UWORLD Missed Questions Flashcards

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1
Q

What organism can colonize lung cavities formed from TB forming a ball which results in hemoptysis

A

Asperillus fumigatus

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2
Q

In what abnormal structure do Aspergillomas (fungal balls) colonize?

A

Lung cavities formed from TB (also Emphysema and Sarcoidosis)

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3
Q

What syndrome is associated with nuchal translucency and a decreased maternal serum alpha fetoprotein

A

Down Syndrome

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4
Q

What chromosome abnormality is found in Down syndrome

A

47 XY, +21

Trisomy 21

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5
Q

What is the most common GI finding in Down Syndrome

A

Duodenal atresia

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6
Q

What is the mnemonic Drinking age = 21

A

D represents Down Syndrome

21 helps you remember that it is a trisomy of the chromosome 21

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7
Q

What is a Type 2 error

A

A false negative error

Stating that there is no effect of X on Y when in reality there is

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8
Q

How can you reduce the chance of a Type 2 error

A

Increase power of a test by increasing sample size

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9
Q

What disorder is associated with Mullerian duct agenesis leading to primary amenorrhea with normal secondary sexual characteristics

A

Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser Syndrome

MRKH Syndrome

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10
Q

What does the Mullerian duct (Paramesonephric duct) give rise to?

A

Fallopian tubes, uterus, upper vagina

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11
Q

What are the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions? (What binds to the antigen in each)

A

Type 1 - IgE binding to antigen and causing mast cell degranulation
Type 2 - Fab portion of antibody binding to antigen leading to its destruction
Type 3 - Fab portion of antibody binding to antigen forming an immune complex
Type 4 - Th cells encountering antigen and releasing cytokines

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12
Q

Which hypersensitivity reactions involve antibody

A

Types 1, 2, and 3

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13
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember the SSRI’s?

A

FLashbacks PAralyze SEnior CItizens

Fluoxetine
Paroxetine
Sertraline
Citalopram

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14
Q

What is one of the main side effects of SSRI’s

A

Sexual dysfunction

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15
Q

What are the three enzymes in the path to begin glycogen synthesis? (Hint: Insulin first binds….)

A

Insulin binds to TYROSINE KINASE receptor on Liver and SM

Tyrosine kinase triggers PROTEIN PHOSPHATASE

Protein phosphatase activates GLYCOGEN SYNTHASE

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16
Q

What tissues synthesize glycogen

A

Liver and Skeletal Muscle

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17
Q

What does the CFTR protein require prior to releasing chloride ions from the cell

A

2 ATPs binding

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18
Q

What is the gene involved with CF

A

CFTR = Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Regulator protein

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19
Q

What anatomical structures are cut in an episiotomy (Cut made sometimes during birth to make delivery easier)

A

Vaginal and subvaginal mucossa, and the perineal body

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20
Q

What structure is located anterior to the anus on the pelvic floor and lies between the anus and the urogenital region

A

Perineal body

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21
Q

What endometrial condition involves uniform enlargement of the uterus with painful heavy bleeding

A

Adenomyosis

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22
Q

What two disorders can result from Bartonella henselae

A

Cat scratch disease and Bacillary angiomatosis

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23
Q

What disorder presents with scratch marks on the arm and regional lymphadenopathy

A

Cat scratch disease by Bartonella henselae

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24
Q

What is it called when 2 different viruses form a hybrid virus that is able to infect a host it previously could not, but then the subsequent progeny revert to normal

A

Phenotypic mixing

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25
Q

How come in phenotypic mixing, the subsequent progeny do not remain hybrids?

A

Because the genetic material is not exchanged or altered

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26
Q

What are the percentages within:
1 standard deviation above and below
2 standard deviations above and below
3 standard deviations above and below

A

68%
95%
99.7%

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27
Q

What condition results when the midgut does not rotate the full 270 degrees counterclockwise (90 + 180) around the Superior mesenteric artery during the 10th week of gestation

A

Midgut malrotation

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28
Q

What disorder presents with formation of fibrous bands (Ladds bands) in the abdominal cavity and bilious emesis from intestinal obstruction

A

Midgut malrotation

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29
Q

What are the two primary functions of eosinophils

A

Type 1 Hypersensitivity and Parasitic defense

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30
Q

Through which immune mechanism do eosinophils protect against parasitic infxn

A

Antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

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31
Q

In patients with anxiety, what must you rule out before diagnosing them with an anxiety disorder such as panic attacks or generalized anxiety disorder

A

A legit medical condition or substance abuse (Anxiety could be secondary to this)

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32
Q

What results with vomiting, tachypnea, and confusion/coma

A

Hyperammonemia from a Urea cycle disorder (Conversion of ammonia to urea)

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33
Q

What is the most common disorder of the Uric Acid cycle and how will it present

A

Ornithine Transcarbamylase deficiency

Hyperammonemia and elevated urinary Orotic Acid

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34
Q

Which disorder has the EKG findings atria and ventricles depolarizing completely separate of each other at a regular rhythm

A

3rd degree AV block

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35
Q

Which cells in the hearts conduction system possess pacemaker ability

A

All 4 of them: SA node, AV node, Bundle of HIS, and Purkinje

Its just that the SA node is fastest so it stifles impulse generation from the others and is the primary pacemaker

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36
Q

Which nerve is responsible for the sensory component of the corneal reflex?

A

Nasociliary nerve (branch of Ophthalmic V1)

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37
Q

Which nerve is responsible for medial adduction of the eye

A

Oculomotor (CN 3)

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38
Q

In what anatomical structure do both the nasociliary nerve and oculomotor nerve meet?

A

Superior orbital fissure

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39
Q

What is the most common cause of nipple discharge (bloody or serous)

A

Intraductal papilloma

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40
Q

What breast findings can be seen on exam in a person with intraductal papilloma

A

Nothing really. Just serous discharge or blood from twisting vessels. No palpable masses

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41
Q

What cell junction type is upregulated during labor

A

Gap junction

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42
Q

What are Gap junctions made of

A

Connexin proteins

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43
Q

Which disease has IgA immune complex deposition in small vessels and kidney causing a red rash on the butt and legs, joint pain, abdominal pain, and nephropathy

A

HSP

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44
Q

What is the most common systemic vasculitis in children

A

HSP

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45
Q

What disorder presents with fever, myalgia, pharyngitis, , splenomegaly, and atypical lymphocytes

A

Mononucleosis

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46
Q

Wht agents are responsible for causing Mono

A

EBV and CMV

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47
Q

What is it called when only one parents gene isexpressed by an individual due to methylation of the other parents gene

A

Genomic imprinting

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48
Q

What are the 3 differences between Delirium and Dementia

A

Delirium is acute. Dementia is gradual

Delirium has impaired consciousness. Dementia has intact consciousness

Delirium is reversible. Dementia is irreversible

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49
Q

What disorder is characterized by a failure of neural crest tissue to migrate fully down the vagus nerve resulting in failure to form Auerbach and Meissner plexuses. Presents with abdominal dilation and a failure to pass meconium within 48 hours

A

Hirschprung disease

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50
Q

What anatomic structure is always affected in Hirschprung dz

A

Rectum

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51
Q

What is pyruvate converted to during cases of hypoxia and what enzyme catalyzes this process

A

Lactate

Lactate dehydrogenase

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52
Q

What is the role of ADP in Muscle contraction? ATP?

A

ADP helps bind myosin to actin

ATP helps release myosin from actin

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53
Q

What injury occurs when a child falls while holding their parents hand

A

Radial head subluxation

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54
Q

What structure is defective in a radial head subluxation

A

Annular ligament

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55
Q

What is the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention?

A

Primary - Preventing a disease from occuring
Secondary - Preventing symptoms from occuring in someone who got the disease
Tertiary - Preventing complications from occuring in someone who has the disease and is symptomatic

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56
Q

What molecule used in the synthesis of a fatty acid that also inhibits beta oxidation of fatty acids from occuring

A

Malonyl coA

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57
Q

During acid base imbalances, if you have respiratory acidosis with an elevated CO2 but a normal bicarb, what does this signify?

A

It is an acute condition

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58
Q

Which acid base compensation occurs immediately? and which one occurs over 3-5 days

A

Immediate - Respiratory compensation

Delayed - Metabolic compensation

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59
Q

What is calculated in a Case control study

A

Odd ratio

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60
Q

What is it called when the dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds fail to fuse properly during development and the ventral bud encirclest he duodenum

A

Annular pancreas

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61
Q

What is a possible complication of annular pancreas

A

Constricture of the duodenum

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62
Q

What are the 3 types of transplant rejection and when does each occur

A

Hyperacute - Minutes
Acute - Weeks to months
Chronic - Months to years

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63
Q

Which phase of transplant rejection is characterized by smooth muscle prliferation and interstitial fibrosis which result in lumenal narrowing

A

Chronic

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64
Q

As you move further down the respiratory tract, which feature goes the furthest? Goblet cells, mucous glands, cartialge, or cilia and why

A

Cilia. Push mucus up.

If goblet cells were lower the mucus would backflow

These all end by the terminal bronchi. From here phagocytes clear remaining particles that go lower

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65
Q

What is one of the long term side effects of antipsychotics

A

Tardive dyskinesia

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66
Q

What is the sequence TTAGGG

A

Telomere

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67
Q

Which cranial nerve passes through the posterior triangle of the neck

A

Spinal accessory nerve

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68
Q

What muscles are affected in painful abduction of the arm above the horizontal and a drooping shoulder appearance

A

Trapezius

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69
Q

Which pathogen is responsible for causing spasmodic contractions and risus sardonicus

A

Clostridium tetani

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70
Q

Which pathogen has the toxin travel from the wound site to the spinal cord via retrograde axoplasmic flow along motor neuron axons and inhibits inhibitory neurons

A

Clostridium tetani

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71
Q

Up to what age is it completely normal for children to play with dolls and toys associated with the opposite sex as they form a gender identity?

A

Up to 3 to 4 years

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72
Q

What is the prolonged feeling that your gender doesn’t match your birth sex

A

Gender dysphoria

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73
Q

The finding of pancreatic and gastric tissue in Meckels diverticulum is due to what type of process

A

Ectopy

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74
Q

What tissue type is most commonly found in Meckel’s diverticulum and is associated with producing abdominal pain

A

Gastric mucosa (produces acid causing ulceration)

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75
Q

What major artery supplies the primary visual cortex (striate cortex) and can result in a contralateral homonomyous hemianopia with macular sparing if infarcted

A

PCA

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76
Q

Which disorder results from a lack of the paternal X chromosome

A

Turners syndrome

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77
Q

Which disorder presents with coarctation of the aorta, cystic hygromas in the neck, and lymphedema in the extremities

A

Turners

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78
Q

What disorder results in neurological defects, albinism, and immunodeficiency (recurrent infxns)

A

Chediak Higashi

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79
Q

Where is rRNA synthesized

A

Nucleolus

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80
Q

What two things are triglycerides broken down into

A

Glycerol and fatty acids

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81
Q

What is a odd function of M3 cholinergic receptors that differs from its normal contraction of the bladder, GI, and pupil

A

It causes NO release from peripheral endothelial cells and thus relaxation resulting in vasodilation

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82
Q

Which organism does Thayer Marin selective media isolate?

A

Neisseria

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83
Q

Which medium contains vancomycin, colistin, nystatin, and trimethoprim?

A

Thayer Marin selective media

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84
Q

What is the mnemonic Very Typically Cultures Neisseria and what is it used for

A

It is used to identify the components of the Thayer martin culture media

Vancomycin
Trimethoprim
Colistin
Nystatin

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85
Q

What term describes the probability of seeing a difference when there is one

A

Power

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86
Q

What condition results from defective cytoskeletal proteins spectrin and ankyrin in RBCs

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

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87
Q

What structure connects the bladder to the yolk sac during development and gives rise to the urachus

A

Allantois

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88
Q

What condition involves discharge from the belly button in a newborn

A

Patent urachus

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89
Q

Which dataset (mean, median, mode, range, variange) is resistant to outliers

A

Mode

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90
Q

Which dataset term is defined as the most frequently observed data point in a trial? For example, 37 of 50 students scored a 100 on the test. In this case, the score of 100, which is the score with the majority of students would be considered the….

A

Mode

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91
Q

What muscle forms the pelvic floor

A

Levator ani

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92
Q

What three muscle components make up the levator ani

A

Iliococcygeus, pubococcygeus, and puborectalis

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93
Q

Which dissacharide forms fructose + glucose

A

Sucrose

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94
Q

Aldolase B is an important enzyme in the metabolism of what molecule

A

Fructose/Sucrose (Sucrose also since it breaks down into fructose)

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95
Q

Which hypersensitivity reactions utilize complement and may result in hypocomplementemia

A

Types 2 and 3

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96
Q

Which hypersensitivity reaction results in arthralgias

A

Type 3 (serum sickness)

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97
Q

Which type of lung pathology has increased elastic recoil and incresed radial traction

A

Interstitial lung diseases (This is a ype of Restrictive lung disease)

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98
Q

Which psychiatric disorder is characterized by one or more manic episodes involving elevated irritability and hyperactivity and may occur with psychotic features

A

Bipolar 1 disorder

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99
Q

Which disorder most commonly results in Congenital Bilateral Absence of the Vas Deferens (CBAVD) and thus infertility

A

Cystic fibrosis

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100
Q

Which is the only pathogenic fungus with a polysaccharide capsule that makes it resistant to phagocytosis

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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101
Q

Which pathogen has a capsule that is red on mucicarmine stain and cleear on india ink stain

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

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102
Q

In a patient centered approach, what is the most important thing to do when responding to a pt

A

Educate them

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103
Q

What organism destroys the myenteric plexus resulting in Achalasia in individuals from south america

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

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104
Q

Which disorder has the birds beak appearance on barium swallow

A

Achalasia

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105
Q

Which type of breast cancer has a irregularly shaped mass typicaly in the outer upper quadrants

A

Invasive breast carcinoma

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106
Q

Dimpling of the breast in cases of breast cancer signal involvement of which anatomical structure

A

Suspensory ligaments

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107
Q

Which disorder is characterized by the appearance of ragged red fibers on muscle biopsy

A

Mitochondrial myopathy

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108
Q

What two tissues are most affected by mitochondrial myopathy

A

CNS and Skeletal muscle b/c they use the most ATP

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109
Q

What 3 things shift the Oxygen hemoglobin disassociation curve to the left

A

Decreased Hydrogen ions
Decreased 2,3-BPG
Decreased Temperature

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110
Q

If a person A has a higher O2 affinity than person B, person A’s Oxygen-hemoglobin diassociation curve will be shifted

A

Left

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111
Q

What finding will be seen on immunofluorescnece of a glomerular or alveolar tissue biopsy with antibodies against the basement membrane

A

Linear deposits

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112
Q

Which interleukin promotes B cell growth and activates T cells, NK cells, and monocytes

A

IL 2

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113
Q

What feature of IL 2 gives it anti tumor capabilities

A

It’s activation of T cells and NK cells

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114
Q

Why does the oxygen partial pressure of blood drop once it reaches the LA

A

Mixes with deoxygenated blood (the deoxygenated blood from the lung and heart circulation empty here)

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115
Q

What two features in a study can help reduce observer and expectancy bias

A

Blinding and the use of placebo

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116
Q

Which artery is formed from the 3rd branchial arch

A

Carotid

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117
Q

What two ions contribute the most to the resting membrane potential of a cell at -70 mV

A

Sodium and potassium

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118
Q

Which ion has the greatest effect on the membrane potential of a cell due to it having the greatest permeability

A

Potassium (-80 mV equilibrium potential)

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119
Q

The metanephric mesenchyme gives rise to which structures in the adult

A

Glomerulus through distal convoluted tubule

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120
Q

Which embryonic structure gives rise to the ureter, pelvises, calyces, and collecting ducts

A

Ureteric buds

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121
Q

Which vaccine is conjugated to tetanus toxoid, diphtheria toxoid, or Neisseria outer membrane protein to help make it T-dependent and more immunogenic

A

Hib

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122
Q

What is the point of conjugating a vaccine with another pathogen

A

Make it T cell dependent

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123
Q

What pathogen is infamous for causing post infection glomerulonephritis

A

Strep pyogenes

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124
Q

What can be seen on renal biopsy in a patient with post sreptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Immune complex deposition

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125
Q

In intoxicated individuals who refuse medical help due to impaired decision making capacity, what should you do

A

Keep them in the ER until they sober up and then reassess

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126
Q

What substance is responsible for directly signaling glycogen phosphorylase kinase to phosphorylate glycogen phosphorylase during contraction

A

Calcium

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127
Q

Which ligament attaches to the medial femoral condyle of the knee?

A

PCL

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128
Q

Which pathogen is bile soluble, optochin sensitive, and alpha hemolytic

A

Strep pneumo

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129
Q

What is the most commonly fractured bone

A

Clavicle

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130
Q

Which muscle is responsible for pulling the medial portion of the clavicle upward in a clavicle fracture

A

Sternocleidomastoid

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131
Q

What are the primary class of drugs for major depression

A

SSRI

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132
Q

What is the mechanism of SSRIs

A

Block serotonin reuptake in presynaptic nerve

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133
Q

Which disorder presents with skin tumors and hyperpigmented lesions

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (Cutaneous neurofibromas and Cafe au lait spots)

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134
Q

What embryological tissue is responsible for the cutaneous neurofibromas found in Neurofibromatosis Type 1

A

Neural crest cells

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135
Q

Which mode of inheritance is often associated with heteroplasmy

A

Mitochondiral inheritance

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136
Q

What is it called when variable expression results due to the presence of both normal and abnormal mitochondrial genotypes within a single cell

A

Heteroplasmy

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137
Q

Which cytokine is responsible for inducing isotype switch

A

IL-4

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138
Q

Secondary lactase deficiency can occur following what infection

A

Giardiasis

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139
Q

What intrauterine findings are seen during an ectopic pregnancy due to progesterone release (in spite of the absent embryo)

A

Dilated coiled endometrial glands and vascularized edematous stroma

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140
Q

In cardiac pacemaker cells, what substance can prolong phase 4

A

Adenosine

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141
Q

Which ions are responsible for the phase 4 rise in pacemaker membrane potential

A

Slowing of K efflux

Na and Ca influx

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142
Q

Which observational study compares 2 groups with different risk factors and then looks at disease incidence

A

Cohort study

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143
Q

Which pathogen can cause infection that leads to Waterhouse Friedrichsen Syndrome

A

Neisseria meningitidis

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144
Q

Which disorder is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, DIC, and shock

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

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145
Q

What type of defense mechanism involves an individual replacing unacceptable feelings with the exact opposite such as a someone with sexual feelings going to a monastery

A

Reaction formation

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146
Q

Which dopaminergic pathway is responsible for inhibiting the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary

A

Tuberoinfundibular

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147
Q

Which class of drugs can inhibit the dopaminergic pathways by inhibiting D2 receptors

A

Antipsychotics

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148
Q

Which cell types release the protease elastase

A

Macrophages and neutrophils

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149
Q

What disorder has the classic triad of conjunctivitis, arthralgia, and urethritis

A

Reactive arthritis (can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree)

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150
Q

What disorder is characterized as a seronegative spondyloarthritis and can thus cause sacroilitis in addition to its classic triad

A

Reactive arthritis

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151
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for transporting fatty acids from the cytoplasm to the mitochondira during fatty acid degradation

A

Carnitine

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152
Q

What is the mnemonic CARNitine = CARNage used for and what does it stand for

A

Carnitine is responsible for fatty acid degradation and carnage means killing a bunch of people

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153
Q

Acetyl CoA can either enter the TCA cycle or the Ketone body synthesis pathway. Which substance is it converted to in the ketone path

A

Acetoacetate

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154
Q

What term is used to describe the estimate of variability that exists between the sample mean and the true mean of a population

A

Standard error of mean

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155
Q

What is the equation to calculate a confidence interval?

A

CI = mean +/- Z(SEM)

Z = Z score
Z score for 95% is 1.96
Z score for 99% is 2.58

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156
Q

What is the equation to calculate the Standard error of mean

A

SEM = SD / sqrt(n)

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157
Q

PTH has what effect on the kidney

A

Increases Ca reabsorbtion and decreases Phosphorous reabsorbtion

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158
Q

Which cells contain PTH receptors that allow them to produce RANKL resulting in increased bone resorption activity

A

Osteoblasts NOT OSTEOCLASTS

PTH increases osteoclast activity INDIRECTLY by acting on osteoblasts which produce RANKL receptors that activate osteoclasts

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159
Q

An cavitary lesion with an air fluid level describes what

A

An abscess

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160
Q

What is the most common cause of a lung absces

A

Aspiration

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161
Q

What does being a true diverticulum mean

A

Contains all 3 intestinal wall layers: Mucosa, submucosa, and muscularis

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162
Q

What is the blind pouch that extends from the ileum and contains all three intestinal layers

A

Meckel’s Diverticulum

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163
Q

Which pharyngeal pouch contains the thymus and inferior parathyroid glands

A

3rd

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164
Q

Which organ is enlarged in myasthenia gravis

A

Thymus

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165
Q

What is usually the best preventive intervention especially in diabetics

A

Smoking cessation

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166
Q

What is gluten

A

A grain

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167
Q

What condition results in duodenal changes including villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, inflammation

A

Celiac disease

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168
Q

What disorder is characterized by annoying others, blaming others, getting annoyed easily, and not listening to authoritative figures

A

Oppositional defiant disorder

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169
Q

What are the two promoter regions

A

CAAT and TATA box

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170
Q

What is the region where RNA polymerase 2 binds for transcription

A

Promoter regions

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171
Q

Which disorder has hypogammaglobulinemia and low/absent T cells

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)

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172
Q

What compound accumulates in Alkaptonuria resulting in bluish black tissues and black urine after it sits a while

A

Homogentisic acid

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173
Q

Homogentisic acid is a compound found in what pathway

A

Tyrosine metabolism

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174
Q

What cell type is has racquet shaped intracytoplasmic granules

A

Langerhans cells

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175
Q

What are dendritic cells in the skin known as

A

Langerhans cells

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176
Q

What is it called when the urethra opens on the ventral side of the penis proximal to the distal tip of the penis

A

Hypospadias

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177
Q

Failure of the urethral folds to close in a male results in what

A

Hypospadias

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178
Q

What is the term used to describe the number of patients needed to treat in order to avoid a negative outcome in one patient

A

Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

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179
Q

How do you calculate the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

A

NNT = 1 / Absolute Risk Reduction

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180
Q

What virus has a segmented genome

A

Influenza virus

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181
Q

Viruses with segmented genomes undergo genetic/antigenic shift by what mechanism

A

Reassortment

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182
Q

What physiologic process does cyanide poisoning target

A

Cytochrome C in ETC

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183
Q

What agents work to unbind Cyanide from Cytochrome C by inducing Methemoglobinemia (Fe3+), giving cyanide a new binding spot

A

Nitrites

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184
Q

What gastric tumor commonly metastasizes to the ovaries via lymphatics

A

Krukenberg tumor

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185
Q

What displays signet ring cells do to excessive mucin production displacing the nucleus

A

Krukenberg tumor

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186
Q

What disorder is characterized by physical symptoms causing severe distress but has no etiology and that is not being feigned

A

Somatic symptom disorder

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187
Q

How do you manage an individual with somatic symptom disorder

A

Have them follow up regularly with the same provider

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188
Q

Back pain with recent bacteremia should lead you to suspect what disorder

A

Vertebral osteomyelitis

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189
Q

What is the imaging method of choice for osteomyelitis

A

MRI

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190
Q

Which artery is involved in an inferior wall MI

A

Right coronary artery

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191
Q

What inhibits the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary during pregnancy thus resulting in suppressed lactation

A

Progesterone

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192
Q

What is the virulence factor in strep pneumo

A

Polysaccharide capsule

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193
Q

What disorder presents with an eczematous rash and a musty body odor

A

Phenylketonuria

phenylalanine builds up and the phenyl group is AROMAtic and gives the smell

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194
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Phenylketonuria

A

Autosomal recessive

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195
Q

Which catabolic pathway when functioning normally produces acetoacetate (ketone bodies)

A

Beta oxidation of fatty acids

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196
Q

What enzyme deficiency within the mitochondrial matrix may result in hypoketonic hypoglycemia

A

Acyl CoA dehydrogenase

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197
Q

What disorder presents with maldevelopment of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

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198
Q

The 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches form what structures

A

3rd - Inferior parathyroid and Thymus

4th - Superior parathyroid

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199
Q

The correlation coefficient value can range from

A

-1 to +1

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200
Q

What disorder presents with a down and out appearance of the eye

A

Oculomotor nerve palsy

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201
Q

Between what vessels does the Oculomotor nerve emerge on the brain making it prone to Berry aneurysms

A

Superior Cerebellar and PCA

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202
Q

To prevent future asthma triggers, what medications should be used

A

Anti IgE antibodies (Omalizumab)

NOT antihistamines. That hels with urticaria and stuff

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203
Q

If you suspect a patient is illiterate and you need to explain something to them, what may be beneficial

A

Using another sensory approach like a visual approach

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204
Q

In males, what is the fxn of FSH and LH

A

FSH - Acts on Sertoli cells to secrete inhibin B
LH - Acts on Interstitial cells of Leydig to secrete Testosterone

Hint: F[S]H acts on [S]ertoli cells

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205
Q

Tendons are composed of what

A

Type 1 collagen

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206
Q

What collagen form is present in wound repair and scarring

A

Type 1 collagen

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207
Q

What is the acronym to remember the collagens and what does it stand for

A

Be So Totally Cool Read Books

Type 1: Bones, skin, tendon
Type 2: Cartilage
Type 3: Reticulin (vessels)
Type 4: Basement membrane

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208
Q

A diverticula form the foregut leads to the development of what

A

Trachea and respiratory tract

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209
Q

An infant that presents with choking, drooling, and cyanosis during feeding should be suspected to have what condition

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula

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210
Q

What disorder is characterized by recurring intrusive thoughts and repetitive time consuming actions

A

OCD

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211
Q

Aside from the definitions themselves, what is the big difference between OCD and Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

A

OCD - Ego dystonic

OCPD - Ego systonic

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212
Q

What is the mechanism by which Huntingtons CAG repeats cause decreased gene expression

A

Histone deacetylation

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213
Q

What is the purpose of histone acetylation, methylation, and phosphorylation

A

Gain access to DNA for replication/transcription

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214
Q

What disorder can result in a rash on the palms and soles from a small cell vasculitis

A

Neisseria meningitidis infection

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215
Q

What immune system component is necessary to fight off a Neisseria infxn

A

C5-C9 (MAC)

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216
Q

What disorder presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, myalgia, bradycardia, constipation, and a number of other things

A

Hypothyroidism

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217
Q

The thyroid secretes what hormone primarily

A

T4

May be deaminated to T3 in periphery

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218
Q

Foot drop and steppage gait indicate damage to which nerve

A

Common peroneal

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219
Q

At which point on the sarcomere does actin bind to structural proteins

A

Z line

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220
Q

What disorder is characterized by watery diarrhea, hypochlremia, and achlorhydria

A

Vipoma

AKA WDHA syndrome

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221
Q

What hormone is released from a vipoma

A

Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)

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222
Q

Maternal CMV infection during pregnancy results in what eye condition in the neonate

A

Chorioretinitis

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223
Q

What disorder is characterized by autoimmune destruction of parietal cells

A

Pernicious anemia

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224
Q

Which layer of gastric tissue are parietal cells located in

A

Upper glandular layer

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225
Q

Down syndrome is often associated with progression to what disorder

A

Early onset Alzheimers Disease

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226
Q

What substance is elevated in Alzheimers patients

A

Amyloid Precursor Protein (Amyloid beta)

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227
Q

Which artery is located along the lesser curvature of the stomach and may be damaged by an ulcer

A

Left Gastric Artery

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228
Q

Which artery is located along the greater curvature of the stomach

A

Right and Left Gastroepiploic Arteries

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229
Q

What are the three phases of acid secretion in the stomach

A

Cephalic
Gastric
Intestinal

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230
Q

What phase of gastric acid secretion is responsible for the release of peptide YY from the ileum and colon resulting in ECL cell inhibition and thus ultimately reduced secretion of acid

A

Intestinal phase

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231
Q

What disorder results in situs inverus, immotile cilia, and immotile flagella resulting in recurrent respiratory infections and infertility

A

Kartagener syndrome

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232
Q

What structure is defective in Kartagener syndrome

A

Dynein arms

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233
Q

What is the mechanism of pathogenicity for shigella

A

Mucosal invasion of M cells

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234
Q

Which pathogen is characterized as Gram negative, does not ferment lactose, is oxidase negative, and does not produce hydrogen sufide on triple sugar agar

A

Shigella

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235
Q

How can performance of surgery on the wrong site be prevented

A

Verification by 2 medical professionals independently

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236
Q

What scan be used to diagnose Meckel’s Divertiiculum

A

Technetium pertechinate

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237
Q

What disorder presents with painless abdominal bleeding

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

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238
Q

What is the term for the ability of multiple mRNA codons to code for the same amino acid

A

Degeneracy

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239
Q

What genetic principle allows only the first two nucleotides of a codon to matter in the determination of a the amino acid placement

A

Wobble

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240
Q

What disorder resuts in elevated IgE, eosinophilia, and bronchiectasis in immunocompromised individuals

A

Allergic Bronchopulumonary Aspergillosis (ABPA)

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241
Q

What study type looks at population data rather than individual data

A

Ecological study

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242
Q

What disorder presents with oligohydramnios and bilateral kidney enlargement with diffuse small cysts

A

Autosomal Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease

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243
Q

In the neonate, what may ARPKD progress to

A

Potters Sequence (limb deformity, flattened facies, pulmonary hypoplasia)

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244
Q

What is the mnemonic for 22q11 deletion syndromes

A

CATCH 22

Cleft palate
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia
Cardiac defects
Hypocalcemia

are results of chromosome 22q11 deletions

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245
Q

What disorder presents with cleft palate, facial abnormalities such as orbital hypertelorism, bifid uvula, and cardiac defects such as TOF

A

Velocardiofacial syndrome

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246
Q

What causes Velocardiofacial syndrome

A

Microdeletion at Chromosome 22q11

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247
Q

The following is a requirement of what disorder:

The psychosis must occur in the absence of major mood episodes; however, mood symptoms must be present for most of the illness

A

Schizoaffective disorder

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248
Q

What is the mnemonic The 3 D’s for B3 and what is it used for

A

The symptoms of Pellagra caused by Vitamin B3 (niacin deficiency)

Dermatitis
Diarrhea
Dementia

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249
Q

What is the mnemonic B3 = 3 ATP and what is it used for

A

Vitamin B3 (Niacin) makes NAD

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250
Q

What is Vitamin B3 (Niacin) synthesized from

A

Tryptophan

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251
Q

The killed inluenza vaccine stimulates antibody production that targets what structure

A

Hemagglutinin

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252
Q

What substance of the Influenza virus enables it to enter cells

A

Hemagglutinin

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253
Q

Hypocalcemia results in what findings

A

Tetany such as Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign from uninhibited neuron depolarization

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254
Q

Chvostek’s sign and Trousseaus sign indicate what abnormality

A

Hypocalcemia

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255
Q

What arteries run anterior and posterior to the ureter in the true pelvis

A

Anterior - Gonadal arteries

Posterior - Internal iliac

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256
Q

What does the phrase water under the bridge mean

A

The ureter (water) passes under the bridge (vas deferens in males; uterine artery in females) in its connection to the bladder

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257
Q

What disorder shows crescent formation on renal biopsy

A

Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis

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258
Q

In Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis, what are the crescent formations seen on biopsy composed of

A

Monocytes
Macrophages
Glomerular parietal cells
Fibrin

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259
Q

What cell structure forms the blood brain barrier

A

Tight junctions

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260
Q

What substance prevents the formation of the paramesonephric ducts in males

A

Mullerian inhibiting factor

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261
Q

In the absence of ADH, which portion of the nephron has the highest osmolarity

A

Portion between descending and ascending loops

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262
Q

Which portion of the nephron is impermeable to water

A

Thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle

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263
Q

What is the probability of an unaffected individual being a carrier for an autosomal recessive disease if both parents are carriers

A

2/3

We already know she is unaffected therefore she cannot be autosomal recessive (aa), and one option is eliminated

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264
Q

In erythrocyte precursors, where does heme synthesis occur

A

Cytoplasm and Mitochondria

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265
Q

Why are mature RBC’s unable to synthesize hemoglobin

A

They’ve lost their Mtc so they can’t synthesize heme

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266
Q

Which cells types are present in tuberculosis

A

Langhans giant cells

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267
Q

What cell type is described as an activated macrophage with multiple nuclei that form a horseshoe shape

A

Langhans giant cells

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268
Q

What surface marker is found on macrophages

A

CD14

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269
Q

What ankle ligament is most commonly injured in an inversion accident

A

Anterior talofibular ligament

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270
Q

What is the mechanism by which C diff becomes pathogenic

A

Overgrows in GI tract

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271
Q

What puts an individual at risk for a C diff infection

A

Anything that alters the NF causing loss of normal growth suppression

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272
Q

What protein transports vesicles and organelles from the nucleus outward along microtubules

A

Kinesin

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273
Q

What cell molecule helps move secretory vesicles along the axon to the nerve terminal

A

Kinesin

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274
Q

Transcription of the lac operon is induced by what two things

A

Catabolite activator protein (CAP)

Lactose binding to repressor

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275
Q

What do the LacI, LacZ, and LacY genes code for

A

LacI - Repressor that binds to operator
LacZ - Beta Galactosidase that metabolizes Lactose
LacY - Permease that allows Lactose entrance

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276
Q

How does risk differ from relative risk

A

Relative risk uses the risk of each group to determine the difference. It is the risk of the exposed group divided by the risk of the unexposed

Risk of developing cancer in smokers = 80%
Risk of developing cancer in nonsmokers = 20%
Relative risk = 80/20 = 4 (4x more of a risk in smokers)

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277
Q

What is administered at birth to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn

A

Vitamin K

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278
Q

Why are neonates deficient in Vitamin K at birth and thus predisposed for hemorrhaging

A

Not passed transplacentally or in breast milk

Intestinal flora not established enough to synthesize it yet

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279
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for Neurofibromatosis Types 1 and 2

A

Autosomal dominant

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280
Q

What disorder presents with sessile to pedunculated masses that appear all over the body

A

Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (neurofibromas. LOOK DISGUSTING!!)

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281
Q

What disorder presents with recurrent bacterial infections without pus, failure of umbilical cord to separate, and leukocytosis

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1

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282
Q

What marker on phagocytes is defective in Leukocyte adhesion deficiency type 1 causing impaired chemotaxis

A

CD18

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283
Q

What is characterized by hyperactivity and or inattention

A

Attention deficit and hyperactivity disorder

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284
Q

In order to diagnose ADHD, aside from the symptoms, what is required

A

Symptoms present in at least 2 locations (school and home)

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285
Q

What is the most common site of carriage of Staph aureus

A

Anterior nares

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286
Q

What injury results from a lesion of the ACA

A

Contralateral lower limb motor and sensory loss

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287
Q

What artery supplies the medial portion of the frontal and parietal lobe

A

Anterior cerebral artery

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288
Q

In pancreas divisum, what duct drains a majority of the pancreas

A

Accessory duct

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289
Q

What does the ventral pancreatic bud give rise to

A

Portion of the head of the pancreas
Uncinate process of the pancreas
Main pancreatic duct

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290
Q

Heavy smoking is a risk factor for what condition that involves dilated air spaces

A

Emphysema

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291
Q

What cells are responsible for the damage that ensues in Emphysema due to their release of proteases (elastase, etc.)

A

Macrophages and Neutrophils

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292
Q

A person who does not socialize with others due to fear of being judged, embarassed, or rejected yet fantasizes about being married one day would be classified under what disorder

A

Avoidant Personality Disorder

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293
Q

What disorder is similar to avoidant personality disorder except for the fact that the person PREFERS to be alone

A

Schizoid

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294
Q

What bias/study error is characterized by a falsely interpreted increase in survival simply due to the fact that the case was detected earlier

A

Lead-time bias

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295
Q

A new test ID’s lung cancer 2 years before conventional methods, thus scientists determine that these individuals live 2 years longer on average when in reality they don’t live any longer, it’s just being diagnosed 2 years earlier… What is this an example of?

A

Lead-time bias

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296
Q

Vaginal dryness and hot flashes are indicative of what

A

Menopause

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297
Q

What hormone is increased in menopause due to resistant ovaries

A

FSH

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298
Q

What disorder is characterized by low back pain that radiates down the leg

A

Sciatica

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299
Q

The sciatic nerve involves what levels

A

L3-S1

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300
Q

What nerve root is responsible for the ankle reflex

A

S1

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301
Q

What organ receives its blood supply from the celiac artery oddly even though it is not derived from the foregut like all the other supplied structures

A

The spleen

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302
Q

The spleen is derived from what embryologic tissue type

A

Mesoderm

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303
Q

What abdominal organ is most commonly injured from blunt trauma

A

Spleen

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304
Q

What cell structure is responsible for steroid synthesis

A

Smooth ER

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305
Q

Which tissues are rich with Smooth ER

A

Liver, Adrenal cortex, Gonads

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306
Q

Which virus is located in 3rd world countries, passed through water, and is most concerning for pregnant individuals

A

Hepatitis E Virus

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307
Q

What is the morphology of Hepatitis E virus

A

Unenveloped RNA virus

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308
Q

Which cell types secrete IL-4 to promote class switching

A

Th2 cells

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309
Q

What is the mutation that results in a defective CFTR gene in Cystic Fibrosis

A

Deletion of F508
(Phe508)
(Phenylalanine at position 508)

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310
Q

In Cystic fibrosis, the deletion of F508 results in a mutant CFTR gene that does not leave the RER. Why not?

A

The protein is misfolded

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311
Q

What structural element connects osteocytes together in bone

A

Gap junctions

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312
Q

Which disorder is characterized by hypoplasia of the bones of mastication and the bones of hearing

A

Treacher Collins

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313
Q

Treacher Collins is a defect of neural crest tissue that affects what pharyngeal arches

A

1st and 2nd

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314
Q

Which direction does Carbon monoxide shift the HB-O2 binding curve

A

Left

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315
Q

What does a decreased p50 indicate

A

Increased affinity for oxygen

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316
Q

What disorders can result from a Robertsonian translocation

A

Down Syndrome - Trisomy 21

Patau Syndrome - Trisomy 13

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317
Q

What disorder presents with prominent epicanthal folds and increased skin at the nape of the neck

A

Down Syndrome

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318
Q

What disorder is characterized by hyperflexibility at joints, elastic skin, and a tendency to bleed

A

Ehler Danlos

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319
Q

What protein is defective in Ehler Danlos Syndrome

A

Collagen

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320
Q

Which cranial nerves are located below the pons

A

6-12

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321
Q

What disorder can result in hearing loss and buzzing in one ear

A

Acoustic neuroma (Schwann cell tumor)

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322
Q

What type of antibodies do moms with Type A, B, and O blood have against the other blood types

A

Type A mom - IgM against B antigen
Type B mom - IgM against A antigen
Type O mom - IgG!!!! against A and B antigens

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323
Q

ABO erythroblastosis fetalis only occur if the mom is what blood type

A

Type O (Only one that makes IgG! Type A and B moms making IgM!)

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324
Q

Cocaine is classified as what type of drug

A

Stimulant

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325
Q

Depression, fatigue, sleepiness, and hyperphagia are characteristic of what withdrawal

A

Cocaine

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326
Q

What disorder is associated with unhygienic delivery and wound care

A

Neonatal Tetanus

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327
Q

What is the best way to prevent neonatal tetanus

A

Vaccinate the mom with tetanus toxoid.

This allows her to form IgG that she can pass on to the baby for temporary protection until he is old enough to get the dTaP and form his own immunity

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328
Q

What region of the brain is responsible for maintaining the circadian rhythm

A

Suprichiasmatic nucleus (Part of the hypothalamus)

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329
Q

What is the major component of pulmonary surfactant that is tested for in amniotic fluid

A

Lecithin (a phospholipid)

When the Lecithin to Sphingomyelin ratio is greater than 2, the lungs are mature

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330
Q

What is the major component of lecithin in pulmonary surfactant

A

Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine

Phosphatidylglycerol is another component but not as much

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331
Q

What term is used to describe the ability of a test to consistently get similar results even if they are not close to the true result

A

Reliability AKA Precision

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332
Q

How does one increase the precision (reliability) of a test

A

Reduce random error

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333
Q

What pathogen is beta hemolytic, intracellular, and can be cultured at 4 degrees C

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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334
Q

What host immune response is necessary to fight off Listeria monocytogenes

A

CMI

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335
Q

Which disorder has autoantibodies target Ach receptors

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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336
Q

What disorder results in autoantibodies against the alveolar basement membrane and glomerular basement membrane

A

Goodpasture’s Syndrome

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337
Q

In a patient with motor weakness affecting the arm, leg, and lower face, what region might you expect to be at fault

A

Internal capsule

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338
Q

What cells seen on Pap smear are characteristic of HPV infection

A

Koilocytes

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339
Q

What enzyme is responsible for providing the glucose and ketones during times of starvation from adipocytes

A

Hormone sensitive lipase

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340
Q

Triglycerides break down into

A

Fatty acids and glycerol

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341
Q

In the event of a vegetative state, who determines the decisions for the patient

A

Next of kin, usually spouse, but may be children equally with spouse in some states

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342
Q

What term is used to describe the obligation of respect physicians must place on patients decisions

A

Autonomy

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343
Q

What is the MOST COMMON (BUT NOT THE ONLY) biochemical result of the mutated CFTR gene in Cystic fibrosis resulting from a deletion of F508

A

Misfolded Protein that is destroyed and doesn’t reach membrane

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344
Q

A Chloride transporter that reaches the membrane but does not bind ATP or transmit Chlorine properly would result in

A

Cystic Fibrosis

Typically cystic fibrosis results from F508 deletion with misfolded protein that doesn’t even reach the membrane, but these mutant forms exist also

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345
Q

What disorder is characterized by facial anomalies, limb deformities, and pulmonary hypoplasia

A

Potter sequence

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346
Q

What is the cause of Potter sequence

A

Kidney problems typically preventing urination

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347
Q

What vaccine comes in a conjugated and a nonconjugated form

A

PCV13 (conjugated) and PPSV23 (not conjugated)

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348
Q

What term is used to describe a variable (smoking per se) that is related to both the exposure (alcohol) and the outcome (cancer) thus skewing the actual results

A

Confounding bias

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349
Q

What are the 3 stop codons on an mRNA strand

A

UAA, UAG, and UGA

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350
Q

What is the last codon to have an anticodon bind during translation

A

The codon just before the stop codon

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351
Q

What disorder is characterized by exertional dyspnea, bone pain, and abdominal pain

A

Sickle cell Disease

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352
Q

What is the mutation that results in sickle cell disease

A

Valine substituting a glutamic acid on the Beta chain

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353
Q

How does an MI affect a cardiac and vascuar function curve

A

Cardiac output decreases

Venous return stays the same

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354
Q

What pathogen is used to treat dystonias, achalasia, and muscle spasms

A

Clostridium botulinum TOXIN

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355
Q

Clostridium species can survive harsh conditions due to their ability to form what

A

Spores

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356
Q

What vessel is at greatest risk of being lacerated in the event of a pterion fracture (location where frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid meet)

A

Middle meningeal artery

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357
Q

What two vessels precede the Middle Meningeal Artery stem from

A

External carotid - Maxillary - Middle Meningeal Artery

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358
Q

What is the formula to calculate the Odds ratio

A

Odds ratio = ad/bc

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359
Q

What term is used to describe the likelihood that the outcome was associated with a particular exposure

A

Odds ratio

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360
Q

What is the morphology of parvovirus B19

A

Nonenveloped ssDNA virus

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361
Q

Parvovirus B19 causes an aplastic crisis in individuals with what condition

A

Sickle Cell

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362
Q

How does the membrane potential of a cell change as it becomes permeable to a specific ion

A

It increases if it is a Cation

It decreases if it is an Anion

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363
Q

What substances are specifically is found in the kidneys of individuals with post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

IgG, IgM, and C3

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364
Q

Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis results in what specific glomerular disease

A

Nephritic syndrome

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365
Q

Down Syndrome predisposes individuals to what specific neoplasms

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (most commonly)

Acute myelogenous leukemia

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366
Q

Pregnancy tests look for what substance and in what bodily fluid

A

Beta HCG (some just say HCG, but alpha HCG is found in a lot of other things)

Blood and urine

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367
Q

How does a blood pregnancy test differ from a urine pregnancy test

A

The blood tests can recognize a smaller amount of HCG and thus will ID pregnancy sooner

Thus preganancy can be detected within 1 week if blood testing is used or within 2 weeks if home pregnancy test is used

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368
Q

Transketolase is an enzyme found in what pathway

A

Pentose phosphate pathway

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369
Q

What biochemical processes occur in the cytosol

A

Glycolysis
Fatty acid synthesis
Pentose phosphate pathway

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370
Q

What is the most important muscle in increasing intrathoracic and intraabdominal pressure during the Valsalva maneuver

A

Rectus abdominus

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371
Q

What are examples of Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions

A

Contact dermatitis
TB skin test
Granulomatous inflammation in TB

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372
Q

What process is described below:

Th1 cells encounter an antigen and release IFN gamma that signals macrophages to come to the area

A

Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction

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373
Q

Sertraline would be used to treat a pt with what condition

A

Depression

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374
Q

All SSRI’s carry may cause what potential side effect

A

Mania (since they are depression treatments)

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375
Q

What is the acronym to remember the neural crest derived tissue

A

MOTEL PASS

Melanocytes
Odontoblasts
Tracheal cartilge
Enterochromaffin cells
Laryngeal cartilage

Parafollicular cells
Adrenal medulla
Schwann cells
Spinal membrane

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376
Q

How can one diagnose melanoma if it is suspected

A

ABCDE

Assymetry
Border irregularity
Color
Diameter > 6mm
Evolution
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377
Q

What pathogen is a common agent of cellulitis, pharyngitis, and impetigo

A

Strep pyogenes

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378
Q

What type of hypersensivity reaction is Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

Type 3

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379
Q

When does hypothyroidism present in newborns

A

After maternal T4 wanes

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380
Q

Which disorder presents in a newborn with a large anterior fontanelle, umbilical hernia, lethargy, constipation, and hypotonia

A

Congenital hypothyroidism

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381
Q

What is the leading cause of cancer deaths in males and females

A

Cancer

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382
Q

If you suspect abuse in an adult while interviewing the patient with their son/daughter, who is serving as their caregiver, present, what should you do next

A

Ask the son/daughter to leave and ask the patient questions 1 on 1

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383
Q

Which enzyme decreases in activity in Lesch Nyhan syndrome, and which enzyme increases in activity

A

Decreases: Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT)

Increases:Adenosine deaminase

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384
Q

What are the purine salvage disorders

A

Adenosine deaminase deficiency

Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome

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385
Q

What is the mnnemonic for Lesch-Nyhan syndrome and what is it used for

A

HGPRT (The enzyme abbreviation) Also useful for remembering the symptoms

Hyperuricemia
Gout
Pissed off attitude
Retardation 
dysTonia (repetitive uncontrolled movements)
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386
Q

How does the minute ventilation volume calculation differ from the alveolar ventilation volume

A

Minute ventilation volume includes the physiologic dead space volume and will thus be a bigger number

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387
Q

Which nerve is responsible for the sensory component of the pupillary reflex

A

Optic nerve

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388
Q

Which nerve is responsible for normal vision

A

Optic nerve

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389
Q

What is the virulence factor of Haemophilus Influenzae

A

Polyribosylribitol phosphate which makes up its polysaccharide capsule

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390
Q

What pathogen causes Epiglottitis

A

Haemophilus influenzae Type B

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391
Q

How does gout appear on polarized light microscopy

A
Needle shaped
Negatively birefringent (yellow when parallel to slow ray)
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392
Q

Myeloproliferative disorders increase the risk of what condition occuring

A

Gout

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393
Q

What is it called when a subject being study changes their behavior once they find out they are being studied?

A

Hawthorne effect (Observer effect)

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394
Q

What is the difference between a frameshift mutation and an in frame deletion

A

in frame deletion is a deletion of bases that is a multiple of 3 and thus only affects that one codon

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395
Q

What immunity is utilized against Clostridium tetani

A

Humoral immunity with antibodies neutralizing the toxin

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396
Q

Which anatomic structure can be used to locate the appendix

A

Teniae coli which converge at the appendix

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397
Q

What protein is synthesized from lysyl oxidase cross linking together the monomers

A

Elastin

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398
Q

If you are unsure about whether a patient can take their medications due to cognitive impairment, what should you do

A

Involve a social worker in discharge planning

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399
Q

What is the formula to calculate total peripheral resistance of different vessels in parallel? Such as renal coronary, cerebral?

A

1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + …….

Think of the the different vessels as in parallel with different resistances

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400
Q

What should you be concerned about in a premature infant

A

Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome from surfactant not being produced yet

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401
Q

What is used to stimulate surfactant production in preterm babies

A

Steroids (Dexamethasone etc.)

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402
Q

What immunogenic substance does the Haemophilus influenzae vaccine contain

A

Type B capsular polysaccharide

Thus only effective against HIB! Not effective against non typeable or other types

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403
Q

Hypocapnia indicates that what is occurring

A

Hyperventilation

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404
Q

A V/Q mismatch from a pulmonary embolism would result in what blood gas findings

A

Low PaO2 and Low PaCO2

PaO2 drops because PE is blocking arteries resulting in gas not being exchanged even though lungs are getting ventilated. Results in low PaO2. Leads to hyperventilation. Leads to low PaCO2 without O2 improvement b/c PE is still blocking blood flow so more O2 isn’t comin in, just CO2 leaving

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405
Q

What is the purpose of certain bacteria possessing an IgA protease

A

Cleaves IgA allowing the bacteria to adhere to the mucosal surface

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406
Q

Which bacteria possess IgA protease virulence factors

A

SHiN

Strep pneumo
Haemophilus influenzae
Neisseria gonorrhea and Neisseria meningitidis

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407
Q

What is another word for precise, as in a very precise test

A

Reliable

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408
Q

Hemophilia A and B follow what inheritance pattern

A

X linked Recessive

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409
Q

Which disorders are characterized by hemarthroses (bleeding into joints)

A

Hemophilias

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410
Q

What are the two major causes of polyhdramnios due to poor fetal swallowing

A

GI obstruction

Anencephaly (failure of swallowing center to form)

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411
Q

Anti epileptics can cause what major side effect

A

Neural tube defects (anencephaly, spina bifida, etc.)

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412
Q

Where do amino acids bind to tRNA molecules

A

CCA-3’ end

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413
Q

Left and right shifts in the flow volume loop graph is suggestive of what lung pathologies

A

Left - Obstructive lung dz (More volume from air trapping)

Right - Restrictive lung dz (Reduced air volume from reduced lung expansion)

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414
Q

What lung pathology results in destruction of alveolar walls

A

Emphysema

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415
Q

What is the morphology of Haemophilus influenzae

A

Coccobacillus

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416
Q

What does Haemophilus require in media for growth

A
Factor X (hematin) 
Factor V (NAD+)
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417
Q

Why does Haemophilus only grow on blood agar with staph aureus

A

Staph lyses RBC’s to provide Factor V (NAD+) which is required for their growth

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418
Q

What anatomical structure can be used to distinguish between a direct and indirect hernia

A

Inferior epigastric vessels

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419
Q

What is the normal pressure in the RA

A

20/5 mmHg

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420
Q

What is the difference in pressures between the RV and Pulmonary artery

A

RV - 25/5
PA - 25/10

Diastolic increases a little in PA b/c of arterial resistance and LA pressures

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421
Q

A patient has been abandoned by their father in the past. As you are leaving the patient room, they say to you, “You are leaving me too.” What is this an example of?

A

Negative transference

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422
Q

A patient has a great upbringing from their parents and loves them very much. Because of such upbringing, they place a lot of trust on you as their doc. This is an example of

A

Positive transference

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423
Q

What type of breathing battern is described as hyperpnea with periods of apnea between

A

Cheyne Stokes breathing

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424
Q

What condition resuts in Cheyne Stokes breathing

A

Congestive heart failure

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425
Q

What is the most common cause of unilateral hydronephrosis in the fetus

A

Failure of recanalization at the ureteropelvic junction

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426
Q

What are the top 4 most common cancers (highest incidence) in order in males and females

A

Males: Skin, Prostate, Lung, Colon

Females: Skin, Breast, Lung, Colon

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427
Q

What are the top 4 cancers with the highest mortality in order in males and females

A

Males: Lung, Prostate, Colon

Females: Lung, Breast, Colon

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428
Q

Where does T cell postitive and negative selection occur

A

Positive - Cortex

Negative - Medulla

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429
Q

What are the submucosal alkaline secreting (bicarbonate) cells of the duodenum

A

Brunner’s glands

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430
Q

Increased gastric acid production will result in hypertrophy of what structures

A

Brunners glands in the duodenum

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431
Q

What enzyme is responsible for stimulating glycolysis and inhibiting gluconeogenesis

A

Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

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432
Q

Where is serotonin synthesized

A

Raphe nucleus

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433
Q

What drugs are used to treat depression and anxiety

A

SSRIs

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434
Q

What is the inheritance pattern for sickle cell anemia

A

AR

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435
Q

What is the best way to determine whether two people may have a sickle cell child

A

Hb electrophoresis

Can ID carriers

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436
Q

Which nerve is responsible for afferent signals from carotid baroreceptors and may result in syncope during putting on a tie

A

Glossopharyngeal - Afferent for carotid baroreceptors
Vagus - Afferent for aortic baroreceptors

Vagus is efferent pathway to heart if baroreceptors signal too high pressure and parasymp response is needed

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437
Q

What organism displays a tumbling motility

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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438
Q

How is Listeria monocytogenes most commonly transmitted

A

Contaminated food

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439
Q

How do you calculate the absolute risk reduction of Heart attacks with Drug B versus the original Drug A

A

Simple subtraction

ARR = % with heart attacks on Drug A - % with heart attacks on group B

ARR = 30% - 27% = 3% reduction in heart attacks with Drug B

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440
Q

What results in dry skin, hepatosplenomegaly, and papiledema

A

Chronic Vitamin A excess

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441
Q

What disorder is characterized by a negative nitroblue tetrazolium test of neutrophils

A

Chronic granulomataous Dz

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442
Q

What is an individual susceptible to if he has chronic granulomatous dz

A

Infxn with catalase + organisms

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443
Q

What is the most important muscle for hip flexion

A

Iliopsoas

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444
Q

Drugs which target which ion channel in phase 0 of pacemaker action potentials can result in a reduced heart rate

A

Funny Sodium channels

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445
Q

Which phase of pacemaker action potential can reduce heart rate without affecting contractility or resting

A

Phase 0

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446
Q

Emphysema results in elevation of what substance

A

Elastase

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447
Q

What virulence factor of staph aureus is bound to it’s peptidoglycan cell wall structure

A

Protein A

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448
Q

What is the fxn of the Protein A virulence factor produced by Staph aureus

A

Bind Fc portion of Antibodies preventing complement activation

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449
Q

The process of viral gene exchange via crossing over of 2 DNA molecules is referred to as

A

Recombination

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450
Q

Patent foramen ovale results from what

A

Incomplete fusion of primum and secundum

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451
Q

How does a patent foramen ovale differ from an ASD

A

ASD - Failure of septum to develop

Patent foramen ovale - Failure of fully developed septa to fuse

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452
Q

Which pathogens produce dextrans that allow them to bind to structures and thus cause endocarditis and dental caries

A

Strep Viridans

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453
Q

What condition results in an inability to adduct one eye while the other abducts. The abducting eye presents with nystagmus additionally

A

Internuclear ophthalmoplegia

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454
Q

What structure allows for coordinated horizontal eye movemement due to communication between CN 4 and CN 6

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

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455
Q

Where is the Medial longitudinal fasciculus located

A

Distal pons

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456
Q

What condition results in elevated PCO2 from increased mass, low PO2 from reduced lung volume, and a normal alveolar arterial gradient

A

Obesity hypoventiation syndrome

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457
Q

Which conditions can cause hypoxemia and a normal alveolar arterial pressure gradient (5-15mmHg)

A

Hypoventilation

High altitude

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458
Q

Where on the Ig molecule do neutrophils, macrophages, mast cells etc. attach

A

Fc portion near the carboxy terminal (near the end)

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459
Q

What attaches to the Fc portion of Ig molecules right next to the hinge region

A

Complement

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460
Q

What is one of the major causes of cor pulmonale

A

Pulmonary hypertension

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461
Q

What is the difference between Northern, Southern, Western, and Southwestern blots

A

Northern - mRNA
Southern - DNA
Western - Proteins
Southwestern - DNA binding proteins

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462
Q

What is it called when a single mRNA encodes multiple proteins

A

Polycistronic mRNA

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463
Q

What is a well known polycistronic mRNA strand

A

Lac Operon

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464
Q

Cleft lip results from what

A

Failure of intermaxillary segment fusing with the maxillary prominences

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465
Q

Cleft palate results from what

A

Failure of palatine shelves fusing

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466
Q

Cleft lip and spina bifida follow what inheritance pattern

A

Multifactorial

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467
Q

Atherosclerosis begins with what cell type

A

Endothelial cell dysfunction

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468
Q

What information is necessary in order to perform PCR

A

The nucleotide sequence of the flanking regions

Necessary for primer to bind

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469
Q

Where is the femoral vein located relative to the femoral artery and inguinal ligament

A

Medial to the femoral artery

Below the inguinal ligament

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470
Q

What are the first line medications for generalized anxiety disorder

A

SSRIs and Serotonin Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitors

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471
Q

What relative risk value indicates that there is no difference in risk between the exposure group and the unexposed group

A

1

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472
Q

If a 95% CI interval does not contain the null value in it, what p value would you expect to see

A

Any p < 0.05

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473
Q

What is the extrinsic pathway of apoptosis consist of

A

Fas ligand

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474
Q

What is a classic example of Fas induced apoptosis (an extrinsic pathway apoptosis)

A

Negative selection of T cells in the thymus

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475
Q

Which viral genome requires only host machinery for translation

A

Single stranded + sense RNA virus

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476
Q

What is the genome of Rhinovirus

A

+ssRNA virus

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477
Q

Failure of the processus vaginalis to close can result in what abnormalities

A

Hydrocele

Indirect inguinal hernia

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478
Q

What embryologic defect can result in a hydrocele and indirect inguinal hernia in infants

A

Persistent processus vaginalis

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479
Q

What individuals have increased bone density relative to other groups

A

African Americans (women especially)

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480
Q

What disorder is characterized by CGG repeats

A

Fragile X

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481
Q

In Fragile X, what biochemical process prevents FMR1 from being expressed properly and thus leading to neurological problems

A

DNA methylation of CGG repeats

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482
Q

What disorder is characterized by a failure of B cells to mature due to a mutated bruton tyrosine kinase gene

A

X linked agammaglobulinemia

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483
Q

In X linked Bruton Agammaglobulinemia, what lymph node structure will be missing

A

Germinal centers

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484
Q

What enzymes does Vitamin B12 serve as a cofactor for and what is the reaction/buildup products

A

Methylmalonic acid —> Succinyl CoA (Methylmalonyl CoA Mutase)

Homocysteine —> Methionine (Methionine Synthase)

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485
Q

What substance in B12 deficiency anemia causes subacute combined degeneration of the dorsal columns of the spinal cord and other neurologic problems

A

Methylmalonic acid buildup

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486
Q

What disorder may present with amenorrhea, hypotension, bradycardia, cardiac complications, and osteoperosis

A

Anorexia nervosa

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487
Q

How do people with increased elastic resistance and increased air flow resistance each maintain the same minute ventilation as a normal person

A

Increased elastic resistance - Faster shallow breathing

Increased air flow resistance - Slower deep breathing

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488
Q

Asthma results in what type of resistance being increased

A

Air flow resistance

Not elastic resistance. Thus an asthma pt would breathe slower and deeper

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489
Q

Where do Stanford A and Stanford B aortic dissections start at

A

A - Sinotubular jxn

B - Left Subclavian

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490
Q

How does a primary HSV1 infxn differ from a recurrent HSV1 infxn

A

Primary - Herpetic gingivostomatitis (on gingiva, tongue, palate, pharynx, systemic signs of fever etc.)

Recurrent - Herpes labialis (just around the lips)

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491
Q

A tzanck smear identifies multinucleated giant cells caused by what pathogen

A

Herpes virus

Tzanck heavens I do not have herpes

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492
Q

How do you calculate incidence

A

of new cases / # of people at risk

Denominator is not the TOTAL population. Usually it is the TOTAL population - the people who already are diseased b/c they are not at risk

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493
Q

An anteriorly placed aorta on echo is characteristic of what disorder

A

Transposition of the Great vessels

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494
Q

What developmental mechanism results in Transposition of the great vessels

A

Failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral

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495
Q

Which pathogen has reverse transcriptase and a partially double stranded DNA genome

A

HBV

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496
Q

What disorder is characterized by decreased green fluorescence seen on Dihydrorhodamine flow cytometry and noblue precipitate seen in cells on Nitroblue tetrazolium dye testing

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

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497
Q

What is the defect in Chronic granulomatous disease

A

Defective NADPH Oxidase

Thus cannot form reactive oxygen species to kill off pathogens in the phagolysosome

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498
Q

What disorder presents with sugary smelling urine

A

Maple syrup urine disease

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499
Q

What enzyme is defective in Maple syrup urine disease

A

Branched chain alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase

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500
Q

What substances accumulate in Maple syrup urine disease

A

Branched chain amino acids (Leucine, Isoleucine, Valine)

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501
Q

What is the mnemonic for Maple syrup urine disease

A

I Love Vermont MAPLE SYRUP from maple tree BRANCHES

Accumulation of:
Isoleucine
Leucine
Valine

Maple Syrup Urine Dz

Branched chain dehydrogenase enzyme defective

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502
Q

How does Tourette syndrome differ from Chronic tic disorder

A

Tourette - Both motor and vocal tics

Chronic Tic - Either motor or vocal tics

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503
Q

What disorder is described by a child who constantly clears his throat and shrugs his shoulder in class

A

Tourettes syndrome

Both vocal (clearing throat) and motor (shrugging shoulders) tics are present

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504
Q

ADH increases urine osmolarity by reabsorbtion of water via aquaporin channels and what other channels

A

Urea transporters which passively pull water with them

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505
Q

Which region of the nephron does ADH act at to reabsorb water via aquaporin channels and urea transporters passively abosrbing water

A

Distal convoluted tubule

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506
Q

What term describes the situation where an individual who is aware of a disorder alters their memory of the exposure

A

Recall bias

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507
Q

Recall bias is associated with what type of study

A

Case Control

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508
Q

What is the mnemonic for pheochromocytom and what is it used for

A

5 Ps are for the 5 symptoms

Pain (Headache)
Pressure (BP elevated)
Perspiration (sweating)
Palpitations (Tachycardic)
Pallor
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509
Q

How does hyperthyroidism from a thyroiditis differ in clinical presentation from a pheochromocytoma

A

Quite similar, but a pheochromocytoma occurs in spells (relapses and remits)

Hyperthyroid occurs continuously

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510
Q

What regions of the orbit are very thin and thus most commonly fractured in a blowout fracture (blunt trauma to the eye)

A

Medial and inferior walls

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511
Q

What sinuses are most commonly filled with fluid or blood in a blowout fracture to the eye

A

Maxillary and Ethmoid

These two most commonly because the inferior and medial walls fracture the easiest

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512
Q

What cells secrete Mullerian Inhibitory Factor (MIF) to prevent female INTERNAL genitalia formation

A

Sertoli cells

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513
Q

What cells secrete androgens to promote male INTERNAL and EXTERNAL genitalia formation

A

Leydig cells

514
Q

What term is used to describe the situation where the use of an exposure helps delay the course of clinical signs appearing since the time of exposure (Ex. something delaying plaque buildup eventually causing an MI)

A

Latency

515
Q

What is the most common complication of Varicella zoster infxn

A

Post herpetic neuralgia

516
Q

Which portion of the brain is in charge of executive functioning such as planning, fulfilling tasks, and organizing things

A

Frontal lobe

517
Q

How do lesions of the right and left frontal lobes differ

A

Right –> Disinhibited behavior

Left –> Apathy and depression

518
Q

What sex chromosome disorder commonly results from somatic mosaicism

A

Turners Syndrome

519
Q

How do Somatic and Germline Mosaicism differ

A

Somatic - Occurs after fertilization and affects only that individual
Germline - Occurs in either egg or sperm. Parent with germline mutation unaffected, but their offspring are all affected in every cell of the body (offspring not mosaic)

520
Q

How does the structure of MHC 1 and MHC 2 differ

A

MHC 1 - Contains beta 2 microglobulin

MHC 2 - Contains alpha and beta chains

521
Q

What is one of the most common regions of the digestive tract affected by Crohns

A

Terminal Ileum

522
Q

Where are bile acids reabsorbed

A

Terminal ileum

523
Q

Reduced bile reabsorbtion as in the case of some Crohns patients results in an increased risk for gallstone formation. Why?

A

Cholesterol/Gallstone ratio increases

524
Q

What is another name for the pectinate line in the rectum

A

Dentate line

525
Q

What is the venous drainage above and below the pectinate line

A

Above - Superior rectal vein to Inferior mesenteric

Below - Middle/Inferior rectal vein to Internal iliac

526
Q

How do you calculate flow through a blood vessel

A

(P1 - P2) / Resistance

527
Q

How do you calculate the resistance in a blood vessel

A

Resistance = (viscosity x length) / Radius^4

528
Q

RAS is active when bound to what substance

A

GTP

529
Q

What term describes the force that the left ventricle pumps against during systole

A

Afterload

530
Q

How can you decrease the amount of regurgitant flow in an individual with mitral regurgitation

A

Decrease afterload

531
Q

What binds to the stop codon on an mRNA sequence

A

Releasing factors

532
Q

What type of study is described as having individuals in Group A taking tramadol for 4 weeks, then taking a 1 week break, then taking a placebo for 4 weeks

A

Crossover study

533
Q

What immune mechanism is necessary to prevent Giardia infxns

A

Secretory IgA

Stops its adherence to the bowel of the small intestine reducing its secretioins and filfammation results

534
Q

What enzyme acts as a glucose sensor to regulate insulin release in pancreatic beta cells

A

Glucokinase

535
Q

Which enzyme converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in the first step of glycolysis

A

Glucokinase

536
Q

What enzyme when mutated can result in maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY)

A

Glucokinase

537
Q

What are the three uterine anomalies and how do they differ

A

Septate - Septum extends through part of uterus
Bicornuate - Septum extends through uterus and cervix
Didelphys - Septum extends down into vagina

538
Q

What is the mechanism behind a bicornuate uterus

A

Faillure of paramesonephric ducts to laterally fuse

539
Q

What nerve courses under the humeral and ulnar head of the pronator teres muscles and then between the flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus muscles

A

Median nerve

540
Q

Which nerve is responsible for wrist flexion, thumb flexion, 1st 2nd and 3rd digit palmar sensation

A

Median nerve

541
Q

What class of medications should be used to treat bipolar disorder

A

Mood stabilizers

542
Q

What mood stabilizer drugs are good for maintenance tx for bipolar disorder

A

Lithium and Valproate/Valproic acid

543
Q

What three agents cause esophagitis in HIV pts and how does each appear

A

Candida - White pseudomembrane
CMV - Linear ulcers
HSV - Punched out lesions

Note that it is Herpes SIMPLEX! NOT OTHERS LIKE ZOSTER OR OTHER HERPES VIRUSES)

544
Q

In what lung pathologies do individuals function at hyperinflated states

A

Obstructive lung pathologies

545
Q

What term describes the air remaining in the lungs after maximal exhalation

A

Residual volume

546
Q

What term represents the amount of air the lungs can accomadate maximally

A

Total lung capacity

547
Q

What structure arises from incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct

A

Meckel’s Diverticulum

548
Q

The vitelline duct connects what two structures

A

Yolk sac with Midgut lumen

549
Q

In an individual with lower extremity pain and cramping during exercise, what might you suspect

A

Coarctation of the aorta resulting in claudication

550
Q

In a Case Control Study, how does the Case group differ from the Control group

A

Case group - Dz + and Exposure +
Control - Dz -

The control group is not exposure negative, but just randomly selected nondiseased individuals!!

551
Q

What is targed by the killed influenza virus vaccine

A

Hemagglutinin

552
Q

Why does ethanol cause hypoglycemia

A

Suppresses gluconeogenesis

Ethanol uses up NAD which is needed in steps of gluconeogenesis

553
Q

Ethanol inhibits which step of gluconeogenesis due to its consumption of NAD resulting in hypoglycemia once glycogen stores run out

A

Oxaloacetate –> Malate

This step requires NAD but ethanol metabolism used up the NAD

554
Q

What is the most likely reasoning for anovulatory cycles in teenage females with missed cycles and then heavy bleeds

A

Immature hypothalamic pituitary ovarian axis

555
Q

Why does an immature hypothalamic pituitary ovarian axis result in heavy bleeding every few months rather than regular bleeding every month

A

Anovulatory cycles occur

Causes follicle to persist and continue secreting estrogen but no progesterone so endometrium grows until BV cannot support it

556
Q

Who might you suspect anovulatory cycles in

A

Females in the first few years folowing menarche

Females in the last few years before menopause

557
Q

Scaphoid fractures may damage what other structure

A

Radial artery

Courses over the scaphoid on the dorsal side

558
Q

Damage to the radial artery in a scaphoid fracture results in what pathology

A

Avascular necrosis

559
Q

What enzymes are defective in Acute intermittent porphyria

A

ALA synthase - upregulated
Porphobilinogen deaminase - downregulated

These both lead to accumulation of Porphobilinogen and delta ALA

560
Q

What is the goal of tx in Acute intermittent porphyria

A

Decrease ALA synthase enzyme activity

Prevents accumulation of porphobilinogen

561
Q

What is the mnemonic for Acute intermittent porphyria and what is it used for

A

5 P’s used to remember the 5 symptoms of Acute intermittent porphyria

Pain in abodmen
Port wine colored urine
Polyneuropathy
Psych disturbances
Precipitated by drugs
562
Q

What can be done to prevent recurrence of genital herpes simplex infection

A

Daily oral acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir

563
Q

What most likely explains a teenager that is displaying self consciousness, emotional outbursts, and a desire for privacy yet has friends and is doing fine in school

A

Normal adolescence

564
Q

What midline abdominal protrusion is associated with Down Syndrome

A

Umbilical hernia

565
Q

Umbilical hernias result from what abnormality

A

Defect in linea alba (fascia that closes umbilical ring)

566
Q

What factors increase diffusion across a semipermeable membrane

A

Increased temperature
Increased surface area
Larger difference in concentration gradients
Increased solubility

567
Q

What is another name for homeobox genes

A

Hox genes

568
Q

What do Hox genes code for? (These are highly conserved genes containing typically 180 nucleotides)

A

Transcription factors

569
Q

Homeobox genes have what important function in embryogenesis

A

Segmental oranization of embryo

Problems in Hox genes may cause Skeletal malformations and appendages in wrong locations etc.

570
Q

What disorder presents with fever, hypotension, chest and back pain, and brown urine (hemoglobinuria)

A

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

571
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

Type 2

572
Q

What is lithium used for

A

Mood stabilization in bipolar disorder

573
Q

What is the mnemonic for Lithium use and what is it used for

A

LMNOP for the Lithium side effets:

Movement (tremor)
Nephrogenic
hypOthyroidism
Pregnancy problems (Teratogen/Ebstein’s anomaly)

574
Q

What enables bacteria to survive in boiling water

A

Spores

575
Q

Which bacteria form spores and are found in soil

A

Bacillus anthracis and Clostridium genus

576
Q

What disorder is characterized as a ventricular pre excitation syndrome with reentry circuits that may cause SVT

A

Wolf Parkinson White

577
Q

What is the triad of EKG findings in WPW

A

Delta wave
Shortened PR interval
Widened QRS

578
Q

What vein is found just inferolateral to the pubic tubercle and used commonly for coronary artery grafting

A

Great saphenous vein

579
Q

What vessel runs from the medial portion of the foot up anterior to the medial malleolus, and up the anterior medial portion of the leg and thigh before joining the femoral vein to form the External iliac vein

A

Great saphenous vein

580
Q

What is the term to describe the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time

A

Incidence

581
Q

Aldose reductase is used to trap glucose inside cells by forming what compound

A

Sorbitol

582
Q

Sorbitol is broken down by sorbitol dehydrogenase into what compound

A

Fructose

583
Q

What is the formula to calculate positive predictive value

A

Postive predictive value = a / (a+b)

584
Q

What pathogen is characterized by having a spherule form that contains Endospores

A

Coccidioides immitis

585
Q

In what geographical location is Coccidioides immitis found in

A

Southwestern US (California, Az, etc.)

586
Q

Which nuclear material contains a poly A tail at its 3’ end

A

Mature mRNA

Prevents degradation in cytoplasm

587
Q

Which drug inhibits lymphocyte proliferation by binding with FK 506 to inhibit MTOR (mammalian target of rapamycin) ultimately blocking IL-2 signaling, preventing G1 to S phase transition and lymphocyte proliferation

A

Sirolimus

588
Q

What is another name for Sirolimus

A

Rapamycin

Makes sense since it inhibits Mammalian Target of Rapamycin (MTOR)

589
Q

Which substances are broken down into propiony CoA

A

Branched chain AAs (Leucine, Isoleucine, Valine)
Methionine
Threonine
Odd chain FA’s

590
Q

In an individual with elevated propionyl CoA, which enzyme is defective

A

Propionyl CoA carboxylase

Converts Propionyl CoA from ptn breakdown to Methylmalonyl CoA

591
Q

What should be addressed in an individual typically in an outpatient setting but essentially if they become hospitalized

A

Advanced Directives

592
Q

What is advanced directives

A

Contains 2 components:

Living will - Specifies their end of life wishes (intubation, CPR, enteral feeding, etc.)

Health care proxy - Who will make decisions for them should the need arise

593
Q

Which disorder is characterized by short stature with long bone shortening, midface hypoplasia, and macrocephaly

A

Achondroplasia

594
Q

Which cells are affected in achondroplasia

A

Chondrocytes

595
Q

Which anatomical structure produces NE

A

Locus Ceruleus

596
Q

Where is the Locus ceruleus located

A

Near the lateral floor of the 4th ventricle in the posterior rostral pons

597
Q

What do an elevated Acethylcholinesterase and Alpha feto protein indicate

A

Neural tube defect

Opening allows for spilling of these substances into the amniotic fluid

598
Q

What are the two types of neural tube defects that arise from failed fusion of the neural plates

A

Rostral failed fusion - Anencephaly

Caudal failed fusion - Spina bifida (spina bifida occulta, meningocele, myelomeningocele, and myeloschisis)

599
Q

What is the mechanism by which Neural Tube Defects arise

A

Failed fusion of neural plates or neuropores

600
Q

How do V, Q, and V/Q change from the apex of the lung to the base

A

V - Increases slightly b/c lungs expand more at base
Q - Increases a lot b/c less uphill push against gravity for heart
V/Q - DECREASED b/c Q increases by a lot relative to V

601
Q

What does Rhogam target

A

The D Rhesus antigen on Rh+ fetal RBC’s

602
Q

What type of Ig is Rhogam

A

IgG

603
Q

What term describes the difference in risk between the exposed group and the unexposed group? (20% - 7% = 3%)

A

Attributable risk

604
Q

How do you calculate attributable risk

A

Risk of adverse event in exposed (%) - Risk of adverse event in unexposed (%)

Careful with these questions, they are tricky!
I think it’s pretty much like positive predictive value - negative predictive value

605
Q

What does RT-PCR bind to and do

A

Binds to mRNA and converts it to cDNA

exons only since it is a mature mRNA

606
Q

The ectoderm can be further subcategorized into what germ layers

A

Surface ectoderm
Neural tube
Neural crest

607
Q

What embryonic germ layer does a Prolactinoma (type of pituitary adenoma) originate from

A

Surface ectoderm

This is a subclassification of Ectoderm along with Neural tube, and neural crest tissues

608
Q

What heart sound is described as having a high frequency opening snap and a diastolic rumble heard best in the apex

A

Mitral stenosis

609
Q

What is one of the most effective ways doctors can reduce medication errors

A

Don’t use trailing 0’s

Someone might mistake 2.0 mg for 20 mg

610
Q

In patients who cannot be put on anticoagulants and are at risk for a PE, what should be used

A

IVC filter

Goes in inferior vena cava, hence the name!

611
Q

Where is the inferior vena cava located relative to the vertebral bodies and duodenum

A

Anterior to the vertebral body on the right and medial to the duodenum

612
Q

What ion channels cause depolarization and repolarization in a NEURON action potential

A

Voltage gated Sodium influx causes depolarization

Voltage gated Potassium efflux causes repolarization

613
Q

Why does HCV have many variable envelope antigens

A

It lacks 3 to 5’ exonuclease activity and is thus prone to mutation

614
Q

What is Trisomy 18

A

Edwards Syndrome

Election age = 18

615
Q

What disorder is charcterized by low set ears, hypertonia (clenched fists), rocker bottom feet, and overlapping fingers

A

Edwards Syndrome (Trisomy 18)

616
Q

What vessel carries oxygenated blood from the mom to the babies circulation

A

Umbilical vein

617
Q

What disorder is characterized by gingivitis, myalgias, hemorrhages, and impaired wound healing due to impaired formation of collagen

A

Scurvy

618
Q

What is another name for Vitamin C

A

Ascorbic acid

619
Q

What disorder is characterized by a deficiency in Ascorbic acid (Vit C)

A

Scurvy

620
Q

What viruses contain segmented genomes

A
Orthomyxoviruses (Influenza virus)
Rotairuses
Reoviruses
Bunyaviruses
Arenaviruses
621
Q

Segmented viral genomes are capable of performing what

A

Reassortment

622
Q

Recurrent infxn and absence of all Ig types suggests what disorder

A

X linked Bruton Agammaglobulinemia

623
Q

What cell markers are seen on the surface of B cells

A

CD 19
CD 20

Others also, but these are the main ones

624
Q

How is copper removed from the human body

A

Mainly secreted in the bile/stool

Some is secreted (not filtered) by the kidney

625
Q

What is it called when prior knowledge of an exposure affects the interpretation of a result

A

Observer bias

Example: Docs who knew a pt had diabetes were more likely to report that they saw diabetic nephropathy on microscopy

626
Q

What substance is responsible for male external genitalia development and prostrate development

A

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

627
Q

What enzyme converts Testosterone to Dihydrotestosterone

A

5 alpha reductase

628
Q

Where to intraparenchymal deep brain hemorrhages most commonly occur

A

Basal ganglia and Internal capsule

629
Q

What vessels most often cause hemorrhaging into the basal gangia and internal capsule (deep brain hemorrhages)

A

Lenticulostriate arteries

Branch of MCA

630
Q

What disorder is characterized by impaired bacterial and fungal killing (Parasites and viruses unaffected!) due to a deficiency in NADPH oxidase

A

Chronic granulomatous Dz

Individuals susceptible to catalase + organisms

631
Q

Which organisms are catalase + and thus are a threat to individuals with Chronic Granulomatous Dz

A

CATs need PLACESS to Belch their Hairballs

CATalase + include:

Pseudomonas cepacia
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E. Coli
Staphylococci
Serratia marascens

Burkholderia cepacia

H. pylori

632
Q

In TB, what cytokines are responsible for granuloma formation

A

IL-12, IFN gamma, TNF alpha

Macrophage with TB inside of it releases IL-12 - Converts T helper to TH1 cells

TH1 cells secrete IFN gamma - Activates macrophages

TH1 also secretes TNF alpha - Attracts more macrophages resulting in walling off/granuloma formation

633
Q

What testing parameters are affected by prevalence

A

Positive and Negative predictive value

Makes sense if you think about it, if way more people have a dz in a population (higher prevalence), the ppv is likely to be higher as well. This is when we say that it correlates with pretest probability

634
Q

What is the term used to describe a single gene causing multiple phenotypic effx

A

Pleitropy

635
Q

What ratio increases in amniotic fluid closer to delivery in a pregnant female

A

L/S ratio - Lecithin to Sphingomyelin

Lecithin is in pulm surfactant so it will go up
Sphingomyelin is a normal phospholipid in cell membranes so it stays the same

636
Q

What pathogen has thick walls and displays broad based budding

A

Blastomyces dermatidis (Agent of blastomycosis)

637
Q

What is the mnemonic for Blastomyces

A

Blastomyces Buds Broadly

Fungus displays broad based budding

638
Q

If a pt refuses to know their diagnosis and is fully conscious and cognitively intact, what should the physician do

A

Withhold the information

Pts don’t have to know their diagnosis if they don’t want to. This is normal in many cultures

639
Q

What thrombolytic agent is used for MI’s and Strokes

A

tPA

640
Q

What substance can cause reperfusion arrhythmias

A

tPA

641
Q

Which nodes does lymph drainage go to above the pectinate line and below

A

Above - Drains to inferior mesentric nodes or internal iliac nodes

Below - Drains to superficial inguinal nodes

642
Q

Procollagen peptidase deficiency which cleaves the C and N terminals of Procollagen will result in what disorder

A

Ehler Danlos Syndrome

643
Q

Neurophysins are released with what hormones

A

Oxytocin and ADH

Neurophysins stabilize these hormones during axonal transport from the hypothalamus to the posterior pituitary

644
Q

Where are Oxytocin and ADH released into the circulation from

A

Posterior Pituitary

They are synthesized in NEURONS in the hypothalamus and move via axon transport to the Posterior pituitary where they are released into circulation

645
Q

What signs should clue you in to drug misuse

A

Requesting a specific medication
Running out of medication
Pain out of proportion to exam

646
Q

If you suspect drug misuse in an individual, what is the best next step

A

Accessing their prescription history

647
Q

Hypothyroidism will show an increase in what laboratory value

A

Creatine Kinase

Commonly causes myopathy! Kind of odd but it does!

648
Q

Myopathy is an odd finding in what disorder

A

Hypothyroidism

649
Q

What are the most common opsonins

A

IgG

C3b

650
Q

How many calories do 1 gram each of Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fat, and Ethanol provide

A

1 gram Carbs = 4 calories
1 gram Proteins = 4 calories
1 gram Ethanol = 7 calories
1 gram Fat = 9 calories

651
Q

In dizygotic twins, what is the chorion amnion presentation

A

Dizygotic are always Dichorionic-Diamnionic

652
Q

What is the fertilization that occurs to produce dizygotic twins

A

2 sperm fertilize 2 eggs

653
Q

What are the different monozygotic twin pregnancy types and when does each occur

A

Days 0-4 split results in Dichorionic-Diamnionic

Days 4-8 split results in Monochorionic-Diamnionic

Days 8-12 split results in Monochorionic-Monoamnionic

Days 13+ split results in Monochorionic-Monoamnionic conjoined

654
Q

What is the normal pressure in the aorta/aortic root

A

120/80 mmHg

655
Q

In a pt with an aortocavitary fistula from the aortic root to the RV, which way does blood flow and when

A

Continuous flow from aorta to RV during both systole and diastole

Aortic pressures are 120/80
RV pressures are 20/5

Thus since RV pressure is lower in both systole and diastole, blood will always flow to the region of lower pressure

656
Q

Where do most nosebleeds occur

A

Anterior nasal septum

657
Q

Where is Kiesselbach’s plexus located and what arteries form it

A

Anterior nasal septum

Anterior ethmoidal A.
Sphenopalatine A.
Superior labial A.

658
Q

What pathogen most commonly causes bacterial endocarditis in patients with prosthetic valves and septic arthritis in patients with prosthetic joints

A

Staph epidermiditis

659
Q

How can you differentiate Staphylococci from Streptococci

A

Catalase test. Staph are Catalase +

660
Q

How can you differentiate Staph aureus from other Staph

A

Coagulase test. Staph aureus is Coagulase +

661
Q

What disorder is characterized by severe photosensitivity and hyperpigmentation in response to sunlight

A

Xeroderma pigmentosum

662
Q

What is defective in Xeroderma pigmentosum

A

Endonuclease excision repair

This removes the Thymine-Thymine dimers that form from UV light

663
Q

How do you calculate the case fatality rate for a particular disorder (say for example colon cancer)

A

of people who died from colon canacer / # of people with colon cancer

Pretty easy.. just think about it

664
Q

What are the 5 main components in the formation of an atherosclerotic plaque

A
Endothelial cell - where injury begins
Platelets - bind to exposed collagen and released PDGF
Macrophges - accumulate
LDL - accumulate
Smooth m - Comes because of PDGF

Foam cells are a mix of LDL and Smooth M

665
Q

What pathogen forms germ tubes

A

Candida

666
Q

What pathogen forms pseudohyphae

A

Candida

667
Q

What immunity is necessary to prevent Candidal infxn

A

T lymphocytes - Prevent LOCAL infxn (esophageal/vaginal candidiasis)

Neutrophils - Prevent SYSTEMIC infxn (disseminated candidiasis/candidemia). Probably done by phagocytosing them

668
Q

What are the borders of the carpal tunnel and what does it contain

A

Borders:
Flexor retinaculum on the palmar side (AKA transverse carpal ligament). Specificall connects to hamate, pisiform, scaphoid, and trapezium

Carpal bones on dorsal side

Contains:
Flexor digitorum profundus tendons
Flexor digitorum superficialis tendons
Flexor pollicis longus
Median nerve
669
Q

What is another term for the flexor retinaculum

A

Transverse carpal ligament

670
Q

An incision of what structure can relieve carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Flexor retinaculum (AKA transverse carpal ligament)

671
Q

What disorder is characterized by pain pain and paresthesias in the first 3 digits and thenar eminence atrophy

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

672
Q

What binds to the CAAT and TATA promoter sequences

A

RNA polymerase 2

673
Q

What disorder is characterized by neurological symptoms, anemia, and occurs in impoverished families

A

Lead poisoning

674
Q

What enzymes are defective in lead poisoning

A

ALA dehydratase and Ferrochelatase

Hence why you get anemia

675
Q

What clears foreign particles in the respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts

A

Alveolar macrophages

676
Q

What term is used to describe diseases that result from fine dust particles going down into the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli

A

Pneumoconioses

677
Q

What portion of the bronchiole passes lower than the terminal bronchiole where cilia and mucus end

A

Respiratory bronchiole

Here alveolar macrophages take over the job of clearing foreign debris

678
Q

Which neurotransmitters are affected by Clostridium tetani

A

Glycine

Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA)

679
Q

Which neurotransmitter is affected by Costridium botulinum

A

Acetylcholine

680
Q

A parallel serpentine cord appearance on microscopy is suggestive of what

A

Cord factor + Mycobacteria tuberculosis strains

Only tb strains with cord factor are virulent

681
Q

Cord factor in virulent strains of Mycobacteria tuberculosis cause what to occur

A

Inhibit neutrophils/macrophages
Damage mtc
Release TNF

682
Q

What is the term used to describe the probability of making a type 2 error

A

Beta

683
Q

How do you calculate power

A

Power = 1 - beta

Rearranged this is: Beta + Power = 1

Thus, as beta decreases (your chance of making a type 2 error), your power goes up and vice versa

684
Q

Which disorder causes the formation of oxalate kidney stones

A

Crohns dz

685
Q

In Crohns, calcium in the lumen binds to ___ instead of ___ causing formation of kidney stones

A

Lipids
Oxalate

Terminal ileum doesnt reabsorb bile acids

  • -> Lipids aren’t absorbed (fat malabsorbtion)
  • -> Calcium in the lumen binds to these lipids instead of oxalate
  • -> Oxalate without calcium is absorbed by the gut. Typically not absorbed if Ca is bound
  • -> Kidney stones
686
Q

What enzymes are the main enzymes for the Oxidative and Nonoxidative pathways of the HMP shunt/Pentose phosphate pathway

A

Oxidative - Glucose 6 Phosphate Dehydrogenase

Nonoxidative - Transketolase

687
Q

What is one of the main products of the HMP shunt

A

2 NADPH

688
Q

What is the most common cause of acute hypocalcemia

A

Injury to PTH during Thyroid surgery

Pt will present with signs of hypocalcemia like muscle spasms and Chvosteks sign and Trousseaus sign

689
Q

In a pt with muscle cramps, seizures, qt prolongation, and perioral paresthesias among other things, what might you suspect

A

Hypocalcemia

Other 2 big signs are Chvostek and Trousseaus sign

690
Q

What must schizoaffective disorders be carefully distinguished from

A

Mood disorders with psychotic features

Ex. Major depressive disorder with psychotic features

In schizoaffective, psychosis is the driver that is always present and mood is the passenger that jumps in and out but is not always present

In MDD with psychotic features, MDD is the driver that is always present and psychosis is the passenger that jumps in and out but is not always present

691
Q

What structure separates the Anterior 2/3 of the tongue from the posterior 1/3

A

Terminal sulcus and foramen cecum

692
Q

What is the innervation for the tongue? (Sensory, Taste, and Motor)

A

From anterior 2/3 to posterior

Sensory: CN V3, 9, 10
Taste: CN 7, 9, 10
Motor: CN 12 for everything except palatoglossus which is CN 10

CN 10 acts at the back of the tongue in all 3 components.

693
Q

What is another term for the delta agent

A

Hepatitis D virus

694
Q

What does the Hepatitis D virus REQUIRE in order to cause infxn

A

HBsAg

695
Q

What is seen in each stage of transplant rejection

A

Hyperacute - Thrombosis with cessation of blood flow due to PREFORMED Ab against donor Ag

Acute - Dense lymphocytic infiltrate. Mostly T cells

Chronic - Fibrosis with few inflammatory cells seen

696
Q

What binds to potassium channels in beta pancreatic cells causing insulin release

A

ATP

697
Q

What stimulates insulin release from beta pancreatic cells

A

Glucose!

Glucose enters beta pancreatic cell via Glut 2. Undergoes glycolysis and TCA cycle. ATP from those cycles acts on K channels closing them. This leads to depolarization and Ca entry. This causes Insulin release

698
Q

What nerve can be stimulated to improve obstructive sleep apnea

A

Hypoglossal

Shifts tongue forward increasing the AP diameter of the oropharynx

699
Q

How do you calculate the attack rate

A

who got dz / # exposed

27 people of the 100 people who ate potato salad at the picnic got diarrhea so the attack rate for the potato salad was 27%

Careful. They may include more people at the picnic, but it’s only the people EXPOSED that we care about!

700
Q

Marfan disorder results from a defect in what

A

Fibrillin 1

Glycoprotein that acts as a scaffold for elastin

701
Q

What type of non pharmacolicagal tx for insomnia involves going to the bedroom/bed only when sleepy and not performing other wakeful tasks in bed

A

Stimulus control therapy

702
Q

What hormone is responsible for negative feedback in the thyroid hypothalamus pituitary axis

A

T3 (Triiodothyronine)

703
Q

What does T4 (Thyroxine) convert to

A

T3 - Active thyroid hormone

Reverse T3 - INACTIVE thyroid hormone

704
Q

What disorder is characterized by a long face, large jaw, large ears, and large testes

A

Fragile X

705
Q

What is the mnemonic for Fragile X

A

Xtra large testes, jaw, and ears

706
Q

MHC 1 and 2 pair with what CD4 cells, are found on what cell types, and are endogenous or exogenous

A

MHC 1 - CD8. All nucleated cells. Endogenous stimuli

MHC 2 - CD4. Antigen presenting cells. Exogenous stimuli

707
Q

What disorder presents with small crusted red papules that are intensely pruritic usually on the hands, wrists, and finger webs and may even appear on the palms and soles

A

Scabies

708
Q

Which disorder is characterized by a barrel shaped chest

A

Emphysema

709
Q

What are the PFT’s in a pt with Emphysema

A

TLC Increses
FVC Decreases
FEV1/FVC Decreases
RV Inecreases

710
Q

What is the main difference seen on PFT in a pt with COPD vs Restrictive Lung Dz

A

COPD - Decreased FEV1/FVC

Restrictive - Increased FEV 1/FVC

711
Q

What type of bias typicall occurs in a case control study where individuals are matched with other similar individuals to create a comparison study

A

Confounding bias

Matching is done to compare certain variables which is pretty much intentionally finding confounding variables

712
Q

How is antisocial personality disorder diagnosed

A

Must be 18

Must have history of conduct disorder before age 15

713
Q

What do Nocardia and Mycobacteria contain in their cell wall making them acid fast

A

Mycolic acid

714
Q

What are the components of the acid fast stain and what does each do

A

Carbolfuschin - Turns everything red and binds to mycolic acid
Alchol/Acid - Decolarizes all the red except that bound to mycolic acid
Methylene blue - Turns everything else blue

715
Q

What is another term for the Acid fast stain

A

Carbol fuschin stain or Ziehl-Neelsen stain

716
Q

What is described as an atrioventricular conduction pathway that bypasses the AV node

A

Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome

717
Q

What is the triad of EKG findings seen in Wolff Parkinson White Syndrome

A

Shortened PR interval, Delta wave, Widened QRS

718
Q

What stages of Meiosis are primary oocytes and secondary oocytes stuck in

A

Primary oocytes (46 sister chromatids) are stuck in Prophase 1 until just before ovulation

Secondary oocytes (23 sister chromatids) are stuck in Metaphase 2 until fertilized by a sperm (23 single chromosomes) which induces the completion of meosis 2 in eggs to 23 single chromosomes

719
Q

What disorder presents with pain each month, amenorrhea, and a mass anterior to the rectum palpated on exam

A

Imperforate hymen

Accumulation of blood causes pain and a mass

720
Q

What disorder results from incomplete degeneration of the central fibrous tissue band connecting the walls of the vagina

A

Imperforate hymen

721
Q

NK cells are of what origin

A

Lymphoid

722
Q

Which cells are targeted to die by NK cells (remember: NK cells cause APOPTOSIS via perforin and granzymes)

A

Those with reduced MHC 1 expression

Typically virally infected cells and tumor cells (Thus will see in cancers)

723
Q

Pusatile release of GnRH causes what to occur

A

Release of LH and FSH

Note that it must be PULSATILE

724
Q

What is pulsatile administration of GnRH commonly used for

A

Infertility

725
Q

What condition is characterized by euvolemic hyponatremia

A

SIADH

726
Q

How does SIADH cause euvolemic hyponatremia

A

RAAS stops so more Na is lost and with it some water. –> hyponatremia and euvolemia

Also BUN is increased to try and restore water also

Think about it like this: The body is so focused on restoring the volume back to normal by excreting sodium that it solves the water problem, but you lose too much sodium

727
Q

What is the mnemonic to remember HbF and HbA components

A

alpha always, gamma goes

HbF = 2 alpha 2 gamma
HbA = 2 alpha 2 beta
728
Q

When does beta thalassemia present

A

Early in postnatal life

This is when gamma globin stops being produced and is replaced by the defective beta globin which will lead to symptoms

729
Q

What is the main virulence factor behind meningococcemia and meningococcal meningitis

A

Lipooligosaccharide

Polysaccharide capsule is also a virulence factor, but does not lead to SIRS or sepsis like LOS does . It pretty much just prevents phagocytosis

730
Q

Blood levels of what virulence factor correlate with morbidity and mortality rates in pts with meningococcemia and meningococcal meningitis

A

Lipooligosaccharide

731
Q

What are the 3 ways down syndrome may result

A

Nondisjunction
Translocation
Mosaicism (as a result of nondisjunction)

732
Q

In an African American female with Hilar adenopathy, what might you suspect

A

Sarcoidosis

733
Q

What cell type leads to granuloma formation and what does it produce to do so

A

TH1 cells release
IL 2 - Acts on TH1 cells in an autocrine fashion to stimulate proliferation

IFN gamma - Activates macrophages promoting granuloma formation

734
Q

What are two things that can greatly increase risk for gallstones

A

Total parenteral nutrition - No intestinal stimulation and release of CCK –> stasis –> gallstones

Resection of the ileum: Reduced bile acid reabsorption which is necessary to maintain cholesterol/bile acid ratio

735
Q

Which muscle is paralyzed in a pt who is characterized by having winging of the scapula when a pt pushes against a wall and an inability to abduct the arms above the horizontal

A

Serratus Anterior

736
Q

What nerve innervates the serratus anterior and when can it be injured

A

Long thoracic nerve

Axillary lymph node dissections

737
Q

What effect do arteriovenous shunts have on preload and afterload

A

Preload - Increased
Afterload - Decreased

Think of afterload as the pressure which the LV must pump against

AV shunts bypass arterioles which are the main source of pressure in the circulatory system; thus, afterload decreases

738
Q

What are the 4 main phases of the Cardiac Pressure Volume Loops

A

Isovolumetric contraction
Systolic ejection
Isovolumetric relaxation
Rapid and Reduced filling

739
Q

What 3 things can shift the cardiac pressure volume loops

A

Increased Preload - Shifts graph right due to more blood coming in and thus more filling

Increased Afterload - Shifts graph upward and makes it more narrow due to more pressure to pump against and less blood being pumped

Increased Contractility - Shifts graph left due to more blood being ejected

740
Q

How would you describe a murmur heard in aortic regurgitation

A

High pitched blowing early diastolic decrescendo murmur

741
Q

What are common causes of aortic regurg

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

Aortic root dilation

742
Q

What are the time ranges to diagnose Brief psychotic disorder, Schizophreniform, and Schizophrenia

A

Brief Psychotic - Less than 1 month
Schizophreniform - 1-6 months
Schizophrenia - 6+ months

743
Q

What is the G protein pathway

A

G protein activates Phospholipase C

Phospholipase C converts PIP2 to DAG and IP3

DAG acts on Protein Kinase C directly

IP3 acts on Protein Kinase C indirecty by releasing Ca from endoplasmic reticulum

744
Q

What is it called when a woman displays male-pattern hair growth

A

Hirsuitism

745
Q

What drugs treat hirsuitism by inhibiting LH release thus causing reduced testosterone release

A

Oral contraceptives

746
Q

What do sugars, honeys, cereals, fruits, and vegetables all contain

A

Fructose

747
Q

In fructose intolerance, what enzyme is defective

A

Aldolase B

748
Q

What are the three enzymes of fructose metabolism

A

Fructokinase
Aldolase B
Triokinase

749
Q

Macrophages produce what cytokine to induce differentiation of TH cells into TH1 cells

A

IL-12

750
Q

TH1 cells produce what cytokine in response to their activation by IL-12 from macrophages

A

IFN gamma

Induces macrophage phagocytosis

Kind of a weird buddy system. Macrophage secretes IL-12 to differentiate into TH1 which then secretes IFN gamma to activate macrophage

751
Q

What disorder is characterized by the appearance of clue cells,a gray discharge, and a fishy odor

A

Bacterial vaginosis

752
Q

What is the pathogen and morphology for the agent that causes bacterial vaginosis

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

Anaerobic gram variable rod

753
Q

How should all medical interviews be started

A

With unbiased open ended questions

Closed ended questions are not ONLY yes or no questions but anything where they only have a few choices

Ex of 2 closed ended questions:
Have you evere had pain like this before? No
Is it a sharp pain or a dull a pain? Dull

754
Q

Given carrier frequencies for two healthy parents, how can you determine the odds that there child will have the dz?

Ex. Asian mom has 1/30 chance for carrying cystic fibrosis while Caucasian dad has 1/100 chance for carrying cystic fibrosis. What is the odd that the kid will have CF

A

1/30 x 1/100 = 1/3000. This is the odds that both parents are carriers

1/3000 x 1/4 = 1/12000. This is the odds that they also have a kid that is autosomal recessive

Probability that mom is a carrier AND dad is a carrier AND child is autosomal recessive

755
Q

What nerve exits the styomastoid foramen, enters the parotid gland, and then splits into 5 branches to provide motor innervation to the face

A

Facial N

756
Q

A tumor of the parotid gland can often present with what finding

A

Facial droop

Compresses Facial N. which provides motor innervation to the muscles of the face. Usually these are malignant tumors

757
Q

What term is used to define the point at which a given test result is determined as either positive or negative

A

Cutoff point

758
Q

What values are affected by altering the cutoff point

A

Sensitivity and Negative Predictive value (these go together)
and
Specificity and Positive Predictive value (these go together)

If you shift left normally, FN goes down which means both Sensitivity and Negative Predictive value will go up

If you shift right normally, FP goes down which means both Specificity and Positive predictive value will go up

Dont always think left shift or right shift! Diseased may not always be on the right! I think..

759
Q

What is the mineralocorticoid secreted from the adrenal cortex

A

Aldosterone!!

Not ADH!

760
Q

What electrolyte abnormalities are expected in a pt with Addisons Dz

A

Decreased Sodium
Increased Potassium
Increased Hydrogen

Aldosterone is messed up. This usually brings in sodium, releases K, and releases H. Thus, you would expect the opposite if it is defective

761
Q

What finding is commonly seen in Addisons disease in addition to the electrolyte abnormalities

A

Hyperpigmentation from Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone

A byproduct of ACTH. No negative feedback from Cortisol since adrenals are messed up so ACtH and MSH are high

762
Q

What can improve the Tet spells that occur in Tetralogy of Fallot

A

Squatting

Increases SVR which means more flow will go through the stenotic pulmonic valve instead of shunting to the left side

763
Q

If the Confidence interval contains the null value what does this indicate

A

There is no statistically significant difference between the exposure group and the control group

764
Q

If a result is statistically significant, what would the confidence interval indicate

A

The confidence interval would not include the null value (The number that indicates that there is no difference between the control group and the exposure group)

765
Q

Which mole contains no fetal parts

A

Complete mole

766
Q

What are the genotypes of a complete and partial mole

A

Complete: 46 XX or 46XY

Empty ovum so sperm duplicates genome (46YY not documented) or 2 sperm fertilize single empty egg

Partial: 69XXX or 69 XXY or 69 XYY

767
Q

If a parent keeps talking for their child without lettig them speak, what should you do

A

Ask them to step out politely so you can talk to the pt alone

768
Q

What nerve may be damaged during an appendectomy

A

Iliohypogastric N. (L1)

769
Q

Damage to the iliohypogastric N presents with what findings

A

Decreased sensation over the suprapubic region and gluteal region

Decreased motor fxn in the anterolateral abdominnal wall

770
Q

How does carbon monoxide disrupt Oxygen Hb binding

A

Competitively inhibits it

Uworld says something about this causing increased oxygen binding at the other 3 heme sites and thus decreased unloading of O2 into tissues. FA says there is decreased O2 binding… IDK…

771
Q

Voluntary breathing with diaphragmatic fatigue indicates what pathology

A

Myasthenia gravis, Obstructive lung dz, or Restrictive lung dz

772
Q

What marker indicates immunity to Hep B virus

A

Anti-HBs

773
Q

What immune markers indicate acute Hep B infxn and chronic Hep B infxn

A

Anti-HBc (IgM) - Acute

Anti-HBc (IgG) - Chronic or Prior exposure

774
Q

What precautions are required in order to handle a pt with C. diff

A

Hand washing
Nonsterile gloves
Gown

775
Q

What is one of the strongest indicators of insulin resistance or Type 2 diabettes

A

Increased waist circumference (Visceral obesity)

776
Q

What fixes pyrimidine dimers in Nucleotide excision repair

A

Endonuclease

Nicks the sides allowing for removal of the defective region

777
Q

Excessive sunlight can increase the risk of forming what

A

Pyrimidine-Pyrimidine dimers

Sunlight is UV light!

778
Q

What organisms cause pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia trachomatis

779
Q

What is a common complication of PID

A

Ectopic pregnancy

780
Q

What test is used to identify if there is any significant difference between the means of two groups? What about 3 or more?

A

2 groups: T test (Tea is meant for 2)

3 or more: Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)

781
Q

What cells can undergo glycolysis without producing ATP

A

Erythrocytes

Extra step to convert 1,3-BPG to 2,3-BPG which bypasses the ATP producing step. 2,3-BPG is important for them to produce so… WORTH

782
Q

What is the fxn of 2,3-BPG in RBC’s

A

Decreases Hb’s affinity for O2 thus allowing for O2 unoading in tissues

783
Q

Patients who have undergone gastrectomy must receive adminsitration of what for the rest of their lives

A

Vitamin B12

Parietal cells are gone so no intrinsic factor which binds to B12 in the intestine and allows for its absorbtion. All other stomach functions can be performed by the pancreas/intestines or can be fixed with diet

784
Q

What substance is used to calculate the GFR because it is filtered in the glomerulus but neither secreted or reabsorbed

A

Inulin

Creatinine is a close approximation. It is moderately secreted so it’s not as good as inulin

785
Q

How does glucose course through the kidney

A

Filtered by glomerulus

Completely reabsorbed in the proximal tubule with some sodium

786
Q

What nerves provide innervation above and below the pectinate line

A

Above - Autonomic innervation from inferior hypogastric plexus

Below - Somatic innervation (painful) from the inferior rectal nerve (branch of the pudendal nerve)

787
Q

What is the problem in Cystinuria

A

Kidneys and Intestines cannot reabsorb Cystine, Ornithine, Lysine, and Arginine (COLA)

788
Q

What is the main compication of Cystinuria

A

Hexagonal Cystine kidney stone forming

From decreased reabsorbtion

789
Q

A man who questions whether his surgery was necessary and says that it was only to use his good insurance and says he works alone because his bosses were trying to set him up for failure has what disorder

A

Paranoid personality disorder

790
Q

An individual with major distrust has what disorder

A

Paranoid perosnality disorder

791
Q

What enzyme tags proteins for destruction by the proteasome enzyme

A

Ubiquitin ligase

Attaches ubiquitin to proteins, marking them for destruction

792
Q

What enzyme destroys viral proteins allowing them to be attached to MHC 1 and thus plays an important role in the antigen presenting portion of the immune response

A

Ubiquitin ligase

Attaches ubiquitin to viral proteins just like it does to normal intracelular proteins, marking it for destruction by the proteasome

793
Q

What CN’s are responsbile for the pupillary light reflex and what is the exact nerve course of the reflex

A

CN 2 afferent
CN 3 efferent

Light shines in right eye
Optic nerve (CN 2) sends sensory to right pretectal nucleus
Sends sensory to BILATERAL Edinger Westphal
Oculumotor nerve (CN 3) sends signal to ciliary ganglia
Short ciliary nerves travel to pupillary sphincter muscle

794
Q

What are the functions of CN 3

A

Somatic:
Innervate Superior, Middle, and Inferior Rectus, Inferior oblique, and Levator palpebrae (raises eyelid)

Autonomic:
Parasympthetic to iris and ciliary sphincter muscles (pupillary constriction)

795
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of G6PD

A

X linked recessive

796
Q

What disorder is characterized by hemolytic anemia in response to oxidant stress (sulfa drugs, antimalarials, infxn, fava beans)

A

G6PD

Decreased glutathione

797
Q

What cytokines attenuate the immune response

A

TGF beta and IL-10

IL-10 aTENnuates the immune response

798
Q

What are the functions of IL-10

A

Reduce MHC II expression
Reduce TH1 cytokines
Inhibit macrophages and dendritic cells

799
Q

What disorder presents with headaches and bitemporal hemianopsia

A

Pituitary adenoma

Additional symptoms depend on which anterior pituitary homone is elevated

800
Q

Pituitary adenomas most commonly lead to an increase in which hormone

A

Prolactin (prolactinoma)

May result in galactorrhea and amenorrhea in women and infertility in men due to its inhibition of GnRH in the hypothalamus. Additionally there will also be bitemporal heminaopsia and headaches b/c it is a tumor

801
Q

What are the hormones released by the anterior pituitary

A
ACTH
TSH
FSH
LH
Prolactin
GH
802
Q

What blocks the myosin binding sites on actin molecules

A

Tropomyosin

803
Q

What does Calcium released from the SR bind to in skeletal muscle contraction

A

Troponin

804
Q

If a pt asks you to pray for them before their surgery and you don’t agree with their beliefs, what should you do

A

Let them know you will keep them in your thoughts/prayers

Overriding goal is to “do no harm”. Don’t impose religious beliefs on them or say you don’t agree

805
Q

What pathogens lack a cell wall

A

Mycoplasma

Ureaplasma

806
Q

What drugs act on the cell wall

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems
Vancomycin

807
Q

What DNA polymerases are used in bacterial DNA replication

A

DNA polymerase 3 - Replicates DNA

DNA polymerase 1 - Removes RNA primers via 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity (only bacterial polymerase with 5’ to 3’ exonuclease)

808
Q

If a pt who gets a negative test result then asks, “What are the chances that I really don’t have cancer?” What value would you look at before responding

A

Negative predictive value

809
Q

What term is defined as the probability of being dz free if the test result is negative

A

Negative predictive value

810
Q

t(14;18) results in what disorder

A

Follicular lymphoma

Translocation of heavy chain Ig (14) and BCL-2 (18) leads to Bcl-2 overexpression

811
Q

What enzyme prevents Cytochrome C release during apoptosis

A

Bcl-2

812
Q

What structures have openings in them to form the deep inguinal ring and superficial inguinal ring

A

Deep - Transversalis fascia

Superficial - External abdominal oblique

813
Q

What population is most susceptible to gallstone formation

A

Fat, fertile, female, and forty

814
Q

What substances lead to the increased gallstone risk in pregnancy and how

A

Estrogen - Increases cholesterol synthesis

Progesterone - Induces gallbladder HYPOmotility

815
Q

Heroin addiction can be treated with what other opioid agonists

A

Methadone - Full agonist

Buprenorphine - Partial agonist

816
Q

What characteristic of Methadone makes it good for treating heroin addiction

A

It is long acting

817
Q

What is the most abundant amino acid in collagen

A

Glycine

818
Q

What protein displays the peptide sequence Gly-X-Y in repetitive sequence

A

Collagen

819
Q

What substance gives sputum a greenish color

A

Myeloperoxidase

Blue-green heme containing pigment

820
Q

What enzyme converts hydrogen peroxide to hypochlorous acid during respiratory burst within neutrophils

A

Myeloperoxidase

821
Q

White or blue gray lesions on the buccal mucosa indicate what

A

Koplik spots which are pathognomonic for Measles!

822
Q

What are the classic findings in Measles

A

Cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and then later a maculopapular rash that goes from the head down

823
Q

What disorder is characterized by polyuria, polydipsia, and fruity smeling urine

A

DKA

824
Q

What are the acid base findings in DKA

A

pH is low
Bicarb is low - Used up to buffer ketoacids
CO2 is low - Compensatory respiratory response

825
Q

How does HAV most typically present

A

Asymptomatic or Acute Self limited dz with RUQ pain and jaundice

826
Q

Which Hep viruses do not have a carrier state

A

HAV and HEV

827
Q

What disorder is characterized by fever, hypotension, flushing, and DIC

A

Septic shock

828
Q

What substance causes the release of IL-1 and TNF alpha from macrophages leading to septic shock

A

Lipid A

829
Q

What process occurs in the nucleolus

A

rRNA transcription

830
Q

What does each of the RNA polymerases transcribe

A

RNA polymerase 1 - rRNA
RNA polymerase 2 - mRNA
RNA polymerase 3 - tRNA and 5s rRNA

Easy way to remember is that this this is the order they appear in translation

831
Q

What substance provides autoregulation to the heart by maintaining coronary blood flow

A

Nitric oxide

Other things like Adenosine as well but that’s the main one

832
Q

What is the median in this number set?

5, 8, 10, 18, 90, 108

A

14!

Since there is an even number of data points, the median would be halfway between 10 and 18

833
Q

What neurotransmitter is targeted in OCD therapy

A

Serotonin

SSRIs are FLD

834
Q

What disorder is characterized by abdominal pain, diarrhea, and a maculopapular rash

A

Graft vs Host dz

Follows a transplant (variable time range)

835
Q

What is the immune response in Graft versus Host dz

A

Donor graft T cells are sensitized against Host MHC antigens

836
Q

What might you suspect in a pt with dysarthria and contralateral ataxic hemiparesis

A

Infarct of the mid pons

837
Q

What structure arises from the mid pons

A

Trigeminal N

838
Q

What are the fast lactose fermenting bacteria

A

Klebsiella
E. Coli
Enterobacter

839
Q

What pathogen is lactose fermenting + and indole +

A

E. Coli

The fact that it can form Indole from tryptophphan (Indole +) distinguishes it from Enterobacter

840
Q

What term describes different rearrangements of mRNA from the same gene to produce a large number of unique proteins

A

Alternative splicing

841
Q

If a Northern blot shows different findings for the same gene, what might you suspect

A

Alternative splicing

842
Q

What enzyme converts Progesterone to 11-Deoxycorticosterone in adrenal steroid synthesis

A

21-hydroxylase

843
Q

What do all the adrenal steroid synthesis disorders present with

A

Adrenal hyperplasia

All have low cortisol produxn, thus ACTH increases causing adrenal hyperplasia

844
Q

What are the adrenal steroid synthesis disorders

A

17-Hydroxylase deficiency
21-Hydroxylase deficiency
11 beta-Hydroxylase deficiency

845
Q

What is the role of ammonia on neuronal excitation in cases of hyperammonemia

A

Combine with NT glutamate to form glutamine before it reenters neuron

Accumulation of glutamine without release into synapse as glutamate causes inhibition of excitation and symptoms

846
Q

Where does ammonia combine with glutamate to form glutamine prior to entering the neuron

A

Astrocyte

847
Q

What are the ways O2 can induce hypercapnea

A
  1. Causes pulmonary vasodilation, increasing physiologic dead space and thus less blood going to meaningful alveoli
  2. Haldane effect where presence of O2 decreases Hb’s affinity for CO2
  3. Reduced chemoreceptor stimulation causes decreased respiratory rate
848
Q

What cytokine is essential for immunity against mycobacterial infxns and other granulomatous diseases

A

IFN gamma

Defects in this path require individuals to have lifelong therapy

849
Q

If you interview a child who you suspect is being abused what should you do next

A

Ask the parents to leave and interview the child alone

This precedes calling CPS which would be the next step after your interview

850
Q

Why does an individual undergoing a panic attack undergo dizziness and possibly fainting

A

They hyperventilate

  • -> CO2 goes down
  • -> Arteries to brain vasoconstrict
  • -> Reduced cerebral blood flow
851
Q

What is the main regulator of cerebral blood flow

A

PCO2

852
Q

What condition is associated with facial pain and a black eschar appearing on the face

A

Mucormycosis

853
Q

What is the diagnostic test used to ID mucormycosis

A

Histologic examination of affected tissue (Biopsy)

854
Q

Which pts are most at risk for Mucormycosis

A

DKA pts

855
Q

What artery is affected in a pt presenting with both motor and sensory loss in the left face and left upper limb

A

Right MCA

Left MCA would present with aphasia also

856
Q

What disorder is characterized by hypochromic target cell shaped RBC’s and elevated HbA2

A

Beta thalassemia

Hb A2 contains 2 alpha and 2 delta chains

857
Q

What is the biochemical problem in beta thalassemia

A

DNA mutation leading to defective MRNA transcription and translation

858
Q

What is the genotype of an individual with Achondroplasia

A

Aa - Achondroplasia
AA - Lethal!

It is Autosomal Dominant so they must have at least one dominant allele, but in achondroplasia, homozygosity of the dominant allele is LETHAL. Thus all pts with achondroplasia must be Aa… otherrwise they would be dead

859
Q

What nerve is at risk of injury during thyroidectomy

A

External branch of superior laryngeal N.

860
Q

What muscle is innervated by the superior laryngel N.

A

Cricothyroid

861
Q

What disorder is characterized by deformities, joint pain, and sucutaneous nodules

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

862
Q

What pathologic substance is an IgM that targets the Fc component of IgG

A

Rheumatoid factor

863
Q

What is the most common lab findings on an individual with kidney stones

A

Normocalcemia
Hypercalciuria

No reason to believe blood Ca is high unless they show signs

864
Q

Amitryptiline belongs to what class of drugs

A

TCA’s

865
Q

One of the main adverse effects of TCA overdose is cardiotoxicity due to what mechanism

A

Sodium channel inhibition

Slows dow myocardial depolarization and leads to arrhythmias and death

866
Q

Which Glucose transporter is not always found at the plasma membrane and is dependent on the amount of insulin available

A

GLUT-4

All the others are expressed on the surface 24/7 and do not change with an increase in insulin conc

867
Q

Which cells express GLUT-4

A

Adipose and Skeletal muscle

868
Q

How does carotid massage affect baroreceptor firing

A

Increases stretch on carotid baroreceptors

–>INCREASES firing from baroceptor through CN 9

869
Q

What effect does the Vagus nerve have on the heart during carotid massage to treat SVT

A

It prolongs the refractory period thus slowing the conduction

Vagus pretty much only acts at SA and AV node in the heart I believe

870
Q

What term describes a disorder appearing more severe or earlier subsequent generations

A

Anticipation

871
Q

What disorders display anticipation

A

Trinucleotide Repeat disorders

X-Girlfriends First Aid Helped Ace My Test

Fragile X - cGg
Friedreich Ataxia - cAa
Huntingtons - cAg
Myotonic dystrophy - cTg

872
Q

What pathogen displays branching filaments and can mimic TB by causing pulmonary cavitary lesions

A

Nocardia

873
Q

Nocardia affects what regions of the body

A

Lungs - Cavitary lesions like TB
Skin
Brain - Abscess

874
Q

What is the formula to calculate the Number Needed to Harm

A

1 / Attributable risk

875
Q

What does a Number Needed to Harm = 4 indicate

A

Example interpretation:

For every 4 patients treated with Drug X, 1 will experience an adverse outcome

876
Q

What disorder is described as having calcium deposition in the setting of normocalcemia

A

Dystrophic calcification

877
Q

When does dystrophic calcification occur

A

Following injury or necrosis

878
Q

In a positive skew, which direction is the tail of the curve

A

To the right

879
Q

How does the mean, median, and mode shift in skewed graphs

A

The mean shifts the most towards the tail, then the median, then the mode

Hence why median is a better assessment of the middle than mean in skewed graphs

880
Q

What inhibits the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary

A

The actions of Dopamine on the D2 receptors on lactotrophs in the anterior pituitary

881
Q

What is the ony pituitary hormone that is negatively regulated by hypothalamic secretions

A

Prolactin

882
Q

Impaired Sertoli cell function would result in what problem

A

Infertility

No release of Inhibin B

883
Q

What do Inhibin B and Testosterone provide negative feedback to

A

Inhibin B only provides negative feedback to the pituitary (FSH)

Testosterone provides negative feedback to the hypothalamus (GnRH) and the pituitary (LH)

884
Q

What is the Bohr-Haldane effect

A

Haldane - O2 and Bicarb come in. CO2 and H go out

Bohr - CO2 and H come in. O2 and Bicarb go out

885
Q

Where does the Bohr-Haldane effect occur

A

Haldane - Lungs

Bohr - Tissues

886
Q

In a DNR pt who is going into V fib, what should you do

A

Attend to the pt and make sure he’s comfortable

Don’t remove all the comfort care like supplemental O2 and pain meds

887
Q

What transplant rejection causes a dense lymphocytic infiltrate

A

Acute CMI: Host T cells against graft MHC

888
Q

What is the tx for transplant rejection

A

The Calcineurin inhibitors Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus

889
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the conversion of androgens to estrogens

A

Aromatase

890
Q

What disorder presents with ambiguous external genitalia in the female and virilization of the mother during pregnancy

A

Placental Aromatase Deficiency

891
Q

What pathogen causes myonecrosis (gas gangrene)

A

Clostridium perfringens

892
Q

In addition to myonecrosis (gas gangrene), what other condition can Clostridium perfringens cause

A

Food poisoining. Causes a late onset watery diarrhea following ingestion of spores and release of toxin

893
Q

What nerve palsy presents with tilting head away from affected side

A

Trochlear nerve palsy

894
Q

What nerve innervates the Superior oblique muscle

A

Trochlear nerve

895
Q

What disorder presents with vertical diplopia when walking downstairs or reading the newspper

A

Trochlear nerve palsy

Both those movements require adducted and dpressed eye movement

896
Q

What disorder is characterized by medullary thyroid cancer, pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuromas, and marfanoid habitus

A

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia 2B

897
Q

What is the mnemonic for the Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia and what is it used for

A

Used to distinguish the symptoms of each type

MEN1 has 1 P: Pituitary, Pancreas, Parathyroid

MEN2A has 2 P’s: Parathyroid, Pheochromocytoma

MEN2B has 3 P’s: Pheochromocytoma

898
Q

What is used to monitor the relationship between left ventricular volume and left ventricular pressure during both systole and diastole

A

Pressure volume loops

899
Q

What substances maintain normal blood glucose levels during fasting

A

Glucagon
Epinephrine
Growth hormone
Cortisol

900
Q

Which substance promotes gluconeogenesis, proteoysis, and lipolysis during fasting by binding to a cytoplasmic receptor to encourage transcription

A

Cortisol

901
Q

What type of transplant rejection results in mottled and cyanotic appearing tissue

A

Hyperacute

902
Q

What type of hypersensitivity response are each of the transplant rejections

A

Hyperacute - Type 2
Acute - Type 4
Chronic - Type 2 and 4
Graft Vs. Host - Type 4

903
Q

What disorder is characterized by weight loss, polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia

A

Diabetes mellitus type 1

904
Q

How is diabetes diagnosed

A

Fasting glucose > 126

HbA1C > 6.5%

905
Q

If a pt requests an abortion what should you NOT do

A

Encourage them to consider keeping the child. Let thm make their own decision

906
Q

If a pt asks you to perform a procedure for which you are trained but have conflicting morals about, what should you do

A

Refer them to someone else. You aren’t required to do something you don’t agree with

907
Q

As prevalence increases, what happens to PPV and NPV

A

PPV increases

NPV decreases

908
Q

What genetic abnormality results in Turners Syndrome

A

Paternal meiotic nondisjunction

909
Q

What disorder presents with short stature, horseshoe kidney, streak ovaries, and a broad chest

A

Turners

910
Q

What pathogen is characterized as a bacitracin resistant, beta hemolytic Gram + cocci in chains

A

Streptococcus agalactiae (GBS)

Staphlocci are in clusters so it must be strep
Strep pneumo is alpha hemolytic
Strep pyogenes (GAS) is not bacitracin resistant

911
Q

How is Group B strep prevented in neonates

A

Intrapartum penicillin or ampicillin

912
Q

What term describes a drop in systolic BP by at least 10 during inspiration

A

Pulsus paradoxus

913
Q

What disorder presents with JVD, distant heart sounds, and pulsus paradoxus

A

Cardiac tamponade

This is Beck’s Triad!

914
Q

When is Beck’s Triad seen

A

Cardiac tamponade

915
Q

What structure is most commonly injured by an impact injury to the anterior aspect of the knee

A

Patella

916
Q

Patellar fracture presents with what finding

A

Inability to extend the knee

Quadriceps tendon inserts on it and wraps around it going to the tibial tuberosity

917
Q

What disorder is characterized by anemia, thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, and DIC

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

Marrow replaced by immature myeloid cells

918
Q

What genetic abnormality results in Acute promyelocytic leukemia

A

t(15;17)

15 - Promyelocytic gene
17 - Retinoic acid receptor alpha gene

Fusion gene that inhibits differentiation of myeloblasts results

919
Q

What Hepatitis virus has a unique genome and what is it

A

Hep B

Partially double stranded DNA

920
Q

What is the pattern of nuclear replication in Hep B

A

Double stranded DNA

  • -> +RNA
  • -> Double stranded DNA progeny
921
Q

What are the signs of apoptosis occurring

A

Eosinophilia and pyknosis

922
Q

What are the substances involved in the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of apoptosis

A

Intrinsic - Cytochrome C

Extrinsic - Fas, TNF, or Perforin and granzymes from CD8 cells

923
Q

Shifting the Sensitivity Specificity graphs each outward results in what changes

A

Increased sensitivity and specificity

Smaller area of overlap which correlates with the false positive and negative region

924
Q

What disorder presents with redness, pain, and swelling of a joint

A

Synovitis (includes gout, septic arthritis, etc)

925
Q

What is the best next step in a pt with synovitis

A

Synovial fluid analysis

Want to rule out Septic arthritis as it is serious and could lead to loss of the joint or be fatal

926
Q

What is the mnemonic for DKA and what is it for

A

DKA is Deadly
Represents the signs and symptoms seen

Delirium
Kussmaul respirations (rapid/deep breathing)
Abdominal pain (N/V/D)

Deydration

Not part of the mnemonic, but fruity breath odor as well from ketones

927
Q

What are the compensatory changes done by the kidney in DKA

A

Increased bicarb reabsorbtion in the kidney
Increased H secretion in the kidney
Increased NH4 and H2PO4 secretion (buffers that allow additional H loss)

928
Q

What nerve provides innervation to the masseter, medial and lateral pterygoids, and temporalis

A

Mandibular division of Trigeminal N.

929
Q

Which foramen does each branch of the Trigeminal N. pass through

A

V1 - Superior orbital fissure
V2 - Foramen rotundum
V3 - Foramen ovale

930
Q

Jaw deviating to the left indicates a problem in what muscle

A

Left pterygoid

Results in unopposed action of the right pterygoids which pull the jaw to the opposite side

931
Q

What disorder presents with failure to thrive, developmental delay, megaloblastic anemia, elevated orotic acid levels in the urine, and normal ammonium levels

A

Orotic aciduria

932
Q

What is the tx for Orotic aciduria, the disorder of Uridine monophophate (UMP) synthase resulting in defective pyrimidine synthesis

A

Uridine

933
Q

UVA exposure causes wrinkles and loss of Rete ridges via what mechanism

A

Decreased collagen fibril production

Increased degradation of collagen and elastin

934
Q

What class of drugs are FLD for Schizophrenia

A

Antipsychotics

935
Q

What drug is used for treatment resistant Schizophrenia and what is its side effect

A

Clozapine

Agranulocytosis

Mnemonic: Watch marrow clozely for Clozapine

936
Q

What is the darkest region of the sarcomere

A

Z line

937
Q

What are all the portions of the sarcomere

A

Z line - Darkest region
M line - Center of H band/A band
A band- H band + overlapping actin
H band - Portion of the A band with only thick
I band - Contains actin portions of two sarcomeres. Z line is at the center

938
Q

What is the difference between direct and indirect Coombs Tests

A

Direct - Add Anti IgG to patients RBCs to see if there is any Ab bound to it. + indicates antibodies against patients OWN RBC’s are present. Careful, the Ab could be from mom as in the case of emolytic dz of the newborn. Not necessarily autoimmune

Indirect - Add RBC’s and Anti IgG to patients antibodies to see if if the patients Ab will bind to this foreign RBC. + indicates antibodies against DONORS RBC’s are present

939
Q

What disorder in a newborn may present with severe anemia and extramedullary hematopoiesis with a positive Direct Coombs Test

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis (Hemolytic Dz of the Newborn)

Direct Coombs means there is antibody bound to the RBC’s

940
Q

What nerve is most frequently damaged by a shoulder injury (anterior dislocation, humeral fracture)

A

Axillary

941
Q

In a pt presenting with loss of arm abduction, flattened deltoid, and loss of sensation over the lateral portion of the arm, what nerve might you expect is damaged

A

Axillary

942
Q

When would you use a chi square test

A

In a study that is not assessing means but instead looks at qualitative data

943
Q

If we are studying genes, what piece of nuclear material are we looking at

A

DNA

944
Q

What type of mutation is Sickle Cell Disease

A

Missense mutation

945
Q

During fasting, when do glycogenolysis and gluconeogensis occur

A

Glycogenolysis - First 12-18 hours

Gluconeogenesis - After Glycogenolysis

946
Q

What are the unidirectional enzymes of glycolysis

A

Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase

947
Q

What are the enzymes unique to Gluconeogenesis

A

Pyruvate carboxylase
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
Fructose-1,6-bisphophatase
Glucose-6-phosphatase

948
Q

In a pt with a history of GI bleeds and Hepatitis infxn who presents with AMS and asterixis, what might you suspect

A

Hepatic encephalopathy

949
Q

What is the problem in hepatic encephalopathy

A

Failure of the liver to metabolize ammonia

950
Q

What should you watch for in a patient who presents with hypotension, and cardiac tamponade following an MI

A

Free wall reupture

951
Q

How long after an MI does free wall rupture occur

A

3-14 days ish

952
Q

What puts one at risk for bacillus anthracis infxn

A

Occupational exposure to animals

953
Q

Which organism is a Gram positive rod that produces a black eschar

A

Bacillus anthracis

954
Q

What substance activates vWF to bin to GpIb on platelets

A

Ristocetin

955
Q

What disorders present with abnormal platelet aggregation with Ristocetin

A

vWF and Bernard Soulier syndrome

956
Q

What disorder has xray findings that include cephalization of the pulmonary vessels, perihilar alveolar edema, and pleural effusions

A

Acute Decompensated Heart Failure

957
Q

What is another name for diastolic heart failure

A

Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction

958
Q

What can lead to Diastolic heart failure

A

Transthyretin deposition

959
Q

What fungi form nonseptate hyphae that branch at right angles

A

Mucor, Rhizopus, and Absidia

960
Q

Differentiate Depersonalization/Derealization, Dissociative amnesia, and Dissociative identity disorder

A

Depersonalization/Derealization - Feelings of detachment from ones own body or ones environment

Dissociative amnesia - Inability to recall important personal information

Dissociative identity disorder - Multiple personality disorder

961
Q

What substance is used to caclulate renal blood flow

A

para-aminohippuric acid (PAH)

962
Q

What is the formula to calculate renal blood flow

A

[(Urine PAH x Urine flow rate) / Plasma PAH) / (1 - HCT)]

963
Q

What disorder has a quadruple screen and what does it show

A

Down Syndrome

Low Alpha feto protein
Low Estriol
High Beta HCG
High Inhibin Ae

964
Q

What conditions have low Alpha feto protein? high?

A

Low: Down syndrome

High: Neural tube defects. Abdominal wall defects (Gastroschisis and Omphalocele)

965
Q

In a pt that was vaccinated against Hep B, what serologic profile would you expect

A

Anti HBs +
Anti HBc IgM -
Anti HBc IgG -

966
Q

What serologic profile would you expect in a pt with active Hep B

A

HBsAg +

Acute and chronic have this. Chronic just means it’s been there for 6 months

967
Q

What portion of a gene affects the rate at which it is transcribed bybinding special activator or repressor proteins

A

Enhancers and Silencers

968
Q

Where are enhancer and silencer regions of a gene found

A

Anywhere, super far or close, upstream or downstream, sometimes in the gene itself

969
Q

What are the findings in Wiskott Aldrich

A

WATER

Wiskott Aldrich:
Thrombocytopenia (platelets unusually small too)
Eczema
Recurrent infxn

970
Q

What pathogens can cause intraerythrocytic ring inclusions

A

Plasmodium and Babesia

971
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Babesiosis

A

Ixodes tick

972
Q

Pyruvate kinase deficiency results in what

A

Hemolytic anemia

Can’t make pyruvate and thus no lactate either in RBCs. Also that step produces ATP typically so insufificient ATP

973
Q

Why is the spleen enlarged in hemolytic anemias

A

Red pulp hyperplasia from so much RBC destruxn

974
Q

What region of the brain is situated in the area postrema in the dorsal medulla near the floor of the 4th ventricle

A

CRTZ

975
Q

If a healthcare proxy names a friend to be the chief decision maker but the spouse disagrees with the end of life wishes, who should the doc listen to

A

The friend

976
Q

What disorder is characterized by disorientation, sweating, tremors, and palpitations

A

Hypoglycemia

977
Q

What are the main causes of hypoglycemia in pts with Type 1 DM

A

Too much insulin intake
Exercise
Inadequate food intake

Exercise mechanism: Exercise causes Glut-4 transporters to increase on SM just like insulin does. This is an insulin-independent form of glucose transport. –> Hypoglycemia. In normal people this will cause downregulation of insulin release, but DM 1 pts taking insulin have too much of a drop since insulin can’t be downregulated

978
Q

What should be suspected in a pt with a sudden increase in O2 saturation in the RV from the RA

A

VSD

979
Q

What murmur is heard in a VSD and where

A

Holosystolic murmur at the left sternal border (tricuspid area)

980
Q

What is the main problem with Tumor Lysis Syndrome

A

Hyperuricemia from excess purine breakdown

981
Q

What drug can help treat Tumor Lysis Syndrome by converting Uric acid (the normal last product of purine catabolism) to Allantoin

A

Rasburicase

982
Q

What are the protein groups that bind to DNA

A

Transcription factors
Steroid receptors (cortisol, aldosterone, etc)
Thyroid hormone receptors
Fat soluble vitamin receptors

983
Q

Progesterone is what type of hormone

A

Steroid hormone

984
Q

What is the benefit of a live vaccine

A

Stronger immune response elicited

985
Q

How does an oral vaccination differ from a regular intramuscular at 2 months

A

Results in better Duodenal luminal IgA production

Oral stimulates B cells in peyers patches which release IgA in lumen

986
Q

What enzyme catalyzes the conversion of Testosterone to DHT which can cause alopecia and BPH

A

5 alpha reductase

987
Q

What drug is used to treat BPH and alopecia by inhibiting 5 alpha reductase

A

Finasteride

988
Q

Chronic alcoholism leads to a decline in what substances

A

NADH - Inhibits pretty much all of glucose metabolism

Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) - Further inhibits certain steps of glulcose metabolism

Can lead to Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

989
Q

What disorder is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia

A

Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

990
Q

What steps of glucose metabolism require thiamine and thus can cause Wernicke’s Encephalopathy if glucose is given with alcohol (alcohol uses up thiamine also)

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

Transketolase uses also but that’s not glucose metabolism

991
Q

At what time periods following an MI does
1. The myocardium stop contracting due to cessation of aerobic glycolysis and takeover of anaerobic processes

  1. Is tissue irreversibly lost due to depletion of adenosine (ATP->AMP->Adenosine) in attempts to vasodilate
A
  1. Within 60 seconds

2. Around 30 minutes

992
Q

What muscle is located between Pec major and Latissimus dorsi at the mid axillary line

A

Serratus anterior

993
Q

What structures are pierced during placement of a chest tube in the 5th intercostal space

A

Serratus anterior
Intercostal muscles
Parietal pleurae

994
Q

What test is used to diagnose Cryptococcal meningitis

A

India ink stain of CSF

995
Q

What is the tx for Cryptococcal meningitis

A

Amphotericin B and Flucytosine followed by long term Fluconazole

996
Q

What substances can induce insulin resistance via serine residue phosphoryation resulting in inhibition of the steps following Insulin binding to Tyrosine Kinase

A

TNF alpha
Catecholamines
Glucocorticoids
Glucagon

997
Q

How do TNF alpha and other substances cause insulin resistance

A

Phosphorylate serine residues in the Tyrosine Kinase signaling pathway that Insulin typically triggers

998
Q

How can you increase the filtration fraction of the kidney? Hint: What is the formula

A

Increase GFR or Decrease Renal plasma flow

FF = GFR / RPF

999
Q

What is one way to increase filtration fraction of the kidney and decrease renal plasma flow

A

Constrict efferent arteriole

Causes an increase in Capillary hydrostatic pressure

1000
Q

How should you inquire about one’s sexual history appropriately?

A

Ask if they have had sex with men, women, or both.

Don’t assume one or the other. Don’t ask about relationships b/c we only care about sex. Don’t ask if they are heterosexual, bisexual, etc and force them to identify

1001
Q

What genes have been associated with Early and Late onset Alzheimer’s

A

Early: Amyloid precursor protein gene, Presenilin 1, Presenilin 2

Late: Apolipoprotein E4

1002
Q

What drug is used to treat both general tonic-clonic seizures and Absence seizures

A

Valproate

1003
Q

What is the fxn of Thiazide diuretics

A

Block Na/Cl symporter in DCT

1004
Q

What is an odd electrolyte finding of Thiazide diuretic use

A

HYPERcalcemia

It blocks Na/Cl symport into DCT so you would expect more Calcium to be excreted

1005
Q

What is it called when emotions are shifted from their aactual target to a neutral person or object

A

Displacement

1006
Q

How does displacement differ from transference

A

Transference is similar to displacement but it is toward a physician

1007
Q

What disorders can result from Haemophilus Influenzae Type B (These differ from the nontypable strains)

A

haEMOPhilus inlfuenzae type b

Epiglottitis
Meningitis
Otitis media
Pneumonia

1008
Q

What are the types of pain experienced during appendicitis

A

Initially - Visceral pain in the periumbilial region due to appendix stretching

Later - Somatic pain at McBurneys point due to irritation of the Parietal peritoneum

1009
Q

How does normal saline fix Hypovolemic shock

A

Increases preload and hence EDV

1010
Q

What occurs when End diastolic volume increases

A

The end diastolic sarcomere length is increased

As is the case when saline is added IV

1011
Q

What are some of the common causes of atrophy

A
Disuse
Denervation
Loss of blood supply
Loss of hormonal stimulation
Poor nutrition
1012
Q

What occurs in isotype switching

A
  1. CD4 cell binds B cell via CD40 ligand

2. Cytokines are released from CD4 cell that induce isotype switching

1013
Q

Where does Isotype switching occur

A

Germinal center

1014
Q

What regions of the brain are responsible for vomiting and what triggers them

A

Nucleus tractus solitarius - Vestibular nerves come here to induce vomiting. Also GI nerves (back of mouth and stomach) come here

Area postrema - Contains CRTZ where chemicals in the blood can induce vomiting. NOT via neurual stimulation like NTS

1015
Q

What hormone receptors are inhibited by Odansetron to treat Nausea and vomiting that results from GI receptors stimulating the NTS

A

Serotonin

1016
Q

Renal cell carcinoma is often associated with what genetic abnormality

A

Deletion or mutation of VHL (Von Hippel-Lindau) gene on Chromosome 3

1017
Q

What disorders often result from Chromosome 3 problems

A

Renal cell Carcinoma
Von Hippel-Lindau

Both are 3 words and are on Chrome 3

1018
Q

What receptor prevents death of tumor cells and what is it found on

A

Programmed Death Receptor on T cells binds binds to Programmed Death Ligand on Tumor cells preventing their death

1019
Q

A 5 year old girl who talks to her deceased grandmother in an empty chair every night can be diagnosed with what

A

Normal behavior

Kids don’t fully understand death until around 6 so this is a normal grief reaction

1020
Q

What antieemetic medication is used to target Serotonin receptors in the GI tract that act on Vagal afferents to induce the medulla to initiate vomiting

A

Odansetron

1021
Q

What classes of drugs should be used for the different types of vomiting

A

Serotonin receptor antagonists - Visceral nausea due to GI irritations such as gastroenteritis, chemotherapy, and general anesthesia

Antihistamines and Anticholinergics - Vestibular nausea

Dopamine antagonists - Migraine nausea

1022
Q

What phase of the cell menstrual cycle is characterized by dilated coiled endometrial glands and vascularized edematous stroma

A

Secretory phase (Days 15-28)

Proliferative phase is Days 1-14

1023
Q

What hormone is responsible for producing dilated coiled endometrial glands and vascularized edematous stroma

A

Progesterone

1024
Q

What disorder is characterized by muscle weakness, pseudohypertrophy of the calves, and Gower maneuver

A

Duchenne Muscular dystrophy

Gower maneuver is using the hands to stand up

1025
Q

What is the abnormality that results in Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

Frameshift or nonsense mutation resulting in a truncated dystrophin protein

1026
Q

On a CXR, what structure forms the entire right border of the heart and borders the Right middle lobe

A

Right Atrium

SVC and IVC’s are much higher and much lower

1027
Q

How does acute mitral regurg affect preload, afterload, and ejection fraction

A

Preload increases b/c RA increases from backward blood flow pushing it into ventricle

Afterload decreases b/c blood can shoot into lower resistance atrium now

Ejection fraction increases b/c preload increases and afterload decreases

1028
Q

What disorder might you suspect in someone with a rapidly progressing fever, drooling, sore throat, and airway obstruction

A

Acute epiglottitis

1029
Q

What are the Cytochrome P-450 inducers

A

Chronic alcoholics Steal Phen-Phen and Never Refuse Greasy Carbs

Chronic alcohol use
St. John's wort
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
Nevirapine
Rifampin
Griseofulvin
Carbamazepine
1030
Q

How can you identify the esophagus on CT

A

It is between vertebral bodies and trachea and has no visible lumen

(the trachea does have a visible lumen meaning you will see black air space in there)

1031
Q

What immune cells are responsible for initially fighting off TB infxn

A

TH1 and Macrophages

1032
Q

What is one of the main complications of elevated triglycerides

A

Pancreatitis

Normal pancratic lipases that accidentally leak out may cause FA formation which damages the pancreas

1033
Q

What are the best drugs for hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrates:
Gemfibrozil
Bezafibrate
Fenofibrate

1034
Q

What is the tx of choice for an individual diagnosed with specific phobia

A

Behavioral therapy

1035
Q

What term is used to describe the situation where individuals are systematically confronted with their feared object or situation

A

Behavioral therapy

1036
Q

What is the most common cause of alopecia in men and women

A

Androgenetic alopecia

1037
Q

What factors predispose to androgenetic alopecia

A

The name gives it away…

Androgens and Genetics (multiple genes actually; it is polygenic)

1038
Q

Ibuprofen and other NSAIDS prevent formation of what substance

A

Prostaglandins

1039
Q

What do loop diuretics do

A

Block Na-K-2Cl channels causing their loss
Increase Prostaglandin release resulting in vasodilation and more renal plasma flow

Hence why NSAIDS can decrease the effectiveness of Loop diuretics

1040
Q

What disorder is characterized by symmetric proximal muscle weakness with numerous MHC 1 molecules and CD8 cells seen on biopsy

A

Polymyositis

1041
Q

What organism is an important cause of UTIs and is labeled as gamma hemolytic meaning it does not cause hemolysis when grown on blood agar

A

Enterococcus

1042
Q

Defects in what system can lead to Parkinsons or Alzheiemers

A

Ubiquitin proteasome

1043
Q

What is the FLD for Narcolepsy

A

Modafanil

1044
Q

What is the appropriate next step for close contacts of a pt with Neisseria meningitidis

A

Administer prophylactic Rifampin (main one), Ciprofloxacin, or Ceftriaxone

1045
Q

What disorder is characterized by elevated ACE, hypercalcemia, bilateral hilar adenopathy, and non caseating granulomas

A

Sarcoidosis

ACE and Ca are elevated b/c granuloma produces ACE and Vit D

1046
Q

What disorder shows an elevated CD4/CD8 ratio in broncheolar lavage fluid

A

Sarcoidosis

1047
Q

What disorder is characterized by failure to thrive, jaundice, vomiting, hepatomegaly, within days of birth along with infantile cataracts

A

Classic Galactosemia

1048
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Classic Galactosemia

A

AR

1049
Q

Which disorders are characterized by a gain of function mutation in the cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase Jak2 STAT pathway causing it to be constantly active

A

Myeloproliferative disorders

1050
Q

What are the myeloproliferative disorders

A

Polycythemia vera
Essential thrombocythemia
Myelofibrosis
CML (kinda?) not sure about this one..

1051
Q

What drugs are used to treat C. dif and which is best for recurrent infxns

A

Metronidazole
Vancomycin
Fidaxomicin (best for recurrent infxn)

1052
Q

What veins fuse to form the IVC

A

Right and left common iliac veins

1053
Q

Findings of reddish pink globules on PAS stain in hepatocytes indicates what dysfunction

A

Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency

They are synthesized in the liver and can accumulate there causing cirrhosis or hepatocellular carcinoma in addition to its usual effx of emphysema

1054
Q

During what phase of the cardiac cycle is blood flow halted

A

Systole

1055
Q

Where in the heart does blood flow hault during systole

A

LV b/c it contracts so much compressing the vessels

1056
Q

What drug inhibits viral DNA polymerase, RNA polymerase, and Reverse transciptase and does not require activation

A

Foscarnet

1057
Q

How do Bipolar 1 and Bipolar 2 disorder differ

A

Bipolar 1 - At least 1 manic episode w or w/o hypomania or depression

Bipolar 2 - Hypomanic AND depressive episode

If an individual has mania (not hypomania), it is bipolar 1. If not, they have bipolar 2

1058
Q

How do manic episodes differ from hypomanic episodes

A

Hypomanic are less severe, do not involve psychosis, and individuals are often more productive

1059
Q

What cardiac anomalies are associated with Turners

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

Coarctation of the aorta

1060
Q

What EKG leads correspond to what arteries in determining the source of an MI

A

V1-V4 - Left anterior descending
V5-V6 - Borderline LAD or LCX
1 and AVL - LCX
2, 3, and AVF - RCA

Think about this. It’s not that hard

1061
Q

What disorder presents with progressive neurodegeneration, hepatosplenomegaly, foam cells, and a cherry red spot on the macula

A

Niemann Pick Disease

Foam cells are lipid laden macrophages

1062
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Niemann PIck Disease

A

Sphingomyelinase

No man picks (Niemann Picks) his nose with his sphinger (sphingomyelinase)

1063
Q

What are the Lysosomal Storage Diseases

A
Fabry
Gaucher
Niemann Pick
Tay Sachs
Krabbe
Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
Hurler Syndrome
Hunter Syndrome
1064
Q

What pathogen can cause flatulence and fatty foul smelling diarrhea in campers/hikers

A

Giardia lamblia

1065
Q

What is the tx for Giardia

A

Metronidazole

1066
Q

What disorder is characterized by mental status changes, muscle weakness, constipation, and polyuria/polydipsia

A

Hypercalcemia

1067
Q

Much like a Vit D overdose, what disorder can present with hypercalcemia

A

Sarcoidosis

Contains 1 alpha hydroxylase which converts Vit D storage form to Calcitriol (active form)

1068
Q

Bee stings induce what type of hypersensitivity response

A

Type 1

1069
Q

How do initial and subsequent exposures to an allergen differ in Type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Initial - IgM starts switching to IgE

Subsequent - IgE crosslinks and has histamine release with wheal and flare

1070
Q

What disorder presents with facial palsy, cardiac block, and arthritis

A

Lyme disease

Key Lyme Pie to the FACE:
Facial palsy
Arthritis
Cardiac block
Erythema migrans
1071
Q

What drugs can be used to treat Lyme dz

A

Doxycycline or penicillin type antibiotics (Ceftriaxone)

1072
Q

What drugs are used for treatment and prophylaxis for DVT and PE and stroke prophylaxis in patients with A fib

A

Coagulation factor Xa inhibitors ApiXaban and rivaroXaban

1073
Q

What might you suspect in an individual with headaches, papilledema, and transient vision losses that occur during valsalva like bending over or lifting heavy objects

A

Pseudotumor cerebri (Idiopathic intracranial hypertension)

1074
Q

What causes the blurred optic disc margins in pseudotumor cerebri

A

Compression of CN2 by elevated ICP which results in reduced axoplasmic flow

1075
Q

What should you do if you are asked to obtain informed consent from a pt regarding a procedure that you have never done before

A

Ask the main resident or the attending to obtain the informed consent

You must be able to describe the procedure from experience, answer pt questions, and inform them of the risks and benefits

1076
Q

What disorder might you suspect in an individual with recurrent pulmonary and/or GI infxns and an anaphylacticc response on blood transfusion

A

Selective IgA deficiency

1077
Q

What disorder is characterized by defective calcium sensing requiring higher than normal levels of Ca required to suppress PTH resulting in high serum Ca and low urine Ca

A

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

1078
Q

Calcium sensing receptors in the parathyroid are what type of receptors

A

G protein coupled receptors

1079
Q

What should you do if you make a mistake with a pt

A

Let them know you made an error, even if it wasn’t a big deal and they didn’t mind it

1080
Q

Which enzyme has a lot more work to do on the lagging strand of DNA

A

DNA ligase

1081
Q

When anesthesia is administered between the anterior and middle scalenes prior to arm surgeries in order to numb the brachial plexus and arm, what muscle is often transienty paralyzed

A

Diaphragm

C3-C5 nerve roots are near there

1082
Q

What pathogen causes pseudomembranous pharyngitis with a grayish white membrane

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

1083
Q

How does Corynebacterium diphtheriae gain the ability to cause disease

A

Lysogenization in which phage gives it the ability to produce toxin

1084
Q

What heart defect can produce a holosystolic mumur best heard at the apex

A

Mitral regurgitation

1085
Q

What tye of mitral regurg can occur due to hemodynamic changes such as LV dilation in response to increased preload? How is it fixed

A

Functional mitral regurg

Diuretics

1086
Q

What drugs are contraindicated during pregnancy due to their ability to stain the child’s teeth

A

Tetracyclines

1087
Q

Where are Nicotinic receptors found

A

NM jxn, ganglia, and Adrenal medulla

1088
Q

What are the symptoms of organophosphate poisoining

A

DUMBELS

Diarrhea/Diaphoresis
Urination
Miosis
Bronchospasm/Bronchorrhea/Bradycardia
Emesis
Lacarimation
Salivation

Organophosphates inhibit Acetylcholinesterase
Sidenote: All the above are muscarinic actions of Ach which can be reversed by Atropine

1089
Q

What drugs reverse the cholinergic toxidrome and how do they differ

A

Atropine - Competitively inhibits Muscarinic receptors so less Ach binds
Pralidoxime - Restores AchEsterase thus more Ach is broken down

1090
Q

What disorder is characterized by linear intensely pruritic vesicles that often appear on the hands and legs

A

Poison ivy dermatitis (Form of contact dermatitis)

1091
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is Contact dermatitis

A

Type 4

1092
Q

What drugs are infamous for causing dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Anthracyclines (Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin)

1093
Q

What drug is classified as a depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug with phase 1 showing equal but diminished contractions and phase 2 showing progressively fading muscle contractions

A

Succinylcholine

1094
Q

What is the differential for vaginitis and the pathogens that cause each

A

Bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis

Trichomoniasis caused by Trichomonas vaginalis

Candida vaginitis caused by Candida albicans

1095
Q

What are vaginal epithelial cells covered with gram variable rods called

A

Clue cells

1096
Q

What should you do if a pt has metabolic acidosis and their Respiratory compensation doesn’t seem to have occurred? (CO2 hasn’t dropped)

A

Calculate Winters formula to see if their is a mixed acid base problem

If CO2 is higher than it should be according to formula, there is respiratory acidosis going on also

If lower than it should be, respiratory alkalosis going on also

1097
Q

How do you calculate Winters formula and when is it used

A

PCO2 = 1.5(HCO3) + 8 +/- 2

Used in cases of metabolic acidosis to see if there is respiratory acidosis or alkalosis going on also suggesting a mixed acid base disorder

1098
Q

Which ribosomes synthesize cytosolic proteins and which synthesize membrane/secreted proteins

A

Free ribosomes - Cytosolic proteins (Think about it, they are free so they like it here and will stay!)

Bound ribosomes - Membrane/secreted proteins

1099
Q

What prevents proper ascent of horseshoe kidney

A

Inferior mesenteric artery

1100
Q

What is the diff between HbC and HbS

A

HbS has glutamic acid swapped with valine as opposed to lysine in HbC. Since lysine is polar like glutamic acid, it’s NBD. Valine however is nonpolar and thus interacts with other nonpolar groups on other Hb molecules leading to polymerization and sickling

1101
Q

What disorder presents with a photosensitive skin rash, confusion/forgetfulness, and diarrhea

A

Pellagra (Vit B3 deficiency)

The 3D’s of Vitamin B3
Dementia, Dermatitis, and Diarrhea

1102
Q

What enzymes in the citric acid cycle require NAD and are thus affected in Pellagra (Vit B3 deficiency)

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Malate dehydrogenase

1103
Q

Where in the LN are T cells and B cells found

A

T cells - Paracortex

B cells - Germinal centers and follicles in the cortex

1104
Q

Is UV the same as ionizing radiation?

A

No, Ionizing radiation is much stronger. UV is a form of NON IONIZING radiation

1105
Q

How does ionizing radiation cause damage to cancer cells

A

Causes double stranded DNA breaks and free radical formation

1106
Q

When determining acid base imbalances and checking for metabolic compensation, what must you always remember

A

Metabolic compensation occurs only after about 48 hours

1107
Q

In a pt with calf swelling and dyspnea who has a PE, what would you suspect the O2 to be in the blood

A

Low!

PE causes hypoxemia b/c lungs are not perfused properly and just return straight back to the heart without going through their normal region

1108
Q

The external auditory canal is supplied by what nerve

A

Mandibular division of Trigeminal (V3) for everything except the posterior portion which is the Vagus

Hence why rubbing against the back of the external auditory canal can cause vasovagal response in some during speculum exam

1109
Q

In a pt who presents with decreased muscle strength and loss of reflexes who previously had diarrhea, what pathogen might ou suspect

A

Campylobacter jejuni

It causes diarrhea and Guillan Barre

1110
Q

In individuals with lactase deficiency, how does the bowel appear

A

Normal!

Unless it is a secondary lactase deficiency due to Crohns or Celiacs or something

1111
Q

What do Penicillins and Cephalosporins bind to in order to exert their antibiotic effects

A

The penicillin binding protein Transpeptidase

Prevents transpeptidase from crosslinking peptidoglycans in the cell wall

1112
Q

What is one of the main ways that resistance can be achieved against Cephalosporins

A

Changes in transpeptidase (penicilling bindin protein) structure

1113
Q

What disorder is characterized by inappropriate laughter, sedation, conjunctival injection, dry mouth, increased appetite, and tachycardia

A

Marijuana intoxication

1114
Q

What is the structure most commonly injured during hysterectomy that results in unilateral flank pain but normal urination

A

Ureter

1115
Q

What disorder is characterized by a high arched palate and atrophic ovaries

A

Turners

1116
Q

What organism is a gram - rod, a non lactose fermenter, and oxidase positive

A

Pseudomonas aueriginosa

1117
Q

What are the oxidase + gram - organisms

A

Pseudomonas
Campylobacter jejuni
Vibrio
Helicobacter

Pseudomonas and the curved rods

1118
Q

What disorder is associated with tampons or nasal packing

A

Toxic Shock syndrome

1119
Q

What disorder is characaterized by a desquamating rash, fever, hypotension, and end organ failure resulting in elevated AST, elevated ALT, and other elevated serum lab values

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

1120
Q

Toxic shock syndrome toxin is a super antigen that does what

A

Binds TCR on T cells and MHC2 on APC’s leading to widespread macrophage and T cell activation

1121
Q

Why does eukaryotic DNA replicate much faster than prokaryotic DNA despite being much larger and complex

A

Multiple origins of replication

1122
Q

What disorder is characterized by hypotension, DIC, hypoxia, and even death and occurs during pregnancy or delivery

A

Amniotic fluid embolus

1123
Q

What laboratory finding will be seen in a pt with an amniotic fluid emboli

A

Fetal squamous cells in pulmonary artery branch

1124
Q

What disorder is characterized by fever, flushing, dry oral mucosa, dilated pupils, and confusion

A

Anticholinergic toxidrome from drug overdose

Hot as a hare
Mad as a hatter
Red as a beet
Dry as a bone
Blind as a bat
1125
Q

What drugs commonly cause Anticholinergic toxidrome during overdose

A
Antihistamines
Tricyclic antidepressants (Amitriptyline)
1126
Q

What is the mechanism by which fibrates (gemfibrozil, bezafibrate, fenofibrate) work

A

Promote LPL and reduce hepatic VLDL production

1127
Q

Spliceosomes which remove introns are formed from what substance

A

small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs)

1128
Q

What nerve is damaged in an individual with an absent patellar reflex, hip flexion weakness, knee extension weakness, and loss of sensation over the anterior aspect of the thigh

A

Femoral N.

1129
Q

What are the nerves of the lower extremity

A
Obturator (L2-L4)
Femoral (L2-L4)
Common peroneal (L4-S2)
Tibial (L4-S3)
Superior gluteal (L4-S1)
Inferior gluteal (L5-S2)
1130
Q

Candida albicans is often suggestive of what

A

HIV which is obtained through sexual intercourse

1131
Q

In an emergency situation with a minor, what should you do

A

Always provide life saving therapy to minors. Challenge parents who diagree and possibly seek court order

1132
Q

Should you administer blood to a mother and child who the father says are Jehovah’s witnesses

A

Yes, unless they have their card on them that says they are Jehovahs witness and that they refuse blood

1133
Q

What process results in X inactivation in normal females

A

Methylation of one X chromosome

Results in heterochromatin and barr body formation of that chromosome which hangs out as a condensed body of heavily methylated DNA on the preiphery of the nuc

1134
Q

What drug is effective in the treatment of oral candidiasis by swishing and swallowing it

A

Nystatin

1135
Q

What is the MOA of Nystatin in treating non systemic candidal infxns

A

Bindsd ergosterol in fungal membrane causing pores to form with leakage of electrolytes

1136
Q

What happens to majority of the potassium filtered by the glomerulus

A

It is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule and ascending limb of the loop of henle

1137
Q

What cells are responsible for maintaining potassium levels

A

Principal cells and alpha intercalated cells in the DCT and collecting duct

Principal - Secrete K during hyperkalemia
Alpha intercalated - Reabsorb K during hypokalemia

1138
Q

What disorder is characterized by a mosaic pattern of woven and lamellar bone

A

Paget disease of bone

1139
Q

What are the stages of Paget disease of bone

A

Lytic - Osteoclast activity (Initially OsteoCLASTS)
Mixed - Osteoclast and osteoblasts
Sclerotic - Osteoblasts

1140
Q

What drug blocks the main complication of vasospasm which often can occur following a subarachnoid hemorrhage? What class is it?

A

Nimodapine, a calcium channel blocker, prevents vasospasm (narrowing) and thus infarct

1141
Q

What cells are infected by EBV in Mononucleosis

A

B cells

1142
Q

What cells appear atypical in Mononucleosis

A

CD8+ Cytoxic T cells

Proliferate in order to handle infected B cells. They appear bigger and their shape conforms to the borders of the surrounding cells

1143
Q

What health insurance has low monthly premiums and low copays and deductibles

A

Health maintenance organization

1144
Q

What is the downside of a Health Maintenance Organization insurance plan

A

Limited providers
Requires referral
They can deny payment for things that don’t meet guidelines

1145
Q

What class of anti HIV drugs all end in -navir

A

Protease inhibitors

1146
Q

What class of drugs have side effects which include lipodystrophy (fat accumulating in back and abdomen; buffalo hump appearance), hyperglycemia, and drug-drug interactions from CytP450 inhibition

A

Protease inhibitors

1147
Q

What disorder is characterized by cardiomegaly, macroglossia, and hypotonia

A

Pompe disease

1148
Q

What are the gycogen storage diseases and which enzyme is defective in ech

A

Von Gierke - Glucose-6-phosphate
Pompe Disease - Alpha-1,4-glucosidase
Cori Disease - Alpha-1,6-glucosidase (Debranching enzyme)
McArdle Disease - Myophosphorylaseh

1149
Q

Blood transfusion puts an individual at risk for what

A

Hypocalcemia (paresthesias will be seen)

1150
Q

Why can blood transfusion cause hypocalcemia

A

Contains lots of citrate which is a Calcium chelator

1151
Q

How can a woman with Turners Syndrome become pregnant

A

In vitro fertilization with a donated ovum

1152
Q

What are the 4 segments of the urethra

A

Prostatic
Membranous
Bulbous
Penile

1153
Q

What injuries put the anterior and posterior urethra at risk

A

Posterior - Pelvic fracture puts membranous urethra at risk

Anterior - Straddle injury puts bulbar and penile urethra at risk

1154
Q

What pathogen produces pyocyanin pigment giving it a green blue color on culture

A

Pseudomonas aureginosa

1155
Q

What is the agent of hot tub folliculitis

A

Pseudomonas aureginosa

1156
Q

What drugs and class of drugs is used in diabetes pts by binding to PPAR gamma, a nuclear transcription regulator to increase insulin sensitivity

A

Thiazolidinediones

Poglitazone
Rosiglitazone

1157
Q

Increased erythropoietin production is seen in what conditions

A

Hypoxic conditions (COPD can cause it)

1158
Q

What are the 4 main neutrophil chemotactic factors

A

Leukotriene B4
C5a
IL-8
5-HETE (Leukotriene precursor)

1159
Q

What disorder is characterized by EKG findings which include absent P waves, irregularly irregular rhythm, and a narrow qrs

A

Atrial fibrillation

1160
Q

What determinnes the rate of ventricular contraction in a fib

A

The rate at which the AV node repolarizes

1161
Q

What infection can commonly lead to infertility in a woman

A

PID following cervicitis

1162
Q

What are the pathogens that cause cervicitis and PID and what are their treatments

A

Neisseria gonorrhea - Cephalosporin

Chlamydia trachomatis - Azithromycin or Doxycycline

1163
Q

Homocysteine makes what AAs

A

Methionine

Cysteine

1164
Q

Homocystinuria results in a deficiency in what enzyme leading to a builldup of methionine

A

Cystathionine synthase

1165
Q

What equation is used to find carrier frequency, disease frequency, and gene/allele frequency when one of the variables is known

A

Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium

p + q = 1
p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

1166
Q

What set of disorders are haracterized by lack of social engagement, repetitive play, and insistence on a pattern

A

Autism spectrum disorders

1167
Q

What drug is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its ability to cause neural tube by decreasing folate levels

A

Valproate

1168
Q

Valproic acid is used to treat what

A

Epilepsy, bipolar disorder, and migraines

1169
Q

What enzyme is deficient in Severe combined immunodeficiency

A

Adenosine deaminase

1170
Q

What toxic substance accumulates in lymphocytes in individuals with SCID

A

Adenosine

1171
Q

What increases the chances of a woman getting epithelial ovarian cancer

A

Ovulation

1172
Q

What things decrease the chance of a woman getting epithelial ovarian cancer

A

Pregnancy, oral contraceptive use, and breastfeeding

All prevent ovulation

1173
Q

Which portion of the visual field nerve track is damaged if there is damage to the temporal lobe

A

Meyer’s loop

1174
Q

Damage to the Right temporal lobe that damages Meyer’s loop results in what visual condition

A

Left upper homonymous quadrantanopia

Upper left 1/4 of each eye’s visual field missing

1175
Q

What disorder is characterized by flushed skin, dry mucosa, blurred vision, and a fast heart rate and respiratory rate

A

Anticholinergic toxidrome

1176
Q

What substance can cause a anticholinergic toxidrome to occur and what can treat it

A

Atropine - Causes it by being a muscarinic antagonist

Physostigmine - Treats it by being a acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

1177
Q

What term is used to describe the tendency of 2 alleles from different loci occuring together more or less frequently than would be expected based on chance

A

Linkage disequilibrium

1178
Q

How should older patients be addressed

A

By their last name unless otherwise indicated

1179
Q

What disorder is characterized by bleeding gums, corkscrew hairs, and perifollicular hemorrhages

A

Scurvy

1180
Q

Where in the cell does Vitamin C exert its effect

A

RER

It is a cofactor in the hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues which occurs in the RER

1181
Q

What are the 4 steps of Leukocyte extravasation and there associtaed cytokine things

A

Margination and rolling - E selectin on endothelium binds Sialyl lewis

Tight binding - ICAM (Intercellular cell adhesion molecules) on endothelium binds CD18 integrins LFA1 and Mac1

Diapedesis - PECAM1 (Platelet endothelial CAM)

Margination - Travels through interstitium

1182
Q

How do GFR and serum Creatinine levels correlate

A

As GFR decreases, serum creatinine increases. This is not linear however!! Graph has a curved L shape with significant changes occuring once GFR drops below a certain level

1183
Q

What are the 4 tips to keep in mind when ID’ing spinal cord level based on cross sxn

A
  1. FC and FG are both only found above T7
  2. Gray matter decreases as you go up
  3. Cervical and Lumbar have fat ventral horn
  4. Thoracic and upper lumbar have lateral horn
1184
Q

Which two pathogens cause virulence by upregualating cylic AMP (that is the normal fxn of adenylate cyclase)

A

Bacillus anthracis - Edema factor

Bordatella pertussis - Pertussis toxin

1185
Q

What pathogen is associated with hoofed animals like sheeps wool

A

Bacillus anthracis

1186
Q

What fundoscopic findings are seen on a pt with glaucoma

A

Increased cupping

1187
Q

What drug is used to treat glaucoma

A

Latanoprost - A prostaglandin that increases aqueous humor outflow

1188
Q

What are the 4 findings in TOF

A

Pulmonic stenosis
Right V hypertrophy
Overriding aorta
VSD

1189
Q

What is the main indicator for prognosis in TOF

A

Degree of pulmonic stenosis

1190
Q

What is the bioavailability of a drug that is administered IV

A

1

1191
Q

How do you calculate the maintenance dose needed to administer for a particular drug

A

(Clearance x Plasma conc at steady state x dosage interval if not continuous) / Bioavailability

Dosage interval would be like if the question asked how much you would give every 6 hours

1192
Q

What marker in Hep B indicates current infxn

A

HBsAg

1193
Q

What marker for Hep B indicates high Hep B transmissibility

A

HBeAg

1194
Q

What is the normal alveolar to arterial PO2 gradient

A

5-15mmHg

1195
Q

What would you suspect to be the cause of hypoxemia in a pt with low alveolar O2 and low arterial O2 but a normal alveolar to arterial O2 gradient

A

Hypoventilation

1196
Q

What disorder is depicted by a infant with flat facies, small ears, and a protruding tongue

A

Down Syndrome

1197
Q

What is the most common cause of Down Syndrome

A

Nondisjunction

1198
Q

What histologic change to the adrenal cortex occurs in response to ACTH

A

Hyperplasia! not Hypertrophy

1199
Q

What are the layers of the adrenal cortex and what is produced at each layer

A

GFR makes Salt, Sugar, and Sex

Glomerulosa - Aldosterone
Fasciculata - Cortisol
Reticularis - Androgens

1200
Q

What tumor often affects CN 7, 8, and 5

A

Acoustic Schwannoma

1201
Q

Where are acoustic schwannomas most commonly found

A

Cerebellopontine angle

1202
Q

What pathogen can cause Ecthyma gangrenosum in immunocompromised individuals which has necrotic cutaneous lesions

A

Pseudomonas aeruiginosa

1203
Q

What value is unaffected by the formation of methemoglobinemia when nitrites are administered

A

Partial pressure of O2

This is calculated based on the amount of dissolved O2 in the blood so it stays the same

1204
Q

Serotonin is a derivative of what molecule

A

Tryptophan

Tryptophan leads to the production of Niacin and Serotonin

1205
Q

What disorder is characterized by neuromuscular activation like clonus, AMS, and autonomic activation (vomiting, hyperthermia, tachycardia, etc.)

A

Serotonin syndrome

1206
Q

What drug is used to treat serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine

Michael Scott “silly signs prohibited!”

1207
Q

What is it called when a person has an immune reaction to a drug

A

Anaphylaxis (Type 1 hypersensitivity)

1208
Q

What substances do you expect to be increased in the blood in a pt with anaphylaxis

A

Tryptase

Mast cell degranulation is what causes Anaphylaxis and Tryptase and Histamine are the main things released

1209
Q

What causes the release of mast cell granules

A

Aggregation of IgE

1210
Q

What are the retroperitoneal organs

A

SAD PUCKER

Suprarenal glands (Adrenals)
Aorta and IVC
Duodenum (except 1st part)
Pancreas (head and body)
Ureters and bladder
Colon (ascending and descending)
Kidneys
Esophagus
Rectum (mid-distal)
1211
Q

If someone asks you whether another person (who really is your patient) is your patient or not, what should you say

A

I cannot confirm or deny that the individual is my patient

Don’t say yes, but don’t lie and say no either

1212
Q

What is the main stimulator of respiration in healthy individuals

A

PCO2

1213
Q

In pts with COPD, what is the main region that regulates respiratory drive

A

Peripheral chemoreceptors (Carotid and aortic chemoreceptors)

These chemoreceptors respond to PO2 unlike the central chemoreceptors and is important in pts with COPD that have a chronically high CO2 and thus don’t respond well to that, and only respond to changes in O2

1214
Q

What substance activates pyruvate carboxylase (the enzyme responsible for converting pyruvate to oxaloacetate in the first step of gluconeogenesis)

A

Acetyl CoA

1215
Q

What organism forms black colonies on cysteine-tellurite agar

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

1216
Q

What immune cells contain a bilobed nucleus

A

Eosinophils

1217
Q

What substance do eosinophils produce that has activity against helminths and can cause bronchial damage in asthma pts

A

Major basic protei

1218
Q

What substance is increased in response to Ace inhibitor use

A

Bradykinin

Angiotensin converting enzyme typically breaks down Bradykinin

1219
Q

What is an adverse result of bradykinin accumulation in pts on ace inhibitors

A

Angioedema (swelling of kips, eyelids, tongue etc.)

Bradykinin is a vasodilator

1220
Q

With the use of inhaled anesthetics, blood flow increases to what region of the body

A

Brain

Causes decrease in vascular resistance and thus an undesirable increase in blood flow

1221
Q

What substances are released from virally infected cells

A

Interferon alpha and beta

1222
Q

What effect do IFN alpha and beta have on virally infected cells

A

Halt protein synthesis

1223
Q

What cells display both CD4 and CD8 markers

A

Immature cortical T lymphocytes

1224
Q

What fungus is capable of causing sepsis via entrance with a venous catheter

A

Candida albicans (Candidemia)

1225
Q

What can cause hyperosmotic volume contraction with an increase in osmolarity and a decrease in both intracellular and extracellular fluid volume

A

Diabetes insipidus

1226
Q

What substance is filtered by the glomerulus and secreted in the proximal tubule resulting in an amount filtered < amount excreted

A

Para aminohippuric acid

1227
Q

Where is Para aminohippuric acid concentration lowest in the nephron

A

Bowmans capsule

Additional PAH is secreted by PCT and it is not reabsorbed anywhere so lowest at the point before it is secreted

1228
Q

What nerve can be damaged by a stretch injury during childbirth

A

Pudendal nerve (S2-S4)

1229
Q

In an individual presenting with fecal incontinence, urinary incontinence, and sexual dysfunction, what might you suspect to be the suspect

A

Pudendal nerve (S2-S4) injury

Common following labor due to a stretch injury

1230
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for suicide in a pt

A

A previous suicide attempt

1231
Q

What condition results in night blindness and dry scaly skin

A

Vitamin A deficiency

1232
Q

What can lead to a Vitamin A deficiency

A

Bile obstruction
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency
Crohns etc

Remember, it’s a fat soluble vitamin

1233
Q

What is the MOA of Canagliflozin

A

It is an SGLT2 inhibitor (Sodium glucose cotransporter 2)

This occurs in the nephron typically. Inhibition leads to glucose loss hence it is a tx for DM2

1234
Q

What labs must you obtain before and after administration of an SGL2 inhibitor

A

Creatinine and BUN to assess renal fxn

1235
Q

What structure allows tumor cells to form resistance against chemotherapeutic agents

A

P glycoprotein

It is an efflux pump to pump toxins out of the cell

1236
Q

What substance is responsible for allowing the activation of IL 2 in T cells and their proliferation

A

Calcineurin

Target of immunosupressants Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus

1237
Q

What tissue constricts in response to low oxygen and dilates in response to high oxygen

A

Lungs

They want blood to go where the O2 is so it can pick it up. This is called hypoxic vasoconstrixn

1238
Q

The O2 disassociation curve for a single monomer of hemoglobin (single beta unit for example of the a2b2 Hemoglobin A structure) would look like what

A

Hyperbolic graph like Myoglobin

1239
Q

What is a common cause of falls in elderly nursing home patients

A

Medication

1240
Q

In a pt that presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, edema,and a diffuse skin rash, what might you suspect

A

DRESS Syndrome

Drug rxn with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms

1241
Q

What is the exact cause of DRESS Syndrome and what might you expect to find in a pt with DRESS syndrome

A

Phenytoin and other seizure meds (mainly phenytoin)

Eosinophilia would be expected (Name gives it away: Drug rxn with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms)

1242
Q

Sudden onset vertigo with nausea/vomiting and difficulty walking is most commonly due to dysfunction with what

A

Inner ear (vestibular dysfxn)

1243
Q

What disorder is characterized by morning stiffness and fusion of the SI joints and a bamboo spine

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

1244
Q

What are the seronegative arthropathies and what are they associated with

A

PAIR

Psoriatic arthritis
Ankylosing spondylitis
IBD
Reactive arthritis

Associated with HLA B27, an MHC class 1 serotype

Sidenote: Their name tells you that they are negative for rheumatoid factor (IgM against IgG)

1245
Q

What drug can be used to treat glaucoma by decreasing the production of aqueous humor

A

Timolol

1246
Q

Where does Timolol act on to treat glaucoma

A

Ciliary body epithelium

Causes it to produce less aqueous humor

1247
Q

In a child complaining of bone pain in a long bone, what might you suspect

A

Osteomyelitis

1248
Q

What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis

A

Staph aureus infxn

1249
Q

What hyperbilirubinemia disorder might you suspect in a newborn with seizures, lethargy, and rigidity?

What are all the hyperbilirubinemia disorders

A

Crigler Najjar (symptoms describe kernicterus)

The 3 are:
Gilbert Syndrome
Crigler-Najjar
Dubin Johnson

1250
Q

What is the biochemical defect in Crigler Najjar

A

Absent UDP glucuronosyltransferase so bilirubin cannot be conjugated –> elevated unconjugated hyperbilirubin –> kernicterus (deposition of bilirubin in brain)

1251
Q

What disorder might you suspect in a child with cataracts

A

Galactosemia

1252
Q

In mild glactosemia that causes cataracts, what enzyme is defective

A

Galactokinase

Remember, Lactose breaks down to Glucose and Galactose. Galactose is then broken down by Galactokinase typically

1253
Q

What disorder is characterized by joint pain, a photosensitive rash, and fever in women or African Americans typically

A

Systemic lupus erythematos

1254
Q

What is a complication of Lupus

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome –> Recurrent pregnancy loss and venous/arterial thrombosis

1255
Q

What pathogen is viewed with dark field microscopy

A

Treponema pallidum

1256
Q

What are the FLD’s for PTSD

A

SSRIs

1257
Q

What condition can result in kidney stones, bone pain, depression, and constipation

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

“Stones, bones, groans, and psychiatric overtones”. Also will see elevated calcium and low phosphate

1258
Q

What condition results in bone resorption with cystic degeneration

A

Osteitis fibrosa cystica

A complication of Primary hyperparathyroidism

1259
Q

What are some of the adverse effects of nitrate use such as Isosorbide dinitrate

A

Hypotension, flushing, and headache (Monday Dz)

1260
Q

In a pt with Heart failure, what are the compensatory responses the body uses that oddly end up making things worse

A

ADH release
RAAS activation
Sympathetic stimulation

1261
Q

What causes the compensatory release of ADH, RAAS activation, and sympathetic stimulation in Heart failure patients

A

An initial drop in blood pressure

1262
Q

Deletion/mutation of what structure confers resistance to HIV by preventing its binding and entrance into cells

A

CCR5

1263
Q

What nerve may be damaged during thyroidectomy due to its proximity to the inferior thyroid artery

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

Remember, this nerve loops under the aortic arch on the left, and under the subclavian on the right and may lead to hoarseness or paralysis if one side or both are damaged

1264
Q

What can be used to reverse the effects of warfarin

A

Vitamin K and Fresh Frozen Plasma

Warfarin is used to inhibit Vitamin K typically resulting in defective factors and defective coagulation

1265
Q

For rapid reversal of warfarin what would you use

A

Fresh Frozen Plasma

Vitamin K is the other option, but it takes time

1266
Q

Failure to thrive, diarrhea, and recurrent infxns in a child suggests what disorder

A

SCID

1267
Q

Candida antigen test is what type of reaction

A

Type 4 hypersensitivity

1268
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions involve what cell types

A

CD4, CD8, Macrophages

1269
Q

What substance can cause POST transcriptional mRNA silencing by degrading mRNAs thus resulting in gene supression

A

MicroRNAs

1270
Q

What is the process by which ds microRNA molecules are inserted into a cell to bind to mRNA molecules causing POST transcriptional silencing

A

RNA interference

1271
Q

What is the difference between malingering, factitious disorder, somatic symptom disorder, conversion disorder, and illness anxiety disorder

A

Consciously faking it:
Malingering - Consciously faking it for external gain (avoid work)
Factitious - Consciously faking or inflicting harm for internal gain (attention from medical provider)

Unconsciouly faking it:
Illness anxiety disorder - No symptoms but excessive anxiety about them
Somatic symptom disorder - Symptoms with excessive anxiety about them
Conversion disorder - Neurological symptoms (blindness) with no known neurologic cause

1272
Q

what is the first line medication for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

Sketchy: 3 gems on top of the classic car outside Ben’s diner

1273
Q

What is the mechanism of action of carbamazepine

A

Increases sodium channel inactivation

Sketchy: Waitress outside of Ben’s diner dropping sodium channels in front of the classic car

1274
Q

How does the Phase 0 portion of a myocardial action potential differ from that of a pacemaker action potential

A

Myocardial Phase 0 - Sodium influx

Pacemaker Phase 0 - Calcium influx

1275
Q

What bacteria can grow on alkaline media

A

Vibrio cholera

Sketchy: “BASE” cAMP

1276
Q

What is seen in the stool of pts with vibrio cholera infxn

A

Mucus and sloughed epithelium (No RBCs or WBCs)

Rice water stool

1277
Q

What is the diff between PT and aPTT

A

PT - Monitors extrinsic pathway (Factor 7)

aPTT - Monitors intrinsic pathway (Factor 12, 11, 9, 8)

1278
Q

A nasal hemianopia of a single eye is likely due what lesion

A

Internal carotid aneurysm on that side at the optic chiasm affecting the nerve path that does not decussate

1279
Q

What is the MOA of beta blockers

A

Competitively inhibits adrenergic beta receptors

1280
Q

What is the main side effect you will see in a pt when treating their elevated HR and BP with a non selective beta blocker

A

Bronchoconstriction