF-a inhibitors should be evaluated for latent TB

741
Q

BRAF

A

protein kinase involved in activation of signaling pathways for melanocyte proliferation, and the BRAF V600E (glutamic acid for valine) mutation is seen in 40-60% of pts with melanoma

742
Q

Abciximab

A

blocker of GP IIb/IIIa receptor

GP IIb/IIIa is either deficient or defective in pts with Glanzmann thrombasthenia

743
Q

Psoas sign

A

A psoas abscess can occur as the result of hematogenous or lymphatic seeding from a distant site or by spread from an adjacent site. Pts can present with fever, back or flank pain, inguinal mass, and difficulty walking. Inflammation of the psoas muscle causes pain when the hip is extended (psoas sign)

744
Q

Hemophilia

A

Bleeding after a tooth extraction and a history of hemiarthrosis is suggestive of hemophilia.

Decreased levels of factor VIII or IX lead to failure to convert prothrombin into thrombin and deficient thrombus formation

Addition of thrombin to the blood of a pt with hemophilia results in clotting

745
Q

Tay-Sachs disease

A

autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency in B-hexosaminidase A, which results in accumulation of GM2 ganglioside. It is characterized by progressive neurodegeneration (at 2-6 months - weakness, hypotonia, loss of motor skills, abnormal startle reflex) and a cherry-red macular spot. In contrast to Niemann-Pick disease, there is no hepatosplenomegaly

746
Q

Supraspinatus muscle

A

assists in abduction of the arm and stabilization of the glenohumeral joint.

the most commonly injured structure in rotator cuff syndrome is the tendon of the supraspinatus muscle (‘empty can supraspinatus test’)

this tendon is vulnerable to injury due to impingement between the acromion and the head of the humerus

747
Q

Burkitt lymphoma

A

characterized by aggressive, rapid growth and a ‘starry sky’ microscopic appearance. Translocation of the c-myc oncogene on the long arm of chromosome 8 with the Ig heavy chain region on chromosome 14 [t(8;14)] produces a nuclear phosphoprotein (c-myc) that functions as a transcription activator

748
Q

CML

A

[t(9,22)], Bcr-abl –> increased tyrosine kinase activity

749
Q

Finasteride

A

5-a-reductase inhibitor, can treat male pattern baldness

750
Q

asthma

A

intermittent respiratory symptoms in pts with a normal CXR, occasional sputum eosinophils and reduced FEV1 suggest a diagnosis of asthma. Extrinsic allergic asthma provoked by inhaled allergens such as animal dander is the most common type

751
Q

Impaired interferon signaling

A

Inherited defects involving the interferon-gamma signaling pathway result in disseminated myobacterial disease in infancy or early childhood. Pts require lifelong treatment with antimyobacterial agents

752
Q

Biotin

A

acts as a CO2 carrier on the surface of the carboxylase enzyme and is necessary for numerous conversions, including pyruvate to oxaloacetate. Excessive ingestion of avidin (which is found in egg whites) has been associated with biotin deficiency

753
Q

GABA receptors

A

The GABAa and GABAc receptors are ion channels (Cl- influx) while the GABAb receptor is linked to a G-protein (K+ efflux, decreased Ca++ influx, inhibition of adenylyl cyclase)

benzodiazepines, barbituates and alcohol all bind to different components of the GABAa receptor and facilitate the inhibitory action of GABA in the central nervous system

ex. lorazepam (a benzo) allosterically binds to the GABAa receptor

754
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy

A

caused by increased levels of ammonia and other neurotoxins in the circulation that lead to increased inhibitory neurotransmission and impaired excitatory neurotransmitter release. Hepatic encephalopathy is frequently precipitated by a stressor that alters the ammonia balance (gastrointestinal bleeding, increased dietary protein). Asterixis (flapping tremor) is specific for metabolic encephalopathies

755
Q

Blood flow to subendocardial myocardium

A

Only 10% of total perfusion through the myocardial capillaries of the LV occurs during systole, while the majority of left ventricular blood flow occurs during diastole

The systolic reduction in coronary blood flow is greated in the subendocardium of the LV

756
Q

lipid absorption

A

Lipids (triglycerides, cholesterol and phospholipids) are digested in the duodenum and absorbed in the jejunum. Bile acids are necessary for lipid absorption. Cholecystectomy typically has little effect on lipid digestion and absorption though pts may find it difficult to eat a large fatty meal

757
Q

Fatty streaks

A

earliest lesion of atherosclerosis and present in all ppl over 10. They are composed of intimal, lipid-filled foam cells, derived from macrophages and SMC that have engulfed lipoproteins. Although some fatty streaks may progress to full-fledged atherosclerotic plaques later in life, in general their occurance and location in a child do not predict the occurrence or location of atheromatous plaques later in life

758
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica occurs in more than half of pts with temporal arteritis. It is characterized by neck, torso, shoulder and pelvic girdle pain and morning stiffness. Fatigue, fever and weight loss may also occur

monocular vision loss is a common complication of temporal arteritis

759
Q

Hep C

A

genetically unstable virus because it lacks proofreading 3’ –> 5’ exonuclease activity in its RNA polymerase and its enveloped glycoprotein contains a hypervariable region prone to frequent genetic mutation

760
Q

insulin resistance determinant

A

visceral obesity as measured by waist-to-hip ratio

761
Q

TOF - effect of squatting

A

In pts with TOF, squatting increases SVR and decreases R to L shunting, thereby increasing pulmonary blood flow. Squatting thus counteracts arterial desaturation during hypoxemic spells

762
Q

Avoidant personality disorder

A

maladaptive pattern of behavior characterized by feelings of inadequacy, timidity and fear of rejection

763
Q

Meds associated with osteoporotic fractures

A

Long-term acid suppression with proton pump inhibitors (ex. omeprazole) may be associated with an increased risk of osteoporotic hip fractures, possibly as a result of decreased calcium absorption

Others = anticonvulsants that induce CYP450, aromatase inhibitors, GnRH agonists, glucocorticoids, unfractionated heparin

764
Q

CMV

A

typically associated with subclinical infection in the immunocompetent, with the occasional individual developing a mononucleosis-like syndrome that is Monospot negative.

In the immunocompromised, primary or reactivated CMV infection can result in severe retinitis, pneumonia, esophagitis, colitis and /or hepatitis

765
Q

Sertoli cells

A

maintain spermatogenesis, release inhibin, and secrete Mullerian inhibiting factor during male embryogenesis. Inhibin provides negative feedback on FSH secretion by the anterior pituitary

766
Q

xeroderma pigmentosum

A

UV-specific endonuclease deficiency is the most common cause of the autosomal recessive disorder xeroderma pigmentosum

–> photosensitivity, poikiloderma, hyperpigmentation, skin cancers

767
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia - immune response

A

Mycoplasma pneumonia is the causative agent in walking pneumonia and many cases of tracheobronchitis. It is an organism with no peptidoglycan cell wall; it only has a phospholipid bilayer cell membrane. It shares antigens with human erythrocytes, and when the body mounts a response against these antigens it also lyses RBCs leading to anemia. The antibodies causing this RBC destruction are referred to as cold agglutinins

768
Q

Kawasaki disease

A

vasculitis of medium-sized arteries that presents with persistent fever for >5 days, bilateral conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, mucocutaneous involvement, and edema of hands/feet. Coronary artery aneurysms are a serious complication of Kawasaki disease

769
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) - imipramine, doxepin, amitriptyline and clomipramine

A

commonly used for the treatment of painful diapetic neuropathy

have stronger anticholinergic properties than heterocyclics or SSRIs and should be used with caution in pts with BPH as they may cause urinary retention

770
Q

Succinylcholine

A

The paralytic action of nondepolarizing neuromuscular junction (NMJ)-blocking drugs can be reversed by anticholinesterase agents such as neostigmine

Siccinylcholine is a depolarizing NMJ blocker that is augmented by neostigmine during phase I block but reversed by neostigmine during phase II block. The duration of paralysis caused by succinylcholine depends largely on its catabolism by plasma cholinesterase

771
Q

penicillinase-resistant penicillins

A

Nafcillin, methicillin and oxacillin

active against isolates of S. aureus and S. epidermidis that are resistant to other penicillins

not effective against MRSA

772
Q

Mallory-Weiss tear

A

tear in the gastric mucosa near the gastroesophageal junction

typically the result of repetitive, forceful vomiting, which can lead to metabolic alkalosis

773
Q

Myobacterium avium complex (MAC)

A

common opportunistic pathogen that causes disseminated disease in HIV+ pts

Pts with CD4+ counts

774
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia

A

one of the most common autosomal dominant disorders

result of heterozygous or homozygous LDL receptor gene mutations, which cause hepatocyte under-expression of functional LDL receptors

can lead to accelerated atherosclerosis and early-onset coronary artery disease

775
Q

Heparin

A

drug of choice for prevention of venous thrombosis in non-ambulatory pts or pts undergoing elective surgery, especially hip and knee.

Heparin increases the effect of the naturally occurring anticoagulant antithrombin-III (by binding and causing a conformational change)

776
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

A

M3 FAB variant of AML

affects adult pts and may present with DIC

cytogenetic abnormality t(15,17) leads to formation of fusion gene PML/RARa that is unable to signal for proper cellular differentiation as the normal retinoic acid receptor can

tx with all-trans-retinoic acid (ATRA) stimulates differentiation and can induce remission

777
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

true hydrocephalus is an increase in CSF volume and pressure that occurs due to the abnormal production, flow, or absorption of CSF
the pressure increase then causes ventricular enlargement

In hydrocephalus ex vacuo, ventricular enlargement occurs due to brain atrophy (alzheimer, pick disease etc) and is not accompanied by increase in CSF pressure

778
Q

cardiovascular dysphagia

A

can result from pressure on the esophagus by a dilated left atrium

the left atrium is commonly enlarged in pts with mitral stenosis and left ventricular failure

779
Q

PKU

A

tyrosine becomes essential in PKU pts because it can no longer be synthesized from phenylalanine

PKU results from an inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine by the phenylalanine hydroxylase system

usually due to an abnormality in the phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme

780
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

causative agent of ‘walking pneumonia’, a condition characterized by a nagging nonproductive cough, low-grade fever and malaise

often, the CXR suggests a severe pneumonia even though the pt appears relatively well

mycoplasma species require cholesterol supplementation in order to grow on artificial media

781
Q

Sarcoidosis

A

most commonly affects young black women and presents with malaise, cough and varied cutaneous findings including erythema nodosum. CXR reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Transbronchial biopsy showing non-caseating granulomas is necessary for diagnosis

782
Q

Spironolactone

A

aldosterone antagonist with mild diuretic effects

based on the results from the RALES trial, addition of low dose spironolactone to standard therapy significantly reduced morbidity and mortality in class III and IV heart failure pts

the benefits of spironolactone in HF pts are more than likely secondary to inhibition of the neurohormonal effects of aldosterone leading to decreased ventricular remodeling and cardiac fibrosis

783
Q

Warfarin-induced skin necrosis

A

The transient procoagulation/anticoagulant imbalance present at the start of warfarin therapy is further exaggerated by a protein C deficiency (or S), leading to a relative hypercoagulable state with thrombotic occlusion of the microvasculature and skin necrosis

784
Q

Musculocutaneous nerve

A

C5-C7 ventral rami

innervated the flexor muscles of the upper arm and provides sensory innervation to the lateral forearm

the musculocutaneous nerve is derived from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus and can be injured by forceful injuries that cause separation of the neck and shoulder

785
Q

NSAIDs associated nephropathy

A

NSAID-associated chronic renal injury is morphologically characterized by papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis

glomerular and vascular abnormalities, if present, are usually mild or may be seen only in advanced stages.

NSAIDs-associated nephropathy is common, especially in pts suffering from chronic pain

786
Q

Lobar pneumonia

A

in lobar pneumonia, the inflammation involves an entire lobe of the lung

the course of the disease includes:

  • congestion (red, heavy, boggy, bacteria exudate)
  • red hepatization (red, firm, airless)
  • gray hepatization (pale and firm)
  • resolution (normal)
787
Q

Pathogenesis of alcohol-induced hepatic steatosis

A

related primarily to a decrease in free fatty acid oxidation secondary to excess NADH production by the 2 major alcohol metabolism enzymes, alcohol dehydrogenase and aldehyde dehydrogenase

788
Q

Bullous pemphigoid

A

autoantibodies to the hemidesmosomes along the basement membrane of the dermal-epidermal junction

789
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity

A

The wheal observed after an insect sting results from an allergic, or Type I hypersensitivity reaction

The allergens in the insect venom result in antibody class switching to IgE on initial exposure, and subsequent exposure results in degranulation of mast cells and basophils with release of histamine and heparin among other vasoactive mediators

This degranulation can cause a response as mild as an urticarial wheal, or as severe as anaphylaxis

790
Q

Vinca alkaloids

A

cell-cycle specific agents that prevent proper separation of chromosomes into daughter cells during the M-phase of the cell cycle

the main dose limiting side effect of vincristine is neurotoxicity, which commonly manifests as peripheral neuropathy

791
Q

maxillary sinuses

A

blunt trauma to the globe can cause orbital blowout fractures. These fractures most commonly involve the medial or inferior orbital walls, because the bone bordering the ethmoid and maxillary sinuses is thin

792
Q

IVC anatomy in the abdomen

A

The inferior vena cava courses through the abdomen and inferior thorax in a location anterior to the right half of the vertebral bodies

the renal veins join the IVC at the level of L1/L2, and the common iliac veins merge to become the IVC at the level of L4

793
Q

mixing of deoxygenated blood in pulmonary circulation

A

The pO2 in the left atrium and ventricle is lower than that in the pulmonary capillaries due to mixing of oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins with deoxygenated blood arising from the bronchial arteries and thebesian veins

794
Q

complication of MI

A

Prolonged burning substernal pain and ST segment elevation in leads I and V3-V6 is strongly suggestive of anterolateral left ventricle infarction

common consequences of left ventricle infarction include left ventricular failure, cardiogenic acute pulmonary edema, pulmonary venous hypertension (congestion) and transudate of plasma into the lung interstitium and alveoli

795
Q

Menstrual cycle

A

Endometrial cells undergo apoptosis upon withdrawal of endocrine stimulation by progesterone

796
Q

ADH

A

antidiuretic hormones act on the medullary segment of the collecting duct to increase urea and water reabsorption, allowing for the production of maximally concentrated urine

797
Q

JAK/STAT

A

Colony-stimulating factors, prolactin, growth hormones and cytokines utilize tyrosine-associated receptors and the JAK/STAT signaling pathway

798
Q

Scurvy

A

symptoms are caused by impaired collagen formation: hemorrhages, subperiosteal hematomas, bleeding into joint spaces, gingival swelling, secondary periodontal infection, anemia, hyperkeratotic papular rashes, impaired wound healing, and weakened immune response to local infections

799
Q

Adrenal glands

A

The adrenal cortex consists of 3 distinct zones: the outer zona glomerulosa, the middle zona fasciculata, and the innter zona reticularis (GFR). The zona glomerulosa synthesizes mineralocorticoids (ex. aldosterone), the zona fasciculata predominantly produces cortisol, and the zona reticularis predominantly produces androgens

800
Q

Aldosterone

A

main effect is to stimulate sodium absorption and potassium and H+ ion excretion at the distal renal tubule. Hypokalemia of hyperaldosteronism can cause profound muscle weakness

801
Q

viral protins

A

Because viruses must use eukaryotic ribosomes for protein synthesis, they must convert their polycistronic genome into monocistronic mRNA

some viruses accomplish this through the production of a polyprotein product from a single mRNA transcript

this product is later cleaved by a viral protease to generate a complete set of functional, individual viral proteins

ex. the picornaviridae family (echovirus)

802
Q

GTP

A

GTP is synthesized by succinyl-CoA synthetase during the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate in the citric acid cycle

during gluconeogenesis, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase uses GTP to synthesize phosphoenolpyruvate from oxaloacetate

803
Q

Infectious esophagitis in HIV-positive pts

A

most common cause is Candida albicans

can also be: CMV, HSV-1

diagnosis relies on endoscopic and microscopic findings

804
Q

prophylaxis to protect the thyroid from excessive accumulation of radioactive 131-I

A

Potassium iodide competitively inhibits thyroid uptake of radioactive iodine isotopes and is often administered following nuclear accidents to protect the thyroid and prevent development of radiation-induced thyroid carcinoma

805
Q

age-related changes

A

Presbyopia and skin wrinkles are age-related changes

Presbyopia occurs due to denaturation of structural proteins within the lens, leading to loss of lens elasticity (can compansate for myopia by displacing the image backward, so that it focuses on the retina)

decreased synthesis and increased breakdown of collagen and elastin contribute to the development of skin wrinkles

806
Q

Haldane / Bohr effect

A

In the lungs, the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin drives the release of H+ and CO2 from hemoglobin (Haldane effect)

In the peripheral tissues, high concentrations of CO2 and H+ facilitate oxygen unloading from hemoglobin (Bohr effect)

807
Q

inhaled anesthetics - side effects

A

Almost all volatile anesthetics increase cerebral blood flow

it is an undesirable effect as it results in increased ICP

other important effects of inhaled anesthetics are myocardial depression, hypotension, respiratory depression and decreased renal function

808
Q

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

A

characterized by atherosclerosis of the mesenteric arteries, resulting in diminished blood flow to the intestine after meals

this causes postprandial epigastric pain (‘intestinal angina’) with associated food aversion / weight loss

Its pathogenesis is similar to angina pectoris

809
Q

Class I (sodium channel blocking) antiarrhythmics

A

IA: Disopyramide, Quinidine, Procainamide (Double Quarter Pounder) - intermediate inhibition of phase 0 depolarization - prolonged AP

IB: Lidocaine, Tocainide, Mexiletine (Lettuce, Tomato, Mayo) - weak inhibition of phase 0 depolarization - shortened AP

IC: Motricizine, Flecainide, Propafenone (More Fries Please) - strong inhibition of phase 0, no AP length change

810
Q

Class IA antiarrhythmics

A

Disopyramide, Quinidine, Procainamide

sodium channel blocking agents that slow phase 0 of the ventricular myocyte action potential and prolong repolarization as well as the refractory period of these cells

811
Q

hep D

A

delta agent, hep delta virus, hep D virus

replication-defective RNA virus that is only capable of causing infection when encapsulated with HBsAg

812
Q

Carcinoid tumors

A

carcinoid tumors confined to the intestine do not cause carcinoid syndrome as their secretory products are metabolized by the liver before entering the systemic circulation

in contrast, intestinal carcinoids that metastasize to the liver and extraintestinal (bronchial) carcinoids release vasoactive substances that avoid first-pass metabolism, resulting in carcinoid syndrome (flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm)

813
Q

Buspirone

A

selective agonist of the 5HT1a receptor and is a safe and effective treatment for generalized anxiety disorder. It has no muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant properties

anti-anxiety agent useful in pts with a history of abuse of anti-anxiety drugs due to its reduced potential for abuse compared to benzodiazepines

814
Q

Postoperative urinary retention with incomplete bladder emptying

A

common complication thought to involve decreased micturition reflex activity, decreased contractility of the bladder detrusor, and/or increased vesical sphincter tone. This condition may be treated with a muscarinic agonist (bethanechol) or an a1 blocking drug

815
Q

PPIs

A

proton pump inhibitors (ex. lansoprazole) block the final common pathway of gastric acid secretion from the parietal cells, which is stimulated by acetylcholine, histamine, and gastrin

816
Q

turner syndrome - associated cardiac malformation

A

Turner syndrome is associated with congenital anomalies of the aorta, and the most common defect is a bicuspid aortic valve. A nonstenotic bicuspid aortic valve can manifest as an early systolic, high-frequency click over the right second interspace

Bicuspid aortic valves are at risk for stenosis, insufficiency, and infection

817
Q

Nitrates - side effect

A

nitrates can lead to a reflex tachycardia by causing a relative hypotension that the body responds to with catecholamine release

this adverse effect can be prevented by administering beta-adrenergic blockers with nitrates

818
Q

rheumatoid arthritis tx

A

Although very effective and capable of producing quick symotom relief, glucocorticoids are usually used only for short-term therapy of rheumatoid arthritis due to their unfavorable side effect profile

methotrexate is the preferred disease-modifying tx for most pts with moderate-severe rheumatoid arthritis, response takes weeks to occur

819
Q

Adenoma-to-carcinoma sequence

A

series of gene mutations that leads to the development of colon adenocarcinoma

includes 3 stages:
progression from normal mucosa to small polyp (APC mutation)
increase in the size of the polyps (K-ras mutation)
malignant transformation (p53 mutation)

820
Q

SLE - pancytopenia

A

Pancytopenia (decreased erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets) is common in pts with systemic lupus erythematosus. It frequently occurs due to the formation of autoantibodies against blood cells (type II hypersensitivity). In contrast, lupus nephritis is caused by immune complex deposition within the glomerulus (type III hypersensitivity)

821
Q

Ticlopidine

A

Neutropenia is seen in about 1% of pts on ticlopidine and typically presents with fever and mouth ulcers. Rare, but serious complication - CBC should be monitored biweekly for the first 3 months

822
Q

Total flow

A

= flow velocity * cross sectional area = constant

823
Q

Neisseria meningitidis

A

can cause upper respiratory infection, meningitis, and meningococcemia

immunity against these bacteria is provided by antibodies against their polysaccharide capsules

the meningococcal vaccine contains capsular polysaccharides from major serotypes of N meningitidis and induces production of protective anticapsular antibodies

824
Q

Hematogenous osteomyelitis

A

most common in children and usually affects the metaphysis of long bones due to the slower blood flow and capillary fenestrae in this region

without proper treatment, the infection can progress to chronic suppurative osteomyelitis

825
Q

Relative risk reduction =

A

[absolute risk control - absolute risk treatment] _________

absolute risk control

826
Q

Shigellosis

A

infectious disease caused by various species of Shigella

S. sonnei is the most common (~80%) etiological agent in the US

Shigella invades the GI mucosa by first gaining access to M cells in Peyer’s patches in the ileum through endocytosis

Shigella subsequently lyses the endosome, multiplies, and spreads laterally into other epithelial cells, causing cell death and ulceration with hemorrhage and diarrhea

827
Q

Diabetic mononeuropathy

A

often involves cranial nerve III

caused by predominantly central ischemia, which affects the somatic nerve fibers but spares peripheral parasympathetic fibers

symptoms include ptosis, a ‘down and out’ gaze and normal light and accommodation reflexes

828
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

facultative intracellular gram-negative bacillus that can cause a systemic infection

symptoms include high fever, cough, confusion, and diarrhea

the most common lab abnormality seen with Legionella pneumonia is hyponatremia, and sputum Gram stain often shows many neutrophils but few or no new organisms

829
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma

A

typically presents as blue-violet or brownish skin plaques on the extremities and mucous membranes of HIV-positive patients

this tumor arises from primitive mesenchymal cells and is strongly associated with HHV-8

830
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease

A

most often caused by N gonorrhoeae and C trachomatis

If urethritis, cervicitis or PID is not treated they can lead to scarring of the fallopian tubes and infertility or ectopic pregnancy

must treat for both - 3rd generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone) + azithromycin or doxycycline

831
Q

Integral membrane proteins

A

contain transmembrane domains composed of alpha helices with hydrophobic amino acid residues such as valine, alanine, isoleucine, methionine and phenylalanine

832
Q

menstrual cycle hormones

A

as the follicular phase advances, a progressive rise in serum estradiol is seen. High levels of estrogen in the late follicular phase have a positive feedback effect on LH production, causing a very high LH level, known as ‘LH surge’
Progesterone secretion increases following ovulation with the formation of corpus luteum

833
Q

Testicular hydrocele

A

results when serous fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis

the tunica vaginalis is embryologically derived from the peritoneum; when it remains in communication with the peritoneum, a communicating hydrocele results

834
Q

Trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome)

A

most often occurs secondary to nondisjunction during maternal meiosis I. A severe condition, trisomy 13 is strongly associated with cleft lip and palate, polydactyly, rocker-bottem feet and holoprosencephaly

835
Q

Cryptorchidism

A

In pts with cryptorchidism, the seminiferous tubules become atrophic and hyalinized as a result of temperature-induced damage, resulting in a significantly depressed sperm count as well as decreased inhibin levels. Hormonal function of Leydig cells is usually not impaired. Thus, secondary sexual characteristics and sexual performance are normal. Should be surgically corrected early in life to prevent damage to the seminiferous tubules and decrease the pts risk of testicular cancer

836
Q

SGLT2 inhibitors (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin)

A

oral anti-diabetic agents that work by decreasing proximal tubular resorption of glucose, thereby promoting urinary glucose loss

recommended to monitor serum creatinine before and after initiating therapy with SGLT2 inhibitors

837
Q

Cortisol - permissive effect

A

has several permissive effects

example: increases vascular and bronchial smooth muscle reactivity to catecholamines

(synergistic / additive effects happen when 2 drugs have similar actions)

838
Q

Central diabetes insipidus

A

distinguished from nephrogenic DI by administration of antidiuretic hormone

isolated damage to the posterior pituitary gland produces only transient central DI, while damage to the hypothalamic nuclei will cause permanent central DI

839
Q

Administration of metyrapone

A

will cause a decrease in cortisol synthesis via inhibition of 11-B-hydroxylase

In pts with an intact hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, this will cause a reactive increase in ACTH, 11-deoxycortisol and urinary 17-hydroxycorticosteroid levels

840
Q

5a reductase deficiency

A

male neonates are born with feminized external genitalia that typically masculinize at puberty

841
Q

precocious puberty and growth

A

Sex hormones promote both growth and epiphyseal plate closure; hence, precocious puberty may result in a shorter stature, despite an initial growth spurt

gigantism is caused by excessive pituitary production of growth hormone, these pts achieve enormous heights because, unlike excessive sex steroids, excessive IGF-1 does not lead to premature closure of the epiphysis

842
Q

protein kinase A

A

Protein kinase A is primarily responsible for the intracellular effects of the G-protein / adenylate cyclase second messenger system

some hormone receptors that use this mechanism include the TSH, glucagon, PTH and beta-adrenergic receptors

843
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

usually a benign (90%) tumor arising from the adrenal medulla

typically produce episodic symptoms

diagnosis is confirmed by the measurements of urine and plasma catecholamines and catecholamine metabolites such as metanephrines

844
Q

Classic galactosemia

A

results from deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase; this defect is the most common cause of galactosemia. The clinical features of this illness include vomiting, lethargy and failure to thrive soon after breastfeeding is begun

845
Q

most common cause of death in pts with DM

A

Pts with noncoronary atherosclerotic disease, diabetes mellitus or chronic kidney disease are at the same risk of cardiovascular events (MI, stroke) as pts with known coronary heart disease

coronary heart disease is the most common cause of death in pts with DM

846
Q

amino acid, net charge

A

protons dissociate from amino acids (giving it a negative charge) when the pH exceeds the pKa associated with each given proton

847
Q

hypocalcemia

A

neuromuscular hyperexcitability can become clinically apparent when serum calcium levels are

848
Q

glucocorticoid effect on neutrophil count

A

the acute effects of corticosteroids on the CBC include: increased neutrophil count, and decreased lymphocyte, monocyte, basophil and eosinophil counts

the increase in neutrophil count results from ‘demargination’ of neutrophils previously attached to the vessel wall

849
Q

Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)

A

activate PPAR-gamma, which is the nuclear receptor that alters the transcription of genes responsible for glucose and lipid metabolism

TZDs exert their glucose-lowering effect by decreasing insulin resistance

850
Q

Carnitine deficiency

A

impairs fatty acid transport into mitochondria, restricting ketone body production (ex. acetoacetate)

851
Q

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

seen in pts with chronic renal failure

these pts have an elevated serum PTH, accompanied by normal to low serum calcium levels, and high serum phosphorus levels

circulating 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D levels are low due to the deficiency of 1-alpha-hydroxylase, an enzyme that resides in the kidneys

852
Q

TZD (ex. pioglitazone) side effects

A

fluid retention, with resultant weight gain and edema, is a common side effect of thiazolidinedione therapy

this excess fluid can exacerbate underlying congestive heart failure

853
Q

PCOS

A

associated with oligomenorrhea, obesity, hirsutism, and polycistic ovaries

increased risk for developing endometrial adenocarcinoma and type 2 DM

854
Q

Lipoic acid

A

Lipoic acid is a cofactor for several mitochondrial enzymes: PDH (deficiency results in lactic acidosis), a-ketoglutarate DH and branched-chain ketoacid DH (deficiency results in maple syrup urine disease)

855
Q

Cushing syndrome

A

ACTH is the major trophic hormone of the zona fasciculata and reticularis, whereas the zona glomerulosa is primarily regulated by angiotensin II

prolonged ACTH stimulation causes hyperplasia of the zona fasciculata and reticularis, resulting in excessive cortisol production (Cushing syndrome)

856
Q

primary hyperparathyroidism

A

hypercalcemia: ‘bones, stones, groans and psychiatric overtones’

Osteitis fibrosa cystica is the most characteristic skeletal manifestation of primary hyperparathyroidism

this condition presents with bone pain, subperiosteal erosions affecting the phalanges of the hand, a ‘salt and pepper’ skull and brown tumor bone cysts

857
Q

Adrenal crisis tx

A

adrenal crisis: hypotensive, tachycardic, hypoglycemic, hx consistent with adrenal insufficiency (vomiting, weight loss, hyperpigmentation)

cortisol is essential to cardiovascular and metabolic adaptations during stress

the ideal treatment for pts in adrenal crisis is administration of stress-dose corticosteroids

response to vasopressors in the presence of adrenal insufficiency is generally suboptimal (b/c glucocorticoids have a permissive effect on vasoconstriction)

858
Q

de Quervain’s subacute thyroiditis

A

features of thyrotoxicosis, tenderness over the thyroid gland, increased ESR and a markedly-reduced radioactive iodine uptake are diagnostic of granulomatous thyroiditis

mixed, cellular infiltration with occasional multinucleate giant cells are characteristic histologic findings

859
Q

sulfonylurea use SE

A

Sulfonylurea or meglitinide abuse and insulinoma cause increased insulin, c-peptide, and pro-insulin levels

the only way to distinguish between insulinoma and sulfonylurea or meglitinide abuse is by screening the urine or blood for hypoglycemic agents

860
Q

Fructose 2,6-bisphosphate

A

activates glycolysis by inducing phosphofructokinase-1 and inhibits gluconeogenesis by inhibiting fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

high concentrations of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate also decreases the gluconeogenic conversion of alanine to glucose

fructose 2,6-bisphosphate concentration is regulated by a bifunctional enzyme composed of phosphofructokinase-2 and fructose 2,6-bisphosphatase

861
Q

Beta-blockers

A

Beta-blockers ameliorate the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis by decreasing the effect of sympathetic adrenergic impulses on target organs

they also decrease the rate of peripheral conversion of T4 to T3

862
Q

Primary ciliary dyskinesia

A

results from an autosomal recessive mutation in the proteins responsible for normal flagellar and ciliary structure and function (ex. dynein, assembly proteins)

clinical manifestations include situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis, and infertility

863
Q

hydatidiform mole

A

serial measurements of B-hCG should be performed following evacuation of a hydatidiform mole

persistently elevated or rising levels may signify the development of an invasive mole or choriocarcinoma

864
Q

Comedocarcinoma (DCIS)

A

characterized by sheets of pleomorphic, high-grade cells with central necrosis

865
Q

Maternal rubella infection

A

produces a low-grade fever, a maculopapular rash with cephalocaudal progression, and posterior auricular and suboccipital lymphadenopathy

most adult women pts develop polyarthritis and polyarthralgia as sequelae

congenital rubella syndrome is associated with sensorineural deafness, cataracts and cardiac malformations (PDA)

866
Q

Human placental lactogen (hPL)

A

increases insulin resistance, stimulates proteolysis and lipolysis, and inhibits gluconeogenesis

maternal insulin resistance results from increased secretion of hPL, placental growth hormone, estrogens, progesterone and glucocorticoids

867
Q

anorexia-related amenorrhea

A

Pts with anorexia nervosa often experience amenorrhea due to loss of pulsatile secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus

it is important to remember that the defect in anorexia-related amenorrhea begins in the hypothalamus, not the pituitary or ovaries

low estrogen levels over the long-term can result in osteoporosis if left untreated

868
Q

Beta-adrenergic receptor blockade

A

reduces blood pressure and cardiac work, which is beneficial in the acute treatment of myocardial ischemia

however, when noncardioselective agents are used, adverse effects like bronchoconstriction (dose-dependent) may be seen

869
Q

COPD

A

can be caused by bronchial asthma, chronic bronchitis, and/or emphysema

secondary to smoking often

can cause hypoxia sufficient to stimulate increased erythropoietin production by the cortical cells of the kidney

870
Q

Tryptase

A

anaphylaxis is the result of widespread mast cell and basophil degranulation and the release of preformed inflammatory mediators, including histamine and tryptase

Tryptase is relatively specific to mast cells and can be used as a marker for mast cell activation

871
Q

IgE receptors

A

The high-affinity IgE receptor (FceRI) is found on the surface of mast cells and basophils and normally binds the Fc portion of circulating IgE antibodies

Cross-linking of multiple membrane-bound IgE antibodies by a multivalent antigen results in aggregation of the FceRI receptors, causing degranulation and the release of preformed mediators (histamine, tryptase) that initiate an allergic response

872
Q

CYP 450 inducers

A
Carbamazepine
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin 
Rifampin
Griseofulvin
873
Q

CYP 450 inhibitors

A
Cimetidine
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin
Azole antifungals
Grapefruit juice
Isoniazid
Ritonavir (protease inhibitors)
874
Q

Barbituates

A

ex. phenobarbital

induce the hepatic microsomal enzymes, increasing warfarin metabolism and reducing its anticoagulant activity

875
Q

Carbon monoxide

A

CO binds to hemoglobin with much higher affinity than O2, thus preventing oxygen binding to hemoglobin. It also reduces oxygen unloading from hemoglobin in the tissues (left shift)

CO poisoning does not affect the PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in plasma) and does not precipitate methemoglobinemia

876
Q

Hemolytic uremic syndrome

A

HUS affects young children and manifests with acute renal failure, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia
associated with E coli O157:H7 and Shigella

characteristic laboratory abnormalities include decreased RBC count, hematocrit and platelet count and increased bleeding time, LDH, BUN and creatinine

877
Q

Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)

A

Nevirapine, efavirenz, delavirdine

antiretroviral drugs that do not require activation via intracellular phosphorylation

878
Q

most common outcome of HBV-infected adults (>95%)

A

acute hepatitis with mild or subclinical symptoms that eventually completely resolve

879
Q

E coli strain 0157:H7

A

can cause hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS)

rare condition affecting mostly children under 10, the strain of E coli is most commonly contracted after eating undercooked ground beef

880
Q

Upper motor neuron lesions

A

cause contralateral spastic rigidity, hyperreflexia, and paresis

they can affect any part of the pyramidal motor system, including the corticospinal tracts of the spinal cord, the medulla, pons and midbrain, the internal capsule, and the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex)

internal capsule stroke: pure motor weakness, contralateral arm, leg and lower face

881
Q

urea cycle

A

The nitrogen atoms in the urea molecule are derived from NH3 and aspartate in the urea cycle

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS I) is the rate-limiting enzyme in the urea cycle reaction and is activated by N-acetylglutamate

882
Q

IVC anatomy

A

the IVC is formed from the union of the right and left common iliac veins at he level of L4-L5. The renal arteries and veins lie at the level of L1. The IVC returns venous blood to the heart from the lower extremities, portal system, and abdominal and pelvic viscera

883
Q

Measles treatment - vitamin supplement

A

Vit A

884
Q

Marfan’s syndrome

A

due to a defect in fibrillin, an extracellular glycoprotein that is abundant in the zonular fibers of the lens, the periosteum and the aortic media (component of the microfibrils that form a sheath around elastin fibers)

the different locations of fibrillin production explains the varied clinical manifestations of Marfan’s syndrome

885
Q

Achalasia

A

decreased esophageal body peristalsis and poor relaxation of the LES on manometry are typical for achalasia

Achalasia presents with progressive dysphagia, chest pain, food regurgitation and aspiration

Barium swallow shows a dilated esophagus and a ‘bird beak’ deformity of the LES

886
Q

Achondroplasia

A

autosomal dominant disorder that results in a gain-of-function mutation in the FGFR3 gene

Most individuals affected by AD disorders are heterozygous and have a 50% chance of transmitting the mutation to their offspring

887
Q

Hydatid cysts

A

aspiration of hydatid cysts is generally inadvisable, as the spilling of cyst contents within the peritoneum can cause anaphylactic shock

The most common cause is tapeworm, Echinococcus granulosus (endemic regions like australia, sheep and dogs)

888
Q

purified RNA

A

For a purified RNA molecule to induce viral protein synthesis in a host cell, it must be able to act directly as mRNA using the host’s intracellular machinery for translation.

Therefore, in general, purified single-stranded positive-sense RNA (like rhinovirus) can be infectious, single stranded negative sense or double stranded RNA is not

889
Q

Bacterial meningitis

A

causes an increase in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) neutrophil count and protein concentration as well as a decrease in CSF glucose

Streptococcus pneumoniae is a leading cause of community acquired pneumonia, otitis media and meningitis in adults. S. pneumo appears on Gram stain as lancet-shaped, Gram-positive cocci in pairs

890
Q

S saprophyticus

A

is responsible for almost half of all UTIs in sexually active young women. Staphylococcus saprophyticus belongs to coagulase negative staphylococci and is unique among these because it is resistant to novobiocin

891
Q

Scabies

A

highly contagious disease that presents with an intensely pruritic rash (usually gets worse at night) in the flexor surfaces of the wrist, lateral surfaces of the fingers, and the finger webs

Pts usually have excoriations with small, crusted, red papules scattered around the affected areas

diagnosis is confirmed by skin scrapings from excoriated lesions that show mites, ova, and feces under light microscopy

892
Q

Dopaminergic systems

A

Mesolimbic-mesocortical - regulates behavior - schizophrenia association

Nigrostriatal - coordination of voluntary movements - Parkinsonism

Tuberoinfundibular - controls prolactin secretion - hyperprolactinemia

893
Q

Ischemic heart disease - drug tx metabolism

A

Nitroglycerin and Isosorbide dinitrate undergo considerable first-pass metabolism in the liver when taken by the oral route. Interestingly, isosorbide mononitrate is nearly 100% bioavailable when taken by the oral route

894
Q

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and B blockers

A

One major pathway that regulates the RAAS involves the beta-adrenergic receptor pathway

the beta-adrenergic pathway is mediated through sympathetic stimulation of beta-1 receptors located on juxtaglomerular cells

Beta adrenergic blockers like propranolol inhibit renin release by blocking the beta-1 receptor mediated pathway

thus, beta adrenergic blockers can also reduce angiotensin I, angiotensin II, and aldosterone levels

Since beta-blockers do not affect ACE activity, they do not affect bradykinin levels

895
Q

Dysthymic disorder

A

chronic, low-intensity mood disorder that responds well to antidepressant medications

symptoms are less severe than those of major depressive disorder, but they must be present for at least 2 years before the diagnosis can be made

[major depressive: SIGECAPS = sleep disorder, interest defecit, guilt, energy defecit, concentration defecit, appetite disorder, psychomotor retardation or agitation, suicidality]

896
Q

Spironolactone

A

aldosterone antagonist commonly used in treating class III and IV heart failure pts

structurally similar to steroids, spironolactone can cause endocrine effects including gynecomastia, decreased libido and impotence. Gynecomastia occurs in ~10% of pts

Eplerenone is a newer and more selective aldosterone antagonist that may produce less endocrine effects

897
Q

diabetes mellitus type 1

A

autoimmune insulitis (infiltration of islets by inflammatory cells) with progressive beta cell loss is the most common cause

insulin resistance accompanied by relative insulin deficiency is the main cause of diabetes mellitus type 2

898
Q

ischemic injury to brain

A

Irreversible ischemic injury to the brain tissue results in liquefactive necrosis

the infarcted central nervous system tissue is eventually replaced with a cystic astroglial scar

in other organs, lethal ischemic injury results in coagulative necrosis

899
Q

Minute ventilation, alveolar ventilation

A

Minute ventilation = tidal volume * respiratory rate
(includes dead space ventilation)

Alveolar ventilation = respiratory rate * (tidal volume - dead space volume)

900
Q

peptic ulcer disease tx

A

for long term relief eradicate the H pylori infection of the gastric mucosa with antibiotic therapy (2 of: metronidazole, tetracycline, amoxicillin, clarithromycin; + PPI)

901
Q

Conn syndrome tx

A

Aldosterone excess will cause hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and depressed renin. [Alternatively, hypoaldosteronism is the cause of type IV renal tubular acidosis]

Aldosterone antagonists such as spironolactone or eplerenone can be used as medical therapy for Conn’s syndrome

902
Q

Sudden cardiac death

A

coronary artery disease is the underlying etiology in most cases of sudden cardiac death

typically, an acute plaque change will result in acute myocardial ischemia, which may precipitate ventricular fibrillation. Cardiac arrhythmia is the most common cause of death in MI patients during the prehospital phase

ventricular failure is the most common cause of death during the in-hospital phase

other late-onset, potentially lethal complications include ventricular rupture and mural thrombosis with thromboembolism

903
Q

Type B chronic gastritis

A

typically affects the gastric antrum and is usually the result of H. pylori infection of the gastric mucosa

associated with an increased risk of gastric adenocarcinoma and MALT lymphoma

904
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

rare, autosomal dominant condition characterized by the presence of capillary hemangioblastomas in the retina and/or cerebellum, as well as congenital cysts and/or neoplasms in the kidney, liver and pancreas

905
Q

NF1 (von reckinghausen’s disease)

A

peripheral nervous system tumor syndrome

neurofibromas, optic nerve gliomas, Lisch nodules and cafe au lait spots

906
Q

Renal artery stenosis

A

marked, noe sided kidney atrophy is suggestive of renal artery stenosis (RAS)

occurs in elderly individuals due to atherosclerotic changes in the intima or in women of childbearing age due to fibromuscular dysplasia.

Hypertension and an abdominal bruit are present

907
Q

Metabolic acidosis - urine chemistry

A

Urinary acid excretion occurs primarily in the form of NH4+ and titratable acids (H2PO4-)

in metabolic acidosis, urinary pH decreases due to increased excretion of free H+, NH4+ and H2PO4-

bicarbonate is completely reabsorbed from the tubular fluid in acidotic states

908
Q

Niemann-Pick disease

A

Autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a deficiency of the sphingomyelinase enzyme and resultant accumulation of sphingomyelin.

Pts present in infancy with loss of motor skills, hepatosplenomegaly, hypotonia and a cherry-red macular spot

Foamy histiocytes are the classic finding on tissue histology.

Death usually occurs before age 3

909
Q

Acute calculous cholecystitis

A

acute inflammation of the gallbladder that is initiated 90% of the time by obstruction of the gallbladder neck or cystic duct

910
Q

Glioblastoma multiforme

A

arises within the cerebral hemispheres and frequently crosses the midline. Foci of necrosis and hemorrhage are seen on macroscopic exam

most common primary cerebral neoplasm in adults
(next 2 are meningioma and acoustic neuroma)

911
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

noncaseating granulomas seen on light microscopy of the intestine are characteristic of Crohn’s disease and resemble sarcoid granulomas

[Granulomas are not seen in ulcerative colitis]

Other classic findings in Crohn’s disease: linear or serpiginous ulcerations, a cobblestone appearance of the mucosa, and a transmural inflammatory infiltrate

912
Q

chemo side effects

A

neurotoxicity is the dose-limiting side effect of vincristine therapy
this toxicity results from failure of microtubule polymerization in neuronal axons

other notable adverse effects classically associated with chemotherapeutic agents include:

pulmonary fibrosis and flagellate skin discoloration with bleomycin use

congestive heart failure with doxorubicin

hemorrhagic cystitis with cyclophosphamide

913
Q

Phenytoin metabolism

A

depensd on the function of hepatic P450 oxidases and is dose-dependent

drugs that induce hepatic microsomal enzymes (phenobarbital/barbituates, carbamazepine, rifampin, griseofulvin, chronic alcohol) enhance phenytoin metabolism and decrease its serum concentration

914
Q

P450 inhibitors

A

isoniazid, cimetidine, macrolides, azole antifungals, grapefruit juice

915
Q

Fragile X syndrome

A

arises secnodary to an increase in the number of trinucleotide repeats within the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome

typical clinical features: mental retardation, facial deformities and macroorchidism

916
Q

PE

A

A significant mismatched defect on ventilation-perfusion scan is a specific finding for a pulmonary embolism, which is usually the result of a deep vein thrombosis and part of a continuum of the same disease, known as pulmonary thromboembolism

917
Q

carcinoid syndrome

A

the carcinoid syndrome can cause predominantly right-sided endocardial fibrosis which may progress to pulmonic stenosis and/or restrictive cardiomyopathy

the severity of carcinoid disease correlates with plasma levels of serotonin and urinary excretion of the serotonin metabolite, 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid

918
Q

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

A

Small vessel leukocytoclastic angiitis associated with IgA and C3 deposition

most common in children 3-11, related to recent infection

most children present with palpable skin lesions, with or without abdominal pain and arthralgias

usually self-limiting, but observe carefully because glomerulonephritis and end-stage renal disease are possible complications

919
Q

Cardiac action potential conduction velocity

A

slowest in the AV node, fastest in the Purkinje system

conduction speed of the atrial muscle is higher than that of the ventricular muscle

920
Q

Amino acid derivatives

A

Arginine - Nitric oxide

Arginine + Aspartate - urea

Glycine + succinyl CoA - Heme

Glycine + Arginine + SAM - creatine

Glutamate - GABA, Glutathione

Glutamate + aspartate - pyrimidines

Glutamine + aspartate + glycine - purines

Histidine - histamine

Tyrosine - dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine, thyroxine, melanin

Tryptophan - serotonin, melatonin, niacin

921
Q

Nitric oxide synthesis

A

Nitric oxide is synthesized from arginine by nitric oxide synthase

as a precursor of nitric oxide, arginine supplementation may play an adjunct role in the treatment of conditions that improve with vasodilation, such as stable angina

922
Q

Thalamic nuclei

A

all sensory pathways except olfaction have relay nuclei in the thalamus

the VPL receives impulses from the spinothalamic and medial lemniscus pathways

the VPM from the trigeminal and gustatory pathways

the lateral and medial geniculate bodies are relay nuclei for the visual and auditory pathways (respectively)

923
Q

PCA

A

the posterior cerebral artery branches off the basilar artery and supplies cranial nerves III and IV and other structures in the midbrain

It also supplies the thalamus, medial temporal lobe, splenium of the corpus callosum and occipital lobe

the most common finding with posterior cerebral artery stroke is contralateral homonymous hemianopia, often with macular sparing

924
Q

pacemaker leads

A

Left ventricular leads in biventricular pacemakers course through the coronary sinus, which resides in the atrioventricular groove on the posterior aspect of the heart

925
Q

ACE inhibitor induced renal failure

A

ACE inhibitors cause renal failure by altering renal hemodynamics

ACE inhibition results in efferent arteriole dilatation (reduced angiotensin II), thereby decreasing glomerular pressure and renal perfusion

for pts dependent on efferent arteriole constriction to maintain renal perfusion (those with renal artery stenosis), ACE inhibitors can be detrimental causing acute renal failure or complicating existing renal disease

926
Q

Hep B virus - mechanism of liver injury

A

does not have a cytotoxic effect itself, the presence of viral HBsAg and HBcAg on the cell surface stimulate the host’s cytotoxic CD8+ T lymphocytes to destroy infected hepatocytes

927
Q

Metaplasia

A

adaptive change that occurs in response to chronic epithelial irritation

smoking induces squamous bronchial metaplasia, while long-standing reflux results in columnar metaplasia of the distal esophagus (Barrett’s)

both these conditions increase the risk of malignancy (= premalignant)

928
Q

Sympathetic output

A

Sympathetic output to the viscera is transmitted through two-neuron units that synapse on noradrenergic receptors of the target organs

exceptions:
adrenal glands are directly innervated by preganglionic neurons using acetylcholine
sweat glands are innervated by a 2 neuron efferent system where both neurons use acetylcholine

929
Q

Class 1C antiarrhythmics (ex. flecainide)

A

potent Na channel blockers that exhibit strong use-dependence by prolonging the QRS duration to a greater extent at higher heart rates

Class III antiarrhythmics block the repolarizing potassium current and demonstrate reverse use-dependence (the slower the heart rate, the more the QTc interval is prolonged)

930
Q

HSV-2

A

Infection of the sacral sensory ganglia with a double-stranded DNA virus is likely to eventually result in a recurrent, painful genital rash (genital herpes) secondary to reactivation of the latent herpes simplex virus (HSV-2)

931
Q

Dopamine

A

low doses of dopamine stimulate D1 receptors in the renal and mesenteric vasculature resulting in vasodilation and increased blood flow to these sites

higher doses of dopamine increase cardiac contractility by stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors,

even higher doses produce generalized vasoconstriction by an alpha-1 adrenergic effect

932
Q

Campylobacter

A

infection is a common cause of inflammatory gastroenteritis and can be acquired from contaminated food or domestic animals.

The diarrhea is inflammatory and is accompanied by fever, abdominal pain and tenesmus

associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome

933
Q

antiseptic properties of isopropanol, ethanol

A

alcohols function by disorganizing the lipid structure in membranes, causing them to be leaky, and by denaturing cellular proteins

they are bactericidal, tuberculocidal, fungicidal and virucidal but do not destroy bacterial spores

934
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome

A

can develop during chemotherapy for cancers with rapid cell turnover (poorly differentiated lymphomas and leukemias), substantial tumor burden, or high sensitivity to chemotherapy

characterized by hyperphosphatemia, hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia and hyperuricemia

prevention of tumor lysis syndrome often involves hydration and the use of hypouricemic agents such as allopurinol or rasburicase

935
Q

Intraabdominal infections

A

polymicrobial, B. fragilis (anaerobic gram-neg bacillus) and E coli are the most prominent organisms isolated

936
Q

Reactive arthritis

A

HLA-B27 spondyloarthropathy that can occur following infection by Chlamydia, Campylobacter, Salmonella, Shigella or Yersinia

asymmetric large joint arthritis with sterile synovial fluid on joint aspiration

937
Q

neonatal tetanus prevention

A

ensure that all pregnant women have been vaccinated with the tetanus toxoid, to allow transfer of protective IgG antitoxin antibodies across the placenta to the fetus

938
Q

Cherry hemangiomas

A

small, red, cutaneous papules common in aging adults

they do not regress spontaneously and typically increase in number with age

light microscopy of these lesions shows proliferation of capillaries and post-capillary venules in the papillary dermis

939
Q

Heme synthesis

A

maturing erythrocytes lose their ability to synthesize heme when they lose their mitochondria

mitochondria are necessary for the first and final 3 steps of heme synthesis

940
Q

Pulsus paradoxus

A

important clue to cardiac tamponade

defined as a decrease in the systolic pressure of 10 mmHg or more during inspiration as compared with the pressure during exhalation

941
Q

COX-2

A

Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2

COX-2 is an inducible enzyme that is normally undetectable in most tissues except in the case of inflammation

942
Q

Oral metronidazole side effect

A

can cause disulfiram-like efects when combined with alcohol

used to treat giardiasis, trichomonas vaginitis and bacterial vaginosis

943
Q

Factor V Leiden

A

1-9% of caucasians worldwide are heterozygote carriers of factor V Leiden, which is modified to resist activated protein C

the resulting hypercoagulable state predisposes to deep vein thromboses, which are the source of most pulmonary emboli

944
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis

A

autosomal dominant

results from red blood cell cytoskeleton abnormalities; most commonly, spectrin and ankyrin defects

the definitive test for spherocytosis is a positive osmotic fragility test (lysis of blood cells when intubated in hypotonic saline)

945
Q

Polycistronic

A

bacterial mRNA can be polycistronic, meaning that one mRNA codes for several proteins

example: bacterial lac operon, which codes for the proteins necessary for lactose metabolism by E. coli; the transcription and translation of these bacterial proteins is regulated by a single promoter, operator, and set of regulatory elements

946
Q

Morphine tolerance

A

common problem in the treatment of pain

mechanism may involve increased phosphorylation of opioid receptors, increased adenylyl cyclase activity, or increased NO levels

activation of NMDA receptors by glutamate is believed to enhance morphine tolerance by increasing phosphorylation of opioid receptors and increasing nitric oxide levels

NMDA receptor blockers, like ketamine, block the actions of glutamate and effectively decrease morphine tolerance

947
Q

Nitrates side effect

A

all nitrates, both long and short acting, are most commonly associated with the side effects of HEADACHE AND FACIAL FLUSHING

these reactions occur because of the vasodilatory properties of nitrates in the meninges and skin

948
Q

PCOS - tx for fertility

A

clomiphene

estrogen receptor modulator that decreases the negative feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus by circulating estrogen and thereby increases gonadotropin production (FSH, LH and ovulation)

949
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

high arterial blood pH, HCO3- and pCO2

vomiting/nasogastric suctioning and thiazide/loop diuretic use cause volume and Cl- depletion, resulting in metabolic alkalosis that is saline-responsive

in contrast, hyperaldosteronism leads to metabolic alkalosis that is saline-unresponsive

determining the pts volume status and measuring the urinary chloride concentration can help to identify the cause of metabolic alkalosis

950
Q

Cardiac (or pericardial) tamponade

A

presents clinically with hypotension, tachycardia, and an elevated central venous pressure that produces jugular vein distension (JVD)
heart sounds may be muffled on cardiac auscultation and systolic blood pressure may drop more than 10mmHg on inspiration (pulsus paradoxus)

951
Q

pulmonary fibrosis

A

presents with gradually progressive dyspnea and bilateral reticulonodular opacities on chest x-ray

pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern and lung biopsy shows patchy interstitial lymphocytic inflammation and fibrosis of the alveolar walls

952
Q

Cholinomimetics (ex. the cholinergic agonist Bethanechol)

A

indicated in non-obstructive urinary retention, paralytic ileus and glaucoma

side effects include nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, dyspnea and increased secretions

953
Q

diffusion

A

the net number of molecules diffusing across a semipermeable membrane per second is proportional to the molecule’s concentration difference across the membrane, the total membrane surface area, and the solubility of the substance. Diffusion is inversely proportional to the total membrane thickness and the molecular weight of the molecule

954
Q

Raphe nuclei

A

location of the only serotonin-releasing neurons in the CNS

these neurons disseminate widely to synapse on numerous structures in the CNS

955
Q

Meningococcal lipooligosaccharide (LOS)

A

responsible for many of the toxic effects observed in meningitis and meningococcemia. Blood levels of LOS correlate closely with morbidity and mortality

956
Q

Common peroneal nerve injury

A

common and typically results from trauma to the leg near the head of the fibula

signs include ‘foot drop’ and a characteristic ‘steppage gait’

957
Q

weakening of inspiratory diaphragmatic contractions

A

progressively weakening diaphragmatic contractions during maximal voluntary ventilation with intact phrenic nerve stimulation indicate neuromuscular junction pathology (eg, myasthenia gravis) and/or abnormally rapid diaphragmatic muscle fatigue (eg, restrictive lung or chest wall disease)

958
Q

Communicating hydrocephalus

A

symmetrical enlargement of the ventriculi is characteristic of communicating hydrocephalus

communicating hydrocephalus usually occurs secondary to dysfunction or obliteration of subarachnoid villi (arachnoid granulations)

this dysfunction is usually a sequelae of meningeal infection (including tuberculosis meningitis) or subarachnoid/intraventricular hemorrhage

959
Q

Opioid tolerance

A

Tolerance to opioid induced constipation and miosis does not readily occur

to prevent bowel complications, it is recommended to treat pts prophylactically with adequate fluid intake and daily laxatives

960
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis

A

diagnosed by indai ink staining of cerebrovascular fluid

main treatment is amphotericin B and flucytosine, followed by long-term fluconazole

961
Q

Lithium

A

can cause hypothyroidism and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and can accumulate in pts with renal insufficiency

Serum thyroid stimulating hormone levels, lithium levels and renal function should be measured routinely

962
Q

Puffer fish poisoning - tetrodoxin

A

tetrodoxin is a neurotoxin produced by microorganisms associated with the fish

binds to voltage-gated sodium channels in nerve and cardiac tissue, preventing sodium influx and depolarization

963
Q

Friedreich ataxia

A

autosomal recessive

mutated gene on chromosome 9 has an increased number of trinucleotide repeats

often associated with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, diabetes mellitus, kyphoscoliosis and foot deformities

964
Q

Atropine

A

indicated for the treatment of bradycardia as it decreases vagal influence on the SA and AV nodes. A common side effect is increased intraocular pressure. It may precipitate acute close-angle glaucoma (unilateral severe eye pain and visual disturbances) in susceptible individuals

965
Q

SAH

A

presents with a generalized, excruciating headache, classically described as ‘the worst headache of my life’

usually occurs due to rupture of saccular (berry) aneurysms or arteriovenous malformations

Berry aneurysms of the circle of Willis are associated with ADPKD

966
Q

Neisseria meningitidis - route of contamination

A

gains access to the CNS by first colonizing the nasopharynx and subsequently invading the mucosal epithelium and gaining access to the bloodstream

through the blood, it spreads to the choroid plexus, gains access to the CNS through the blood-brain barrier, and initiates an inflammatory process

967
Q

Methylmalonic acidemia

A

(also known as methylmalonic aciduria)

results from a defect in the isomerization reaction that transforms methylmalonyl CoA to succinyl CoA, prior to succinyl CoA entering the TCA cycle

968
Q

Lesions of the occipital cortex (eg, posterior cerebral artery occlusion)

A

can produce contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

969
Q

CN III lesion

A

ptosis, a downward and laterally deviated eye, impaired pupillary constriction and accommodation, and diagonal diplopia

the most dreaded cause of CN III palsy is an enlarging intracranial aneurysm

970
Q

lesion in Wernicke’s area

A

can cause receptive aphasia, characterized by well-articulated, nonsensical speech paired with a lack of language comprehension (Wernicke - Word salad)

wernicke’s area is located in the auditory association cortex within the posterior portion of the superior temporal gyrus in the dominant temporal lobe

the MCA (middle cerebral artery) supplies Broca’s area (superior division) and Wernicke’s area (inferior division)

971
Q

Malignant hyperhermia

A

occurs after administration of inhalation anesthetics and/or succinylcholine to genetically susceptible individuals

treated with dantrolene that blocks ryanodine receptors and prevents release of Ca into the cytoplasm of skeletal muscle fibers

972
Q

Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) syndrome

A

typically occurs 2-8 weeks after exposure to high-risk drugs such as anticonvulsants (eg, phenytoin, carbamazepine), allopurinol, sulfonamides (eg, sulfasalazine), and antibiotics (eg, minocycline, vancomycin)

patients typically develop fever, generalized lymphadenopathy, facial edema, diffuse skin rash, eosinophilia and internal organ dysfunction

973
Q

adrenergic agonists

A

inhibition of uterine contractions (tocolysis) is a result of B2 adrenergic receptor stimulation

Alpha-1 receptor stimulation causes contraction of the ocular pupillary dilator muscle, resulting in mydriasis (pupillary dilation)

974
Q

DNA polymerase I

A

5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity in addition to its 5’ to 3’ polymerase and 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activities

this 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity is used to remove the RNA primer (which initiates DNA polymerization) and to remove damaged DNA

975
Q

Selegiline

A

inhibitor of MAO type B and can prevent MPTP-induced damage of dopaminergic neurons

used clinically to delay the progression of Parkinson disease

Many neurologists favor the use of combinations of selegiline, anticholinergics and amantadine until they no longer provide control of symptoms. Only then is levadopa/carbidopa introduced

976
Q

Acoustic neuromas

A

commonly located at the cerebellopontine angle and arise from cranial nerve (CN) VIII

pts may have ipsilateral sensorineural hearing loss/tinnitus and vertigo (CN VIII), loss of facial sensation (CN V), and facial paresis (CN VII)

bilateral acoustic neuromas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2

977
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A

facultative intracellular, produces a very narrow zone of beta-hemolysis on blood agar, shows tumbling motility at 22C and can be cultured at temperatures as low as 4C. Intact cell-mediated immunity is essential for the elimination of the bacterium from the body. Neonates up to 3 months of age are especially vulnerable as their cell-mediated immunity is not yet fully developed

978
Q

Transamination reactions

A

typically occur between an amino acid and a-keto acid

the amino group from the amino acid is transferred to the a-keto acid, and the a-keto acid in turn becomes an amino acid

pyridoxal phosphate (vit B6) serves as a cofactor in amino acid transamination and in decarboxylation reactions

979
Q

Deficiency of the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase or its cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin

A

causes accumulation of phenylalanine in body fluids and the CNS

homozygous infants are normal at birth but gradually develop severe intellectual disability and seizures if left untreated

hypopigmentation of the skin, hair, eyes and catecholaminergic brain nuclei is also frequently seen

980
Q

cryptococcus neoformans

A

present in soil and pigeon droppings

the yeast is transmitted via the respiratory route, with the lungs as the primary site of entry

in immunocompromised pts, lung infection may be followed by dissemination of C. neoformans, often into the CNS

981
Q

Severe vitamin E deficiency

A

closely resembles the clinical presentation of Friedereich ataxia

Vit E is a lipid soluble vitamin that has antioxidative properties

degeneration of the spinocerebellar tracts, dorsal column of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves

982
Q

Enteroviruses

A

most common viral cause of aseptic meningitis

coxsackievirus, echovirus, poliovirus

Poliovirus can cause lower motor neuron injury in addition to meningitis, especially in non-immunized individuals from endemic areas

983
Q

Fragile X syndrome

A

common cause of inherited mental retardation

X-linked and affects males

pts have mental retardation, dysmorphic facial features (large jaw, large protruding ears) and macroorchidism

984
Q

First pharyngeal/brachial arch

A

can be poorly formed during embryonic development resulting in first arch syndrome
abnormalities include malformation of the mandible, maxilla, malleus, incus, zygoma, vomer, palate and temporal bone

the first arch is associated with the trigeminal nerve

985
Q

Hydrocephalus in infants

A

presents with irritability, poor feeding, increased head circumference and enlarged ventricles on CT

long-term sequelae of hydrocephalus include lower extremity spasticity due to stretching of the periventricular pyramidal tracts, visual disturbances, and learning disabilities

986
Q

Alzheimer’s dementia

A

neurofibrillary tangles and amyloid plaques

987
Q

Rifampin

A

chemoprophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis

prescribed to all close contacts of any pt who has active disease within 2 weeks of diagnosis

vaccine is typically not used for post exposure prophylaxis

988
Q

Acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminal vesicles at the neuromuscular junction depends on

A

the influx of extracellular calcium into the presynaptic terminal

Ca++ influx into the nerve terminal occurs following neuronal depolarization and opening of voltage-gated calcium channels

989
Q

Cholinergic agonists

A

bind to muscarinic receptors on endothelial cells and promote release of NO (EDRF)

NO activates guanylate cyclase and diminishes endothelium calcium concentration

this produces vasodilatation

990
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

A

as opposed to serotonin syndrome, the neuroleptic malignant syndrome is distinguished clinically by an absence of myoclonus and by the presence of rigidity

Dopamine agonists (bromocriptine) and/or direct muscle relaxants (dantrolene) have been used to decrease mortality rates associated with the neuroleptic malignant syndrome, but there is no way to prevent it

most commonly associated with Haloperidol (used to treat agitation)

991
Q

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

regulates circadian rhythm

processes light information and relays it to other hypothalamic nuclei and the pineal gland to modulate body temperature and the production of hormones such as cortisol and melatonin

Melatonin supplementation is recommended for the treatment of insomnia associated with jetlag

992
Q

DOPA decarboxylase and catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) blockers

A

increase levadopa availability to the brain

Entacapone and tolcapone are the currently available COMt inhibitors

993
Q

Narcolepsy (low levels of orexin/hypocretin)treatment

A

scheduled daytime naps and psychostimulants (eg, modafinil) for daytime sleepiness

994
Q

Carbamazepine

A

used for simple partial, complex partial, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures

acts by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels in neuronal membranes

can cause bone marrow suppression, so blood counts should be reviewed often

995
Q

superior orbital fissure

A

oculomotor nerve (CN III), ophthalmic nerve (CN V1) branches, trochlear nerve (CN IV), abducens nerve (CN VI) and superior ophthalmic vein enter the orbit via the superior orbital fissure

996
Q

Restless leg syndrome

A

characterized by uncomfortable sensation in the legs accompanied by an urge to move the legs

worse at rest and when falling asleep

dopamine agonists are the preferred medication (ropinirole, pramipexole)

997
Q

ischemic-hypoxic encephalopathy

A

profound cerebral hypoperfusion may lead to global cerebral ischemia (ischemic-hypoxic encephalopathy)

watershed infarcts occur between the zones of perfusion of the anterior, middle and posterior cerebral arteries

these infarcts typically appear as bilateral wedge-shaped strips of necrosis over the cerebral convexity, parallel and adjacent to the longitudinal cerebral fissure

998
Q

Anticentromere Ab

A

limited scleroderma (CREST)

999
Q

antihemidesmosome Ab

A

bullous pemphigoid

1000
Q

anti-desmosome (anti-desmoglobin)

A

pemphigus vulgaris

[positive Nikolsky sign - The eraser is placed on your skin and gently twirled back and forth –> a blister will form in the area, usually within minutes.
A positive result is usually a sign of a blistering skin condition. People with a positive sign have loose skin that slips free from the underlying layers when rubbed. The area beneath is pink and moist, and usually very tender.]