Uworld Pharmacology Flashcards

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1
Q

alteplase

A

Thrombolytic agent

  • are often prescribed to resolve acute thrombotic events (eg, ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, massive pulmonary embolism).
  • They are recombinant plasminogen activators that activate the blood fibrinolytic system and dissolve thrombi.
  • contraindicated in clients with active bleeding, recent trauma, aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, history of hemorrhagic stroke, and uncontrolled hypertension (blood pressure >180/110 mm Hg). Administering alteplase in the presence of these conditions can cause hemorrhage, including life-threatening intracerebral hemorrhage
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2
Q

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxae

A

(Bactrim) is a sulfonamide antibiotic, commonly referred to as a sulfa drug.

  • These antibiotics are prescribed to treat bacterial infections (eg, urinary tract infections).
  • Contraindications include hypersensitivity to sulfa drugs, and pregnancy or breastfeeding.
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3
Q

Glyburide

A

used to treat diabetes mellitus, and it can cause significantly low blood sugar if ingested by a client who does not have diabetes

  • is a sulfonylurea and has the potential to cause a sulfa cross-sensitivity reaction.
  • The major adverse effects of sulfonylurea medications are hypoglycemia and weight gain.
  • Clients should be taught to use sunscreen and protective clothing as serious sunburns can occur.
  • Clients should avoid alcohol as it lowers blood glucose and can lead to severe hypoglycemia.
  • carry a risk for severe and prolonged hypoglycemia in the geriatric population due to potential delayed elimination. Avoidance of these drugs is recommended. Instead, other medications that are at lower risk for hypoglycemia should be used (eg, metformin)
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4
Q

Common diuretics that can cause sulfa allergies

A

thiazides, furosemide are sulfa derivatives and can cause cross-sensitivity reaction.

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5
Q

Crystalluria is a potential adverse effect

A

of sulfa medications.

- Clients should drink at least 2-3 L of water daily to prevent crystalluria.

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6
Q

What foods decrease the effects of warfarin

A

Warfarin - works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

  • Consumption of foods rich in vitamin K will decreases the effectiveness of warfarin
  • clients must be taught to eat the same amount of or avoid dark, green, leafy vegetables.

Clients are not instructed to remove those foods from their diet but are encouraged to be consistent in the intake of foods high in vitamin K, including leafy green vegetables, asparagus, broccoli, kale, Brussels sprout, and spinach.

Several beverages also affect warfarin therapy. Green tea, grapefruit juice, and cranberry juice may alter its anticoagulant effects.

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7
Q

nifedipine

A
  • Peripherally acting calcium channel block
  • used to treat hypertension and do not worsen bronchoconstriction
  • cause vasodilation, and clients may develop peripheral edema
  • — This is an expected, frequent side effect and is not an allergic reaction.
  • – Clients are advised to elevate the legs when lying down and to use stockings.
  • also used to suppress uterine contractions in preterm labor, allowing pregnancy to be prolonged for 2-7 days so that corticosteroid administration can improve fetal lung maturity.
  • avoid grapefruit juice!! - cause severe hypotension
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8
Q

The following should be taught to clients taking tetracyclines (eg, tetracycline, doxycycline, minocycline):

A
  • Take on an empty stomach – for optimum absorption, tetracyclines should be taken 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals
  • Avoid antacids or dairy products – tetracyclines should not be taken with iron supplements, antacids, or dairy products as they bind with the drug and decrease its absorption
  • Take with a full glass of water – tetracyclines can cause pill-induced esophagitis and gastritis; the risk can be reduced by taking with a full glass of water and remaining upright after pill ingestion
  • Photosensitivity – severe sunburn can occur with tetracycline. The client should use sunblock
  • Medications such as tetracycline and rifampin can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives; additional contraceptive techniques will be needed
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9
Q

Drug of choice to treat SVT

A

Adenosine is the drug of choice to treat SVT and has a 5- to 6-second half-life (the time it takes for the drug to be reduced to half of its original concentration).

  • Placing the IV line as close as possible, not distal, to the heart is essential for the drug to have full effect.
  • Adenosine is given rapidly over 1-2 seconds and then followed by a rapid 20-mL normal saline flush.
  • Transient asystole is common, and clients often experience flushing and dizziness.
  • Repeat boluses of 12 mg may be given twice if the rapid rhythm persists
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10
Q

benztropine

A

(Cogentin) - Anticholinergic

  • used in the treatment of extrapyramidal side effects associated with antipsychotic medications or metoclopramide.
  • given for tremors for parkinsons
  • Give IV for a dystonic reaction –Severe neck spasms in an individual taking haloperidol (and other psychotropic medications)
  • a common side effect is xerostomia (dry mouth) due to the blockade of muscarinic receptors of the salivary glands, which inhibits salivation. Sugar-free candies or gum may be used to alleviate dry mouth and throat
  • in clients with benign prostatic hyperplasia or glaucoma, caution must be taken as anticholinergic drugs can precipitate urinary retention and an acute glaucoma episode
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11
Q

radioactive iodine (RAI)

A
  • the primary treatment for nonpregnant adults with hyperthyroid disorders such as Graves’ disease (a type of autoimmune hyperthyroid disease).
  • RAI damages or destroys the thyroid tissue, thereby limiting thyroid secretion, and can result in hypothyroidism. Clients need to take thyroid supplementation (levothyroxine) for life.
  • The use of RAI is contraindicated in pregnancy and could cause harm to a fetus. Pregnancy results should therefore be confirmed using a valid pregnancy test in all clients who still have menstrual cycles rather than using a subjective form of assessment such as asking when the last menstrual period occurred
  • Radiation thyroiditis and parotitis, which cause dryness and irritation to the mouth, may occur after RAI treatment.
  • -The nurse can teach the client to take sips of water frequently or to use a salt and soda gargle solution 3-4 times daily to relieve these symptoms.
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12
Q

levothyroxine

A
  • thyroid replacement supplement for hypothyroidism
  • used to replace thyroid hormone in clients with hypothyroidism (inadequate thyroid hormone) and for those who have had their thyroid removed.
  • These clients must understand that this medication must be taken for the rest of their lives
  • A client’s dose is adjusted based on serum TSH levels to prevent too much or too little hormone. Clients must be taught to report signs of excess thyroid hormone such as heart palpitations/tachycardia, weight loss, and insomnia
  • safe to take during pregnancy
  • best to take this medication first thing in the morning as it is best absorbed on an empty stomach (1 hour before or 2 hours after a meal)

Several medications impair the absorption of levothyroxine (Synthroid). Common offenders are antacids, calcium, and iron preparations. Some of these could be present in several over-the-counter multivitamin and mineral tablets. Therefore, clients with hypothyroidism should be instructed to take levothyroxine on an empty stomach, preferably in the morning, separately from other medications.

The client’s therapeutic response to levothyroxine (Synthroid) is evaluated by resolution of hypothyroidism symptoms. The expected response includes improved well-being with elevated mood, higher energy levels, and a heart rate that is within normal limits. The nurse should consult the health care provider if the heart rate is >100/min, or if the client reports chest pain, nervousness, or tremors; this may indicate that the dose is higher than necessary. Pharmacological therapy manages the symptoms of hypothyroidism, but it takes up to 8 weeks after initiation to see the full therapeutic effect

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13
Q

alprazolam =

A

Xanax - Benzodiazepine

  • commonly used antianxiety drugs.
  • work by potentiating endogenous GABA, a neurotransmitter that decreases excitability of nerve cells, particularly in the limbic system of the brain, which controls emotions.
  • may cause sedation, which can interfere with daytime activities. Giving the dose at bedtime will help the client sleep.
  • never be stopped abruptly. Instead, it should be tapered gradually to prevent rebound anxiety and a withdrawal reaction characterized by increased anxiety, confusion, and more.
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14
Q

clonazepam

A

Benzodiazepines - commonly used antianxiety drugs.

  • work by potentiating endogenous GABA, a neurotransmitter that decreases excitability of nerve cells, particularly in the limbic system of the brain, which controls emotions.
  • may cause sedation, which can interfere with daytime activities. Giving the dose at bedtime will help the client sleep.
  • never be stopped abruptly. Instead, it should be tapered gradually to prevent rebound anxiety and a withdrawal reaction characterized by increased anxiety, confusion, and more.
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15
Q

lorazepam =

A

Ativan - Benzodiazepine

  • commonly used antianxiety drugs.
  • considered standard treatment to control agitation in the client in alcohol withdrawal
  • work by potentiating endogenous GABA, a neurotransmitter that decreases excitability of nerve cells, particularly in the limbic system of the brain, which controls emotions.
  • may cause sedation, which can interfere with daytime activities. Giving the dose at bedtime will help the client sleep.
  • never be stopped abruptly. Instead, it should be tapered gradually to prevent rebound anxiety and a withdrawal reaction characterized by increased anxiety, confusion, and more.
  • has a long half-life (10-17 hours). Side effects include drowsiness, dizziness, ataxia, and confusion
  • IV used acutely to control seizures. However, rectal diazepam is often prescribed when the IV form is unavailable or problematic
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16
Q

Eliminating aged cheeses and processed meats is necessary with?

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitors (eg, tranylcypromine, phenelzine), which are used for depressive disorders.

aged cheeses and processed meats contain tyramine

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17
Q

tranylcypromine

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitor - used for depressive disorders.

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18
Q

phenelzine

A

(Nardil) monoamine oxidase inhibitor - used for depressive disorders.

Clients taking MAOIs must avoid high-tyraminefoods to prevent life-threatening hypertensive crisis. Foods and beverages to avoid include aged cheeses (eg, most cheeses except for cream and cottage cheese); protein-rich foods; and foods that have been processed (eg, hot dogs), pickled, fermented (eg, sauerkraut, pepperoni), or smoked (eg, smoked salmon). Most fruits and vegetables (eg, salad, broccoli) contain little to no tyramine

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19
Q

tenecteplase

A

Thrombolytic agent

  • are often prescribed to resolve acute thrombotic events (eg, ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, massive pulmonary embolism).
  • They are recombinant plasminogen activators that activate the blood fibrinolytic system and dissolve thrombi.
  • contraindicated in clients with active bleeding, recent trauma, aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, history of hemorrhagic stroke, and uncontrolled hypertension (blood pressure >180/110 mm Hg). Administering alteplase in the presence of these conditions can cause hemorrhage, including life-threatening intracerebral hemorrhage
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20
Q

reteplase

A

Thrombolytic agent

  • are often prescribed to resolve acute thrombotic events (eg, ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, massive pulmonary embolism).
  • They are recombinant plasminogen activators that activate the blood fibrinolytic system and dissolve thrombi.
  • contraindicated in clients with active bleeding, recent trauma, aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, history of hemorrhagic stroke, and uncontrolled hypertension (blood pressure >180/110 mm Hg). Administering alteplase in the presence of these conditions can cause hemorrhage, including life-threatening intracerebral hemorrhage
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21
Q

amlodipine

A

(Norvasc) - Peripherally acting calcium channel blockers

  • used to treat hypertension and do not worsen bronchoconstriction
  • cause vasodilation, and clients may develop peripheral edema
  • — This is an expected, frequent side effect and is not an allergic reaction.
  • – Clients are advised to elevate the legs when lying down and to use stockings.
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22
Q

felodipine

A
  • Peripherally acting calcium channel blockers
  • cause vasodilation, and clients may develop peripheral edema
  • — This is an expected, frequent side effect and is not an allergic reaction.
  • – Clients are advised to elevate the legs when lying down and to use stockings.
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23
Q

diazepam

A

Benzodiazepine - commonly used antianxiety drugs.

  • work by potentiating endogenous GABA, a neurotransmitter that decreases excitability of nerve cells, particularly in the limbic system of the brain, which controls emotions.
  • may cause sedation, which can interfere with daytime activities. Giving the dose at bedtime will help the client sleep.
  • never be stopped abruptly. Instead, it should be tapered gradually to prevent rebound anxiety and a withdrawal reaction characterized by increased anxiety, confusion, and more.
  • considered standard treatment to control agitation in the client in alcohol withdrawal
  • IV diazepam used acutely to control seizures. However, rectal diazepam is often prescribed when the IV form is unavailable or problematic
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24
Q

Vancomycin

A

(Vancocin) is a potent antibiotic used to treat gram-positive bacterial infections (eg, Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium difficile).

  • strong antibiotics that can cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity
  • To lower the risk of dose-related nephrotoxicity, especially in clients with renal impairment and those who are >60 years of age, serum vancomycin trough levels should be monitored to assess for therapeutic range (10-20 mg/L).
  • normal levels of creatinine (0.6-1.3 mg/dL) and BUN (6-20 mg/dL) are necessary in clients receiving vancomycin.
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25
Q

omeprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor that suppresses the production of gastric acid by inhibiting the proton pump in the parietal cells of the stomach. In most hospitalized clients without a history of GERD or ulcers, PPIs are prescribed to prevent stress ulcers from developing during surgery or a major illness.

  • Although evidence has shown that two-thirds of clients who receive PPIs do not need them, these medications are still widely prescribed in hospitalized clients. PPIs can be identified by their “-prazole” ending (eg, pantoprazole, lansoprazole, esomeprazole).
  • used for GERD, also used for ulcer tx, and prevention
  • PPIs impair intestinal calcium absorption and therefore are associated with decreased bone density, which increases the possibility of fractures of the spine, hip, and wrist.
  • PPIs cause acid suppression that otherwise would have prevented pathogens from more easily colonizing the upper gastrointestinal tract. This leads to increased risk of pneumonias.
  • can possibly cause C.diff
  • associated with increased risk of pneumonia, Clostridium difficile diarrhea, and calcium malabsorption (osteoporosis
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26
Q

proton pump inhibitors =

A

prazoles

  • used for GERD
  • PPIs impair intestinal calcium absorption and therefore are associated with decreased bone density, which increases the possibility of fractures of the spine, hip, and wrist.
  • PPIs cause acid suppression that otherwise would have prevented pathogens from more easily colonizing the upper gastrointestinal tract. This leads to increased risk of pneumonias.
  • can possibly cause C.diff
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27
Q

lansoprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

  • used for GERD
  • PPIs impair intestinal calcium absorption and therefore are associated with decreased bone density, which increases the possibility of fractures of the spine, hip, and wrist.
  • PPIs cause acid suppression that otherwise would have prevented pathogens from more easily colonizing the upper gastrointestinal tract. This leads to increased risk of pneumonias.
  • can possibly cause C.diff
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28
Q

pantoprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

  • used for GERD, also used for ulcer tx and prevention
  • PPIs impair intestinal calcium absorption and therefore are associated with decreased bone density, which increases the possibility of fractures of the spine, hip, and wrist.
  • PPIs cause acid suppression that otherwise would have prevented pathogens from more easily colonizing the upper gastrointestinal tract. This leads to increased risk of pneumonias.
  • can possibly cause C.diff
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29
Q

rebeprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

  • used for GERD
  • PPIs impair intestinal calcium absorption and therefore are associated with decreased bone density, which increases the possibility of fractures of the spine, hip, and wrist.
  • PPIs cause acid suppression that otherwise would have prevented pathogens from more easily colonizing the upper gastrointestinal tract. This leads to increased risk of pneumonias.
  • can possibly cause C.diff
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30
Q

Metronidazole

A

(Flagyl)
first-line anti-infective drug used to treat infectious diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile
is the initial drug of choice for STIs.
- Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole and for 24 hours after completion of the therapy due to a reaction that includes flushing, nausea/vomiting, and abdominal pain.
- The medication can cause a metallic taste and turn the urine a deep red-brown color.
- med of choice for c.diff
- used for bacterial vaginosis, an overgrowth of vaginal bacterial flora

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31
Q

phenytoin

A
  • (Dilantin) is an anticonvulsant drug used to treat generalized tonic-clonic seizures.
  • The therapeutic serum phenytoin reference range is between 10-20 mcg/mL.
  • Good oral hygiene is necessary to avoid the potential complication of gingival hyperplasia
  • induce hepatic metabolism, which decreases the effectiveness of many other drugs, including oral contraceptives. - Use of alternative birth control methods is recommended
  • should not be stopped abruptly as this increases the risk of seizure
  • Early signs of toxicity include horizontal nystagmus and gait unsteadiness. These may be followed by slurred speech, lethargy, confusion, and even coma. Bradyarrhythmias and hypotension are usually seen with intravenous phenytoin.
  • Steady absorption is necessary to maintain a therapeutic dosage range and drug level to control seizure activity. Administration of phenytoin concurrent with certain drugs (eg, antacids, calcium) and/or enteral feedings can affect the absorption of phenytoin. - so stop tube feedings for 1-2 hrs before administering
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32
Q

dicloxacillin

A

antistaphylococcal antibiotic

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33
Q

cephalexin

A

antistaphylococcal antibiotic

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34
Q

drugs used for v fib

A

epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone

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35
Q

Epoetin

A

(Procrit) is a synthetic hormone that stimulates the production of erythropoietin and is used to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney disease.
- stimulates the body to make additional red blood cells

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36
Q

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate

A

(Kayexalate) is a sodium exchange resin administered to reduce elevated serum potassium levels in clients with chronic kidney disease and hyperkalemia.
- works by exchanging sodium for potassium, and the excess potassium is excreted through the stool.

In clients without normal bowel function (eg, post surgery, constipation, fecal impaction), there is a risk for intestinal necrosis. During sodium polystyrene sulfonate therapy, severe hypokalemia (palpitations, lethargy, cramping) can develop. Frequent monitoring of electrolyte status is required. Because potassium exchanges with sodium content of the resin, excess sodium absorption could put clients at risk of developing volume overload (water follows sodium). The client should be monitored for signs of fluid overload (eg, crackles, jugular venous distension, edema) and have daily weights and intake and output assessment.

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37
Q

when discontinuing heparin and using warfarin

A
  • Warfarin is started about 5 days before a continuous heparin infusion is discontinued.
  • An overlap of the parenteral and oral anticoagulant is required for about 5 days as this is the time it takes warfarin to reach therapeutic level.

Warfarin begins to take effect in 48-72 hours and then takes several more days to achieve a maximum effect. Therefore, an overlap of a parenteral anticoagulant like heparin with warfarin is required. The typical overlap is 5 days or until the INR reaches the therapeutic level. The nurse will need to explain this overlap of the 2 medications to the client and the spouse.

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38
Q

Carbidopa-levodopa

A

(Sinemet) - used for Parkinson’s
- Levodopa is converted to dopamine in the brain, but much of this drug is metabolized before reaching the brain. Carbidopa helps prevent the breakdown of levodopa before it can reach the brain and take effect. This combination medication is particularly effective in treating bradykinesia (generalized slowing of movement). Tremor and rigidity may also improve to some extent.

  • once started should never be stopped suddenly as this can lead to akinetic crisis (complete loss of movement). However, prolonged use can also result in dyskinesias (spontaneous involuntary movements) and on/off periods when the medication will start or stop working unpredictably.
  • Orthostatic hypotension and neuropsychiatric disturbances (eg, confusion, hallucinations, delusions, agitation, psychosis) are serious and important adverse effects
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39
Q

donepezil

A

(Aricept) - treatment of Alzheimer disease
- used to improve cognition and memory
used to prevent worsening of symptoms in Alzheimer dementia, and it does not decrease agitation. It is a preventive medication and so would be a lower priority.

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40
Q

rivastigmine

A
  • treatment of Alzheimer disease

- used to improve cognition and memory

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41
Q

when on warfarin need to avoid

A

avoid aspirin, drugs containing aspirin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and alcohol when taking warfarin due to an increased risk for bleeding

  • Clients should be taught to avoid trauma or injury to decrease the risk for bleeding. Preventive measures include gently brushing teeth with a soft-bristled toothbrush, avoiding use of alcohol-based mouthwash, avoiding contact sports or rollerblading, and using a straight razor. Flossing should also be avoided in general, but waxed dental floss may be used with care in some clients.
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42
Q

Dicyclomine hydrochloride

A

(Bentyl) is an anticholinergic medication.

  • Anticholinergics are used to relax smooth muscle and dry secretions.
  • Anticholinergic side effects include pupillary dilation, dry mouth, urinary retention, and constipation.
  • Therefore, the classic contraindications are closed-angle glaucoma, bowel ileus, and urinary retention.
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43
Q

carvedilol

A

(Coreg) beta blocker for treatment of chronic heart failure

  • block the negative effects of the sympathetic nervous system (increased heart rate) and reduce the cardiac workload.
  • However, they can worsen heart failure if used in the acute setting of this condition.
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44
Q

beta blocker major side effects

A

bradycardia, bronchospasm, hypotension, depression, impotence

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45
Q

captopril

A

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

  • can cause hyperkalemia
  • Salt substitutes contain high potassium and must not be consumed unless approved by the health care provider (HCP)
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46
Q

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor major side effects

A

dry cough, hypotension, reflex tachycardia, hyperkalemia, angioedema

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47
Q

glipizide

A

sulfonylurea

  • The major adverse effects of sulfonylurea medications are hypoglycemia and weight gain.
  • Clients should be taught to use sunscreen and protective clothing as serious sunburns can occur.
  • Clients should avoid alcohol as it lowers blood glucose and can lead to severe hypoglycemia.
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48
Q

sulfonylurea major side effects

A

hypoglycemia (diaphoresis, headache, hunger, tachycardia, confusion), a disulfiram-like reaction may occur if combined with alcohol

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49
Q

thyroid replacement major side effects

A

symptoms of hyperthyroidism (diarrhea, weight loss, palpitations, tachycardia, sweating, heat intolerance)

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50
Q

diphenhydramine =

A

(Benadryl) - antihistamine

- can prevent pruritus.

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51
Q

Losartan is

A

an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) prescribed to treat hypertension.

  • teratogenic, causing renal and cardiac defects or death of the fetus. there is a black box warnings that indicate contraindication in pregnancy.
  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
  • Salt substitutes contain high potassium and must not be consumed unless approved by the health care provider (HCP)
  • They are used in clients who cannot take ACE inhibitors (eg, lisinopril, ramipril)
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52
Q

safe antihypertensives that are safe during pregnancy

A

labetalol, methyldopa

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53
Q

labetalol

A

(Trandate), antihypertensive

  • used to lower blood pressure (BP) if needed (usually considered when BP is >160/110 mm Hg)
  • safe during pregnancy - can use for preeclampsia
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54
Q

methyldopa

A

(Aldomet), antihypertensive

  • used to lower blood pressure (BP) if needed (usually considered when BP is >160/110 mm Hg)
  • safe during pregnancy - can use for preeclampsia
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55
Q

clopidogrel

A

(plavix) - Antiplatelet agent prescribed to prevent thromboevimbolic events in clients with increased risk for stroke or myocardial infarction.
- Laboratory values are monitored periodically as these drugs increase bleeding time (normal, 2-7 minutes [120-420 seconds]) and, rarely, may lower platelet count (normal, 150,000-400,000/mm3 )
- should be discontinued 5-7 days before surgery to decrease the risk for excessive bleeding.

  • prevent platelet aggregation and are given to clients to prevent stent re-occlusion.
  • They prolong bleeding time and should not be taken by clients with a bleeding peptic ulcer, active bleeding, or intracranial hemorrhage.
  • Ginkgo biloba also interferes with platelet aggregation and can cause increased bleeding time. Antiplatelet agents and Ginkgo biloba should not be taken together. If this were to occur, this client would be at an increased risk for bleeding.
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56
Q

prednisone

A

corticosteroid

  • can increase glucose levels. Glucose levels should be monitored periodically for clients receiving this medication
  • when taken in combination with aspirin or nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as naproxen, can increase the risk of gastrointestinal ulceration and bleeding. The client should report black, tarry stools (ie, melena) to the health care provider as they could indicate gastrointestinal bleeding
  • Clients taking corticosteroids should increase calcium and vitamin D intake to prevent bone loss, engage in physical activity to prevent weight gain, and watch for signs of infection as corticosteroids cause immunosuppression. Corticosteroids should not be stopped suddenly, especially in situations in which higher (stress)-dose steroids are required (eg, infection, trauma, surgery).
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57
Q

Tiotropium

A

(Spiriva)

  • an inhaled anticholinergic drug that inhibits receptors in the smooth muscles of the airways.
  • It is prescribed daily for the long-term management of bronchospasm in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  • is a long-acting, 24-hour, anticholinergic, inhaled medication used to control chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It is administered most commonly using a capsule-inhaler system called the HandiHaler. The powdered medication dose is contained in a capsule. The client places the capsule in the inhaler device and pushes a button on the side of the device, which pokes a hole in the capsule. As the client inhales, the powder is dispersed through the hole.
  • Unlike most inhaled medications, tiotropium looks like an oral medication because it comes in a capsule. Therefore, it is important to teach the client proper administration prior to the first dose, emphasizing that the capsule should not be swallowed and that the button on the inhaler must be pushed to allow for medication dispersion. During future appointments, the nurse should assess/reassess the client’s ability to use this medication correctly.
  • Clients should rinse the mouth after using tiotropium and inhaled steroids (eg, beclomethasone, budesonide, fluticasone) to remove any medication remaining in the mouth, which decreases the risk of developing thrush.
  • Tiotropium is a controller medication for COPD with a peak effect of approximately 1 week; therefore, it should not be used as a rescue medication. Instead, short-acting bronchodilators (eg, albuterol and/or ipratropium) should be used for symptom rescue. Clients must discontinue ipratropium before taking tiotropium as both are anticholinergic.
  • Anticholinergic inhaled medications (eg, ipratropium, tiotropium, umeclidinium) do not reduce inflammation in the airway. Instead, they relax the airway by blocking parasympathetic bronchoconstriction. They also help dry up airway secretions.
  • a common side effect of tiotropium (Spiriva) and other anticholinergics (eg, ipratropium, benztropine) is xerostomia (dry mouth) due to the blockade of muscarinic receptors of the salivary glands, which inhibits salivation. Sugar-free candies or gum may be used to alleviate dry mouth and throat
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58
Q

permethrin

A
  • used for scabies
  • applied to all body areas below the head.
  • important to inform the parents and child that itching will continue for several weeks after proper treatment is given
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59
Q

gentamicin

A

aminoglycoside - strong antibiotic

  • can cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
  • should monitor the client’s renal function by assessing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels and measuring urinary output. Increased levels of BUN and creatinine may indicate kidney damage.
  • Muscle cramping can occur occasionally with use of gentamicin but is not an indication to stop the infusion
  • Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) should be reported by a client taking these medications. The medication may need to be discontinued to prevent permanent hearing loss.
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60
Q

amikacin

A

aminoglycoside - strong antibiotic

  • can cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
  • should monitor the client’s renal function by assessing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels and measuring urinary output. Increased levels of BUN and creatinine may indicate kidney damage.
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61
Q

tobramycin

A

aminoglycoside - strong antibiotic

  • can cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
  • should monitor the client’s renal function by assessing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels and measuring urinary output. Increased levels of BUN and creatinine may indicate kidney damage.
  • Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) should be reported by a client taking these medications. The medication may need to be discontinued to prevent permanent hearing loss.
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62
Q

methotrexate

A
  • cancer drug
  • can cause decrease in the RBC count that may be evidence of bone marrow suppression

(Rheumatrex) is classified as a folate antimetabolite, antineoplastic, immunosuppressant drug to treat various malignancies and as a nonbiologic disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) to treat rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis.

Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant and can cause bone marrow suppression. Clients are at risk for infection. They should avoid crowded places and individuals with known infection and should receive appropriate killed (inactivated) vaccines (eg, influenza, pneumococcal). Live vaccines (eg, herpes zoster) are contraindicated.

Adverse effects include hepatotoxicity, bone marrow suppression, infection risk, and fetal congenital abnormalities. Alcohol intake and live vaccines (eg, intranasal influenza vaccine) should be avoided. Killed/inactivated vaccines (eg, IM influenza injection) can be administered.

Clients should not become pregnant while taking methotrexate or for at least 3 months after it is discontinued as the drug is teratogenic and can cause congenital abnormalities and fetal death.

Clients taking methotrexate should avoid alcohol as the prescription drug is hepatotoxic and drinking alcohol increases the risk for hepatotoxicity.

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63
Q

Valproate

A

(Depakote)

  • a medication used to control seizures
  • FDA pregnancy category D drug that can cause neural tube defects such as spina bifida
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64
Q

A laboring client may experience lower back pain with contractions, or “back labor,” when the fetus is

A
  • in the right occiput posterior (ROP) position.
  • variation of vertex presentation causes the fetal occiput to exert added pressure on the woman’s sacrum during contractions.
  • Positioning the woman on her hands and knees often helps decrease back pain and facilitates fetal rotation into an anterior position.
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65
Q

Oxybutynin

A

(Ditropan) is an anticholinergic medication that is frequently used to treat overactive bladder.
- also used for bladder spasms

Common side effects include:

  • -New-onset constipation
  • -Dry mouth
  • -Flushing
  • -Heat intolerance
  • -Blurred vision
  • -Drowsiness
  • -Decreased sweat production may lead to hyperthermia. The nurse should instruct the client to be cautious in hot weather and during physical activity
  • -Sedation is a common side effect of anticholinergic drugs. Clients should be taught not to drive or operate heavy machinery until they know how the drug affects them.
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66
Q

The therapeutic serum phenytoin reference range is between

A

10-20 mcg/mL.

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67
Q

nitroprusside

A

(Nitropress, Nipride) is a vasodilator given via infusion and can be titrated to keep the BP within a desired parameter.
- used IV in hypertensive crisis

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68
Q

Nystatin

A
  • used to treat oral candidiasis, or thrush, that can be caused by medications such as antibiotics, corticosteroids, or oral contraceptive pills.
  • available in the form of powders, suspensions, creams, ointments, and lozenges.
  • Oral suspensions are the more common form of nystatin used for oral candidiasis. The client should be directed to swish the solution within the mouth, making contact with all the mucous membranes, and then swallow the solution after several minutes. Swallowing would help to clear any unseen esophageal candidiasis.
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69
Q

Codeine

A
  • is an opioid drug prescribed as an analgesic to treat mild to moderate pain and as an antitussive to suppress the cough reflex.
  • Although the antitussive dose (10-20 mg orally every 4-6 hours) is lower than the analgesic dose, clients can still experience the common adverse effects (eg, constipation, nausea, vomiting, orthostatic hypotension, dizziness) associated with the drug.
  • decreases gastric motility, resulting in constipation. Increasing fluid intake and fiber in the diet and taking laxatives are effective measures to prevent constipation
  • Changing position slowly is effective in preventing the orthostatic hypotension associated with codeine, especially in the elderly
  • Taking the medication with food is effective in preventing the gastrointestinal irritation (eg, nausea, vomiting) associated with codeine
  • Depressing the cough reflex can cause an accumulation of secretions in the presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), leading to respiratory difficulty. In general, sedatives (eg, narcotics, benzodiazepines) can also depress the respiratory center and effort; therefore, they should not be given to clients with respiratory diseases (eg, asthma, COPD).
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70
Q

Spironolactone

A
  • potassium-sparing diuretic and an aldosterone inhibitor
  • In general, these are very weak diuretics and antihypertensives and are used mainly in combination with thiazide diuretics to reduce potassium (K+) loss.
  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
  • it is typically used in a client with liver failure, ascites, and edema to promote diuresis and to prevent fluid retention. If more diuresis is needed, then intravenous furosemide is used, often in combination with albumin infusion
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71
Q

triamterene

A
  • potassium-sparing diuretic.
  • In general, these are very weak diuretics and antihypertensives and are used mainly in combination with thiazide diuretics to reduce potassium (K+) loss.
  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
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72
Q

amiloride

A
  • potassium-sparing diuretic.
  • In general, these are very weak diuretics and antihypertensives and are used mainly in combination with thiazide diuretics to reduce potassium (K+) loss.
  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
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73
Q

eplerenone

A
  • potassium-sparing diuretic.
  • In general, these are very weak diuretics and antihypertensives and are used mainly in combination with thiazide diuretics to reduce potassium (K+) loss.
  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
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74
Q

metoprolol

A

beta blocker for heart failure

  • block the negative effects of the sympathetic nervous system (increased heart rate) and reduce the cardiac workload.
  • However, they can worsen heart failure if used in the acute setting of this condition.
  • can be used for heart rate control in tachyarrhythmias - can decrease HR

Beta-adrenergic blockers are used to relieve some of the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis (thyroid storm), a complication of hyperthyroidism in which excessive thyroid hormones are released into the circulation. Beta blockers block the effects of the sympathetic nervous system and treat symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, irritability, tremors, and nervousness in hyperthyroidism

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75
Q

atenolol

A

beta blocker

Beta-adrenergic blockers are used to relieve some of the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis (thyroid storm), a complication of hyperthyroidism in which excessive thyroid hormones are released into the circulation. Beta blockers block the effects of the sympathetic nervous system and treat symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, irritability, tremors, and nervousness in hyperthyroidism

can decrease HR

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76
Q

Ipratropium

A

(Atrovent) is a short-acting inhaled anticholinergic often used in combination with a short-acting beta-agonist (eg, albuterol) to promote bronchodilation and reduce bronchospasm

  • used for symptom rescue
  • do not reduce inflammation in the airway. Instead, they relax the airway by blocking parasympathetic bronchoconstriction. They also help dry up airway secretions.
  • a common side effect is xerostomia (dry mouth) due to the blockade of muscarinic receptors of the salivary glands, which inhibits salivation. Sugar-free candies or gum may be used to alleviate dry mouth and throat
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77
Q

Methylprednisolone

A

(Solu-Medrol) is a systemic glucocorticoid that improves respiratory symptoms and overall lung function in clients experiencing an exacerbation of COPD.

  • need to monitor blood glucose levels
  • can be used to decrease airway inflammation and swelling associated with the allergic reaction
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78
Q

Nitroglycerin patches

A
  • are transdermal patches used to prevent angina in clients with coronary artery disease.
  • They are usually applied once a day (not as needed) and worn for 12–14 hours and then removed.
  • Continuous use of patches without removal can result in tolerance.
  • No more than one patch at a time should be worn. The patch should be applied to the upper body or upper arms.
  • Clean, dry, hairless skin that is not irritated, scarred, burned, broken, or calloused should be used.
  • A different location should be chosen each day to prevent skin irritation.
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79
Q

tadalafil

A
  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
  • used in erectile dysfunction
  • are contraindicated with the use of nitrates. Both have similar mechanisms and cause vascular smooth muscle dilation. Combined use can result in severe hypotension.
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80
Q

sildenafil

A

Sildenafil

  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
  • used in erectile dysfunction
  • are contraindicated with the use of nitrates. Both have similar mechanisms and cause vascular smooth muscle dilation. Combined use can result in severe hypotension.
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81
Q

vardenafil

A
  • Phosphodiesterase inhibitors
  • used in erectile dysfunction
  • are contraindicated with the use of nitrates. Both have similar mechanisms and cause vascular smooth muscle dilation. Combined use can result in severe hypotension.
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82
Q

Tamoxifen

A
  • has mixed agonist and antagonist activity on estrogen receptors in various tissues.
  • It is used for several years in estrogen-responsive breast cancer. - blocks estrogen so its helpful in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-receptive breast cancer cells
  • However, it is associated with increased risk of endometrial cancer and venous thromboembolism. - irregular or excessive menstrual bleeding in premenopausal women or any bleeding in postmenopausal women can be a sign of endometrial cancer
  • due to its estrogen- agonist actions, also poses a risk for thromboembilc events (stroke, pulmonary embolism, and DVT)
  • Menopausal symptoms (eg, vaginal dryness, hot flashes, sexual dysfunction) are the most common side effect.
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83
Q

IV gamma globulin

A
  • given for Kawasaki disease
  • IVIG creates high plasma oncotic pressure, and signs of fluid overload and pulmonary edema develop if it is given in large quantities. Therefore, the child should be monitored for symptoms of heart failure (eg, decreased urinary output, additional heart sounds, tachycardia, difficulty breathing).
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84
Q

Allopurinol

A
  • prescribed to prevent gout attacks (pain and inflammation in joints caused by uric acid deposits).
  • inhibits uric acid production and improves solubility.
  • should be taken with a full glass of water, and it is very important for the nurse to educate the client about fluid intake with this medication.
  • The client should also increase daily fluid intake as this will help prevent the formation of renal stones and promote diuresis (increase drug and uric acid excretion)
  • also used is to decrease hyperuricemia caused by Tumor Lysis Syndrome.
  • -Laboratory values of significance in TLS include rising blood uric acid, potassium, and phosphate levels, with decreasing calcium levels.
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85
Q

lispro

A
  • (Humalog) - rapid-acting insulin used as a bolus insulin for meals.
  • “see food” insulin and should not be administered until the food is in sight.
  • A sliding insulin (correction) scale is used to prescribe rapid-acting
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86
Q

Magnesium sulfate

A
  • central nervous system depressant used to prevent/control seizure activity in preeclampsia/eclampsia clients.
  • During administration, the nurse should assess vital signs, intake and output, and monitor for signs of magnesium toxicity (eg, decreased deep-tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, decreased urine output). A therapeutic magnesium level of 4-7 mEq/L is necessary to prevent seizures in a preeclamptic client.
  • also used to suppress uterine contractions in preterm labor, allowing pregnancy to be prolonged for 2-7 days so that corticosteroid administration can improve fetal lung maturity.
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87
Q

Hydralazine

A

(Apresoline) - antihypertensive

- used to lower blood pressure (BP) if needed (usually considered when BP is >160/110 mm Hg)

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88
Q

terbutaline

A

Tocolytic drug
- used to suppress uterine contractions in preterm labor, allowing pregnancy to be prolonged for 2-7 days so that corticosteroid administration can improve fetal lung maturity.

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89
Q

indomethacin

A

Tocolytic drug
- used to suppress uterine contractions in preterm labor, allowing pregnancy to be prolonged for 2-7 days so that corticosteroid administration can improve fetal lung maturity.

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) - inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and can be taken to decrease pain and inflammation or to reduce fever.

NSAIDs are pregnancy category C in the first and second trimesters and pregnancy category D in the third trimester. NSAIDs must be avoided during the third trimester due to the risk of causing premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus. During the first and second trimesters, NSAIDs should be taken only if benefits outweigh risks and under the supervision of a health care provider (HCP).

All NSAIDs are associated with the following:

  • Gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity - symptoms of GI bleeding such as black tarry stools should be reported. Gastrointestinal upset (eg, dyspepsia, pain) can be reduced if the medicine is taken with food.
  • Kidney injury - long-term use is associated with kidney injury
  • Hypertension and heart failure - NSAIDs can cause fluid retention, which can exacerbate conditions such as heart failure, cirrhosis/ascites, and hypertension
  • Bleeding risk - clients should notify the HCP if taking concurrently with aspirin, other NSAIDs, or anticoagulant or antiplatelet drugs as they can increase the risk of GI bleeding.
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90
Q

Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)

A

is a synthetic form of Antidiuretic hormone, which can be administered intravenously, orally, or via nasal spray.

  • Effectiveness of therapy with desmopressin would be manifested by decreased urinary output and increased urine specific gravity as the urine becomes less dilute
  • used to treat nocturnal enuresis so it reduces urine production during sleep.
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91
Q

imipramine

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressant
  • improve functional bladder capacity so used to treat nocturnal enuresis
  • The most common side effects: dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth, constipation, photosensitivity, urinary retention, and blurred vision
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92
Q

amitriptyline

A

(Elavil)- Tricyclic antidepressant

  • used to treat depression and neuropathic pain
  • improve functional bladder capacity so used to treat nocturnal enuresis
  • The most common side effects: dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth, constipation, photosensitivity, urinary retention, and blurred vision
  • can also be used for for diabetic neuropathy are usually given on a fixed, timed schedule
  • used to treat pain in Fibromyalgia
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93
Q

desipramine

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressant
  • improve functional bladder capacity so used to treat nocturnal enuresis
  • The most common side effects: dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth, constipation, photosensitivity, urinary retention, and blurred vision
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94
Q

Sodium bicarbonate

A

is an electrolyte replenisher and is administered intravenously to correct moderate to severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.2).

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95
Q

Enoxaparin

A
  • low-molecular-weight heparin used in the prevention and treatment of DVT.
  • It is administered as a deep subcutaneous injection and is usually given in the abdomen.
  • The injection should be made on the right or left side of the abdomen, at least 2 in from the umbilicus. An inch of skin should be pinched up and the injection made into the fold of skin with the needle inserted at a 90-degree angle.
  • The complete blood count (CBC) should be assessed periodically with the administration of enoxaparin, an anticoagulant. The nurse would want to assess the hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelet count levels. If these levels are low, the client will be at risk for increased bleeding
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96
Q

levonorgestrel

A

[Plan B]

- should be taken within 5 days of intercourse; however, efficacy is reduced after 3 days (72 hours).

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97
Q

copper intrauterine device (IUD)

A

may be inserted for up to 5 days after intercourse as another form of emergency contraception.

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98
Q

etanercept

A

(Enbrel) Tumor Necrosis Factor Inhibitor

  • block the action of TNF, a mediator that triggers a cell-mediated inflammatory response in the body.
  • reduce the manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and slow the progression of joint damage by inhibiting the inflammatory response.
  • The medication causes immunosuppression and increased susceptibility for infection and malignancies
  • Clients should have a baseline TST before initiating therapy and yearly skin tests thereafter.
  • S/E: severe infections and bone marrow suppression
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99
Q

infliximab

A

(Remicade) Tumor Necrosis Factor Inhibitor

  • block the action of TNF, a mediator that triggers a cell-mediated inflammatory response in the body.
  • reduce the manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and slow the progression of joint damage by inhibiting the inflammatory response.
  • The medication causes immunosuppression and increased susceptibility for infection and malignancies
  • Clients should have a baseline TST before initiating therapy and yearly skin tests thereafter.
  • S/E: severe infections and bone marrow suppression
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100
Q

adalimumab

A

(Humira) Tumor Necrosis Factor Inhibitor

  • block the action of TNF, a mediator that triggers a cell-mediated inflammatory response in the body.
  • reduce the manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and slow the progression of joint damage by inhibiting the inflammatory response.
  • The medication causes immunosuppression and increased susceptibility for infection and malignancies
  • Clients should have a baseline TST before initiating therapy and yearly skin tests thereafter.
  • S/E: immunosuppression with severe infections and bone marrow suppression
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101
Q

bismuth subsalicylate

A

the nurse should tell the parent to discontinue the use of bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) as it contains a salicylate (same class as aspirin) and could possibly cause Reye syndrome. Reye syndrome can develop in children with a recent viral illness such as varicella or influenza. It can cause acute encephalopathy and hepatic dysfunction. Children with viral infections should not be given aspirin or products containing salicylates.

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102
Q

simvastatin

A
  • statin
  • avoid grapefruit juice!! - may result in myopathy
  • prescribed to lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease.
  • Most of the cholesterol in the body is synthesized by the liver during the fasting state, at night. Trials have found greater reductions in total and LDL cholesterol when statins are taken in the evening or at bedtime as opposed to during the day.
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103
Q

Nicardipine

A

(Cardene)

  • calcium channel blocking vasodilator.
  • takes effect within 1 minute of IV administration.
  • essential to monitor that the blood pressure is not being lowered too quickly or too slowly as this would extend the stroke.
  • Hypotension can occur with or without reflex tachycardia. The drug must be discontinued if hypotension or reflex tachycardia occurs.
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104
Q

Widening of the QT interval can increase the risk of life-threatening torsades de pointes. It is most commonly seen with

A

haloperidol (Haldol), methadone, ziprasidone (Geodon), and erythromycin

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105
Q

Cholestyramine

A

(Questran) may be prescribed to increase the excretion of bile salts in the feces, thereby decreasing pruritus.
- It is packaged in a powdered form, must be mixed with food (applesauce) or juice (apple juice), and should be given one hour after all other medications are administered.

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106
Q

Ethambutol

A

(Myambutol) is used in combination with other antitubercular drugs (eg, isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide) to treat active tuberculosis.

  • can cause ocular toxicity - The client must have baseline and periodic eye examinations during therapy as optic neuritis is a potentially reversible adverse effect.
  • The client is instructed to report signs of decreased visual acuity and loss of color (red-green) discrimination.
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107
Q

rifampin

A

(Rifadin) - antitubercular
also causes hepatotoxicity. Therefore, baseline liver function tests should be obtained. Clients should be advised to watch for signs and symptoms of hepatotoxicity (eg, jaundice, anorexia). Ethambutol causes ocular toxicity, and clients will need frequent eye examinations.

A teaching plan for a client prescribed rifampin includes these additional instructions:

  • -Rifampin changes the color of body fluids (eg, urine, sweat) due to its body-wide distribution. Tears can turn red, making contact lenses appear discolored. Client should wear eyeglasses instead of soft contact lenses while taking this medication. - changes to red/orange color
  • -Women should use nonhormonal birth control methods while taking this drug as it can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives.
    • Clients should be advised to not consume alcohol and drugs that can increase the risk for hepatotoxicity (eg, acetaminophen) during long-term use of this drug.
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108
Q

pyrazinamide

A
  • antitubercular
  • Dark-colored urine and yellow skin can indicate the presence of hepatotoxicity, which is associated with many drugs used to treat tuberculosis
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109
Q

Streptomycin

A
  • aminoglycoside antibiotic, is a second-line drug sometimes used to treat multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis, with ototoxic and nephrotoxic adverse effects.
  • Difficulty hearing (tinnitus, subjective hearing loss) is an adverse reaction to streptomycin
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110
Q

prasugrel

A

(Effient) antiplatelet

  • prevent platelet aggregation and are given to clients to prevent stent re-occlusion.
  • They prolong bleeding time and should not be taken by clients with a bleeding peptic ulcer, active bleeding, or intracranial hemorrhage.
  • Ginkgo biloba also interferes with platelet aggregation and can cause increased bleeding time. Antiplatelet agents and Ginkgo biloba should not be taken together. If this were to occur, this client would be at an increased risk for bleeding.
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111
Q

ticagrelor

A

[Brilinta] antiplatelet

  • prevent platelet aggregation and are given to clients to prevent stent re-occlusion.
  • They prolong bleeding time and should not be taken by clients with a bleeding peptic ulcer, active bleeding, or intracranial hemorrhage.
  • Ginkgo biloba also interferes with platelet aggregation and can cause increased bleeding time. Antiplatelet agents and Ginkgo biloba should not be taken together. If this were to occur, this client would be at an increased risk for bleeding.
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112
Q

furosemide

A
  • loop diuretic
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113
Q

torsemide

A
  • loop diuretic
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114
Q

bumetanide

A
  • loop diuretic
  • used to treat edema associated with heart failure and liver and renal disease. The diuretic inhibits reabsorption of sodium and water from the tubules and promotes renal excretion of water and potassium.
  • The nurse should question the bumetanide prescription as the client with heart failure has hypokalemia (potassium <3.5 mEq/L [3.5 mmol/L]) and is already at increased risk for life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias associated with this electrolyte imbalance
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115
Q

rosuvastatin

A

(Crestor) is a strong statin drug that can cut LDL drastically and reduce total cholesterol and triglycerides. It also increases HDL

  • Baseline liver enzymes are obtained
  • prescribed to lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease.
  • Most of the cholesterol in the body is synthesized by the liver during the fasting state, at night. Trials have found greater reductions in total and LDL cholesterol when statins are taken in the evening or at bedtime as opposed to during the day.
  • A serious complication associated with statin medication is rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis is the breakdown of muscle tissue that leads to the release of muscle fiber contents into the blood. These substances can be harmful to the kidney and often cause kidney damage. The client should immediately report any signs of muscle aches or weakness to the HCP. These could be early signs of rhabdomyolysis, which can be fatal.
  • A serious adverse effect of statins, is myopathy with ongoing generalized muscle aches and weakness.
  • -A client who develops muscle aches while on a statin drug should call the HCP who will then obtain a blood sample to assess the creatine kinase (CK) level. If myopathy is present, CK will be significantly elevated (≥10x normal), and the drug will then be discontinued.
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116
Q

atorvastatin

A

(Lipitor) is a statin drug, or HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, prescribed to lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease

  • Baseline liver enzymes are obtained
  • prescribed to lower cholesterol and reduce the risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease.
  • Most of the cholesterol in the body is synthesized by the liver during the fasting state, at night. Trials have found greater reductions in total and LDL cholesterol when statins are taken in the evening or at bedtime as opposed to during the day.
  • Muscle cramps and liver injury, are the major adverse effects of statin medications
  • A serious adverse effect of statins, is myopathy with ongoing generalized muscle aches and weakness.
  • -A client who develops muscle aches while on a statin drug should call the HCP who will then obtain a blood sample to assess the creatine kinase (CK) level. If myopathy is present, CK will be significantly elevated (≥10x normal), and the drug will then be discontinued.
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117
Q

methylphenidate

A

(Ritalin) - is a central nervous system stimulant used to treat ADHD and narcolepsy. It affects neurotransmitters (dopamine and norepinephrine) in the brain that contribute to hyperactivity and lack of impulse control.

  • administered in divided doses 2 or 3 times daily, usually 30-45 minutes before meals.
  • As a stimulant, methylphenidate may interfere with sleep and should be given no later than around 6:00 PM. - The sustained-release preparation should be given in the morning.
  • The dosage in children is usually started low and titrated to the desired response.
  • Children should be monitored closely during initial treatment for development of tics and continuously for adherence and response to therapy

A common side effect of methylphenidate is loss of appetite with resulting weight loss. Parents and caregivers should be instructed to weigh the child with ADHD at least weekly due to the risk of temporary interruption of growth and development. It is very important to compare weight/height measures from one well-child checkup to the next. If weight loss becomes a serious problem, methylphenidate can be given after meals; however, before meals is preferable.

Another side effect of methylphenidate is increased blood pressure and tachycardia. These should be monitored before and after starting treatment with stimulants.

The major problems with stimulant medications include:

  • Decreased appetite and weight loss – can lead to growth delays
  • Cardiovascular effects – hypertension and tachycardia (particularly in adults)
  • Appearance of new or exacerbation of vocal/motor tics
  • Excess brain stimulation – restlessness, insomnia
  • Abuse potential – misuse, diversion, addiction
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118
Q

lisdexamfetamine

A

Stimulant - used in the treatment of ADHD

The major problems with stimulant medications include:

  • Decreased appetite and weight loss – can lead to growth delays
  • Cardiovascular effects – hypertension and tachycardia (particularly in adults)
  • Appearance of new or exacerbation of vocal/motor tics
  • Excess brain stimulation – restlessness, insomnia
  • Abuse potential – misuse, diversion, addiction
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119
Q

dextroamphetamine

A

Stimulant - used in the treatment of ADHD

The major problems with stimulant medications include:

  • Decreased appetite and weight loss – can lead to growth delays
  • Cardiovascular effects – hypertension and tachycardia (particularly in adults)
  • Appearance of new or exacerbation of vocal/motor tics
  • Excess brain stimulation – restlessness, insomnia
  • Abuse potential – misuse, diversion, addiction
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120
Q

Lithium

A
  • mood stablizer used in the treatment of bipolar disorder.
  • It has expected, mild side effects as well as potentially serious ones related to drug toxicity. Drowsiness, weight gain, dry mouth, and gastrointestinal upset are expected, mild side effects.
  • Lithium toxicity occurs with dehydration, hyponatremia, decreased renal function, and drug-drug interactions (eg, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, thiazide diuretics). Lithium and sodium are closely related in the body. Acute viral gastroenteritis (stomach flu) presents with abrupt onset of diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Clients with vomiting and diarrhea are at risk of developing dehydration and/or low serum sodium, increasing the risk for lithium toxicity
  • Drowsiness is an expected side effect. The nurse should advise the client to avoid hazardous activities and driving until the effects of lithium are known or this side effect subsides.
  • Weight gain is an expected side effect. The nurse should provide client education about healthy food choices and proper exercise and/or provide for a dietary consult.
  • Dry mouth is an expected side effect. The nurse should provide client teaching about measures to counteract this side effect (eg, ice chips, sugarless gum or candy, drinking plenty of water). However, excessive urination and polydipsia indicate nephrogenic diabetes insipidus from lithium toxicity.

It has a very narrow therapeutic serum range of 0.6-1.2 mEq/L (0.6-1.2 mmol/L). Levels >1.5 mEq/L (1.5 mmol/L) are considered toxic. Lithium toxicity usually occurs with the following:
- Dehydration
- Decreased renal function (eg, elderly clients)
- Diet low in sodium
- Drug-drug interactions (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs [NSAIDs] and thiazide diuretics)
Lithium is cleared renally. Even a mild change in kidney function (as seen in elderly clients) can cause serious lithium toxicity. Therefore, drugs that decrease renal blood flow (eg, NSAIDs) should be avoided. Acetaminophen would be a better choice for pain relief

Several medications can cause increased lithium levels, including thiazide diuretics (eg, hydrochlorothiazide), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and antidepressants. Thiazide diuretics have demonstrated the greatest potential to increase lithium concentrations, with a possible 25%-40% increase in concentrations

Lithium is excreted through the kidneys. To prevent toxicity the nurse should hold doses and clarify prescriptions for clients who have:
- Conditions/illnesses in which the kidneys try to conserve sodium (eg, hyponatremia, dehydration) as sodium and lithium are absorbed in proximal tubules simultaneously
- Decreased glomerular filtration rate (eg, severe renal dysfunction) as less of the drug is filtered into the urine
Consistent amounts of fluid (2-3 L/day) and sodium prevent fluctuations in serum lithium. Clients should report signs (eg, weight changes, dizziness) and precipitating factors (eg, vomiting, diarrhea, increased sweating) of fluid and electrolyte imbalance.

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121
Q

Flumazenil

A

is the appropriate antidote for a benzodiazepine overdose.

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122
Q

calcium gluconate

A

antidote for magnesium toxicity
- recommended only in the event of cardiorespiratory compromise.

  • Intravenous calcium gluconate is administered to hyperkalemic clients with ECG changes (eg, peaked T waves). Calcium gluconate itself does not decrease the serum potassium level but temporarily stabilizes the myocardium by raising the threshold for dysrhythmia occurrence. Once the nurse stabilizes the client by administering calcium gluconate, other prescriptions may then be implemented to decrease serum potassium level (eg, intravenous regular insulin with dextrose, sodium polystyrene sulfonate, hemodialysis)
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123
Q

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

A

belongs to aminopenicillin group and is often used to treat respiratory infections.

Instructions for parents about amoxicillin include:

  • The medication may be taken with or without food as food does not affect absorption
  • The most common side effects of this medication are nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. If nausea or diarrhea develops, the medicine may be administered with food to decrease the gastrointestinal side effects
  • Shake the liquid well prior to administration. Administer at evenly spaced intervals throughout the day to maintain therapeutic blood levels
  • Ensure that the child receives the full course of therapy; do not discontinue the medication if the child is feeling better or symptoms have resolved
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124
Q

Lactulose

A
  • is the most common treatment for hepatic encephalopathy.
  • syruplike liquid that decreases intestinal ammonia absorption in pts with liver disease and hepatic encephalopathy
  • not digested or absorbed until it reaches the large intestines where it is metabolized, producing an acidic environment and a hyperosmotic effect (laxative). In this acidic environment, ammonia (NH3) is converted to ammonium (NH4+) and excreted rapidly.
  • Lactulose can be given orally with water, juice, or milk (to improve flavor) or it can be administered via enema
  • For faster results, it can be administered on an empty stomach
  • The desired therapeutic effect of lactulose is the production of 2-3 soft bowel movements each day; therefore, the dose is titrated until the therapeutic effect is achieved.
  • This therapeutic dose should not be held but instead should be maintained until the desired outcomes are reached (improved mental status, decreased ammonia levels)
  • The client’s electrolyte levels should be closely monitored during therapy as lactulose is a laxative that can cause dehydration, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia.
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125
Q

transdermal fentanyl patch

A
  • prescribed for clients suffering from moderate to severe chronic pain.
  • The patch provides continuous analgesia for up to 72 hours. However, the drug is absorbed slowly through the skin into the systemic circulation and can take up to 17 hours to reach its full analgesic effect.
  • Therefore, it is not recommended for treating acute postoperative, temporary, or intermittent pain as it does not provide immediate analgesia when applied.
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126
Q

lidocaine 5% transdermal patch

A
  • provides a localized, topical anesthetic to intact skin.
  • commonly prescribed for clients with chronic postherpetic neuralgia, a painful, debilitating condition that can develop following a herpes zoster (shingles) infection.
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127
Q

IV infusion of potassium chloride (KCL).

A
  • The infusion rate should not exceed 10 mEq/hr (10 mmol/hr).
  • Therefore, IVPB KCL must be given via an infusion pump so the rate can be regulated.
  • IV KCL should be diluted and never given in a concentrated amount. Furthermore, too rapid infusion can cause cardiac arrest.
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128
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

(Mestinon) is a first-line drug that inhibits acetylcholine breakdown and is prescribed to temporarily increase muscle strength in clients with Myasthenia gravis.

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129
Q

Acetylsalicylic acid

A

(Aspirin) is prescribed daily to prevent ischemic attacks and myocardial infarction in clients with coronary artery disease and ischemic stroke

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130
Q

Metformin

A

(Glucophage) is an anti-hyperglycemic drug that can cause lactic acidosis in clients with kidney disease
- Major side effects of metformin are lactic acidosis and gastrointestinal disturbances (metallic taste in the mouth, nausea, and diarrhea).

Iodinated contrast used for CT scan or cardiac catheterization can cause kidney injury. Metformin (Glucophage) can worsen lactic acidosis in the presence of kidney injury. Metformin should be withheld prior to the contrast exposure and can be resumed when kidney function is within normal limits.

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131
Q

IV furosemide may cause

A

ototoxicity, particularly when high doses are administered in clients with compromised renal function.
- The rate of administration should not exceed 4 mg/min in doses >120 mg.
To determine the correct rate of administration for the dose above, use the following formula:
(Dose = mg) / (4 mg/min) = ___ min

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132
Q

Topical capsaicin cream

A

(Zostrix) is an over-the-counter analgesic that effectively relieves minor pain (eg, osteoarthritis, neuralgia).

  • The nurse should instruct the client to wait at least 30 minutes after massaging the cream into the hands before washing to ensure adequate absorption
  • The client should avoid contact with mucous membranes (eg, nose, mouth, eyes) or skin that is not intact, as capsaicin is a component of hot peppers and can cause burning.
  • When applying cream to other areas of the body (eg, knee), the client should wear gloves or wash hands immediately after application.
  • The application of heat with capsaicin is contraindicated as heat causes vasodilation, which increases medication absorption and can possibly lead to a chemical burn.
  • Capsaicin should be used regularly (3-4 times daily) for long periods (eg, weeks to months) to achieve the desired effect.
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133
Q

naproxen

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs - to effectively treat osteoarthritis pain.
- when taken in combination with Glucocorticoids (eg, prednisone), can increase the risk of gastrointestinal ulceration and bleeding. The client should report black, tarry stools (ie, melena) to the health care provider as they could indicate gastrointestinal bleeding

NSAIDs are pregnancy category C in the first and second trimesters and pregnancy category D in the third trimester. NSAIDs must be avoided during the third trimester due to the risk of causing premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus. During the first and second trimesters, NSAIDs should be taken only if benefits outweigh risks and under the supervision of a health care provider (HCP).

All NSAIDs are associated with the following:

  • Gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity - symptoms of GI bleeding such as black tarry stools should be reported. Gastrointestinal upset (eg, dyspepsia, pain) can be reduced if the medicine is taken with food.
  • Kidney injury - long-term use is associated with kidney injury
  • Hypertension and heart failure - NSAIDs can cause fluid retention, which can exacerbate conditions such as heart failure, cirrhosis/ascites, and hypertension
  • Bleeding risk - clients should notify the HCP if taking concurrently with aspirin, other NSAIDs, or anticoagulant or antiplatelet drugs as they can increase the risk of GI bleeding.
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134
Q

celecoxib

A

(Celebrex), a COX-2 inhibitor, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

  • to effectively treat osteoarthritis pain.

has a black box warning for increased risk of cardiovascular complications. Myocardial infarction symptoms, which can be vague in female clients, include nausea and upper back and shoulder pain. These symptoms would be the priority to assess first, and immediate testing (ie, ECG, cardiac enzymes) would be warranted

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135
Q

penicillin allergy and cephalosporin antibiotics.

A

A client with a penicillin allergy may be allergic to cephalosporin antibiotics. Cephalosporins may be safely administered to clients with a history of mild allergic reaction, such as rash, but they are contraindicated in clients with a history of penicillin anaphylaxis.

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136
Q

cefazolin

A

(Ancef) Cephalosporin antibiotic

  • a bone-penetrating cephalosporin antibiotic that is active against skin flora (Staphylococcus aureus)
  • it is given prophylactically before and after surgery to prevent infection
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137
Q

D5W

A

hypotonic fluid

  • decreases the circulatory volume.
  • may be more appropriate for a client with hypoglycemia
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138
Q

normal saline

A

isotonic solution

- will increase circulatory volume

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139
Q

lactated Ringer

A

isotonic solutions

- will increase circulatory volume

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140
Q

Norepinephrine

A

(Levophed)

  • causes vasoconstriction and improved heart contractibility/output.
  • When the medication is stopped suddenly, its effects end quickly. It should be tapered slowly to avoid the progression or relapse of shock.
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141
Q

dopamine

A

(Intropin) vasoactive medication

  • is a sympathomimetic inotropic medication often used to treat hypotension not caused by hypovolemia.
  • It enhances cardiac output by increasing myocardial contractility, increasing heart rate and elevating blood pressure through vasoconstriction.
  • Renal perfusion is also improved, resulting in increased urine output.
  • The lowest effective dose of dopamine should be used as dopamine administration leads to an increased cardiac workload.
  • Significant adverse effects include tachycardia, dysrhythmias, myocardial ischemia, nausea, and vomiting
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142
Q

Signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity include

A
  1. Gastrointestinal symptoms (eg, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain) are frequently the earliest symptoms
  2. Neurologic manifestations (eg, lethargy, fatigue, weakness, confusion)
  3. Visual symptoms are characteristic and include alterations in color vision, scotomas, or blindness
  4. Cardiac arrhythmias – most dangerous
  • Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside administered to clients with heart failure to improve cardiac output and efficiency by increasing cardiac contractility and decreasing heart rate. Early signs of toxicity include gastrointestinal disturbances (eg, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia). Bradycardia (<60/min in adults) and visual disturbances (seeing yellow-green halos around lights) are later signs of digoxin toxicity
  • Drug levels are frequently monitored until a steady state is achieved and when changes are expected, such as in clients with chronic kidney disease and electrolyte disturbances (eg, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia).
  • Digoxin toxicity can result in bradycardia and heart block. Clients are instructed to check their pulse and report to the HCP if it is low or has skipped beats.
  • Digoxin toxicity can be seen with levels >2 ng/mL. Potassium levels should also be monitored in the client receiving digoxin. Hypokalemia can potentiate digoxin toxicity
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143
Q

senna

A

stimulant for bm

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144
Q

docusate

A

stool softener

145
Q

ondansetron

A

Antiemetic (Zofran)

146
Q

Rifapentine

A

(Priftin), a derivative of rifampin

  • antitubercular agent used with other drugs (eg, isoniazid) as a combination therapy in active and latent tuberculosis infections.
  • Both rifampin and rifapentine reduce the efficacy of oral contraceptives by increasing their metabolism; therefore, use an alternate birth control plan (non-hormonal) to prevent pregnancy during treatment
  • should be taken with meals for best absorption and to prevent stomach upset.
  • Hepatotoxicity may occur – liver function tests are required at least every month. Signs and symptoms of hepatitis include jaundice of the eyes and skin, fatigue, weakness, nausea, and anorexia.
  • may cause red-orange-colored body secretions, which is an expected finding. Dentures and contact lenses may be permanently stained.
147
Q

Isoniazid

A
  • (INH) is a first-line antitubercular drug prescribed as monotherapy to treat latent tuberculosis infection. Combined with other drugs, INH is also used for active tuberculosis treatment.
  • Two serious adverse effects of INH use are hepatotoxicity and peripheral neuropathy.
  • Dark-colored urine and yellow skin can indicate the presence of hepatotoxicity, which is associated with many drugs used to treat tuberculosis
  • Baseline liver enzymes are obtained - question giving med if elevated liver enzymes (alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase) - elevation can indicate development of drug induced hepatitis
148
Q

A teaching plan for a client prescribed Isoniazid (INH) includes the following:

A
  • Avoid intake of alcohol and limit use of other hepatotoxic agents (eg, acetaminophen) to reduce risk of hepatotoxicity
  • Take pyridoxine (vitamin B6) if prescribed to prevent neuropathy
  • Avoid aluminum-containing antacids (eg, aluminum hydroxide (Maalox)) within 1 hour of taking INH - use of antacids containing aluminum decreases INH absorption. The medication may be taken with food if gastric irritation is a concern.
  • Report changes in vision (eg, blurred vision, vision loss)
  • Report signs/symptoms of severe adverse effects such as:
  • –Hepatoxicity (eg, scleral and skin jaundice, vomiting, dark urine, fatigue)
  • –Peripheral neuropathy (eg, numbness, tingling of extremities)
149
Q

pyridoxine

A

vitamin B6

150
Q

aluminum hydroxide

A

Maalox - aluminum-containing antacid

151
Q

Nortriptyline

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressant
  • The most common side effects: dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth, constipation, photosensitivity, urinary retention, and blurred vision
152
Q

insulin used for potassium problems

A
  • Intravenous regular insulin temporarily corrects hyperkalemia by shifting potassium into the cells.
  • Dextrose is administered concurrently to prevent hypoglycemia.
  • Although intravenous regular insulin will effectively decrease serum potassium levels, calcium gluconate will provide immediate protection from dysrhythmias.
153
Q

Glargine

A

(Lantus) is a basal insulin with no peak,

  • also known as a “background insulin.”
  • should not be mixed with any other insulin - give in its own syringe
154
Q

Tissue plasminogen activator

A

(tPA) dissolves clots and restores perfusion in clients with ischemic stroke.

  • It must be administered within a 3- to 4½-hour window from onset of symptoms for full effectiveness.
  • The nurse assesses for contraindications to tPA due to the risk of hemorrhage.
155
Q

Bupropion hydrochloride

A

(Wellbutrin) is an atypical antidepressant used to treat depressive disorders, including major depressive disorder, seasonal affective disorder, and persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia). Preparations of bupropion hydrochloride include immediate-release, sustained release (SR), and extended-release (XL) tablets.

  • Any medication marked SR or XL should not be chewed, cut, or crushed due to the risk of adverse effects from too rapid absorption of the drug. No form of bupropion hydrochloride should be altered; tablets should be swallowed whole, with or without food. Seizures are of particular concern if a client takes a high or toxic dose of bupropion hydrochloride.
  • Clients on any kind of antidepressant need to be monitored closely for worsening depression, sudden or unusual behavior or mood changes, and the emergence of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. Clients with a diagnosis of depression and/or their family members need education and information on the increased risk of suicide
  • can be used for smoking cessation

Additional instructions to a client about the use of bupropion hydrochloride include the following:

  • Limit alcohol; inform the health care provider if you are used to consuming large amounts of alcohol
  • Do not double up on the medication if a scheduled dose is missed
  • Take the medication at the same time each day
  • It may take several weeks to feel the effects of bupropion hydrochloride
  • Weight loss may occur when taking this medication
156
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

A
  • commonly used to treat major depression and anxiety disorders.
  • (eg, fluoxetine, paroxetine, citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline)
  • generally well tolerated except for sexual dysfunction. This can be a decrease in sexual desire, arousal, or orgasm and may vary by gender. The nurse should discuss this with the client. The side effect may decrease or cease after a 2- to 4-week waiting period for the therapeutic effect, or the client may be able to switch to a different antidepressant medication (eg, bupropion).

The major side effects of SSRIs include increased suicide risk (at the beginning of therapy), sexual dysfunction, weight gain, and serotonin syndrome (excess doses). It may take several weeks for the therapeutic effects of SSRIs to begin; they should never be discontinued abruptly.

157
Q

fluoxetine

A

(Prozac) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

  • commonly used to treat major depression and anxiety disorders.
  • generally well tolerated except for sexual dysfunction. This can be a decrease in sexual desire, arousal, or orgasm and may vary by gender. The nurse should discuss this with the client. The side effect may decrease or cease after a 2- to 4-week waiting period for the therapeutic effect, or the client may be able to switch to a different antidepressant medication (eg, bupropion).

Common, expected side effects of SSRIs include:
- Loss of appetite; weight loss or weight gain
- Gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
- Headaches, dizziness, drowsiness, insomnia
- Sexual dysfunction
Side effects should gradually diminish over 3 months, although some may persist. If symptoms are intolerable or a particular SSRI is ineffective, the client may be switched to a different antidepressant.

  • Clients usually see therapeutic effects in 1-4 weeks. SSRIs may increase the risk of suicide, especially in young adults (age 18-24) during initial therapy or after a dosage increase. A client who reports increased energy without a change in depressive feelings needs to be assessed and monitored for suicidal ideation or actions as the client may now have the energy to execute the suicide plan
  • don’t take with st johns wort
158
Q

paroxetine

A

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

  • commonly used to treat major depression and anxiety disorders.
  • generally well tolerated except for sexual dysfunction. This can be a decrease in sexual desire, arousal, or orgasm and may vary by gender. The nurse should discuss this with the client. The side effect may decrease or cease after a 2- to 4-week waiting period for the therapeutic effect, or the client may be able to switch to a different antidepressant medication (eg, bupropion).

Common, expected side effects of SSRIs include:
- Loss of appetite; weight loss or weight gain
- Gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
- Headaches, dizziness, drowsiness, insomnia
- Sexual dysfunction
Side effects should gradually diminish over 3 months, although some may persist. If symptoms are intolerable or a particular SSRI is ineffective, the client may be switched to a different antidepressant.

  • Clients usually see therapeutic effects in 1-4 weeks. SSRIs may increase the risk of suicide, especially in young adults (age 18-24) during initial therapy or after a dosage increase. A client who reports increased energy without a change in depressive feelings needs to be assessed and monitored for suicidal ideation or actions as the client may now have the energy to
    execute the suicide plan
  • don’t take with st johns wort
159
Q

citalopram

A

(Celexa) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

  • commonly used to treat major depression and anxiety disorders.
  • generally well tolerated except for sexual dysfunction. This can be a decrease in sexual desire, arousal, or orgasm and may vary by gender. The nurse should discuss this with the client. The side effect may decrease or cease after a 2- to 4-week waiting period for the therapeutic effect, or the client may be able to switch to a different antidepressant medication (eg, bupropion).

Common, expected side effects of SSRIs include:
- Loss of appetite; weight loss or weight gain
- Gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
- Headaches, dizziness, drowsiness, insomnia
- Sexual dysfunction
Side effects should gradually diminish over 3 months, although some may persist. If symptoms are intolerable or a particular SSRI is ineffective, the client may be switched to a different antidepressant.

  • Clients usually see therapeutic effects in 1-4 weeks. SSRIs may increase the risk of suicide, especially in young adults (age 18-24) during initial therapy or after a dosage increase. A client who reports increased energy without a change in depressive feelings needs to be assessed and monitored for suicidal ideation or actions as the client may now have the energy to execute the suicide plan
  • don’t take with st johns wort
160
Q

escitalopram

A

(Lexapro) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

  • commonly used to treat major depression and anxiety disorders.
  • generally well tolerated except for sexual dysfunction. This can be a decrease in sexual desire, arousal, or orgasm and may vary by gender. The nurse should discuss this with the client. The side effect may decrease or cease after a 2- to 4-week waiting period for the therapeutic effect, or the client may be able to switch to a different antidepressant medication (eg, bupropion).
  • usually take 1-4 weeks from the first dose to improve depression symptoms. If a client experiences no improvement after 2 months, re-evaluation is necessary
161
Q

sertraline

A

(Zoloft) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

  • commonly used to treat major depression and anxiety disorders.
  • generally well tolerated except for sexual dysfunction. This can be a decrease in sexual desire, arousal, or orgasm and may vary by gender. The nurse should discuss this with the client. The side effect may decrease or cease after a 2- to 4-week waiting period for the therapeutic effect, or the client may be able to switch to a different antidepressant medication (eg, bupropion).

Common, expected side effects of SSRIs include:
- Loss of appetite; weight loss or weight gain
- Gastrointestinal disturbances (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
- Headaches, dizziness, drowsiness, insomnia
- Sexual dysfunction
Side effects should gradually diminish over 3 months, although some may persist. If symptoms are intolerable or a particular SSRI is ineffective, the client may be switched to a different antidepressant.

  • Clients usually see therapeutic effects in 1-4 weeks. SSRIs may increase the risk of suicide, especially in young adults (age 18-24) during initial therapy or after a dosage increase. A client who reports increased energy without a change in depressive feelings needs to be assessed and monitored for suicidal ideation or actions as the client may now have the energy to execute the suicide plan
  • don’t take with st johns wort
162
Q

chlordiazepoxide

A

benzodiazepine

- considered standard treatment to control agitation in the client in alcohol withdrawal

163
Q

Meperidine

A

(Demerol)
- contraindicated for a sickle cell crisis as large frequent doses can result in normeperidine (toxic metabolite) accumulation. Symptoms start with tremors and can result in a seizure

164
Q

Midazolam

A

(Versed) is a benzodiazepine commonly used to induce conscious sedation in clients undergoing endoscopic procedures.

  • The initial dose is 1 mg and is titrated up slowly (eg, 2 minutes before each 1-mg increment) until speech becomes slurred. Usually no more than 3.5 mg is necessary to induce conscious sedation. It is commonly administered with an opioid analgesic (eg, morphine, Fentanyl) because of their synergistic effects.
  • Side effects can include airway occlusion, apnea, hypotension (especially in the presence of an opioid), and oxygen desaturation with resultant respiratory arrest.
  • Flumazenil (Romazicon) is the antidote drug used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.
165
Q

Flumazenil

A

(Romazicon) is the antidote drug used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

166
Q

Naloxone

A

(Narcan) is the antidote drug to reverse the effects of opioids.

The half-life of naloxone (Narcan) is shorter than most narcotics. When naloxone is used to reverse the effects of narcotics, the nurse must monitor the client to ensure that the client does not fall again into excessive sedation and/or respiratory depression.

WEARS OFF - 1-2 hours

167
Q

Phentolamine

A

(Regitine) is the antidote drug used to treat a norepinephrine (Levophed) extravasation.

168
Q

Cyclobenzaprine

A

(Flexeril), a central and peripheral muscle relaxant given to treat pain associated with muscle spasm

169
Q

carisoprodol

A

(Soma) - muscle relaxer

170
Q

methocarbamol

A

(Robaxin) - muscle relaxer

171
Q

Tetanus and diphtheria toxoid

A

an immunization given prophylactically to prevent infection (Clostridium tetani) if immunizations are not up to date (>10 years), unavailable, or unknown

172
Q

Ketorolac

A

(Toradol), a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug given to decrease inflammation and pain

173
Q

Clonidine patch

A

is a potent antihypertensive agent and is available as a transdermal patch. The patches should be replaced every 7 days and can be left in place during bathing.

Instructions for using the clonidine (transdermal) patch:

  • Apply the patch to a dry hairless area on the upper outer arm or chest once every 7 days
  • Do not shave the area before applying the patch. The skin should be free from cuts, scrapes, calluses, or scars
  • Wash hands with soap and water before and after applying the patch as some medication may remain on the hands after application.
  • Wash the area with soap and water, then rinse and wipe with a clean, dry tissue.
  • Remove the patch from the package. Do not touch the sticky side.
  • Rotate sites of patch application with each new patch. Remove the old patch only when applying a new one. Do not wear more than 1 patch at a time unless directed by your health care provider (HCP).
  • When removing the patch, fold it in half with the sticky sides together. Discard the patch out of the reach of children and pets. Even after it has been used, the patch contains active medicine that may be harmful if accidentally applied or ingested
  • Notify the HCP if you are experiencing side effects such as dizziness or slow pulse rate. Do not remove the patch without discussing this with the HCP as rebound hypertension can occur
174
Q

Miconazole

A

(Monistat), an antifungal cream commonly prescribed to treat vaginal candidiasis, is inserted high into the vagina using an applicator.

  • It is best applied at bedtime so that it will remain in the vagina for an extended period
  • can also be used for ringworm
175
Q

Beclomethasone

A

(Beconase) is an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) normally used as a long-term, first-line drug to control chronic airway inflammation.
- Clients should rinse the mouth after using inhaled steroids

176
Q

brachytherapy

A
  • Internal radiation involves direct application of a radioactive implant to the cancerous site or tumor for a short time, usually 24–72 hours.
  • This technique is used to treat cervical and endometrial cancer and delivers a high dose of radiation to the cancerous tissues with a limited dose to adjacent normal tissues. Implementation of the following nursing measures is vital as the client receiving brachytherapy emits radiation.

Following the principles of time, distance, and shielding provides staff and visitors protection from exposure to radiation.

  • Time spent near the radiation source is restricted. The guideline is to limit staff time spent in the room to 30 minutes per shift.
  • Cluster nursing care to minimize exposure to the radiation source
  • Rotate daily staff responsibilities to limit time spent in the client room
  • All staff must wear a dosimeter film badge when assigned to care for a client receiving internal radiation
  • No individuals who are pregnant or under age 18 may be in the room
  • All staff and visitors must keep the maximum distance possible from the radiation source. Maintaining a distance of at least 6 feet is an established standard.
  • Assign the client to a private room with a private bath
  • Keep the door to the room closed
  • Ensure that a sign stating, “Caution, Radioactive Material” is affixed to the door
  • Instruct the client to remain on bedrest to prevent dislodgement of the implant
  • Shielding with lead diminishes exposure to radiation. All staff providing nursing care that requires physical contact must wear a lead apron.
177
Q

budesonide

A
  • inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

- Clients should rinse the mouth after using inhaled steroids

178
Q

fluticasone

A
  • inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)

- Clients should rinse the mouth after using inhaled steroids

179
Q

umeclidinium

A

Anticholinergic inhaled medications
- do not reduce inflammation in the airway. Instead, they relax the airway by blocking parasympathetic bronchoconstriction. They also help dry up airway secretions.

180
Q

conivaptan

A

Vasopressin receptor antagonists

- tx of SIADH

181
Q

abciximab

A

Glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitor

  • used as platelet inhibitors to prevent the occlusion of treated coronary arteries during percutaneous coronary intervention procedures and prevent acute ischemic complications.
  • can cause serious bleeding. The nurse should closely monitor the client for any bleeding at the groin puncture site after the percutaneous coronary intervention
  • The nurse should check the client’s baseline complete blood count (eg, hemoglobin, platelet count). Some clients may develop serious thrombocytopenia within a few hours, further increasing the bleeding risk. Hypotension, tachycardia, changes in heart rhythm, blood in the urine, abdominal/back pain, mental status changes, and black tarry stools may also indicate internal bleeding and should be monitored carefully when GP IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors are administered
  • During and after the infusion of GP IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors, no traumatic procedures (initiation of IV sites, intramuscular injections) should be performed unless absolutely necessary due to the risk of bleeding
182
Q

eptifibatide

A

Glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitor

  • used as platelet inhibitors to prevent the occlusion of treated coronary arteries during percutaneous coronary intervention procedures and prevent acute ischemic complications.
  • can cause serious bleeding. The nurse should closely monitor the client for any bleeding at the groin puncture site after the percutaneous coronary intervention
  • The nurse should check the client’s baseline complete blood count (eg, hemoglobin, platelet count). Some clients may develop serious thrombocytopenia within a few hours, further increasing the bleeding risk. Hypotension, tachycardia, changes in heart rhythm, blood in the urine, abdominal/back pain, mental status changes, and black tarry stools may also indicate internal bleeding and should be monitored carefully when GP IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors are administered
  • During and after the infusion of GP IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors, no traumatic procedures (initiation of IV sites, intramuscular injections) should be performed unless absolutely necessary due to the risk of bleeding
183
Q

tirofiban

A

Glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitor

  • used as platelet inhibitors to prevent the occlusion of treated coronary arteries during percutaneous coronary intervention procedures and prevent acute ischemic complications.
  • can cause serious bleeding. The nurse should closely monitor the client for any bleeding at the groin puncture site after the percutaneous coronary intervention
  • The nurse should check the client’s baseline complete blood count (eg, hemoglobin, platelet count). Some clients may develop serious thrombocytopenia within a few hours, further increasing the bleeding risk. Hypotension, tachycardia, changes in heart rhythm, blood in the urine, abdominal/back pain, mental status changes, and black tarry stools may also indicate internal bleeding and should be monitored carefully when GP IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors are administered
  • During and after the infusion of GP IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors, no traumatic procedures (initiation of IV sites, intramuscular injections) should be performed unless absolutely necessary due to the risk of bleeding
184
Q

clonidine

A

Central-acting alpha2 agonists
- decrease the sympathetic response from the brainstem to the peripheral vessels, resulting in decreased peripheral vascular resistance and vasodilation.

  • Clonidine is a highly potent antihypertensive. Abrupt discontinuation (including the patch) can result in serious rebound hypertension due to the rapid surge of catecholamine secretion that was suppressed during therapy. Clonidine should be tapered over 2-4 days. Abrupt withdrawal of beta blockers can also result in rebound hypertension and in precipitation of angina, myocardial infarction, or sudden death.
  • Avoiding high-sodium foods is important for blood pressure control but is not the most important advice for this client as consumption of these is not immediately life-threatening.
  • Dizziness is a side effect of clonidine. The nurse should teach the client to change positions slowly and sit for a few minutes before rising to prevent falls. Drowsiness is also quite common with clonidine. Clients should not use it with alcohol or central nervous system depressants. However, dizziness and drowsiness should diminish with continued use of the medication.
  • Dry mouth is a side effect of clonidine. Use of over-the-counter mouth moisturizers, chewing gum, or hard candy may be helpful for clients with dry mouth.
185
Q

duloxetine

A

(Cymbalta) is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor that has both antidepressant and pain-relieving effects. It is used to relieve chronic pain that interferes with normal sleep patterns in clients with Fibromyalgia. With the restoration of normal sleep patterns, fatigue often improves as well

  • Medication for diabetic neuropathy
  • usually given on a fixed, timed schedule
186
Q

pregabalin

A

Medication for diabetic neuropathy
- usually given on a fixed, timed schedule

has both antidepressant and pain-relieving effects. It is used to relieve chronic pain that interferes with normal sleep patterns in clients with Fibromyalgia. With the restoration of normal sleep patterns, fatigue often improves as well

187
Q

gabapentin

A

(Neurontin) Medication for diabetic neuropathy

- usually given on a fixed, timed schedule

188
Q

Ziprasidone hydrochloride

A

(Geodon) is an atypical antipsychotic drug that is used for acute bipolar mania, acute psychosis, and agitation.

  • considered standard treatment to control violent behavior in the client with schizophrenia
  • It carries a risk for QT prolongation leading to torsade de pointes. A baseline electrocardiogram and potassium are usually checked. At a minimum, the client should be placed on a cardiac monitor.
  • The client should also be monitored for hypotension and seizures, especially if the previous medical history is not known or obtainable.
  • The risk for adverse effects is increased with the interaction of alcohol.
189
Q

Valsartan

A

Angiotension II receptor blocker

  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
  • Salt substitutes contain high potassium and must not be consumed unless approved by the health care provider (HCP)
  • They are used in clients who cannot take ACE inhibitors (eg, lisinopril, ramipril)
190
Q

Candesartan

A

Angiotension II receptor blocker

  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
  • They are used in clients who cannot take ACE inhibitors (eg, lisinopril, ramipril)
191
Q

Lisinopril

A

(Prinivil) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor prescribed to treat hypertension and slow the progression of heart failure

  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
  • Salt substitutes contain high potassium and must not be consumed unless approved by the health care provider (HCP)
  • should not be used in pregnancy as they can affect kidney development in the fetus.
  • Lisinopril has a low incidence of serious adverse effects except angioedema (rapid swelling of lips, tongue, throat, face, and larynx). Angioedema can lead to airway obstruction and possible death. ACE inhibitors are the most frequent medications causing drug-induced angioedema. The risk is 5 times greater for African Americans than for Caucasians.
    If clients experience symptoms of angioedema, they are instructed to discontinue the drug and notify the HCP immediately.
192
Q

Ramipril

A

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
  • Salt substitutes contain high potassium and must not be consumed unless approved by the health care provider (HCP)
193
Q

Filgrastin

A

(Neupogen) is used to increase the neutrophil count in clients with certain malignancies and in those undergoing chemotherapy. Neutropenia is expected in this client

194
Q

drugs dangerous to elderly

A

The Beers criteria provide a list that classifies potentially harmful drugs to avoid or administer with caution in the elderly due to the high incidence of drug-induced toxicity, cognitive dysfunction, and falls. Some commonly used medications in this list include antipsychotics, anticholinergics, antihistamines, antihypertensives, benzodiazepines, diuretics, opioids, and sliding insulin scales.

195
Q

Enalapril

A

angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor - is used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure

  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
  • Salt substitutes contain high potassium and must not be consumed unless approved by the health care provider (HCP)
196
Q

Telmisartan

A

an angiotensin receptor blocker

  • can cause hyperkalemia so avoid with hyperkalemic pts
  • Salt substitutes contain high potassium and must not be consumed unless approved by the health care provider (HCP)
197
Q

Levofloxacin

A

a fluoroquinolone antibiotic prescribed to treat urinary tract infections, has no known cross-sensitivity to penicillin. However, cross-sensitivity with other fluoroquinolones can occur

For this class of antibiotics, 2 hours should pass between drug ingestion and consumption of aluminum/magnesium antacids, iron supplements, multivitamins with zinc, or sucralfate. These substances can bind up to 98% of the drug and make it ineffective

198
Q

Sucralfate

A

(Carafate, Sulcrate), is an oral medication that forms a protective layer in the gastrointestinal mucosa, which provides a physical barrier against stomach acids and enzymes. It doesn’t neutralize or reduce acid production. It is prescribed to treat and prevent both stomach and duodenal ulcers. - prescribed to treat gastric ulcers

This medication is generally prescribed 1 hour BEFORE meals and at bedtime and, for effective results, is administered on an empty stomach with a glass of water.
should be administered before meals to coat the mucosa and prevent irritation of the ulcer during meals. It should also be given at least 2 hours before or after other medications to prevent interactions that reduce drug efficacy.

Sucralfate also binds with many other medications (eg, digoxin, warfarin, phenytoin) and reduces their bioavailability. Therefore, all other medications are generally administered at least 1-2 hours before or after sucralfate administration. Constipation is a common side effect of this medication

199
Q

Loperamide

A

(Imodium) is a synthetic opioid used as an antidiarrheal. It slows peristalsis and subsequently increases fluid absorption. It should not be used more than 2 days or if fever is present as retention of bacteria or toxins inside the colon can make the process worse and cause toxic megacolon

200
Q

Epinephrine

A

administered for cardiac arrest, anaphylactic reactions, or severe asthma attacks

Epinephrine counteracts the effect of the histamines released, dilating bronchial smooth muscles and providing vasoconstriction. Most deaths from anaphylaxis are due to delaying epinephrine

201
Q

atropine

A

an anticholinergic agent, is used to treat bradycardia

Clients with symptomatic bradycardia should be treated with atropine. If atropine is ineffective, transcutaneous pacing or an infusion of dopamine or epinephrine should be considered

202
Q

Glucagon

A

Naturally produced by the pancreas, glucagon is given intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or intravenously for severe hypoglycemia. IV glucose is preferred due to its immediate effect; however, if it is unavailable, glucagon can be given to stimulate glycogenolysis in the liver, thereby raising blood glucose

203
Q

dantrolene

A

required IV for the emergent treatment of Malignant hyperthermia to reverse the process by slowing metabolism

204
Q

what meds should be held before dialysis

A

Medication administration may require modification on days that clients are scheduled to receive dialysis. The nurse should consider whether the medication will be dialyzed out of the client’s system or may create adverse effects during dialysis. Fluid is removed during dialysis, which may cause hypotension. Typically, antihypertensives are held before dialysis to prevent hypotension. In addition, some medications are dialyzed out of the client’s system and should therefore be held until after dialysis. Commonly held medications are water-soluble vitamins (eg, vitamins B and C), antibiotics, and digoxin

205
Q

nitroglycerin

A

vasodilator used to treat stable angina. It is a sublingual tablet or spray that is placed under the client’s tongue. It usually relieves pain in about 3 minutes and lasts 30-40 minutes. The recommended dose is 1 tablet or 1 spray taken sublingually for angina every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3 doses. If symptoms are unchanged or worse 5 minutes after the first dose, emergency medical services (EMS) should be contacted. Previously, clients were taught to call EMS after the third dose was taken, but newer studies suggest that this leads to a significant delay in treatment.

The NTG should be easily accessible at all times. Tablets are packaged in a light-resistant bottle with a metal cap. They should be stored away from light and heat sources, including body heat, to protect from degradation. Clients should be instructed to keep the tablets in the original container. Once opened, the tablets lose potency and should be replaced every 6 months. The car is not a good place to store NTG due to heat

Current evidence indicates that up to 50% of clients lack knowledge about administration procedures, storage, and side effects of NTG. Proper teaching can prevent many hospital visits for chest pain from stable angina. The client should be instructed to take 1 pill (or 1 spray) every 5 minutes for up to 3 doses, but emergency medical services (EMS) should be called if pain is unimproved or worsening 5 minutes after the first tablet. Previously, clients were taught to call EMS after the third dose, but newer studies suggest that this causes a significant delay in treatment

NTG should cause a slight tingling sensation under the tongue if it is potent; otherwise, the medication is likely outdated. The oral mucosa needs to be moist for adequate absorption of NTG, and clients should be instructed to take a drink of water before administration if needed for dry mouth. Sublingual tablets should never be swallowed. If using a spray, the client should not inhale it but direct it onto/under the tongue instead.

Intravenous nitroglycerin (glyceryl trinitrate) is used to increase cardiac blood flow and provide pain relief for clients with ACS until a definitive treatment plan (eg, percutaneous coronary intervention, thrombolytic therapy, bypass surgery) is determined. Because nitroglycerin is a vasodilator, continuous hemodynamic monitoring is required to prevent severe hypotension. The infusion rate is titrated by the nurse based on pain level and blood pressure (BP), usually every 3-5 minutes until pain is relieved and BP is stable. If systolic BP drops to <90 mm Hg or falls >30 mm Hg below client baseline, the infusion rate should be decreased or stopped.

206
Q

oxytocin

A

(a uterine stimulant) is used to induce labor. Contractions can become too strong after oxytocin is used and lead to reduced placental blood flow. Reduced placental blood flow can result in non-reassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns such as late decelerations, fetal bradycardia, tachycardia, or minimal variability. These non-reassuring FHR patterns may necessitate emergency cesarean birth, which would not have been required if the labor had not been induced.

207
Q

alendronate

A

(Fosamx) biophosphonate
given for osteoporosis
- decrease bone resorption so that loss of bone density is minimized
- must be consumed in the morning, on an empty stomach, with at least 30 minutes before other drugs
- take with a full glass of water and the client must remain upright for at least 30 minutes to aid absorption and prevent esophageal irritation

208
Q

risedronate

A

(Actonel) biophosphonate
given for osteoporosis
- decrease bone resorption so that loss of bone density is minimized
- must be consumed in the morning, on an empty stomach, with at least 30 minutes before other drugs
- take with a full glass of water and the client must remain upright for at least 30 minutes to aid absorption and prevent esophageal irritation

209
Q

zoledronic

A

(Reclast) biophosphonate

given for osteoporosis

210
Q

belladonna-opium suppository

A

used for bladder spasms

211
Q

potassium chloride

A

commonly prescribed to correct or prevent hypokalemia. The normal range for serum potassium is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L. Potassium is commonly lost through diarrhea, vomiting, and diuretic use.

Oral KCl is available in extended-release tablets, capsules, dissolvable packets, and effervescent tablets, and as an oral liquid. If a client has difficulty swallowing large pills, the nurse should consult the pharmacist to see if other forms of KCl are currently available and to determine if the medication is safe to crush. If a more appropriate form (eg, liquid) is available, the nurse would then discuss that change in route with the health care provider and obtain an updated prescription.

Clients receiving KCl IV should have periodic cardiac monitoring during therapy, as changes in potassium levels can cause cardiac rhythm disturbances and rapid infusion can cause cardiac arrest.

Potassium is a vesicant; therefore, the IV insertion site should be monitored frequently for extravasation to prevent tissue necrosis

The maximum infusion rate of KCl through a peripheral line is 10 mEq/hr and the maximum concentration is 40 mEq/L. Higher rates and concentrations require a central venous catheter

Renal function should be assessed as clients with impaired renal function are unable to excrete potassium and other electrolytes effectively, potentially leading to toxicity. To assess renal function, the nurse should monitor renal function laboratory results (eg, blood urea nitrogen, creatinine) and urine output

212
Q

levetracetamin

A

(keppra)
is an anticonvulsant prescribed for seizure disorders. As with other antiseizure medications, levetiracetam has a depressing effect on the central nervous system (CNS), which may cause drowsiness, somnolence, and fatigue as clients adjust to the medication. Clients should be assured that this is common and typically improves within 4-6 weeks. However, the CNS-depressing effects of levetiracetam may be enhanced if taken with other CNS-depressing substances (eg, alcohol) or medications.

New or increased agitation, anxiety, and/or depression or mood changes should be reported immediately as levetiracetam is associated with suicidal ideation

Like other anticonvulsants, levetiracetam can trigger Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but life-threatening blistering reaction of the skin. Rash, blistering, muscle/joint pain, or conjunctivitis should be reported and assessed immediately

213
Q

butorphanol tartrate

A

(Stadol) Opioid agonist-antagonist medication commonly used in labor

IV push is the preferred route and is given over the peak of 2 contractions to decrease the bolus of medication to the fetus. During contractions, the uterine muscle is very tense and blood flow to the fetus is slowed. Therefore, medication reaches the fetus at a slower rate.

This class of medications has a ceiling effect—after a certain dosage, subsequent or higher doses will not be effective or produce pain relief. Therefore, usually no more than 3 doses will be prescribed. The medications can precipitate withdrawal in opioid-dependent clients and should not be used

214
Q

nalbuphine hydrochloride

A

(Nubain) Opioid agonist-antagonist medication commonly used in labor

IV push is the preferred route and is given over the peak of 2 contractions to decrease the bolus of medication to the fetus. During contractions, the uterine muscle is very tense and blood flow to the fetus is slowed. Therefore, medication reaches the fetus at a slower rate.

This class of medications has a ceiling effect—after a certain dosage, subsequent or higher doses will not be effective or produce pain relief. Therefore, usually no more than 3 doses will be prescribed. The medications can precipitate withdrawal in opioid-dependent clients and should not be used

215
Q

calcium acetate

A

(PhosLo) phosphate binder used to treat hyperphsphatemia (normal phosphorous 2.3-4.4 mg/dL) in pts with kidney disease
- lowers the serum phosphorous levels by binding to dietary phosphate and excreting it in feces

216
Q

metoclopramide

A

(Reglan) is prescribed for the treatment of delayed gastric emptying, gastroesophageal reflux (GERD), and as an antiemetic.
- It is commonly used to treat nausea/vomiting and gastroparesis

Similar to antipsychotic drugs, metoclopramide use is associated with extrapyramidal adverse effects, including tardive dyskinesia (TD). This is especially common in older adults with long-term use. The client should call the health care provider immediately if TD symptoms develop, including uncontrollable movements such as:

  • Protruding and twisting of the tongue
  • Lip smacking
  • Puffing of cheeks
  • Chewing movements
  • Frowning or blinking of eyes
  • Twisting fingers
  • Twisted or rotated neck (torticollis)
217
Q

Albuterol

A

(Proventil) is a short-acting inhaled beta-2 agonist used to control airway obstruction caused by chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, or bronchitis. It also is used to prevent exercise-induced asthma. The therapeutic effect is relaxation of the smooth muscles of the airways, which results in immediate bronchodilation. Bronchodilation decreases airway resistance, facilitates mucus drainage (expectorates mucus plugs), decreases the work of breathing, and increases oxygenation. As a result of these actions, the respiratory rate will decrease and peak flow will be increased (if tested).

However, short-acting beta-2 agonists are associated with the following side effects (not therapeutic effects): tremor (most frequent), tachycardia and palpitations, restlessness, and hypokalemia.
these side effects are due to the oral deposition of medication (subsequent systemic absorption) and can be reduced with the use of a spacer or chamber device

Dosing in an acute asthma exacerbation should not exceed 2-4 puffs every 20 minutes x 3. If albuterol is not effective, an inhaled corticosteroid is indicated to treat the inflammatory component of the disease. Albuterol is a sympathomimetic drug. Expected side effects mimic manifestations related to stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system, and commonly include insomnia, nausea and vomiting, palpitations (from tachycardia), and mild tremor

  • The albuterol canister should be shaken prior to inhalation to ensure appropriate medication delivery
218
Q

doxycycline

A

(Doryx)

should not be used during pregnancy as it can impair bone mineralization in the fetus

219
Q

isotretintoin

A

oral acne medication derived from vitamin A

  • used only to treat severe and/or cystic acne not responding to other treatments due to side effects (stevens-johnson syndrome, suicide risk)
  • category X drug during pregnancy - exposure to any amount of med during pregnancy can cause birth defects - pts have to pledge to use 2 forms of birth control
  • teach pts to avoid vitamin A - vitamin A toxicity would cause increased intracranial pressure, gastrointestinal upset, liver damage, and changes in skin and nails
  • blood donation is prohibited while on this medication
220
Q

thyroxine

A

(Synthroid)

in pregnancy should be monitored carefully to provide an appropriate dose for the physiological changes of maternity, but it is not teratogenic

221
Q

heparin

A

With a heparin drip infusion, the goal is to reach the therapeutic range of the drug’s effect and not the “normal” or “control value.” Once the therapeutic effect range has been reached (usually 1.5-2.0 times the control value), it usually remains within this range without titrating the heparin infusion rate.

Heparin has a short duration (approximately 2-6 hours IV). Therefore, if it is not being infused, the aPTT level will go back to the control value (aPTT level without administration of anticoagulants). In addition, the volume of heparin being infused is small (because the standard concentration is 100 units/mL) so it is possible to miss an infiltration.

222
Q

memantine

A

is used to ease the symptoms of moderate to severe Alzheimer disease (AD), thereby improving the quality of life for clients and caregivers. Memantine is an N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) antagonist that works by binding to NMDA receptors, blocking the brain’s NMDA glutamate pathways, and protecting brain cells from overexposure to glutamate (excess levels of glutamate contribute to brain cell death).

improvement may be seen in the client’s behavior, cognitive functioning, and ability to perform activities of daily living

223
Q

aspart

A

(NovoLOG) is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 10-15 minutes. Onset is the time it takes for the insulin to enter the circulation and begin to lower blood glucose. The peak effect takes 30 minutes-3 hours and the duration of action is 3-5 hours. It is important for the nurse to ensure that the client eats within 15 minutes of administration of aspart/lispro/glulisine to prevent an insulin-related hypoglycemic reaction

224
Q

loratadine

A

(Claritin) H1 receptor antagonist
- decrease the inflammatory response by blocking histamine receptors. Histamine is released from mast cells during a type I (immediate) hypersensitivity reaction (ie, allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, and hives)

225
Q

venlafaxine

A

?

226
Q

hydroxychloroquine

A

However, frequent eye examinations are required for clients prescribed the nonbiologic antimalarial DMARD hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) as it can cause retinal damage.

227
Q

thiamine

A

Clients with chronic alcohol abuse suffer from poor nutrition related to improper diet and altered nutrient absorption. Poor thiamine intake and/or absorption can lead to Wernicke encephalopathy, a serious complication that manifests as altered mental status, oculomotor dysfunction, and ataxia. Clients are prescribed thiamine to prevent this condition

Clients with alcoholism can have hypoglycemia. They can also have thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency related to poor nutrient intake (a healthy diet contains enough thiamine) and alcohol-induced suppression of thiamine absorption. Thiamine deficiency can result in Wernicke encephalopathy (WE). Untreated WE can lead to death or neurologic morbidity (Korsakoff psychosis).

In the setting of alcoholism, administered glucose is oxidized by using all the existing thiamine in the body; this can worsen thiamine deficiency, which in turn can precipitate the development of WE in a previously unaffected individual. Because the signs of alcohol intoxication and WE are similar, all intoxicated clients should be given IV thiamine before or with IV glucose

228
Q

what lab to monitor when on warfarin

A

INR

229
Q

chemical restraints

A

are medications (eg, benzodiazepines, psychotropics) used to restrict freedom of movement or to control socially disruptive behavior in clients who have no medical indications for them

230
Q

5% albumin

A

Colloid solution

  • infused into the intravascular space, it mobilizes fluid from the extravascular tissues into the extracellular vascular space.
  • it is expensive
  • can be used in clients with low intravascular protein (albumin) content and hypotension but increased fluid in extravascular tissues (eg, cirrhosis with ascites).
231
Q

dextrose 5% and lactated Ringer’s

A

a hypertonic solution
- infused into the intravascular space, it mobilizes fluid from the extravascular tissue into the extracellular vascular space.

232
Q

dextrose 5% and water

A

a hypotonic solution

  • In large volumes, it can cause shift of the fluid into the extravascular compartment, which may cause further hypotension in clients with low blood pressure.
  • typically used to treat hypernatremia
233
Q

0.45% saline

A

Hypotonic solution

  • In large volumes, it can cause shift of the fluid into the extravascular compartment, which may cause further hypotension in clients with low blood pressure.
  • typically used to treat hypernatremia
234
Q

Baclofen

A

Skeletal muscle relaxant
- used in cerebral palsy to control spasticity and seizures. - Cerebral palsy is characterized by abnormal muscle tone and lack of coordination with spasticity

235
Q

Bisoprolol

A

beta blockers for treatment of chronic heart failure.

  • block the negative effects of the sympathetic nervous system (increased heart rate) and reduce the cardiac workload.
  • However, they can worsen heart failure if used in the acute setting of this condition.
236
Q

Isosorbide

A

(nitrate) used with hydralazine for African American clients with heart failure;
- this combination decreases cardiac workload by reducing preload and afterload

237
Q

varenicline

A

can be used for smoking cessation

238
Q

Riluzole

A

(Rilutek) is the only medication approved for ALS treatment.

  • a glutamate antagonist, is thought to slow neuron degeneration by decreasing the production and activity of the neurotransmitter glutamate in the brain and spinal cord.
  • In some clients, riluzole may slow disease progression and prolong survival by 3-6 months.
  • The nurse should provide teaching about the purpose of the medication so that the client can make an informed decision about taking it
239
Q

Immunoglobulin

A

used to prevent coronary aneurysms and subsequent occlusion.

240
Q

erythropoietin

A

(eg, epoetin alfa)

- stimulate the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, resulting in increased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels

241
Q

azithromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic
- can cause a prolonged QT interval, which may lead to sudden cardiac death due to torsades de pointes. Therefore, an electrocardiogram (ECG) should be monitored. Concurrent use of macrolide antibiotics with other drugs that prolong QT interval (eg, amiodarone, sotalol, haloperidol, ziprasidone, azole antifungals) will further increase this risk.

  • Macrolides can also cause hepatotoxicity when taken in high doses or in combination with other hepatotoxic medications such as acetaminophen, phenothiazines, and sulfonamides. Elevation of aspartate transaminase and alanine transaminase levels (liver enzymes) may indicate that hepatotoxicity is occurring, and the nurse should report these results to the HCP.
242
Q

erythromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic
- can cause a prolonged QT interval, which may lead to sudden cardiac death due to torsades de pointes. Therefore, an electrocardiogram (ECG) should be monitored. Concurrent use of macrolide antibiotics with other drugs that prolong QT interval (eg, amiodarone, sotalol, haloperidol, ziprasidone, azole antifungals) will further increase this risk.

  • Macrolides can also cause hepatotoxicity when taken in high doses or in combination with other hepatotoxic medications such as acetaminophen, phenothiazines, and sulfonamides. Elevation of aspartate transaminase and alanine transaminase levels (liver enzymes) may indicate that hepatotoxicity is occurring, and the nurse should report these results to the HCP.
243
Q

clarithromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic
- can cause a prolonged QT interval, which may lead to sudden cardiac death due to torsades de pointes. Therefore, an electrocardiogram (ECG) should be monitored. Concurrent use of macrolide antibiotics with other drugs that prolong QT interval (eg, amiodarone, sotalol, haloperidol, ziprasidone, azole antifungals) will further increase this risk.

  • Macrolides can also cause hepatotoxicity when taken in high doses or in combination with other hepatotoxic medications such as acetaminophen, phenothiazines, and sulfonamides. Elevation of aspartate transaminase and alanine transaminase levels (liver enzymes) may indicate that hepatotoxicity is occurring, and the nurse should report these results to the HCP.
244
Q

dipyridamole

A

antiplatelet

245
Q

Filgrastim

A

(Neupogen) stimulate neutrophil production and are given prophylactically or if the client has an infection and more neutrophils are needed to fight it
- commonly used when pts taking chemo to increase neutrophils

246
Q

pegfilgrastim

A

(Neulasta) stimulate neutrophil production and are given prophylactically or if the client has an infection and more neutrophils are needed to fight it
- commonly used when pts taking chemo to increase neutrophils

247
Q

rasburicase

A

Cancer chemotherapy causes cell lysis, which results in tumor lysis syndrome due to massive release of nucleic acid and its metabolic product, uric acid. Uric acid deposition leads to acute kidney injury. Medications such rasburicase and aggressive IV hydration are used to prevent this complication.

248
Q

glimepiride

A

sulfonylurea

  • The major adverse effects of sulfonylurea medications are hypoglycemia and weight gain.
  • Clients should be taught to use sunscreen and protective clothing as serious sunburns can occur.
  • Clients should avoid alcohol as it lowers blood glucose and can lead to severe hypoglycemia.
249
Q

neomycin

A

aminoglycoside
- Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) should be reported by a client taking these medications. The medication may need to be discontinued to prevent permanent hearing loss.

250
Q

fluconazole

A

(Diflucan) a broad-spectrum antifungal agent

- used to treat oral candidiasis

251
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide

A

thiazide diuretic for treating hypertension.

The major side effects of thiazide diuretics include:

  • Hypokalemia (manifests as muscle cramps)
  • Hyponatremia (manifests as altered mental status and seizures)
  • Hyperuricemia (may worsen gout attacks)
  • Hyperglycemia (requires adjustment of diabetic medications)

Of the above side effects, hypokalemia is the most serious as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. - so ask pts if they have muscle cramps

252
Q

chlorthalidone

A

thiazide diuretic for treating hypertension.

The major side effects of thiazide diuretics include:

  • Hypokalemia (manifests as muscle cramps)
  • Hyponatremia (manifests as altered mental status and seizures)
  • Hyperuricemia (may worsen gout attacks)
  • Hyperglycemia (requires adjustment of diabetic medications)

Of the above side effects, hypokalemia is the most serious as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. - so ask pts if they have muscle cramps

253
Q

med for severe C difficile infection

A

oral vancomycin may be used; intravenous vancomycin is ineffective.

254
Q

Ceftriaxone

A

(Rocephin) is a cephalosporin antibiotic

255
Q

what should be assessed prior to starting therapy with statin medications (eg, rosuvastatin, simvastatin, pravastatin, atorvastatin)

A

the client’s liver function tests should be assessed.

  • The drug is metabolized by the hepatic enzyme system and could cause drug-induced hepatitis and increased liver enzymes.
  • Liver function tests should be assessed prior to the start of therapy.
256
Q

ibandronate

A

(Boniva) Bisphosphonate
given for osteoporosis
- decrease bone resorption so that loss of bone density is minimized
- must be consumed in the morning, on an empty stomach, with at least 30 minutes before other drugs
- take with a full glass of water and the client must remain upright for at least 30 minutes to aid absorption and prevent esophageal irritation

257
Q

acetylcysteine

A

(Mucomyst) mucolytic

258
Q

Levetiracetam

A

(Keppra) is a medication often used to treat seizures in various settings. It has minimal drug-drug interactions compared to phenytoin and is often the preferred antiepileptic medication.

259
Q

Dexamethasone

A

a corticosteroid, is used to treat cerebral edema associated with a brain injury/tumor by decreasing inflammation.
- need to monitor blood glucose

260
Q

rivaroxaban

A

anticoagulant - reduce risk of blood clot

261
Q

apixaban

A

anticoagulant- reduce risk of blood clot

262
Q

isotonic fluids

A

Isotonic IV fluids expand only the extracellular fluid and are used as fluid replacement for fluid volume deficit. Common examples are normal saline and lactated Ringer’s

263
Q

The use of hormonal contraception (ie, estrogen with or without progestin)

A

places women at a 2- to 4-fold increased risk for developing blood clots due to resulting hypercoagulability. Hormone levels vary among contraceptives, and higher levels of hormone content correlate to an increased risk of adverse thrombotic events (eg, stroke, myocardial infarction). Clients who are prescribed oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) containing estrogen should be educated on potential warning signs (eg, chest pain, vision loss, severe leg pain) (Options 1 and 5). In addition, clients should be instructed not to smoke while taking combined OCPs due to an increased risk of blood clots

264
Q

Drugs commonly associated with orthostatic hypotension include:

A
  • Most antihypertensive medications, particularly sympathetic blockers such as beta blockers (eg, metoprolol) and alpha blockers (eg, terazosin)
  • Antipsychotic medications (eg, olanzapine, risperidone) and antidepressants (eg, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors)
  • Volume-depleting medications such as diuretics (eg, furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide)
  • Vasodilator medications (eg, nitroglycerine, hydralazine)
  • Narcotics (eg, morphine)
265
Q

terazosin

A
  • alpha blocker - antihypertensive
  • an alpha-adrenergic blocker that can relieve urinary retention in clients with BPH. It relaxes the smooth muscle in the bladder neck and prostate gland; however, it also relaxes smooth muscle in the peripheral vasculature, which can cause orthostatic hypotension, syncope (blacking out), and falls. This is particularly common when the drug is started (first-dose hypotension) or when the dosage is increased. The serious effects can be avoided by instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime, change positions slowly when going from lying to standing, and avoid any medications that also increase smooth muscle relaxation (eg, phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitors [sildenafil or vardenafil] used to treat erectile dysfunction). Some clients may also experience ejaculatory dysfunction (decreased or absent ejaculation).
266
Q

rosiglitazone

A

(Avandia) - Thiazolidinedione

  • used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus.
  • These agents improve insulin sensitivity but do not release excess insulin, leading to a low risk for hypoglycemia (similar to metformin).
  • These drugs can worsen heart failure by causing fluid retention and increase the risk of bladder cancer. Heart failure or volume overload is a contraindication to thiazolidinedione use. These medications also increase the risk of cardiovascular events such as myocardial infarction.
267
Q

pioglitazone

A

(Actos) - Thiazolidinedione

  • used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus.
  • These agents improve insulin sensitivity but do not release excess insulin, leading to a low risk for hypoglycemia (similar to metformin).
  • These drugs can worsen heart failure by causing fluid retention and increase the risk of bladder cancer. Heart failure or volume overload is a contraindication to thiazolidinedione use. These medications also increase the risk of cardiovascular events such as myocardial infarction.
268
Q

Corticosteroid therapy and addisons disease

A

Corticosteroid therapy is the primary classification of drugs used to treat Addison’s disease, an adrenocortical insufficiency. Signs and symptoms of infection should be reported to the PHCP immediately. Use of corticosteroids can cause immunosuppression. Infection can develop quickly and spread rapidly. Its anti-inflammatory effects may also mask signs of infection such as inflammation, redness, tenderness, heat, fever, and edema. In addition, physiological stress such as infection can trigger addisonian crisis, a life-threatening complication of Addison’s disease.
- Tachycardia, moon face, and weight gain are also side effects of long-term corticosteroid therapy; however, they are not as life-threatening as infection.

269
Q

Psyllium

A

Bulk-forming fiber supplement

270
Q

methylcellulose

A

Bulk-forming fiber supplement

271
Q

wheat dextrin

A

Bulk-forming fiber supplement

272
Q

mannitol

A

(Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to treat cerebral edema (increased intracranial pressure) and acute glaucoma. When administered, mannitol causes an increase in plasma oncotic pressure (similar to excess glucose) that draws free water from the extravascular space into the intravascular space, creating a volume expansion. This fluid, along with the drug, is excreted through the kidneys, thereby reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure.
However, if a higher dose of mannitol is given or it accumulates (as in kidney disease), fluid overload that may cause life-threatening pulmonary edema results. An early sensitive indicator of fluid overload is new onset of crackles auscultated in the lungs. To prevent these complications, clients require frequent monitoring of serum osmolarity, input and output, serum electrolytes, and kidney function.

273
Q

albumin

A

may be given after paracentesis to prevent volume depletion in a client with ascitic cirrhosis.

274
Q

The recommended rates for an intermittent IV infusion of potassium chloride (KCl) are

A

no greater than 10 mEq (10 mmol) over 1 hour when infused through a peripheral line and no greater than 40 mEq/hr (40 mmol/hr) when infused through a central line (follow facility guidelines and policy).
A too rapid infusion can lead to pain and irritation of the vein and postinfusion phlebitis. Contacting the health care provider to verify this prescription is the priority action.

275
Q

Sulfasalazine

A

(Azulfidine) contains sulfapyridine and aspirin (5-ASA) and is used as a topical gastrointestinal anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory agent in inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). When the 5-ASA is combined with the sulfa preparation, the drug does not become absorbed until it reaches the colon. Dehydration is a risk with IBD as the client can have up to 20 diarrheal stools a day. The client usually does not feel thirsty until after there is a fluid volume deficit. Sulfa can crystallize in the kidney if the client is dehydrated. Normal urine specific gravity is 1.003-1.030. Elevated specific gravity can indicate concentrated urine and be a sign of dehydration

(Azulfidine) is a sulfonamide (salicylate and sulfa antibiotic) and nonbiologic disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used for mild to moderate chronic inflammatory rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and inflammatory bowel disease (eg, ulcerative colitis). It inhibits the production of prostaglandin, a mediator in the body’s inflammatory response.

Most “sulfa” medications (eg, trimethoprim, sulfamethoxazole) share common side effects, including:

  • Crystalluria causing kidney injury – client should drink 8 glasses of water daily to maintain adequate urine output (eg, 1200-1500 mL/day)
  • Photosensitivity and risk for sunburn – client should avoid sun exposure and apply sunscreen
  • Folic acid deficiency (megaloblastic anemia and stomatitis) – client should eat folate-rich foods and take 1 mg/day folic acid supplement
  • Rarely life-threatening agranulocytosis (leukopenia) – client should be monitored for complete blood count at the start of therapy and report fever or sore throat immediately
  • Stevens-Johnson syndrome – client should stop the medicine if rash develops
  • Urine and skin can turn an orange-yellow color but will return to normal when the drug is discontinued. This is an expected finding.
276
Q

St. John’s wort

A

is an herbal product commonly used by many clients to treat depression. However, it may interact with medications used to treat depression or other mood disorders, including tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin and/or norepinephrine receptor inhibitors (SSRIs/SNRIs), and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). Taking St. John’s wort with these medications tends to increase side effects and could potentially lead to a dangerous condition called serotonin syndrome.

Serotonin is a chemical produced by the body that is needed for the nerve cells and brain to function. Excessive serotonin causes symptoms that can range from mild (shivering and diarrhea) to severe (muscle rigidity, fever, and seizures). Severe serotonin syndrome can be fatal if it is not treated.

277
Q

Phenazopyridine hydrochloride

A

(Pyridium) is a urinary analgesic prescribed to relieve the pain and burning associated with a urinary tract infection. The urine will turn bright red-orange while on this medication; other body fluids can be discolored as well. Because staining of underwear, clothing, bedding, and contact lenses can occur, the nurse should suggest that the client use sanitary napkins and wear eyeglasses while taking the medication. Phenazopyridine hydrochloride provides symptomatic relief but no antibiotic action, and so it is important that the client take a full course of antibiotics.

278
Q

Azathioprine

A

(Imuran) is an immunosuppressant drug that can cause bone marrow depression and increase the risk for infection. It is prescribed to treat autoimmune conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease and to prevent organ transplant rejection.
Fatigue and nausea can be expected as minor adverse effects or may be associated with the disease.
Leukopenia (white blood cell count <4,000/mm3) can be a severe adverse effect of the drug and should be reported to the health care provider before administering the medication.

279
Q

Colchicine

A

prescribed for clients with an acute attack of gout as it decreases the inflammation and pain associated with deposition of uric acid crystals in the joints

280
Q

cyclosporine

A

is an immunosuppressant prescribed to manage rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and psoriasis, and to prevent transplant rejection. This medication inhibits the normal immune response by interfering with T cell response, which slows the progression of certain autoimmune diseases.

  • Gastrointestinal side effects (diarrhea, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting) are extremely common, reversible adverse effects of colchicine therapy
  • Clients taking cyclosporine have an increased risk for infection and are instructed to avoid large crowds (eg, concerts, movie theaters) and known sick contacts.
  • It can take 1-2 months for the full effect of therapy and relief of symptoms from autoimmune disease (eg, joint stiffness in RA, psoriasis symptoms) to occur.
  • This medication is for long-term use, and it is therefore important to monitor clients for adverse effects. The incidence of secondary malignancies (eg, skin cancer, lymphoma) is increased in these clients.
281
Q

mycophenolate

A

immunosuppressive medication given to transplant pts to prevent rejection

282
Q

Sodium polystyrene sulfonate retention enema

A

is a medicated enema administered to clients with high serum potassium levels. The resin in Kayexalate replaces sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine and promotes evacuation of potassium-rich waste from the body, thereby lowering the serum potassium level. Kayexalate can also be given orally and is much more effective. Kayexalate can rarely be associated with intestinal necrosis.

283
Q

A neomycin enema

A

is a medicated enema that reduces the number of bacteria in the intestine in preparation for colon surgery.

284
Q

A barium enema

A

uses contrast medium (barium) administered rectally to visualize the colon using fluoroscopic x-ray.

285
Q

A fleet enema

A

relieves constipation by infusing a hypertonic solution into the bowel, pulling fluid into the colon and causing distension and then defecation.

286
Q

Montelukast

A

(Singulair) is a leukotriene (chemical mediator of inflammation) inhibitor and is not used to treat acute episodes. It is given orally in combination with beta agonists and corticosteroid inhalers (eg, fluticasone, budesonide) to provide long-term asthma control.

287
Q

Long-term therapy with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) (eg, omeprazole, pantoprazole, esomeprazole)

A

may decrease the absorption of calcium and promote osteoporosis. A bone density test can assess if the client already has osteoporosis. Hospitalized clients also have an increased risk of diarrhea caused by Clostridium difficile. PPIs cause suppression of acid that otherwise would have prevented pathogens from more easily colonizing the upper gastrointestinal tract. This leads to increased risk of pneumonias.

288
Q

esomeprazole

A

proton pump inhibitor

  • used for heartburn
  • suppresses the production of gastric acid by inhibiting the proton pump in the parietal cells of the stomach. In most hospitalized clients without a history of GERD or ulcers, PPIs are prescribed to prevent stress ulcers from developing during surgery or a major illness.
  • Although evidence has shown that two-thirds of clients who receive PPIs do not need them, these medications are still widely prescribed in hospitalized clients. PPIs can be identified by their “-prazole” ending (eg, pantoprazole, lansoprazole, esomeprazole).
289
Q

Trazodone

A

(Oleptro), a serotonin modulator, is used to treat major depressive disorders. In addition to affecting serotonin levels, the drug blocks alpha and histamine (H1) receptors. Blockade of alpha receptors can cause orthostatic hypotension similar to that from other alpha blockers (eg, terazosin, tamsulosin) used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia. Blockade of H1 receptors leads to sedation. Therefore, this drug is particularly effective in treating insomnia associated with depression. However, concurrent intake of other medications or substances that cause sedation can be detrimental; these include benzodiazepines (eg, alprazolam, lorazepam, diazepam), sedating antihistamines (eg, chlorpheniramine, hydroxyzine), and alcohol

Priapism is a known serious side effect of trazodone. A client with an erection lasting several hours should go to the hospital.

290
Q

meds for death rattles

A

treated using anticholinergic medications to dry the client’s secretions. Medications include atropine drops administered sublingually or a transdermal scopolamine patch.

291
Q

oseltamivir

A

(Tamiflu) antiviral for the flu
given to clients who are within 48-72 hours of the onset of symptoms. These medications can shorten the duration of the illness by a few days.

292
Q

zanamivir

A

(Relenza) antiviral for the flu
given to clients who are within 48-72 hours of the onset of symptoms. These medications can shorten the duration of the illness by a few days.

293
Q

Licorice root

A

is an herbal remedy sometimes used for gastrointestinal disorders such as stomach ulcers, heartburn, colitis, and chronic gastritis. Clients with heart disease or hypertension should be cautious about using licorice root. When used in combination with a diuretic such as hydrochlorothiazide, it can increase potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can cause dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias. Thiazide diuretics are considered “potassium-wasting” diuretics, so this client is already at risk for hypokalemia. The addition of licorice root could potentiate the potassium loss. The nurse should discourage the client from using this herbal remedy and report the client’s use to the PHCP.

294
Q

Aripiprazole

A

(Abilify) is an atypical antipsychotic that acts as a dopamine system stabilizer. It helps stabilize mood and control symptoms such as agitation and hallucinations in clients with dementia

295
Q

Cisplatin

A

is an antineoplastic drug that may cause kidney injury. Assessment of renal function includes laboratory values and urine output.

296
Q

diltiazem

A

calcium channel blocker

  • used to control ventricular rate
  • can decrease HR
297
Q

ibutilide

A

Antiarrhythmic medication

- may prolong the QT interval

298
Q

amiodarone

A

Antiarrhythmic medication

- may prolong the QT interval

299
Q

dabigatran

A

anticoagulant - reduce risk of blood clot
(Pradaxa) is a thrombin inhibitor anticoagulant often prescribed to prevent thrombotic events in clients with atrial fibrillation, pulmonary embolism, and deep vein thrombosis. Clients taking dabigatran are at increased risk for bleeding and hemorrhage. Clients with signs of abnormal bleeding (eg, bruising; blood in the urine, sputum, vomitus, or stool; epistaxis; heavy menstrual bleeding [menorrhagia]) should be prioritized as prompt intervention and treatment may be required.

300
Q

trihexyphenidyl

A

Anticholinergic

  • commonly used to treat tremor in pts with parkinsons
  • However, in clients with benign prostatic hyperplasia or glaucoma, caution must be taken as anticholinergic drugs can precipitate urinary retention and an acute glaucoma episode
301
Q

fexofenadine

A

H1 receptor antagonist
- decrease the inflammatory response by blocking histamine receptors. Histamine is released from mast cells during a type I (immediate) hypersensitivity reaction (ie, allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, and hives)

302
Q

cetirizine

A

H1 receptor antagonist
- decrease the inflammatory response by blocking histamine receptors. Histamine is released from mast cells during a type I (immediate) hypersensitivity reaction (ie, allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, and hives)

303
Q

levocetirizine

A

H1 receptor antagonist
- decrease the inflammatory response by blocking histamine receptors. Histamine is released from mast cells during a type I (immediate) hypersensitivity reaction (ie, allergic rhinitis, allergic conjunctivitis, and hives)

304
Q

St John’s wort

A

an herbal supplement commonly used to treat depression and anxiety. Some clients with mild or moderate depression claim that its antidepressant effect is comparable to that of prescription medications. The herbal supplement mimics the action of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) by increasing available serotonin in the brain. Taken in combination with an SSRI (eg, sertraline, fluoxetine, citalopram, paroxetine), St John’s wort may cause an excess of serotonin, resulting in serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by mental status changes, autonomic dysregulation, and neuromuscular hyperactivity.

305
Q

guaifenesin

A

Extended-release guaifenesin (Mucinex) is an expectorant medication that increases respiratory fluids and thins secretions to facilitate mobilization and expectoration. It is appropriate to prescribe in clients who have pneumonia with a productive cough and low-pitched wheezing (rhonchi)

306
Q

hydroxyzine

A

(Atarax) Histamine blocker

307
Q

Isotretinoin

A

(Accutane) decreases sebum secretion and is prescribed for severe, disfiguring nodular acne that has been unresponsive to other therapies, including antibiotics. It is a pregnancy category X drug and is known to cause serious birth defects if taken during pregnancy.

Females prescribed isotretinoin must have 2 negative pregnancy tests before taking the medication. Also, 2 forms of contraception must have been in place for at least 1 month prior to starting isotretinoin, and these must be continued both during treatment and for 1 month after the medication is discontinued. Before refills can be obtained, enrollment in a risk management program is required to verify that pregnancy tests are negative and 2 forms of contraception are being used. Blood donation is also discouraged while on therapy and for 1 month afterward to ensure that pregnant women do not receive any donated blood.

Side effects include birth defects, skin changes (eg, dry skin, skin fragility, cutaneous atrophy), and risk for increased intracranial pressure. Clients need to be instructed to avoid tetracycline, excess sun and tanning, and vitamin A supplements. Women of child-bearing age should use 2 forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy.

308
Q

Carbamazepine

A

(Tegretol)

309
Q

theophylline

A

bronchodilator with a low therapeutic index and a narrow therapeutic range (10-20 mcg/mL). The serum level should be monitored frequently to avoid severe adverse effects. Toxicity is likely to occur at levels >20 mcg/mL. Individual titration is based on peak serum theophylline levels, so it is necessary to draw a blood level 30 minutes after dosing.

Theophylline can cause seizures and life-threatening arrhythmias. Toxicity is usually due to intentional overdose or concurrent intake of medications that increase serum theophylline levels. Cimetidine and ciprofloxacin can dramatically increase serum theophylline levels (>80%). Therefore, they should not be used in these clients.

310
Q

terbinafine

A

(Lamisil) Antifungal cream
- preferred treatment for ringworm and is applied to infected areas twice a day. It may take 1-4 weeks to complete treatment depending on infection severity

311
Q

Regular insulin

A

is short-acting and peaks 2-5 hours after administration. The onset of regular insulin is 30 minutes-1 hour with duration of 5-8 hours

312
Q

ciprofloxacin

A
fluoroquinolone - used for UTI
- places clients at increased risk for tendinitis and tendon rupture that most often occur in the Achilles tendon.  This class of antibiotics carries a black box warning about this risk.  The Food and Drug Administration recommends that at the first sign of tendon pain or swelling, clients should stop taking the fluoroquinolone, abstain from moving the affected area, and contact their HCP promptly for further evaluation and a change of antibiotic.
313
Q

moxifloxacin

A

fluoroquinolone - used for UTI

314
Q

norfloxacin

A

fluoroquinolone - used for UTI

315
Q

ofloxacin

A

fluoroquinolone - used for UTI

316
Q

famciclovir

A

commonly used to treat herpes infection as they shorten the duration and severity of active lesions

317
Q

valacyclovir

A

commonly used to treat herpes infection as they shorten the duration and severity of active lesions

318
Q

Acyclovir

A

(Zovirax) commonly used to treat herpes infection as they shorten the duration and severity of active lesions

319
Q

Fluticasone/salmeterol

A

(Advair) is a combination drug containing a corticosteroid (fluticasone) and a bronchodilator (salmeterol). Salmeterol is a long-acting inhaled β2-adrenergic agonist that promotes relaxation of the bronchial smooth muscles over 12 hours. Fluticasone decreases inflammation. This medication is used as part of the treatment plan for prevention and long-term control of asthma.

Client instructions include:

  • After inhalation, rinse the mouth with water without swallowing to reduce the risk of oral/esophageal candidiasis
  • Avoid smoking and using tobacco products
  • Receive the pneumococcal and influenza vaccines if there is a risk for infection
320
Q

risperidone

A

(Risperdal)
Atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic medications are used in the treatment of schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and other mental health disorders. The nurse should teach clients and caregivers about potential side effects of antipsychotic medications. Key teaching points include:

  • Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) include akathisia (restlessness, fidgeting) and Parkinsonism (tremors, shuffling gait). These specific symptoms are important to watch for, as EPS is easily mistaken for agitation or negative schizophrenic symptoms.
  • Fever and muscle rigidity may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a potentially fatal condition requiring emergent intervention
  • Clients may experience anticholinergic effects (eg, dry mouth, constipation).
  • Clients should change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension
  • Sedating effects (eg, drowsiness, hypersomnia [excessive sleeping]) are common
  • Symptoms are evaluated on an individual basis, and most minor symptoms can be managed with a decrease in dosage or change in medication. The health care provider may prescribe medications to treat EPS (eg, benzodiazepines, diphenhydramine).
321
Q

quetiapine

A

(Seroquel)
Atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic medications are used in the treatment of schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and other mental health disorders. The nurse should teach clients and caregivers about potential side effects of antipsychotic medications. Key teaching points include:

  • Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) include akathisia (restlessness, fidgeting) and Parkinsonism (tremors, shuffling gait). These specific symptoms are important to watch for, as EPS is easily mistaken for agitation or negative schizophrenic symptoms.
  • Fever and muscle rigidity may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a potentially fatal condition requiring emergent intervention
  • Clients may experience anticholinergic effects (eg, dry mouth, constipation).
  • Clients should change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension
  • Sedating effects (eg, drowsiness, hypersomnia [excessive sleeping]) are common
  • Symptoms are evaluated on an individual basis, and most minor symptoms can be managed with a decrease in dosage or change in medication. The health care provider may prescribe medications to treat EPS (eg, benzodiazepines, diphenhydramine).
322
Q

olanzapine

A

(Zyprexa)
Atypical (second-generation) antipsychotic medications are used in the treatment of schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and other mental health disorders.
- considered standard treatment to control violent behavior in the client with schizophrenia

The nurse should teach clients and caregivers about potential side effects of antipsychotic medications.
Key teaching points include:
- Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) include akathisia (restlessness, fidgeting) and Parkinsonism (tremors, shuffling gait). These specific symptoms are important to watch for, as EPS is easily mistaken for agitation or negative schizophrenic symptoms.
- Fever and muscle rigidity may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a potentially fatal condition requiring emergent intervention
- Clients may experience anticholinergic effects (eg, dry mouth, constipation).
- Clients should change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension
- Sedating effects (eg, drowsiness, hypersomnia [excessive sleeping]) are common
- Symptoms are evaluated on an individual basis, and most minor symptoms can be managed with a decrease in dosage or change in medication. The health care provider may prescribe medications to treat EPS (eg, benzodiazepines, diphenhydramine).

323
Q

mixing regular and NPH insulin

A

NPH insulin and regular insulin can be safely mixed and administered as a single injection. Regular insulin should be drawn up before intermediate-acting insulin to avoid contaminating multidose insulin vials (mnemonic – RN: Regular before NPH).

324
Q

Amphotericin B

A

is an antifungal medication used to treat systemic fungal infections. It is commonly associated with severe adverse effects, including hypotension, fever, chills, and nephrotoxicity.

Due to the similarity between the adverse effects of amphotericin B and the symptoms of a blood transfusion reaction, the nurse’s best action is to complete the blood transfusion and allow one hour of observation before initiating amphotericin B

325
Q

methadone

A

given to pts going through withdraws to alleviate discomfort

is a potent narcotic with a longer half-life than its duration of action due to its lipophilic properties. The risk for overdose exists as clients can inadvertently take too many tablets for additional pain relief even though fat cells will continue to release high amounts of the drug into circulation.

Early signs of toxicity include nausea/vomiting and lethargy. A client who falls asleep with stimulation (ie, is obtunded) requires additional observation/monitoring. Sedation precedes respiratory depression, a life-threatening complication of severe toxicity

326
Q

Chlorpheniramine

A

(ChlorTrimeton) is a sedating histamine H1 antagonist used to treat allergy symptoms.
Increased central nervous system effects (eg, drowsiness, dizziness) may occur due to its reduced clearance in the elderly

327
Q

Nesiritide

A

vasodilator - decrease preload so improves cardiac output and decreasing pulmonary congestion,

328
Q

hydromorphone

A

(dilaudid) - 5-10 times the strength of morphine

- typical max dose 2 mg

329
Q

Zolpidem

A

(Ambien) is a hypnotic medication that induces sleep for clients with sleep disturbances (eg, acute mania).

330
Q

cyanocobalamin

A

for vitamin B12 deficiency are usually administered every 4 weeks

331
Q

long-term corticosteroid replacement

A

Corticosteroids are the primary drugs used to treat Addison’s disease

Clients taking long-term corticosteroid replacement should be taught the following:

  • Do not discontinue glucocorticoid therapy abruptly. Abrupt discontinuation could lead to addisonian crisis, a life-threatening complication.
  • Report any signs and symptoms of infection to the HCP immediately. Corticosteroid use can cause immunosuppression, and infection can develop quickly and spread rapidly. Corticosteroids’ anti-inflammatory effects may also mask signs of infection such as inflammation, redness, tenderness, heat, fever, and edema.
  • Stay attuned to signs and symptoms of stress and increase dose of corticosteroid during times of stress. A stress response (surgery, trauma) can cause a sudden decrease in cortisol levels, triggering addisonian crisis.
  • A side effect of corticosteroid therapy is hyperglycemia. Report signs of hyperglycemia, including increased urine, hunger, and thirst. Clients with diabetes mellitus must be vigilant in checking blood glucose levels.
  • Corticosteroids are catabolic to bone (osteoporosis) and muscle (muscle weakness). A diet high in calcium (at least 1500 mg/day) and protein (1.5 g/kg/day) but low in fat and simple carbohydrates is recommended.
  • Cataracts are a side effect of corticosteroids, particularly glucocorticoid therapy. Make an appointment with an optometrist yearly to assess for cataracts.
  • Corticosteroid medications can cause gastric irritation and should not be taken on an empty stomach.
  • Recognize signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome and report to the PHCP.
  • Develop a regular HCP-approved exercise program.
332
Q

adalimumab

A

tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitor that suppresses the inflammatory response in autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn disease, and psoriasis.

Due to the immunosuppressive action of TNF inhibitors, clients taking these drugs are at increased risk for infection. A client with current, recent, or chronic infection should not take a TNF inhibitor
pts should also have a TB test before starting treatment

333
Q

ranitidine

A

histamine-2 antagonist

334
Q

tolnaftate

A

topical antifungal

335
Q

haloprogin

A

topical antifungal

336
Q

clotrimazole

A

topical antifungal

337
Q

propranolol

A

beta blocker

nonselective beta-blocker that inhibits beta1 (heart) and beta2 (bronchial) receptors. It is used for many indications (eg, essential tremor) in addition to blood pressure control. Blood pressure decreases secondary to a decrease in heart rate. Bronchoconstriction may occur due to the effect on the beta2 receptors.

The presence of wheezing in a client taking propranolol may indicate that bronchoconstriction or bronchospasm is occurring. The nurse should assess for any history of asthma or respiratory problems with this client and notify the health care provider

Beta-adrenergic blockers are used to relieve some of the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis (thyroid storm), a complication of hyperthyroidism in which excessive thyroid hormones are released into the circulation. Beta blockers block the effects of the sympathetic nervous system and treat symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, irritability, tremors, and nervousness in hyperthyroidism

338
Q

promethazine

A

(Phenergan) antihistamine

339
Q

ibuprofen

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) - inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and can be taken to decrease pain and inflammation or to reduce fever.

NSAIDs are pregnancy category C in the first and second trimesters and pregnancy category D in the third trimester. NSAIDs must be avoided during the third trimester due to the risk of causing premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus. During the first and second trimesters, NSAIDs should be taken only if benefits outweigh risks and under the supervision of a health care provider (HCP).

All NSAIDs are associated with the following:

  • Gastrointestinal (GI) toxicity - symptoms of GI bleeding such as black tarry stools should be reported. Gastrointestinal upset (eg, dyspepsia, pain) can be reduced if the medicine is taken with food.
  • Kidney injury - long-term use is associated with kidney injury
  • Hypertension and heart failure - NSAIDs can cause fluid retention, which can exacerbate conditions such as heart failure, cirrhosis/ascites, and hypertension
  • Bleeding risk - clients should notify the HCP if taking concurrently with aspirin, other NSAIDs, or anticoagulant or antiplatelet drugs as they can increase the risk of GI bleeding.
340
Q

Acetaminophen

A

(pregnancy category B) is a common pain reliever and/or fever reducer used during pregnancy.

Acetaminophen intake should not exceed 4 g per day, including any over-the-counter or prescription combination medications that contain acetaminophen

341
Q

alcoholic pts should be given what first

A

Clients with alcoholism can have hypoglycemia. They can also have thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency related to poor nutrient intake (a healthy diet contains enough thiamine) and alcohol-induced suppression of thiamine absorption. Thiamine deficiency can result in Wernicke encephalopathy (WE). Untreated WE can lead to death or neurologic morbidity (Korsakoff psychosis).

In the setting of alcoholism, administered glucose is oxidized by using all the existing thiamine in the body; this can worsen thiamine deficiency, which in turn can precipitate the development of WE in a previously unaffected individual. Because the signs of alcohol intoxication and WE are similar, all intoxicated clients should be given IV thiamine before or with IV glucose

342
Q

haloperidol

A

(Haldol) considered standard treatment to control violent behavior in the client with schizophrenia

343
Q

Propofol

A

(Diprivan) is considered standard treatment to sedate the client receiving mechanical ventilation to provide ventilator control, prevent accidental extubation, and promote comfort

344
Q

valsartan/sacubitril

A

Entresto is an angiotensin receptor-neprilysin inhibitor that is prescribed to clients with heart failure to vasodilate the vessels and inhibit the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). It has been shown to reduce hospitalizations and mortality rates in clients with heart failure.

Side effects include hypotension hyperkalemia, dizziness, cough, and a decrease in renal function. This medication can also cause angioedema, a life threatening reaction that can impede the airway. Tongue thickness may be an indication that the client is experiencing a mild case of angioedema that could potentially get worse over time. The nurse should report this finding immediately to the healthcare provider, who will likely discontinue the medication. Valsartan/sacubitril should not be prescribed to any client with a history of angioedema. Incidence is higher in African American clients and those who have had a previous episode of angioedema

345
Q

meds that affect asthma

A

Two groups of commonly used drugs, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and beta-adrenergic antagonists (beta blockers), have the potential to cause problems for clients with asthma.

Ibuprofen (Motrin) and aspirin are common over-the-counter anti-inflammatory drugs that are effective in relieving pain, discomfort, and fever. About 10%-20% of asthmatics are sensitive to these medications and can experience severe bronchospasm after ingestion. This is prevalent in clients with nasal polyposis.

346
Q

Fondaparinux

A

(Arixtra), unfractionated heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (eg, enoxaparin, dalteparin) are anticoagulants commonly used for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism prophylaxis after hip/knee replacement or abdominal surgery. However, fondaparinux is not administered until more than 6 hours after any surgery, and anticoagulants are not given while an epidural catheter is in place.

Fondaparinux is associated with epidural hematoma. Any bleeding in the tight epidural space, which does not expand, could result in spinal cord compression. Signs of epidural spinal hematoma can include severe back pain and paralysis

347
Q

verapamil

A

calcium channel blocker sometimes used for the prevention of migraines.

  • Calcium channel blockers may decrease neurovascular inflammation, thereby reducing the occurrence of migraines. Because verapamil affects the cardiac system, the pulse rate should be checked prior to administration due to possible bradycardia
  • The medication should be held, and the client’s health care provider contacted, if the heart rate is <60/min. Clients should also have periodic blood pressure evaluations to ensure that hypotension is not occurring.
  • Intake of grapefruit (including grapefruit juice) should be avoided, as it can increase serum levels of verapamil by reducing hepatic clearance of the drug
  • Increasing fluids and fiber helps to prevent constipation, a common side effect of most calcium channel blockers, particularly verapamil
348
Q

timolol

A

beta blocker

- can decrease HR

349
Q

isocarboxazid

A

(Marplan) Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) - prescribed for treatment-resistant and atypical depression.

Clients taking MAOIs must avoid high-tyraminefoods to prevent life-threatening hypertensive crisis. Foods and beverages to avoid include aged cheeses (eg, most cheeses except for cream and cottage cheese); protein-rich foods; and foods that have been processed (eg, hot dogs), pickled, fermented (eg, sauerkraut, pepperoni), or smoked (eg, smoked salmon). Most fruits and vegetables (eg, salad, broccoli) contain little to no tyramine

350
Q

Diclofenac

A

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) prescribed to treat pain from inflammatory or musculoskeletal disorders, dysmenorrhea, or migraines.

NSAIDs (ibuprofen, naproxen) increase the risk of cardiovascular thrombotic events (eg, myocardial infarction, stroke) and gastrointestinal inflammation and ulcers. The lowest effective dose should be used for the shortest necessary duration. Concurrent use with aspirin or alcohol increases the risk for gastrointestinal bleeding.

351
Q

When administering IV vancomycin, the nurse should assess for and work to prevent possible complications by performing the following:

A
  • Draw the prescribed trough level prior to administration. Therapeutic vancomycin levels range from 10-20 mg/L for hemodynamically stable clients. Adverse effects of vancomycin toxicity include nephrotoxicity (eg, elevated creatinine levels) and ototoxicity (eg, hearing loss, vertigo, tinnitus).
  • Infuse medication over at least 60 minutes (≤10 mg/min). Faster rates increase the likelihood of complications
  • Monitor blood pressure during the infusion. Hypotension is a possible adverse effect
  • Assess for hypersensitivity. Red man syndrome is a nonallergic histamine reaction characterized by sudden onset of severe hypotension, flushing, and/or maculopapular rash of the face, neck, chest, and upper extremities
  • Monitor for anaphylaxis (eg, rash, pruritus, laryngeal edema, wheezing).
  • Observe IV site every 30 minutes for pain, redness, or swelling. Vancomycin is a vesicant and may cause thrombophlebitis or, if extravasation occurs, tissue necrosis. Administration using a central venous catheter is preferred; however, a peripheral IV may be used for short-term therapy
352
Q

Activated charcoal

A

n important treatment in early acetylsalicylic acid (ASA) toxicity; it is recommended for gastrointestinal decontamination in clients with clinical signs of ASA poisoning (disorientation, vomiting, hyperpnea, diaphoresis, restlessness) as well as in those who are asymptomatic. Activated charcoal binds to available salicylates, thus limiting further absorption in the small intestine and enhancing elimination.

353
Q

Rituximab

A

(Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody (end in -mab) that affects the lymphocytes. It is commonly prescribed to treat certain forms of cancer (eg, lymphoma) and autoimmune diseases (eg, lupus). Like many monoclonal antibodies, rituximab can produce a powerful immune response (eg, bronchospasm, dyspnea, tachypnea, hypotension, angioedema) (Option 3). The nurse should closely monitor the client during and after the infusion. If life-threatening symptoms develop, the nurse should stop the infusion and immediately notify the health care provider. The symptoms will be treated (eg, corticosteroids) and, when resolved, the infusion is usually restarted at a slower rate.

354
Q

Oral iron supplements

A

At birth, a newborn will have enough iron (received during the last trimester of pregnancy) to last until approximately age 4 months. After this age, formula-fed infants usually receive adequate iron intake from iron-fortified formula, whereas breastfed infants may require supplementation until they begin eating iron-rich foods.

Oral iron supplements should be given on an empty stomach between meals for best absorption. If gastric irritation occurs, iron may be given with meals; however, this will decrease absorption. If the child is old enough, the supplements should be offered with citrus fruit juice as vitamin C will increase absorption. Milk products and antacids also decrease the absorption of oral iron and should be avoided for 2 hours following administration

355
Q

edoxaban

A

anticoagulant

356
Q

sotalol

A

Antiarrhythmic

- may prolong the QT interval

357
Q

dofetilide

A

Antiarrhythmic

- may prolong the QT interval

358
Q

Detemir

A

(Levemir), a long-acting (basal) insulin, is prescribed once daily in the evening or twice daily in divided doses.
- it is administered to control blood sugar between meals and overnight, in addition to mealtime (bolus) insulin