Uworld CK Flashcards

1
Q

What does the femoral nerve innervate?

A

The anterior thigh for knee extension and hip flexion

Sensation to the anterior thigh and medial leg – via the saphenous branch.

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2
Q

How should hemodynamically stable pts w/suspected splenic injury be managed?

A

They should first undergo a FAST.

  • If normal FAST, but they have high risk features (anemia or guarding)then they should undergo abdominal CT scan w/contrast.
  • If equivocal FAST and stable = CT w/contrast
  • If equivocal FAST and unstable = DPL
  • if DPL positive = laparotomy
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3
Q

How should pts w/massive hemoptysis be managed?

A

Bronchoscopy is the procedure of choice to identify the site of bleeding and attempt intervention.
This is done after establishing a patent airway, maintaining ventilation/gas exchange, and ensuring hemodynamic stability.
Thoracotomy should only be done if bronchoscopy fails.

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4
Q

What are hard signs of vascular injury and how are they managed?

A

Observed pulsatile bleeding
Presence of bruit/thrill over injury
Expanding hematoma
Signs of distal ischemia (absent pulses, cool extremity)
Pts w/any of these signs should undergo urgent surgical repair.

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5
Q

What is the management for SBO?

A

Nasogastric tube, IV fluids, bowel rest, analgesics and surgical exploration (esp. if they aren’t stable or show signs of ischemia and necrosis – metab. acidosis)

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6
Q

Most common complications of cardiac catheterization?

A

Bleeding, hematoma (local or w/retroperitoneal extension), arterial dissection, actue thrombosis, pseudoaneurysm, or AV fistula formation.
Hemorrhage/hematoma normally occur w/in 12 hrs.

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7
Q

Causes, sxs, and dx of a retroperitoneal hematoma:

A

Causes: Recent cardiac cath., anticoagulation.
Sxs: sudden onset HoTN, tachycardia, flat neck veins, and back pain.
This is diagnosed w/a NON-contrast CT of the abdomen/pelvis.

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8
Q

Management of pancreatic pseudocyst:

A

Expectant mgmt. - (NPO,symptomatic therapy) for those without sxs or cxs
Endoscopic drainage - pts w/significant sxs (N/V/abd pain), infected cysts, or evidence of a pseudoaneurysm.

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9
Q

Mgmt of a clavicular fracture:

A

Careful neurovascular exam to r/o injury to the brachial plexus or subclavian artery. Often involves an angiogram – esp. if a bruit is heard.

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10
Q

Ankle-brachial index:

A

Non-invasive test that is sensitive and specific for PAD in symptomatic pts. (intermittent claudication). Usually the first step taken to confirm the diagnosis.
Done by dividing the higher ankle systolic pressure by the higher brachial artery systolic pressure.

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11
Q

What happens to the Left ventricle in states of hypovolemic shock?

A

It will decrease in size d/t low filling volume, and compensate by increasing the ejection fraction (~75%).

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12
Q

Most common causes of massive hemothorax:

A

Traumatic laceration of the lung parenchyma, or damage to an intercostal or internal mammary artery.

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13
Q

Likely post-op complication that would lead to cardiogenic shock?

A

Perioperative MI

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14
Q

What are the interventions for lowering ICP? (5)

A

1- Head elevation: increases venous outflow from brain
2- Sedation: decreases metabolic demand and controls HTN
3- IV Mannitol: Free H2O clearance from brain tissue –> osmotic diuresis
4- Hyperventilation: CO2 washout –> cerebral vasoconstriction
5- CSF drainage: Decreases Vol/P

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15
Q

What anticoagulants are contraindicated in ESRD?

A

LMWH and Xa inhibitors like Rivaroxaban

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16
Q

What is the tx for DVT in patients w/ ESRD?

A

Unfractionated heparin and warfarin. Must start on both and then stop heparin bc warfarin initially causes prothrombotic state.

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17
Q

Who is likely to get bacterial parotitis, how does it present, how can you prevent, most common cause?

A

Post-op patients and the elderly are most likely to get it.
Presents with fever, leukocytosis and parotid inflammation.
Can prevent with adequate fluid intake and oral hygiene.
S. aureus is most common cause

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18
Q

Indications of urgent exploratory laparotomy:

A

Hemodynamic Instability
Peritonitis (rebound tenderness and guarding)
Evisceration (exposed organs)
Blood from NGT or on rectal exam
Also to remove any foreign material such as knives

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19
Q

Signs/Sxs suggestive of meniscal injury:

A

Acute knee pain a/w catching/popping or reduced ROM.

PE may be normal and should be followed by MRI if suspected.

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20
Q

Earliest sign of burn wound infection:

A

Change in appearance – partial thickness injury turns into full-thickness- of the wound, or loss of a skin graft.

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21
Q

Difference in bacteria of burn wound infection:

A

G+ are common directly after injury

G- and fungi are more common >5 days after injury.

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22
Q

What should happen immediately after placing a CVC?

A

Obtain portable CXR to confirm the catheter is in the correct place before catheter use. Catheter should be visualized just proximal to the angle b/w the trachea and R mainstem bronchus.

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23
Q

What is torus palatinus?

A

Fleshy immobile mass on the midline hard palate. It is a congenital growth, and doesn’t require intervention unless it casues sxs or interferes w/speech or eating.

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24
Q

Leriche syndrome:

A

A triad syndrome from aortoiliac occlusion
Bilat. Hip, thigh, and buttock claudication
Absent/diminished femoral pulses – often w/symmetric atrophy of the bilat. LEs from chronic ischemia
Impotence.

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25
Q

What is Extraperitoneal bladder injury? When should this be considered?

A

Contusion/rupture of the neck, ant. wall, or anterolateral wall of the bladder. Often from pelvic fractures.
Get localized pain and gross hematuria. Signs of peritonitis shouldn’t be present (seen in IPBI).

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26
Q

Signs and symptoms of necrotizing surgical site infection:

A

Pain, edema, erythema spreading beyond the surgical site
Systemic signs: Fever, HoTN, tachy
Par/anesthesia at the wound edges
Purulent, cloudy-grey “dishwater drainage”
SubQ gas or crepitus

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27
Q

Treatment of necrotizing surgical site infections:

A

Urgent surgical exploration and debridement + parenteral abx

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28
Q

What causes the hyperpigmentation/discoloration in stasis dermatitis?

A

RBC extravasation from the capillaries cause hemosiderin deposition in the tissues.

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29
Q

What can be seen on AXR in paralytic ileus?

A

Gas filled loops in the stomach, SI and LI with no transition point.

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30
Q

Common causes of paralytic ileus:

A

Abdominal surgery is #1

Others: Retroperitoneal/abd hemorrhage or inflammation, intestinal ischemia, and electrolyte abnormalities.

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31
Q

What causes flail chest?

A

3+ rib fractures in 2+ locations

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32
Q

What nerve is most commonly injured in shoulder dislocation, what will it cause?

A

Axillary nerve is most commonly injured
It innervates teres minor and deltoid –> weakened shoulder abduction
Provides sensation to lateral shoulder

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33
Q

What imaging is indicated for suspected penile fracture? Other indications for this imaging?

A

Retrograde urethrogram.

Indications for urethrogram: Blood at the meatus, hematuria, dysuria, urinary retention.

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34
Q

Shin splints v. Stress fracture:

A

Stress fractures – have localized point tenderness and activity-related pain, swelling. Often in underweight female athletes
Shin splints – diffuse area of tenderness (not point), and is more common in overweight casual runners.

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35
Q

What kind of effusion would be expected with a low pleural glucose?

A

An exudative effusion – typically has glucose <60 mg/dL.

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36
Q

What is the light criteria to define an exudative pleural effusion?

A

Must have at least one of the following (pleural/serum):
Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio >0.5
Pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH >0.6
Pleural fluid LDH >2/3 of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH.

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37
Q

What are empyemas?

A

Exudative effusions w/low glucose concentration d/t high metabolic activity of leukocytes and bacteria w/in the pleural fluid.

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38
Q

What are the different biopsy techniques for central v. peripheral tumors?

A

Central are done by EBUS (endobronchial US) directed biopsy.

Peripheral are hard to reach via EBUS and are normally done by VATS (Video-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery).

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39
Q

What lung ca is most likely to cause SVC syndrome?

A

SCLC

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40
Q

Most common locations of lung mets:

A

Brain, Bone, Adrenals, Liver

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41
Q

When is surgical resection indicated for lung ca.?

A

If the predicted post-op FEV1 is 800mL+

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42
Q

What type of skin cancer is more common in males v females?

A

Basal cell more common in males

Squamous more common in females

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43
Q

What are the vaccine recommendations for a patient post-splenectomy? When are they given post-splenectomy?

A

Give pneumococcal, meningococcal, and H. influenzae vaccines on 14th post-op day

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44
Q

Most common surgical txs of Subclavian steal syndrome:

A

Carotid-subclavian bypass
Carotid transposition
Percutaneous angioplasty w/ stenting
Surgical intervention should only be done in symptomatic patients

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45
Q

What is the next best step in mgmt. of a new solitary pulmonary nodule w/out previous images to compare it to?

A

Obtain chest CT
If CT shows intermediate to high chances of malignancy then a PET should be ordered.
If PET suggests malignancy then do a biopsy.

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46
Q

Common findings a/w Peutz-Jegher:

A

Polyps in both the small bowel and colon, perioral melanosis, breast malignancy

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47
Q

Treatment for anal fissures:

A

High fiber diet + adequate fluid intake
Stool Softeners
Sitz baths
Topical anesthetics + Vasodilators – Nifedipine, nitroglycerin, etc.

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48
Q

Management of spontaneous pneumothorax:

A

Small (< 2cm) can be managed w/observation and O2
Large + Stable need needle aspiration or chest tube.
Unstable – tube thoracostomy

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49
Q

Management of tension pneumothorax:

A

(variant w/ one-way valve causes expansion of pneumothorax during inspiration)

Urgent needle decompression or chest tube placement

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50
Q

Why is Supplemental O2 used in tx of pneumothorax?

A

It increases the rate of resorption.

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51
Q

Where should a needle be placed to decompress a pneumothorax? What size needle should be used?

A

A large bore 14-18 gauge needle is inserted in the 2nd or 3rd ICS in midclavicular line, or the 5th ICS in the mid/anterior axillary.

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52
Q

Visualization of a dilated common bile duct in the absence of stones is commonly seen in what disorder?

A

Sphincter of Oddi dysfunction – dyskinesia and stenosis of the sphincter can cause obstruction of flow through the sphincter which mimics a structural lesion.
Gold standard for dx: Sphincter of Oddi manometry.

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53
Q

Characteristics/Causes of Bile reflux gastritis:

A

d/t incompetent pyloric sphincter, often following gastric surgery.
Allows retrograde flow of bile-rich duodenal fluid into the stomach and esophagus
Sxs: Vomiting, frequent heartburn, abdominal pain.

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54
Q

Presentation of ruptured ovarian cyst:

A

Sudden-onset, severe, unilateral lower abdominal pain immediately following strenuous (exercising) or sexual activity.
Will see fluid in pelvis on US
Hemodynamically unstable pts require immediate surgery.

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55
Q

In a patient post-MVA what should an elevated PCWP be suspicious of? What is the next best step?

(What does PCWP measure, and what’s a normal value?)

A

Myocardial dysfxn d/t cardiac contusion. These pts need an urgent echo.

(PCWP = pulmonary artery occlusion pressure = left atrial pressure. Normal value is 4-12mm)

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56
Q

What is the typical course leading to an appendiceal abscess? Sx and Dx tests?

A

Acute appendicitis with delayed presentation and >5 days of sxs. This often leads to appendiceal rupture with a contained abscess.
These pts often have fever and leukocytosis but palpation of the abdomen may be normal. Need to use psoas and other tests to assess for the deep abdominal spaces.
CT can be used to confirm
Post-op cxs in these pts is extremely high, they should wait 6-8 weeks before removal.

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57
Q

Management for duodenal hematomas:

A

Gastric decompression via NGT and parenteral nutrition.

Surgery or percutaneous drainage only if non-surgical mgmt. fails.

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58
Q

Presentation , dx, labs of Emphysematous cholecystitis:

A

Fever, RUQ pain, N/V, crepitus in abd wall.
See air-fluid levels in GB and gas in GB wall.
Cultures w/gas-forming Clostridium, or E. coli
Labs: UC hyperBRemia (from clostridium-induced hemolysis), slight elevation in aminotransferases

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59
Q

Risk factors of emphysematous cholecystitis:

A

DM, vascular compromise, IMCP

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60
Q

Tx of Emphysematous cholecystitis:

A

Emergent cholecystectomy
Broad-spectrum abx w/clostridium coverage (pip-tazo, ertapenem, amp-sulbactam)
Bile cultures

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61
Q

Immediate (0-2hr) Post-op fever causes:

A

Prior trauma or infection
Blood products
Malignant Hyperthermia

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62
Q

What is the most likely acid-base disturbance to occur in atelectasis?

A

Respiratory Alkalosis – pts become hypoxic and hyperventilate to compensate. This decreases the arterial PaCO2, and PaO2. pH will increase.

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63
Q

Factors that decrease risk of post-op atelectasis:

A

Adequate pain control, deep-breathing exercises, directed coughing, early mobilization, and incentive spirometry.

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64
Q

How does post-op atelectasis occur? What is the result of these mechanisms?

A

Post-op changes in lung complicance can lead to shallow inhalations which limit the recruitment of alveoli at the lung bases, and then impaired cough can predispose to small-airway mucus plugging.

These both result in hypoxia –> increased RR and low pCO2.

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65
Q

Common cause of poor wound healing in alcoholic:

A

Vit. C deficiency

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66
Q

Most common organisms of prosthetic joint infection:

A

Early <3 months – S. aureus, G- rods, anaerobes (Pseudomonas)
Delayed 3-12 months – Coag-neg staph (S. epidermidis), Propionibacterium, Enterococci
Late >12 months – S. aureus, G- rods, B-hemolytic strep.

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67
Q

What is a cx of eschar formation from a circumferential, full-thickness burn?

A

It may lead to constriction of venous and lymphatic drainage, fluid accumulation and result in distal acute compartment syndrome.

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68
Q

What is abdominal succussion splash, and when is it seen?

A

It is elicited by placing the stethoscope over the upper abdomen and rocking the pt. back and forth.
Seen in gastric outlet obstruction – malignancy, PUD, strictures, etc.

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69
Q

What are some cxs of infection w/in the retropharyngeal space?

A

The retropharyngeal space drains inferiorly to the superior mediastinum. Infection can spread to the carotid sheath –> thrombosis of the IJV and deficits in CNs IX, X, XI, and XII.
Extension through alar fascia can cause acute necrotizing mediastinitis.

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70
Q

What should be suspected of an extra-axial dural-based brain mass? Tx?

A

Meningioma. These are treated via surgical resection.

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71
Q

What is likely in a pt. w/persistent pneumothorax, and persistent air leak post-chest tube placement? Cause?

A

Tracheobronchial rupture. This is rare and often follows blunt chest trauma.
Other sxs: pneumomediastinum, subcutaneous emphysema.

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72
Q

What likely causes esophageal rupture and what will be the findings?

A
Often iatrogenic (w/endoscopy) or esophagitis-related.
Findings: pneumomediastinum and pleural effusions.
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73
Q

Postpericardiotomy Syndrome presentation + Tx?

A

Presents w/fever, leukocytosis, tachy, and chest pain.
Often AI and occurs few weeks after a procedure w/ a pericardium incision.
Tx: NSAIDs or steroids, and pericardial puncture if tamponade occurs.

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74
Q

Acute Mediastinitis findings and tx:

A

Often follows cardiac surgery.
Sxs: fever, chest pain, leukocytosis, mediastinal widening on CXR
Tx: Drainage, surgical debridement, and prolonged abx.

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75
Q

Which rotator cuff tendon is most commonly injured?

A

Supraspinatus – d/t degeneration of the tendon w/age and repeated ischemia induced by impingement b/w the humerus and acromion during abduction.

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76
Q

What abx should be given in GB disease?

A

Ones that cover G- rods and anaerobes
Ciprofloxacin + Metronidazole
Ampicillin-Gentamycin + Metroniadazole
DO NOT pick pip-tazo on tests

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77
Q

When should diastolic and continuous murmurs be evaluated?

A

ALWAYS
these are almost always pathological.
Midsystolic murmurs in young healthy people don’t need further evaluation.

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78
Q

What needs to occur pre-op in pts. on Warfarin?

A

Rapid reversal of anticoagulation, done by infusion of FFP.

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79
Q

What should be done to manage acute cholecystitis?

A

Cholecystectomy within 72 hours

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80
Q

What is normal urine output?

A

800-2000 mL per 24hrs.

Oliguria is <500 mL per 24 hrs.

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81
Q

What can post-op pneumonia lead to and how is it managed?

A

Septic shock – fever, tachy, HoTN, oliguria.
Treat w/IVF (0.9% saline) and abx for the underlying infection.
If the patient fails to respond or has signs of V-overload w/out improvement in BP then vasopressors (Dopamine) should be started to improve perfusion.

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82
Q

Anterior Cord Syndrome presentation? Cause?

A

Loss of movement, pain and temp
Vibration, touch and proprioception still intact.
May be a cx of thoracic AA repair, bc there’s decreased blood flow through the radicular aa.

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83
Q

What is one of the most common postgastrectomy cxs, and how is it managed?

A

Dumping syndrome – N/D/V, palpitations, diaphoresis, HoTN
Loss of normal pyloric sphincter axn –> rapid emptying of gastric contents
Tx: Dietary modification – frequent, small meals, eat slowly, avoid sugars, increase fiber and protein, drink fluids b/w and not during meals.

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84
Q

Causes of initial hematuria:

A

Reflects Urethral damage

Urethritis, Trauma to urethra (caths)

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85
Q

Causes of terminal hematuria:

A

Reflects bladder or prostate damage

Urothelial ca., Cystitis, Urolithiasis, BPH, Prostate ca.

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86
Q

Causes of continuous hematuria (7):

A

Reflects Kidney or ureter damage

Renal mass, Glomerulonephritis, Urolithiasis, PCKD, Pyelonephritis, Urothelial ca., Trauma to kidney

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87
Q

Marjolin Ulcer:

A

SCC arising within a burn wound.
SCC may arise in chronically wounded, scarred or inflamed skin.
SCC in chronic wounds tends to be more aggressive.

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88
Q

Steps in management of complicated diverticulitis:

A

Fluid collections <3cm – IV abx and observation
>3cm – CT-guided percutaneous drainage
If sxs are still uncontrolled by 5th day – surgical drainage and debridement
Sigmoid resection for pts w/ fistulas, perforation w/peritonitis, obstruction or recurrent attacks.

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89
Q

What is a cx of PP mechanical ventilation in a pt w/hypovolemic shock?

A

Pts in hypovolemic shock have decreased CVP, and the initiation of mechanical ventilation can cause acute loss of RV preload –> loss of CO and cardiac arrest.

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90
Q

What are the criteria for initiating long-term O2 therapy in pts. w/COPD?

A
  1. Resting PaO2 <55mmHg or SaO2 <88% on room air

2. PaO2 <59mmHg or SaO2<89% in pts. w/cor pulmonale, evidence of RHF or Hct >55%.

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91
Q

What causes the constitutional symptoms in cardiac myxomas?

A

Overproduction of IL-6 –> fever, weight loss, or Raynaud phenomenon.

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92
Q

Most common causes of hyperkalemia:

A

Acute or Chronic kidney disease

Medications or disorders that impair the RAAS.

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93
Q

Clinical and ECG findings of hyperkalemia:

A

Chronic may be asx until K+ > 7mEq/L

Acute causes sxs at lower levels –> ascending m. weakness, flaccid paralysis

ECG changes = peaked Twaves, short QT interval, QRS widening, sine wave w/vFIb

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94
Q

Therapy for hyperkalemia and when it should be instituted:

A

Acute tx: Calcium gluconate or chloride, insulin w/glucose

Should be given to pts. w/ ECG changes, K+ > 7 w/out ECG changes, or rapid K+ d/t tissue breakdown.

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95
Q

What is the most common cause of acute limb ischemia post-MI? Mgmt?

A

Arterial embolus from LV thrombus.

Mgmt: immediate anticoag., vascular surgery consult, and transthoracic echo to screen for thrombus.

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96
Q

Classic murmur in Aortic Regurg:

A

Decrescendo, blowing, diastolic murmur best heard at the L 4th ICS at the sternal border.

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97
Q

Murmur in Aortic stenosis:

A

Systolic, crescendo-decrescendo radiating to the carotids. Best heard in R 2nd ICS at sternal border.

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98
Q

Murmur in Mitral regurg:

A

HoloSystolic, best heard at apex, radiates to axilla.

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99
Q

Murmur in mitral stenosis:

A

Rumbling diastolic with opening snap (closer snap is to S2 worse the stenosis).
Best heard at apex.

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100
Q

Diagnosis and management of AAA:

A

Use US for screening/diagnosis NOT arteriogram
Anything >3.5cm is considered AAA

TX:
>3.5cm – re-screen every 12 mos
>4.5cm – re-screen every 6 mos
>5.5cm or growing >0.5cm/6mos – surgery

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101
Q

How to diagnose aortic dissection

A

Hemodynamically stable pts: CT Angiogram (but can’t do in renal failure/elevated Cr)
Unstable pts and renal failure: TEE

MRA can be used but is not preferred and should also be avoided in pts w/severe kidney disease

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102
Q

How to diagnose PVD:

How to identify the lesion location:

A
ABI:
>1.4 = calcified vessel, need to do TBI instead
1.0-1.4 = normal
0.9-1 = equivocal, do exercise ABI
0.8-0.9 = Mild
0.4-0.8 = Moderate
<0.4 = Severe
Can use Doppler US and CTA to find where lesion is
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103
Q

How to treat PVD:

A

Use Angioplasty/Stent if the lesion is above the knee or small
Use Bypass if lesion is below the knee or large
All should f/u with medical tx (Cilostazol, Pentoxyphylline)

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104
Q

How to differentiate b/w neonatal conjunctivitis, and treatment:

A

Onset:
<24 hr – Chemical/Silver Nitrate, tx w/topical erythromycin
2-7d – Gonorrhea: PURULENT. Tx: Ceftriaxone
5-14d – Chlamydia: MUCO-Purulent. Tx: Oral Erythromycin

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105
Q

How to differentiate between RAS and Primary Hyperaldosteronism:

A

Both will have HTN and Hypokalemia.
Conns: Aldosterone:Renin >20
RAS: Aldosterone:Renin <10

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106
Q

How to diagnose esophageal rupture?

A

Water-soluble contrast upper GI study.

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107
Q

How to calculate amount of fluid needed for resuscitation in burn victims:

A

Parkland formula:

4 x Weight in Kg x % Area Burned

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108
Q

Treatment of hypocalcemia:

A

IV calcium gluconate

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109
Q

Common presentation of atrial myxoma:

A

Fever, fatigue, night sweats, weight loss.
Low-pitched rumbling diastolic murmur heard at the apex that disappears when pt. rolls onto R side (d/t tm obstructing mitral valve).
May also have decreased Hb.

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110
Q

Where does brain cancer metastasize?

A

Trick question bitch!!!

It doesnt. It stays in the brain.

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111
Q

Diagnostic test for brain tm?

A

MRI w/contrast is best, then MRI w/o contrast, then CT w/contrast.
Once located bx.

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112
Q

Brain ca tx?

A

Resection, radiation, chemo, steroids, seizure ppx.

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113
Q

Presentation and Dx of epididymitis:

A

Spontaneous pain in testicle with relief on elevation.
Vertically lying testicle (opposed to horizontal in torsion)
Dx w/Doppler US

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114
Q

Difference in Epididymitis etiology and tx based on age:

A

<35 yrs most likely an STD – tx w/Ceftriaxone + Azithromycin
>55 yrs most likely E. coli – tx w/a fluoroquinolone.

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115
Q

Best diagnostic test for kidney stones:

A

Non-con CT

cant do CT? do US

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116
Q

Presentation, Dx, and Tx of Transient synovitis:

A

Can occur at any age
Presents as hip pain following a viral illness. May be so severe that the pt is non-weight bearing.
Dx= clinical; Tx= supportive

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117
Q

Treatment of a fracture that involves the growth plate in a kid?

A

Surgery always

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118
Q

Ant. v. Post. dislocations of the shoulder:

A

Both will be adducted.
Anterior- from any trauma, even minor, will have external rotation (shows palm of hand)
Posterior- from massive trauma, a/w seizures and lightning strikes. Will have internal rotation (shows back of hand).

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119
Q

Hard signs of neck injury:

A

Airway: gurgling, stridor, loss of airway
Vasculature: Expanding hematoma, pulsatile bleeding, stroke, shock, flat neck veins

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120
Q

Soft signs of neck injury:

A

Dysphonia
Dysphagia
SubQ air/emphysema
Mild hard signs (hematoma not expanding, bleeding but not pulsatile etc.)

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121
Q

Treatment of Spinal Cord syndromes:

A

Steroids– dexamethasone

Then diagnose w/MRI

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122
Q

Mgmt of pelvic fractures:

A

Typically external fixation and stabilization w/blood transfusions is enough.
Only go to surgery if they are bleeding into the peritoneum. If just bleeding into pelvis don’t go.

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123
Q

What complication should be investigated for in electrical burns?

A

Burnt muscle will lead to Rhabdomyolysis so check CK and Creatinine.

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124
Q

Rxs that cause hyperkalemia:

A

TMP-SMX – blocks eNac channel
BBs – interfere w/B2 mediated K+ uptake
ACEIs, ARBs, Ksparing diuretics – block eNac
Digoxin – Inhibits NaK-ATPase
Cyclosporine – Blocks aldosterone
Heparin – Blocks aldosterone
NSAIDs – decrease renal perfusion and K+ delivery to CDs
Succinylcholine – extracell leakage of K+ through Ach Rs.

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125
Q

Renal effects of TMP-SMX:

A

Blocks ENac channels –> hyperkalemia.
Also competitively inhibits renal tubular creatinine secretion –> artificial increase in serum Cr.
GFR does NOT change.
Pts should have serial monitoring of K+ to avoid complications.

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126
Q

Mgmt of Hypercalcemia:

A
Only severe (>14 mg/dL) or symptomatic pts require treatment.
Short term: Normal saline + Calcitonin; Avoid loop diuretics
Long term: Bisphosphonate (Zoledronic acid)
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127
Q

What is the mgmt. and contraindications for chest pain in cocaine use?

A

Managed with benzos for BP and anxiety
Aspirin, Nitroglycerin, and CCBs for pain
BBs are contraindicated and Fibrinolytics should be avoided d/t risk of ICH.
Cardiac catheterization w/reperfusion done when indicated.

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128
Q

What are the different aspiration sites in recumbent v. upright pts?

A

Recumbent – posterior segment of the upper lobes

Upright – lower lobes or right middle lobe

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129
Q

Obesity Hypoventilation Syndrome definition, and other features:

A
Daytime hypercapnia (PaCO2 >45mmHg) in an obese patient (BMI >30), without another explanation for the hypercapnia.
Other features: dyspnea, polycythemia, RESP. ACIDOSIS w/renal compensation, pHTN, and cor pulmonale.
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130
Q

Enoxaparin:

A

LMWH

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131
Q

Factor Xa inhibitors:

A

Fondaparinux (injection), Rivaroxaban (oral)

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132
Q

What defines severe renal insufficiency?

A

Estimated GFR <30 mL/min/1.73 m2.

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133
Q

Expected changes in hyponatremic hypovolemia for:
Serum electrolytes
Urine electrolytes
Enzymes

A

Decreased serum and urine Na+, Increased renin, aldosterone, and ADH.

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134
Q

How do nitrates exert their effect?

A

Nitrates like nitroglycerin cause venodilation which increases peripheral venous capacitance.
They cause systemic vasodilation and decrease cardiac preload –> reduce LV wall stress.

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135
Q

What is the first line tx for HTN d/t renal artery stenosis (RAS)?

A

ACEIs or ARBs. If pts are refractory to therapy then revascularization or stenting may be considered.

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136
Q

How will pleural pH change based on the type of effusion?

A

Normal pleural pH: 7.6
Transudative pH: 7.4-7.55
Exudative pH: 7.3-7.45
pH <7.3 norm. d/t Empyema, pleuritis, tm., pr pleural fibrosis

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137
Q

What are the common respiratory findings in Granulomatosis w/Polyangitis?

A

(aka. Wegener’s)
URT: chronic rhinosinusitis, otitis, saddle-nose deformity
LRT: tracheal narrowing w/ulceration and CXR w/multiple lung nodules w/cavitation and alveolar opacities.

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138
Q

Tx of Uric Acid stones:

A

Alkalinization of the urine w/oral Potassium Citrate, hydration, and a low-purine diet.

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139
Q

How are diuretics related to renal stones?

A

Furosemide and loop diuretics increase urinary calcium excretion and can cause calcium stones.
Thiazides decrease Ca2+ excretion and is used in the tx of calcium stones.

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140
Q

What patients have a higher association of angiodysplasia?

A

Those with advanced renal disease, Von Willebrand, and Aortic stenosis (d/t acquired vWF deficiency).

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141
Q

How does Angiodysplasia often present?

A

Episodic painless GI bleeding – often seen as dark colored stools w/normal bowel movements in between episodes.
Will often have signs of anemia as well

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142
Q

How is angiodysplasia diagnosed?

A

Via endoscopy – Upper GI or colonoscopy.

However it is often missed d/t poor bowel prep or location behind a haustral fold.

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143
Q

EKG findings in pericarditis:

A

Diffuse ST elevation with the exception of depression in aVR.

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144
Q

First line therapy for Dressler’s syndrome:

A

NSAIDs

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145
Q

Common AEs of inhaled B2-agonists:

A

Hypokalemia – they drive K+ into cells, causes muscle weakness and can be confirmed w/a BMP.
Headache, tremors, and palpitations.

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146
Q

Hepatic Hydrothorax – Cause and presentation:

A

Seen in some pts w cirrhosis and portal HTN.
Results from small defects in the diaphragm that allow peritoneal fluid to pass into the pleural space. Occurs more commonly on the right.
Causes dyspnea, cough, pleuritic chest pain, and hypoxemia.

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147
Q

Hematologic effects of glucocorticoids:

A

Causes leukocytosis with NP predominance.
Mobilizes marginated NPs into the blood, where they are non-fxnl.
Decreases LPs and eosinophils.

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148
Q

Oliguria:

A

<250 mL of urine in 12 hrs.

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149
Q

Post-op Oligura definition + management?

A

<0.5 mL/kg/hr – needs immediate assessment w/bladder scan, if urinary retention is present they need a catheter.

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150
Q

Scleroderma renal crisis:

A

Sudden onset of renal failure (w/o previous kidney disease), malignant HTN (HA, blurry vision, N).
UA may show mild proteinuria
PBS may show microangiopathic hemolytic anemia or DIC w/schistocytes and thrombocytopenia.

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151
Q

What is the common finding of a hepatic mass with central scarring on CT scan?

A

Focal nodular hyperplasia.

Doesn’t require tx unless symptomatic – then resection.

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152
Q

What hematologic abnormalities may be seen in Meckel Diverticulum?

A

Ongoing bleeding from the diverticulum may cause Iron Deficiency anemia

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153
Q

CXR shows: pleural effusion w/extensive soft tissue density. Dx? Thoracentesis findings?

A

Mesothelioma – extensive soft tissue density = pleural plaques.
Thoracentesis will show bloody, exudative effusion.

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154
Q

What will be seen on XR of toxic megacolon?

A

Loss of haustra and dilated bowel.

Use sigmoidoscopy-guided placement of rectal tube to manage.

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155
Q

What lab values will be seen with decreased excretion of BR?

A

Hyperbilirubinemia with predominately conjugated BR.
If it is 50-50 Direct-Indirect or predominately indirect then look for another cause of the hyperbilirubinemia (overproduction of BR after transfusion, etc.)

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156
Q

Why might alcoholics develop Hypocalcemia?

A

They are at increased risk for Hypomagnesemia d/t renal tubular loss.
W/o magensium PTH cannot be released and therefore Ca2+ levels fall.

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157
Q

When is it safe to give anticoagulants post-op?

A

They can be given 6-12 hrs post-op

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158
Q

Tx of hyperaldosteronism:

A

Spironolactone or other Aldosterone receptor blockers

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159
Q

What are ARBs?

A

ANGIOTENSIN RECEPTOR BLOCKERS!!!!!

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160
Q

Management of anal mass:

A

When thought to be cancer first biopsy to prove cancer, and then use Nigro chemoradiation protocol.
If this is not successful in eliminating it completely (90% success rate) then surgery can be used as a last resort in rare cases to remove residual tumor.

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161
Q

Causes of fistulas:

A
Foreign body
Epithelization
Tumors
Irradiation
Inflammation/IBD
Distal obstruction
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162
Q

What abx should be given in pancreatitis w/proven infection?

A

Carbapenem

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163
Q

When should a pancreatic pseudocyst be drained?

A

Needs draining if >6cm or if its been present >6 weeks.
This indicates complication and high risk of infection.
<6cm or 6 weeks you can observe.

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164
Q

Colonoscopy schedule:

A

q10 if clean or hyperplastic
q5 if polyp is seen
q3 if polyp is CIS or villous
q1 if polyp has dysplasia

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165
Q

Treatment of urethral injuries:

A

Anterior- immediate surgical repair

Posterior- suprapubic cystostomy tube and wait for repair

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166
Q

What does the cyanide-nitroprusside test detect?

A

Elevated levels of cystine. Can help confirm the dx of Cystinuria.

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167
Q

What metabolic disorder can develop in carcinoid syndrome?

A

Pellagra (Niacin deficiency).
This is d/t the depletion of tryptophan for the preference of conversion to serotonin and 5-HIAA.
Tryptophan is needed for both 5-HT and Niacin synth.

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168
Q

What metabolic disorder can Isoniazid therapy lead to?

A

B6/pyridoxine deficiency –> peripheral neuropathy
Pellagra/Niacin deficiency –> Diarrhea, Dementia and Dermatitis. D/t interference of tryptophan metabolism (less common, seen in prolonged tx).

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169
Q

ABG findings in CHF:

A

hypoxic, hypercapnic, respiratory alkalosis.

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170
Q

What drug therapy is started in pts w/Coronary heart disease to reduce morbidity and mortality?

A

Dual-antiplatelet therapy: Aspirin + P2y12R blocker (clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor)
BBs
ACEIs or ARBs
Statins
Aldosterone Antagonists (spironolactone, eplerenone)

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171
Q

Complications of PEEP:

A

Alveolar damage, pneumothorax, and HoTN.

Pts. w/underlying lung disease (ARDS, pneumonia, COPD) are especially susceptible.

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172
Q

Clinical features of Pneumothorax:

A
Hyperresonance to percussion
Diminished breath sounds
Decreased tactile fremitus
HoTN from decreased VR (collapsed lung compresses the IVC)
Tachycardia from impaired RV filling
Increased CVP
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173
Q

Features of obstructive ureterolithiasis:

A

Severe L lower AbdP radiating to the groin, vomiting, and unremarkable findings on PE.
Dx w/US or noncon CT

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174
Q

Renal vein thrombosis:

A

Complication of any nephrotic syndrome, but most commonly a/w membranous glomerulopathy.
D/t the loss of antithrombin III in the urine.
Presents acutely w/AbdP, fever, hematuria
Or more commonly progressive as a gradual worsening of renal fxn, and proteinuria in an asx pt.

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175
Q

Clinical presentation of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis:

A

T > 37.8/100
Abdominal Pain/tenderness
Altered mental status
HoTN, Hypothermia, paralytic ileus w/severe infection

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176
Q

What is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Ascitic fluid infection w/out an obvious intraabdominal surgical etiology. Seen in pts w/cirrhosis.

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177
Q

Metabolic AEs of thiazides:

A
Hyperglycemia
Increased LDL and TGs
Hyperuricemia
Hypokalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypomagnesemia
Hypercalcemia
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178
Q

Tx to rapidly lower K+:

A

Insulin w/glucose
B2-agonists
Sodium bicarb in acidotic patients

Ca2+ gluconate will stabilize the cardiac membrane, but will not reduce K+

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179
Q

Tx to slowly remove K+ from the body:

A

Diuretics
Cation exchange resins
Hemodialysis

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180
Q

What cardiac issues are associated with malignancies?

A

Malignancy causes a hypercoagulable state which can lead to massive PE –> RV dysfxn: hemodynamic collapse, syncope, decreased VR, decreased CO.
Elevated CVP/JVP

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181
Q

What arrhythmia is most specific for Digoxin toxicity?

A

Atrial tachycardia w/AV block

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182
Q

What test is advised for all pts w/suspected gallstone pancreatitis?

A

RUQ US
Then managed w/ERCP to remove the stone
Biliary causes of pancreatitis typically present w/ALT > 150

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183
Q

How to differentiate b/w osmotic and secretory diarrhea:

A

Osmotic will have an elevated stool osmotic gap (>125mOsm/kg)
Secretory will have a reduced SOG (<50mOsm/kg)

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184
Q

Difference between stress and urgency incontinence treatments:

A

Stress- Lifestyle mods, pelvic floor exercises, pessary, pelvic floor surgery
Surgery for stress incontinence can cause urge incontinence later.
Urge- Lifestyle mods, bladder training, then antimuscarinics (oxybutynin)

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185
Q

Overflow incontinence tx:

A

Cholinergic agonists, intermittent self-catheterization.

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186
Q

If urine osmolality is <100mOsm what should be considered?

A

Primary polydipsia and malnutrition (beer drinker’s potomania)

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187
Q

Difference b/w thrombus and emboli:

A

Emboli is a fragment that travels and blocks. Thrombus is a blockage that develops in the site it blocks.

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188
Q

What ECG findings are consistent with LVH?

A

High-voltage QRS complexes, lateral ST depression and lateral T wave inversion.

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189
Q

Persistent HTN, headaches and nosebleeds in a young pt is concerning of what?

A

Coarctation of the Aorta—should asses w/ bilateral arm and leg BP readings and pulse checks for brachial-femoral delay.

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190
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for PE:

A

CT angio

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191
Q

Most common source of liver mets?

A

Colorectal cancer—blood from the colon travels through the portal circulation directly to the liver.
Lung and breast also commonly met to the liver.

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192
Q

What is likely in a young woman with a subauricular systolic bruit?

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia – causes internal carotid a. stenosis and presents w/recurrent HA, pulsatile tinnitus, TIA and stroke.
May also have an abdominal bruit from the RAS –> secondary HTN (leads to hyperaldosteronism) and flank pain.

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193
Q

Most common CoD in dialysis pts:

A

CVD. Also the most common CoD in renal transplant pts.

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194
Q

Varying amplitude of QRS complexes suggests what?

A

Electrical alternans which is highly specific for pericardial effusion.
Tx would be emergency pericardiocentesis.

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195
Q

Treatment of variant/vasospastic angina:

A

Prevention w/diltiazem (CCB = potent coronary dilator, but weak systemic dilator) and sublingual nitroglycerin for abortion of an episode.

BBs and aspirin are contraindicated in variant angina.

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196
Q

What drugs are likely used to tx MDR pyelonephritis?

A

Aminoglycosides (like Amikacin) bc they treat serious G- organisms which commonly cause pyelonephritis.
These may cause ARF in the setting of CKD though. Renal function should be monitored closely.

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197
Q

What complication is often secondary to viral pericarditis?

A

Pericardial effusions – causes electrical alternans on EKG, enlarged cardiac silhouette, distended neck veins and distant heart sounds.
PE can vary, but almost all patients have an impalpable PMI

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198
Q

What should be done first in mgmt. of suspected cardiac tamponade?

A

Urgent echo to confirm diagnosis.

Most likely will present with signs of cardiogenic shock

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199
Q

What will be seen on pulmonary artery catheterization in the setting of cardiac tamponade?

A

Elevation and equalization of intracardiac diastolic pressures
RA, RV, and PCWP will all resemble LA pressure.

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200
Q

What is a positive Kussmaul’s sign and what does it suggest?

A

Increase in JVD with inspiration

Often positive in RV failure.

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201
Q

What are signs of RV MI?

A

Often in patients w/acute inferior wall MI d/t occlusion of the RCA proximal to the RV brs.

Signs/Sxs: chest pain, HoTN, autonomic signs (diaphoresis, V), and EKG findings of ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.
May also have JVD, +Kussmaul’s sign, and clear lung fields suggestive of RVF
Possible bradycardia or AV block bc enhanced AV tone.

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202
Q

What special mgmt. is implemented in RVF in addition to standard MI therapy?

A

Boluses of IVF to improve RV preload and increase LV filling.
These pts are preload dependent and anything that reduces preload (nitrates, diuretics) should be avoided.

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203
Q

What coronary a. is involved in papillary muscle rupture?

A

RCA

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204
Q

What complications are associated with the LAD coronary?

A

Free wall rupture
LV aneurysm
Interventricular septum rupture

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205
Q

What coronary vessels can be involved in a IV septum rupture?

A

LAD (apical septal)

RCA (basal septal)

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206
Q

Most common signs/sxs of PE:

A

Dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, tachycardia

Often CXR is abnormal, but many cases may have normal CXR

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207
Q

Mgmt of BB overdose:

A

Initially secure airway, IVF, IV atropine.
Pts w/refractory or profound HoTN may then require IV glucagon as the next step.
This may also treat CCB overdose.
Other therapies include: IV Ca2+, vasopressors (E/NE), high dose insulin and glucose, and IV lipid emulsion.

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208
Q

Most common cause of constrictive pericarditis in developing countries:

A

TB

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209
Q

Beck’s triad:

A

HoTN, Distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds – a/w cardiac tamponade
Pulsus paradoxus and +hepatojugular reflux are other common signs of tamponade

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210
Q

What is responsible for the sxs of cardiac tamponade?

A
Fluid accumulation in the pericardial cavity increases intrapericardial P above the diastolic ventricular P.
The sxs (Beck’s triad) are d/t an exaggerated shift of the IV septum toward the LV cavity, this reduces LV preload, SV, and CO.
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211
Q

Most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest immediately post-MI:

A

Reentrant ventricular arrhythmias (vFib)

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212
Q

How does a ventricular aneurysm present on EKG?

A

With persistent ST-elevation after a recent MI (5d-3m), and deep Q waves in the same leads.

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213
Q

What is a systolic-diastolic abdominal bruit most suggestive of?

A

Renal artery stenosis.

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214
Q

What should be suspected in pts w/diffuse atherosclerosis and resistant HTN?

A

Renovascular HTN (RAS)

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215
Q

Why are IMCPd more likely to develop nocardia infections?

A

Bc the branching, filamentous growth prevents phagocytosis making host defense dependent on cell-mediated immunity which is often lacking in IMCPd.

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216
Q

Tx for nocardiosis:

A

TMP-SMX txs pulmonary Nocardiosis, may require additional abx like amikacin in severe disease.

Carbapenems are added when the brain is involved

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217
Q

Who should receive the HAV vaccine?

A

Pts w/chronic liver disease (HBV, HCV etc)
MSM
IVDU
Travelers to endemic countries

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218
Q

Presentation of vitreous hemorrhage:

A

Sudden loss of vision and onset of floaters.
Reduced visual acuity to light perception, loss of fundus details, floating debris and a dark red glow.
Diabetic retinopathy is #1 cause

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219
Q

What is the best way to monitor a pts response to treatment in DKA and HHS?

A

Monitor the serum anion gap, or direct assay of beta-hydroxybutyrate

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220
Q

What condition classically causes bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia?

A

MS – bilateral lesions in the MLF, bilateral adduction difficulties and nystagmus in the abducted eye.

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221
Q

Why do some pts w/celiac disease have negative results on IgA testing?

A

Many patients have an associated selective IgA deficiency as well.
This causes the anti-tissue transglutaminase and anti-endomysial tests to be negative.

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222
Q

What MRI changes are associated with alzheimers disease?

A

Temporal lobe atrophy, mostly in the medial temporal lobes and hippocampi.
Parietal may be seen but is much less likely - more likely to be seen in Primary Progressive aphasia Dementia syndrome

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223
Q

What will an EKG show in moderate hypokalemia?

A

Broad, flattened T-waves, U-waves, ST-depression and PVCs

May have some or all

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224
Q

When does workup need to be done for a murmur?

A

Grade III and above systolic murmurs, and all diastolic murmurs.
Start w/ echo

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225
Q

Why are pts w/Multiple Myeloma at increased risk of infection?

A

Bc the neoplastic cells infiltrate the bone marrow and impair normal lymphocyte proliferation – ineffective Ab production and hypogammaglobulinemia.

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226
Q

What will CSF analysis of Guillain-Barre look like?

A

Normal except for increased protein.

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227
Q

Most commonly isolated organisms to cause brain abscess:

A

S. aureus and S. viridans

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228
Q

What should be used to reduce thromboembolic events in pts w/aFib?

A

Warfarin or non-VitK antagonist anticoagulants.

These are much more effective than the antiplatelet agents (aspirin, clopidogrel)

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229
Q

What is a factorial design?

A

A study that involves the randomization to different interventions w/additional study of 2+ variables.

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230
Q

What is likely to cause chondrocalcinosis?

A

Pseudogout, which is typically caused by:

  • hyperPTHism
  • HypOthyroidism
  • Hemochromatosis

Chrondrocalcinosis = irregular opaque structures in articular cartilage (looks like white stuff IN BETWEEN joint lines)

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231
Q

What is Adhesive capsulitis?

A

When the glenohumeral joint loses its normal distensibility d/t chronic inflammation, fibrosis, and contracture of the joint capsule.
Have shoulder stiffnes&raquo_space; pain, and ROM is markedly reduced both actively and passively.

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232
Q

How to distinguish Grave’s from painless (silent) thyroiditis:

A

Radioiodine uptake.
Painless/silent will have decreased uptake
Graves will have increased uptake

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233
Q

What metabolic/lab abnormalities can hypothyroidism cause?

A

Hyperlipidemia (decreased LDL-Rs or decreased LDL-R activity)
Hyponatremia (d/t decreased free H2O clearance)
Asx elevation in creatinine kinase
Elevated serum transaminases
Macrocytic anemia

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234
Q

What can and cannot be calculated in a case-control study?

A

Odds ratio can- it measures the association between exposed individuals and the controls.
Relative risk cannot- it can be calculated in cohort studies that follow individuals over time.
The OR generally approximates the RR in case-controls if the disease is rare (low disease prevelance), or the disease incidence (# of new cases) is low –> “rare disease assumption”

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235
Q

When do Relative Risk and Odds Ratio approximately equal each other?

A

In rare disease states.

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236
Q

What type of skin cancer is most common in IMCPd?

A

SCC is common especially in post-transplant patients or those on immunosuppressants. It is also more aggressive in these pts. with increased risk of local recurrence and mets.

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237
Q

What complication is a/w neurologic deterioration w/in 2 days after an ischemic stroke?

A

Hemorrhagic transformation – often when the stroke affects large areas, is d/t an embolic cause or the pt. has been treated with thrombolytics.
Often need urgent surgical decompression to treat.

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238
Q

When will you see the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

A

W/in 6-48 hrs of treating a spirochetal disease – mostly syphilis but could be lyme etc.

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239
Q

What complications can be prevented by lowering HbA1c/achieving glycemic control in DM?

A

The microvascular complications – nephropathy and retinopathy – will be reduced.
It will have no change on the macrovascular complications – MI, stroke.

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240
Q

How to differentiate bed bug rash from scabies:

A

Scabies are often on the palms, flexor wrist, lateral surface of the fingers and finger webs. It is v pruritic and worse at night.
Bed bugs often cause small, punctate lesions in a linear track of clusters. Not commonly on the palms or soles bc of the thickness of the skin.

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241
Q

Tx of scabies:

A

Topical permethrin or oral ivermectin.

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242
Q

When is abx prophylaxis indicated for patients w/rheumatic fever valvular defects?

A

ONLY if they have a history of IE.

If no hx of IE then the risk of developing it following a dental procedure is v low and abx aren’t indicated.

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243
Q

How does PCV affect EPO levels?

A

It causes them to be low bc the constitutively active JAK2 is what causes the overproduction of RBCs and high Hb, not hypoxia.

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244
Q

What is Riluzole?

A

A glutamate inhibitor for ALS. Doesn’t stop progression, but may prolong time to tracheostomy.

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245
Q

Most common location of ectopic foci to cause aFib?

A

Pulmonary veins

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246
Q

Best treatment for acute for cluster headaches? And prophylaxis?

A

Tx: 100% O2 by facemask – most rapid-acting and effective w/out any major AEs.
- SubQ sumatriptan can be used if there are no contraindications.
Pphx: Verapamil or lithium and should be started asap after the onset of an acute attack.

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247
Q

What causes of Hyperthyroidism cause ophthalmopathy?

A

ONLY graves. If a patient has elevated thyroid hormones and ophthalmopathy then it has to be graves.

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248
Q

How to differentiate between Subacute granulomatous (De Quervian) vs. Subacute lymphocytic thyroiditis:

A

BOTH:

  • Progress from hyper to hypothyroidism w/ a diffusely enlarged thyroid.
  • Screen: T3/T4, thyroglobulin (increased), and TSH
  • Confirm: Increased ESR, decreased iodine uptake
  • Tx: BB + NSAIDS (MTZ is contraindicated!) for thyrotoxic, levothyroxine for hypothyroid phase

Subacute granulomatous = due to infection + painful thyroid +/- jaw pain.

Subacute lymphocytic = due to drugs/autoimmune/post-pregnancy + not painful

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249
Q

What auto-Abs may be seen in PBC?

A

Anti-mitochondrial are the most commonly associated. Anti-smooth muscle may also be present but these are more commonly seen in Autoimmune hepatitis.

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250
Q

What is goat’s milk deficient in?

A

Folate

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251
Q

What test should be done in a patient with a low Wells score meaning PE is unlikely?

A

D-dimer – it has high negative predictive value and can exclude the diagnosis of PE.
Patients with a high wells score should undergo a CTA, or a V/Q scan if they have contraindications to a CTA.

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252
Q

What chromosome is linked to CF?

A

Chromosome 7 at position F508 is most common.

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253
Q

What drug is often a/w an increased risk of PML?

A

Natalizumab an alpha-4-integrin inhibitor.
Often used to treat MS and Crohn’s.
It interferes w/LCs, MCs and vascular adhesion of inflammatory cells.

Rituximab a CD20 antagonist.
Used to treat B-cell NH lymphoma, CLL, RA, and ITP.

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254
Q

Most common cranial nerve palsy a/w idiopathic intracranial HTN?

A

CN VI

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255
Q

Medications that can cause idiopathic intracranial HTN:

A

Growth Hormone
Tetracyclines (minocycline, doxy)
xs Vit. A and its derivatives: Isotretinoin, ATRA.

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256
Q

What FiO2 levels can cause O2 toxicity?

A

Anything >60%.

When pts are first put on ventilators these levels are often exceeded but should be reduced asap to prevent toxicity.

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257
Q

What bone complication can be caused by Celiac and what would the lab findings be?

A

Osteomalacia – impaired osteoid matrix mineralization.

Have increased AlkPhos and PTH, decreased serum and urinary Ca2+, and 25 OH-D levels.

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258
Q

Characteristic radiologic finding of osteomalacia:

A

Decreased bone density w/thinning of the cortex
Bilateral and symmetric pseudofractures (looser zones)
Eventually will cause “codfish” vertebral bodies w/a concave shape.

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259
Q

Management of tachyarrhythmia causing hemodynamic instability:

A

Immediate synchronized direct current cardioversion.

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260
Q

Initial management for patients with hypertriglyceridemia:

A

Statin therapy
Weight loss
Decreased EtOH intake
Increased exercise

** Although fibrates decrease TGs these are rarely needed in addition to statins.

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261
Q

Treatment of Shingles:

A

Acyclovir, Famciclovir, Valacyclovir

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262
Q

What is Hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Complication of end-stage liver disease.
Characterized by decrease in glomerular filtration w/out another clear cause of renal dysfxn., minimal hematuria (<50 RBCs) and lack of improvement w/volume resuscitation.
Pts. develop splanchnic arterial dilation and decrease in vascular resistance, get renal HoPerfusion.

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263
Q

Treatment of Painless/Silent thyroiditis:

A

It is normally self-limiting and doesn’t require therapy, but a BB (propranolol) may be prescribed to control the hyperthyroid sxs.

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264
Q

Complications of Metoclopramide and Prochlorperazine:

A

Both are dopamine antagonists and used as antiemetics. They can cause EPS like acute dystonias, akathisia, and parkinsonism.

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265
Q

What is telogen effluvium?

A

One of the most common causes of hair loss in adults. Follicles undergo widespread shedding and cease growing.
Often follows a stressful event – weight loss, pregnancy, major illness/surgery, or psychiatric trauma.
In the hair pull test, extraction of >10-15% of fibers suggests TE.
Self-limiting but may take up to a year to resolve.

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266
Q

Characteristics and treatment of Ehrlichiosis:

A

Transmitted by tick, causes flu-like illness w/ fever, HA, myalgias, chills, neuro sxs
Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia w/elevated liver enzymes and LDH
Tx: doxycycline.

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267
Q

Rxs that contribute to increased LDL-C levels:

A

Thiazides
Cyclosporine
Glucocorticoids
Amiodarone

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268
Q

Treatment of central retinal a. occlusion:

A

Emergently treated w/ocular massage and high-flow O2.

Can give thrombolytics if w/in 4-6hrs but must be admin’d intra-ARTERIALLY cannot be given systemically via IV.

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269
Q

Presentation of Multiple Myeloma:

A

Often presents w/anemia and hypercalcemia in a patient with bone pain (chest or back). Classically progresses to renal insufficiency w/bland urinalysis and evidence of granular casts.

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270
Q

Treatment of Bacillary angiomatosis:

A

Oral erythromycin

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271
Q

Cause of bilateral trigeminal neuralgia:

A

MS is one of the only conditions that causes b/l trigeminal neuralgia – d/t demyelination of the nucleus of the CN V nerve or nerve root.

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272
Q

Management of Infectious Mononucleosis:

A

Supportive, and avoidance of sports for >3 weeks (4 if its contact sports) d/t risk of splenic rupture.

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273
Q

What test can identify patients w/ Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s)?

A

ACTH stimulation (cosyntropin test). Should also include 8AM serum cortisol measurement.

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274
Q

What has the strongest association with both ischemic and hemorrhagic strokes?

A

HTN – d/t the shearing force on the intracerebral vascular endothelium, it accelerates AS and promotes thrombi formation.

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275
Q

What test is commonly used to compare two means?

A

The two-sample t test.

In contrast to the chi-squared test which compares categorical data and proportions between two groups.

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276
Q

Best initial test to perform on acute stroke patients?

A

CT w/out contrast – this will rule out hemorrhage the quickest.

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277
Q

How to differentiate b/w CML and Leukemoid rxn:

A

CML:

  • LAP low
  • Immature NP precursors = myelocytes > Metamyleocytes
  • Absolute basophilia

Leukmoid:

  • LAP high
  • Mature NP precursors = Metamyelocytes > myleocytes
  • No basophilia
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278
Q

EKG leads involved in anterior MI:

A

LAD blocked

Some or all of V1-V6

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279
Q

EKG leads involved in inferior MI:

A

RCA or LCX blocked
ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF
Inferior MIs are a/w HoTN, bradycardia and AV block.

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280
Q

EKG leads involved in posterior MI:

A

LCX or RCA blocked
ST depression in V1-V3
ST elevation in I and aVL (LCX)
ST depression in I and aVL (RCA)

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281
Q

EKG leads involves in lateral MI:

A

LCX, diagonal vessel blocked
ST elevation in I, aVL, V5 and V6
ST depression in II, III, and aVF

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282
Q

EKG leads involved in RV MI:

A

Blocked RCA
ST elevation in V4-V6
Occurs in 1/2 of Inferior MIs

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283
Q

What is used to confirm the diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Lumbar XR.

HLA-B27 is not needed – only seen in 5% of patients.

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284
Q

Common causes of secondary amyloidosis (AA):

A
Inflammatory arthritis (RA)
Chronic infections (bronchiectasis, TB, osteomyelitis)
IBD (crohn’s)
Malignancy (lymphoma)
Vasculitis
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285
Q

Diagnosis of secondary amyloidosis (AA):

A

Abdominal fat pad aspiration biopsy

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286
Q

Tx of secondary amyloidosis (AA):

A

Tx underlying condition

Colchicine for prevention and treatment

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287
Q

Management of iatrogenic Hyponatremia:

A

Hypertonic (3%) saline
Serial measurement of electrolytes
Increase serum sodium

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288
Q

What makes a patient automatically not a candidate for lung cancer surgery?

A

If they have positive LNs from a mediastinal sampling.

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289
Q

What is the initial workup for pts. w/HTN?

A

Basic lab analysis w/urinalysis, chemistry panel, lipid profile, and baseline EKG.
In addition a detailed history and physical should be performed

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290
Q

Management of torsades de pointes:

A

In hemodynamically stable pts. first line is Magnesium sulfate.
In hemodynamically unstable patients immediate defibrillation needs to be done.

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291
Q

DoC for treating Lyme disease:

A

Doxycycline for most patients – will also treat/prevent coexisting anaplasmosis.
In pregnant/lactating women and young children DoC is amoxicillin or cefuroxime

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292
Q

Causes of metabolic alkalosis that are responsive to saline:

A
Vomiting
Gastric suctioning
Diuretics
Laxative abuse
Volume depletion
Urine Chloride <20 mEq/L
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293
Q

Saline-resistant causes of metabolic alkalosis:

A
Primary hyperaldosteronism
Cushing’s
Severe hypokalemia (<2mEq/L)
Urine chloride >20 mEq/L
May see increased Na+ as there is xs mineralocorticoid in these types of metabolic alkalosis and Na+ retention.
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294
Q

Most effective non-pharmacological intervention to reduce BP:

A

Weight loss in overweight patients.

DASH diet in others.

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295
Q

What should be suspected in a pt w/painless blisters that heal with scarring, and increased skin fragility?

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda – especially in a patient with HCV.

May also see facial hypertrichosis, and hyperpigmentation.

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296
Q

Effect of cirrhosis on thyroid function:

A

The liver produces thyroid-binding proteins (thyroxine-binding globulin, transthyretin, albumin etc).

When the liver fails, total T3 and T4 levels will decrease (because of decreased transport proteins), but free T3 and T4 remain unchanged. So, TSH will be normal looking like the pt. is euthyroid.

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297
Q

Common precipitating factors of thyroid storm:

A
Thyroid surgery
NON-thyroid surgery!!
Acute illness
Childbirth
Acute iodine load (iodine contrast)
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298
Q

In diabetic neuropathy what is responsible for the positive v. negative symptoms?

A

Axonopathy of large nerve fibers causes the negative sxs (numbness, loss of proprioception and vibration sense, diminished ankle reflexes)
Axonopathy of small nerve fibers causes the positive sxs (pain, paresthesias, allodynia)

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299
Q

NNT equation:

A
NNT = 1/ARR
ARR = Risk in control group – Risk in treatment group
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300
Q

Main complication of prolonged seizures:

A

Cortical laminar necrosis – can lead to persistent neuro deficits and recurrent seizures.

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301
Q

Treatment of Nocardia:

A

TMP-SMX for pulmonary

Add Carbapenems if brain is involved

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302
Q

Rxs that commonly cause folic acid deficiency:

A

Phenytoin (plus other anti-epileptics), primidone, phenobarbital, TMP, MTX

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303
Q

Presentation of pulmonic valve stenosis:

A

Severe cases present w/RHF in childhood
Mild cases have sxs like dyspnea in early adulthood w/ a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that increases on inspiration with a systolic ejection click and widened split S2.

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304
Q

What should be given to patients with hypercalcemia d/t bony metastatic lesions?

A

Bisphosphonate therapy – will stabilize the destructive tumors, reduce risk of pathologic fractures and malignant hypercalcemia.

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305
Q

ABG in salicylate toxicity:

A

Low PaCO2, Low HCO3, and near-normal pH

Bc there is respiratory alkalosis followed by an anion gap metabolic acidosis.

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306
Q

Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo:

A

Episodic dizziness triggered by positional changes d/t crystalline deposits (canaliths) in the semicircular canals that disrupt the flow of vestibular fluid.
This is the most common cause of vertigo

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307
Q

Dix-hallpike maneuver:

A

Vertigo and nystagmus triggered by quickly lying back into a supine position with the head rotated 45 degrees.
Used to diagnose benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

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308
Q

Tx of Malignant otitis externa:

A

IV anti-pseudomonal antibiotics, like ciprofloxacin

+/- surgical debridement

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309
Q

Gait in Parkinsonism:

A

Slow, Shuffling, HYPOKINETIC gait. Typically narrow-based.

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310
Q

CYP450 Inhibitors:

A
Increase drug effects.
Acetaminophen, NSAIDs
Abx/Antifungals (metronidazole)
Amiodarone
Cimetidine
Cranberry juice, Ginko, Vitamin E
Omeprazole/ PPIs
Thyroid Hormone
SSRIs (fluoxetine)
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311
Q

CYP450 Inducers:

A
Decrease drug effects
Carbamazepine, phenytoin
Ginseng, St. John’s wort
Oral contraceptives
Phenobarbital
Rifampin
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312
Q

What foods may have an effect on Warfarin?

A

Brussel sprouts, spinach, or anything else with a good source of Vitamin K.
These decrease warfarin’s effect

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313
Q

Treatment of Polymyalgia rheumatica:

A

Glucocorticoids

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314
Q

Lab findings in Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome:

A

paradoxical aPTT prolongation not reversed on plasma mixing studies – d/t the lupus anticoagulation effect.
Anticardiolipin Ab
Anti-B2-Glycoprotein-I Ab

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315
Q

Treatment of Rhino-Orbital-Cerebral mucormycosis:

A

Surgical debridement + Amphotericin B

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316
Q

What complication is seen with Voriconazole use in pts w/Heme malignancies?

A

Independent risk factor for Mucormycosis

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317
Q

Early side effects of levodopa/carbidopa:

A
Hallucinations
Confusion
Agitation
Dizziness
Somnolence
Nausea
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318
Q

How would a patient with metastatic testicular cancer likely present?

A

Testicular tms often met to the retroperitoneal LNs causing low back pain, and the lungs causing dyspnea/cough and pulmonary nodules on CXR.
Should be suspected when a young patient presents w/these sxs.

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319
Q

Tx of aFib in pts with WPW:

A
Cardioversion or antiarrhythmics like Procainamide
AVN blockers (BBs, CCBs, Digoxin, Adenosine) are contra’d bc they can increase conduction through the accessory pathway.
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320
Q

What levels of pro-insulin are expected to be seen in patients with insulinomas?

A

Increased levels >5 pmol/L

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321
Q

What are some complications of heat stroke?

A

Rhabdomyolysis
Renal failure
ARDS
DIC – which leads to coagulopathic bleeding and persistent epistaxis

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322
Q

Ocular AEs a/w PDE-5 inhibitors:

A

Blue discoloration of vision

Nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

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323
Q

Rx interactions w/PDE-5 inhibitors:

A

Antihypertensives along with these Rxs can cause severe HoTN, but especially a-blockers like Doxazosin and Nitrates. Both these classes should be avoided.

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324
Q

Tx of E. histolytica:

A

Metronidazole + an intraluminal abx (Paromomycin- an aminoglycoside)

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325
Q

When are smudge cells seen?

A

In cases of CLL – these are pathognomonic.

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326
Q

Presentation of CLL:

A

Often asx, but can have extreme fatigue, B sxs, infection or weight loss.
PE shows lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.

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327
Q

What suggests impending respiratory collapse in an asthma exacerbation?

A

A near normal pH and PaCO2 on ABG – indicates that the ongoing increased work of breathing is unable to maintain adequate ventilation.
Resp. mm. fatigue and/or severe air trapping prevent meeting the demands of increased respiratory drive and suggest impending resp. collapse.

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328
Q

What valvular pathology can occur 2/2 pacemaker placement?

A

Tricuspid regurge.

The RV lead passes through the SVC and RA through the tricuspid valve and can damage the valve leaflets.

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329
Q

What causes Age-related macular degeneration?

A

Degeneration and atrophy of the central retina (macula), retinal pigment epithelium, Bruch’s membrane, and choriocapillaries.

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330
Q

How will AMD present?

A

Age-related macular degeneration.
Presents w/ progressive loss of central vision with peripheral fields and navigational vision maintained.
May develop cataracts after a while.

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331
Q

Presentation of Chronic Prostatitis/Chronic pelvic pain syndrome:

A

Pain in pelvis, perineum, and genitalia. Pain can radiate to the back.
Irritative voiding sxs (urgency, hesitancy)
Hematospermia, pain w/ejaculation
Normal urinalysis and negative culture results
Typically NO prostate tenderness.

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332
Q

What causes Chronic Prostatitis/CPPS?

A

Unclear etiology – thought to be noninfectious chronic prostate inflammation.

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333
Q

Tx for chronic prostatitis/CPPS:

A

Abx (quinolones) even though bacteria aren’t thought to cause it.
a-blockers (tamsulosin)
5-a-reductase inhibitors (finasteride)

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334
Q

How long does it take for Coccidioides to present?

A

Typically get sxs 7-14 days after inoculation w/ the fungus (mold).

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335
Q

Incubation time for Blastomyces?

A

3-6 weeks!

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336
Q

When do you begin tx for HoThyroidism?

A

When TSH >5

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337
Q

Hetrophile antibody test:

A

Aka monospot – positive in infectious mononucleosis, but there is a 25% false-negative rate during the 1st week of illness.

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338
Q

Manifestations of PCV:

A
HTN 
Erythromelalgia (burning cyanosis in hands/feet) 
Transient Visual distrubances
Aquagenic pruritis
Gouty arthritis
Bleeding
Facial plethora
Splenomegaly
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339
Q

Tx of PCV:

A

Phlebotomy or Hydroxyurea if increased risk of thrombus

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340
Q

What should be given in cases of COPD exacerbation?

A
Inhaled bronchodilators (B2 agonists and anticholinergics), and systemic glucocorticoids. 
Supplemental O2, Abx, and ventilator support may also be needed.
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341
Q

How to diagnose Leprosy:

A

Full-thickness biopsy of skin lesion from an active edge.

It is not culturable.

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342
Q

Tx of Leprosy:

A

Dapsone + Rifampin

Add clofazime if severe/multibacillary

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343
Q

What arthritis is non-erosive?

A

SLE arthritis. It is an inflammatory. All others destroy the bone.

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344
Q

What is familial Mediterranean fever?

A

Genetic disorder causing recurrent episodes of fever often accompanied by pain in abdomen, chest and joints.

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345
Q

Febrile Neutropenia common causes and treatment:

A

G-negs (P. aeruginosa especially) are most common infection in febrile neutropenia.
Once blood cultures are taken monotherapy w/an anti-pseudomonal B-lactam should be started – cefepime, meropenem, pip-tazo.

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346
Q

How do alcoholics get hypocalcemia?

A

Often they develop hypomagnesemia which then creates resistance to PTH and decreases PTH secretion leading to hypocalcemia and hypophosphatemia.

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347
Q

What Rx is used to diagnose and manage narrow-QRS-complex tachycardia?

A

Adenosine.

It slows the sinus rate, increases AVN conduction delay or can cause transient AVN block.

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348
Q

What should be expected/tested for in unexplained cytopenias?

A

Chronic HIV infection.

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349
Q

What should all patients with presumed ITP be tested for?

A

HIV and HCV

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350
Q

Features of Lewy Body Dementia:

A

Fluctuating cognition, bizarre, visual hallucinations, and Parkonsonism (giving DA antagonists, 1st-gen antipsychs and risperidone will exacerbate the condition).

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351
Q

Most common cause of community-acquired bacterial meningitis:

A

S. pneumoniae

Can occur w/ or w/o concurrent pneumococcal pneumonia.

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352
Q

What is one of the earliest signs of macular degeneration?

A

Distortion of straight lines so that they look wavy.

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353
Q

Lab results of AML:

A

Cytopenias, elevated LDH, myeloblasts w/auer rods on peripheral smear.

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354
Q

What should be thought of in a HIV patient with pulmonary, mucocutaneous and reticuloendothelial findings?

A

Progressive disseminated Histoplasmosis.
Get systemic sxs (fevers, chills, malaise)
Weight loss/cachexia
Pulmonary – cough, dyspnea
Mucocutaneous lesions (papules, nodules)
Reticuloendothelial (Hepatosplenomegaly, Lymphadenopathy)

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355
Q

Labs in disseminated histoplasmosis:

A

Pancytopenia
Transaminitis
Increased LDH + Ferritin

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356
Q

Tx of Disseminated Histoplasmosis:

A
Amphotericin B (mod-severe disease)
Itraconazole (mild disease/maintenance)
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357
Q

Most common cause of spontaneous lobar hemorrhage:

A

Amyloid Angiopathy – most often involves the occipital and parietal lobes.

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358
Q

What should pts w/chest pain and suspected ACS be given first in the ED?

A

Aspirin – as long as the risk of aortic dissection is low.

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359
Q

Common AEs of Cyclosporine:

A

Nephrotoxicity – most common
HTN from renal vasoconstriction and Na+ retention
Neurotoxicity – HA, visual disturbances, seizure, tremors
Glucose intolerance
Infection
Malignancy – SCC of skin and lymphoproliferative
Gingival hypertrophy and hirsutism
GI – anorexia, N/V/D

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360
Q

Preferred initial test in patients with suspected DVT:

A

Compression ultrasonography

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361
Q

What sites are affected in spondyloarthropathies?

A

The ligamentous insertion points (enthesitis).

Pain is worse at night and with rest.

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362
Q

Causes of chemotx-induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN):

A

Vinca alkaloids (Vincristine, Vinblastine)
Pb-based analogs (Cisplatin, Carbaplatin)
Taxanes (Paclitaxel)

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363
Q

What is seen on autopsy of LBD?

A

Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions – accumulations of a-synuclein protein.
Seen in neurons of the substantia nigra, locus coeruleus, dorsal raphe nucleus, and sustantia innominata.

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364
Q

Tx of LBD:

A

Carbidopa-levodopa for Parkinsonism
Cholinesterase inhibitor for cognitive impairement
SECOND-gen anti-psychs for psychotic sxs. 1st gens create severe neuroleptic sensitivity in these pts.

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365
Q

Euthyroid Sick Syndrome:

A

Abnormal thyroid fxn tests in any pt. w/an acute, severe illness (post-MI etc)
Most common pattern is low free and total T3 with normal TSH and T4.

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366
Q

Esophagus ulcers in HIV pts:

A

Large linear = CMV
Vesicles and round/ovoid ulcers = HSV
White plaques = Candida

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367
Q

What will cause Hyperchylomicronemia?

A

Aka Type I familial dyslipidemia
D/t a defective LPL or apoC-II
Often presents with acute pancreatitis

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368
Q

Phosphate levels in secondary hyperPTHism:

A

Normally caused by renal failure – leads to phosphate retention and improper clearing, so increased serum PO4 with decreased Vit D, and Ca2+ and increased PTH.
25-hydroxycholecalciferol (inactive Vit. D storage form) will increase.

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369
Q

How should B12 be administered in Pernicious anemia pts?

A

IM injection – this bypasses enteral absorption which is impaired in these patients.

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370
Q

Tx of PE:

A

Heparin or LMWH (Enoxaparin) then bridge to warfarin
Can give tpa in some cases, but is contraindicated in post-op patients.
IVC filters can be placed in pts if PE recurs or anticoagulation is strictly contra’d

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371
Q

Major risk factors for HBV infection:

A

Multiple sexual partners and IVDU.
HBV is much more likely to present with sxs than HCV.
HBV is also much more commonly contracted through sexual contact than HCV.

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372
Q

Molluscum contagiosum:

A

Skin infection from Poxvirus.
Characterized by small, pruritic, skin-colored papules w/umbilicated centers.
Imaired cell-immunity may lead to a prolonged course w/widely spread papules involving the face.
HIV testing should be considered for patients w/MC.

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373
Q

Severe cx of Nitroprusside therapy:

A

Cyanide toxicity – get AMS, lactic acidosis, seizures and coma.
Most common in patients w/renal insufficiency.

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374
Q

Post-ictal lactic acidosis:

A

Often follows seizures (esp. tonic-clonic). Raises serum lactic acid d/t skeletal mm. hypoxia.
Typically transient/self-limited and resolves w/in 90 min.
Mgmt is observation and repeat chemistry panel//ABG after ~2hrs.

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375
Q

When should NaHCO3 be given for metabolic acidosis?

A

When pH < 7.1.

Anything higher may cause myocardial depression and increased lactic acid production.

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376
Q

Features of Chronic arsenic poisoning:

A

Polyneuropathy, pancytopenia, mild transaminase elevation, hypo/hyperpigmentation and hyperkeratosis.

Mees lines - horizontal striations of the finger nails is characteristic

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377
Q

Tx of acute MS exacerbation:

A

Glucocorticoids (IV Methylprednisolone)

Plasmapheresis can be considered in pts refractory to steroids.

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378
Q

Chronic maintenance tx of MS:

A

IFN-B or Glatiramer acetate.
Both are disease modifying agents and used for chronic tx in pts. w/relapsing-remitting or secondary, progressive forms of MS.

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379
Q

Auto-Abs in Scleroderma:

A

Antinuclear-Ab (most sensitive, but not specific)
Anti-topoisomerase I (anti-Scl-70) Ab and anti-RNA pol III (most specific)
Anticentromere-Ab (mostly in limited disease/CREST)

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380
Q

What does skin infection involving the external ear most likely suggest?

A

Erysipelas – bc the external ear lacks a lower dermis level which makes cellulitis a v. unlikely diagnosis.

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381
Q

Cause and presentation of erysipelas:

A

S. pyogenes (aka GBS)
Warm, tender, erythematous rash w/raised, sharply demarcated borders.
May have systemic sxs fever, chills, regional lymphadenopathy.

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382
Q

Most common AE w/in 1-6hrs of transfusion:

A

Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion rxn. – can be prevented with leukoreduction.

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383
Q

When should cells be washed prior to transfusion?

A

If the pt. has IgA deficiency or had a prior allergic transfusion rxn.

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384
Q

What should be given to transplant pts. to prevent opportunistic infections?

A

TMP-SMX.
This prevents PCP, some Listeria and toxoplasma infections.
Can be discontinued 6-12 months post-transplant.
Some pts. may also receive Ganciclovir for pphx against CMV

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385
Q

What is use dependence and what Rxs is it seen with?

A

It is enhanced pharmacologic effects of a drug during faster heart rates
Seen with class I (esp. IC, less so IA) and class IV (CCBs) anti-arrhythmic agents.
Class IC cause progressive decrease in impulse conduction w/faster HR – leads to increase in QRS duration.
Class IV (CCBs) will see an increase in the PR interval, but no change in the QRS complex.

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386
Q

First step in evaluation of Cushing syndrome:

A

Confirm hypercortisolism w/late-night salivary cortisol assay, 24-hr urine free cortisol, and/or low-dose dexamethasone test.
- 2/3 of these tests needs to be + to dx
If confirmed, then measure ACTH.

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387
Q

Tx of Diffuse esophageal spasm:

A

CCBs.

Alternatives: Nitrates or TCAs

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388
Q

Diagnostic requirements of acute liver failure:

A

Severe injury with elevated aminotransferases (often >1000)
Signs of hepatic encephalopathy
Impaired hepatic synthetic fxn (INR > 1.5)

Cirrhosis or underlying liver disease should not be present

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389
Q

Tx of Optic neuritis:

A

IV corticosteroids.

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390
Q

Diagnostic study for suspected aortic dissection:

A

TEE or CTA – but can’t use CTA in renal disease.

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391
Q

Presentation and diagnosis of oropharyngeal dysphagia:

A

History of difficulty initiating swallowing with cough, choking, or nasal regurgitation.
Diagnose with Videofluoroscopic modified barium swallow.

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392
Q

Mgmt of caustic ingestion:

A

Ingestion of alkali substances like sodium hydroxide (lye), can cause immediate chemical burn or liquefactive necrosis.
Managed with decontamination and IV hydration.
Upper GI endoscopy should be performed w/in first 12-24 hrs to determine extent of damage.
Mild injury = supportive measures
More severe = tube feedings and possible surgery.

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393
Q

What is tonometry and when is it used?

A

It measures intra-ocular pressure and is used to asses acute ACG.

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394
Q

Tx of Trigeminal Neuralgia:

A

Carbamezapine

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395
Q

Preferred tx for hypovolemic hypernatremia:

A

IV 0.9% saline.

The fluid can be switched to 5% dextrose once the patient is euvolemic.

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396
Q

DoC for Osteoporosis:

A

Alendronate
Can’t give to pts. w/GERD so give Zolendronic acid bc its given IV and doesn’t cause reflux esophagitis like Alendronate.

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397
Q

What cancers are likely to cause primarily solitary brain mets?

A

Breast
Colon
RCCa
Lung and melanoma likely to cause multiple mets.

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398
Q

Most common ca to met to the Brain?

A

Lung.
Neoplastic cells travel through vasculature and lodge in small-caliber vessels at the gray/white matter jxn.
Often cause vasogenic edema as well.

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399
Q

MS v. Brain mets on MRI:

A

MS often has inflammatory white matter lesions.

Brain mets often well-circumscribed lesions at the gray/white matter jxns w/ vasogenic edema.

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400
Q

What causes the cyclical fevers in malaria?

A

Plasmodium-induced RBC lysis.

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401
Q

What are Heinz bodies and when are they seen?

A

Heinz bodies are oxidized/denatured Hb that occurs when there’s a G6PD deficiency (XL-recessive dx).

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402
Q

Most frequent source of PEs:

A

Deep veins of the lower extremities.
>90% PEs come from iliac, femoral or popliteal vv.
**Exception is patients w/nephrotic syndrome – renal vv. are most common source of PE in these pts.

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403
Q

Recommendations for Bladder cancer screening:

A

Currently there is recommendation against screening d/t its low incidence and poor PPV of current screening tests.

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404
Q

Management of Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state:

A

Aggressive hydration w/NS
IV Insulin (NOT subQ)
K+ supplementation.

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405
Q

Sxs of ACL injury:

A

Pain, rapid onset
Popping sensation at time of injury
Significant swelling w/effusion or hemarthrosis (gross blood on aspiration of joint fluid)
Joint instability

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406
Q

Common cardiac finding in chronic ankylosing spondylitis:

A

Aortic Regurgitation.

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407
Q

When do HCMP murmurs increase in intensity?

A
With Valsalva (straining phase), abrupt standing, nitroglycerin administration – all d/t decreased preload.
They decrease with sustained hand grip, squatting, and passive leg raise.
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408
Q

Pathogenesis and common causes of phototoxic drug rxns:

A

D/t production of ROS that then directly damage cell membranes and DNA.
Sxs can be seen in both sun-exposed areas as well as non-exposed areas.
Common causes: Abx (tetracyclines), Antipsychs (chlorpromazine), Diuretics (furosemide, thiazides), Amiodarone, promethazine, piroxicam.

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409
Q

Most common cause of B12 deficiency and possible long-term complication:

A

Pernicious anemia.

Causes atrophic gastritis which increases risk of gastric cancer and gastric carcinoid tms.

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410
Q

Mgmt of frostbite:

A

Rapid rewarming in 37-39C water bath.
Analgesia and wound care
Thrombolysis in severe, limb-threatening cases.

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411
Q

What medication can help with stone passage?

A

Tamsulosin or a1-antagonists.
They relax ureteral muscles and decrease intraureteral pressure – facilitate stone passage and reduce need for analgesics.

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412
Q

Tx of PCT:

A

Serial phlebotomy or hydroxychloroquine along w/mgmt. of underlying causes (HCV).

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413
Q

Tx plan for patients with RA:

A

All pts should be started on DMARDs as soon as possible to prevent further joint damage.
Started on non-bio DMARDs first (MTX is DoC) and then if no improvement, step-up to a biologic DMARD after 6 mo.
Then NSAIDs and glucocorticoids can be added for symptom relief.

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414
Q

DMARDs:

A

Nonbiologic: MTX (Initial DoC), Hydroxychloroquine, sulfasalazine, leflunomide, azathioprine
Biologics: Etanercept, infliximab, adalimumab, tocilizumab, rituximab.

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415
Q

What can ingestion of home distilled liquor cause?

A

Lead poisoning. Often distill alcohol through parts w/lead soldering.

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416
Q

Best tx of Anaphylaxis:

A

IM epinephrine

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417
Q

What is likely to be the cause of NPH?

A

Decreased CSF absorption

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418
Q

What is pathognomonic for rhabdomyolysis on urine analysis?

A

3+ blood with no RBCs on microscopy. Bc the myoglobin is making it positive for blood.

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419
Q

What causes Graves ophthalmopathy?

A

T cell activation and stimulation of orbital fibroblasts by TSH-R auto-Abs leading to expansion of orbital tissues.

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420
Q

What is a complication of supplemental O2 in advanced COPD patients?

A

CO2 retention and worsened hypercapnia d/t
1- Increased dead space perfusion – V/Q mismatch
2- decreased affinity of oxy-Hb for CO2
3- reduced alveolar ventilation.
Can cause increased lethargy and confusion and lead to seizure.

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421
Q

What should the goal O2 saturation be in pts. w/advanced COPD?

A

SaO2 90-93% or PaO2 60-70mmHg

Will decrease chance of CO2 retention.

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422
Q

Heme abnormalities in Chronic renal failure:

A

Platelet dysfxn is the most common cause of abnormal hemostasis in pts. w/CRF.
Get abnormal bleeding and bruising in uremic coagulopathy
PT, aPTT, and platelet count will be normal, but BT is prolonged.
DDAVP is DoC.
**DON’T give platelet transfusion bc the new platelets will quickly become inactive

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423
Q

What comorbidities are a/w PCOS?

A
Metabolic syndrome (diabetes, HTN)
Obstructive sleep apnea
Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
Endometrial hyperplasia/cancer
**Scren for DM w/oral glucose tolerance tes
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424
Q

Most common cause of Acute Liver Failure:

A

Acetaminophen toxicity

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425
Q

What is the preferred tx for Diabetic gastroparesis?

A

Metoclopramide – it is a prokinetic and antiemetic.

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426
Q

Tetrad that characterizes Neuroleptic malignant syndrome:

A

Mental status change
Rigidity
Fever
Autonomic dysregulation

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427
Q

How to differentiate b/w NMS and Rx-Induced Parkinsonism:

A

Only NMS will have autonomic instability and fever. Also more likely to see mental status changes.
Both will have tremors, rigidity, and gait abnormalities.

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428
Q

Pathophys of Cyanide toxicity:

A

Cyanide binds cytochrome oxidase and inhibits mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation.
Cells shift to anaerobic metab w/decreased ATP production – lactic acidosis.
Thiocyanate accumulation causes the neuro sxs.

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429
Q

Treatment of Cyanide toxicity:

A

Sodium Thiosulfate

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430
Q

What would cause refractory hypokalemia?

A

Hypomagnesemia is one of the most common causes.
Intracellular Mg inhibits K+ secretion by renal outer medullary K+ channels in the CT of the kidney; So when Mg is low K is secreted in xs.

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431
Q

What lab values will be seen in hyperthyroidism d/t exogenous intake?

A

Low TSH
High fT3 and T4
Low radioactive iodine uptake
Low serum Thyroglobulin

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432
Q

What thyroid condition will give you an elevated ESR?

A

Subacute (DeQuervain’s) thyroiditis.

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433
Q

Most likely cause of Culture negative urethritis?

A

Chlamydia

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434
Q

Effects of UGI bleeding on BUN/Cr:

A

Pts. w/upper GI bleeding, but not lower, may have increased BUN:Cr d/t increased urea production (from intestinal Hb breakdown) and increased urea reabsorption (d/t hypovolemia).
No changes are seen with creatinine.

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435
Q

Meningococcal vax schedule:

A

Regular – Primary vaccine age 11-12, then booster at age 16-21
High-risk patients – Vaccinate/booster even if age >18 for pts w/complement deficiency/asplenics, college students in residential housing (<21yo), military recruits, travelers to endemic areas, exposure to community outbreaks.

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436
Q

When should epidural glucocorticoid injections be used for low back pain?

A

In patients with lumbosacral radiculopathy who haven’t responded to initial tx.
NOT helpful for nonradicular pain.

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437
Q

Heme effects of ParvoB19:

A

Transient pure red cell aplasia

Aplastic crises in pts w/underlying heme disease.

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438
Q

Arthritis of ParvoB19:

A

Non-destructive (like SLE)

Acute, symmetric – affects hands (MCP, PIP, and wrists), knees, and ankles.

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439
Q

Most common behavioral risk for TB:

A

Substance abuse

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440
Q

Common findings in invasive aspergillosis:

A

Triad of fever, chest pain and hemoptysis
Pulmonary nodules (yes plural) with halo sign (surrounding ground-glass opacities)
Positive cell wall biomarkers (galactomannan, beta-D-glucan)

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441
Q

Mgmt of DKA:

A

NORMAL (0.9%) saline and regular insulin infusion.
Can add dextrose 5% once glucose is <200 mg/dL
Add K+ if serum K+ is < 5.2 mEq/L

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442
Q

AE of EPO therapy:

A

HTN – may lead to HTN crises esp. in pts who receive large doses or experience a rapid rise in Hb concentration.

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443
Q

Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome:

A

D/t osmotic shifts during hemodialysis – causes changes in neuro status d/t cerebral edema. May cause HA and N.

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444
Q

What is salvage therapy?

A

A form of treatment for a disease when a standard tx fails.

Ex: Radiation for prostate ca. recurrence after radical prostatectomy fails.

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445
Q

Lab values in steroid abuse:

A

Erythrocytosis/increased erythropoiesis – elevated Hb
Cholestasis
Hepatic failure
Dyslipidemia
Slight elevation in Creatinine (d/t increased mm. mass)

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446
Q

Lab values in Klinefelter syndrome:

A

Low/no testosterone
High FSH and LH
Azoospermia

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447
Q

What risk is increased in pts w/plantar puncture wounds through footwear?

A

Osteomyelitis d/t Pseudomonas.

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448
Q

What adjunctive therapy can be used to tx PCP?

A

In addition to TMP-SMX corticosteroids may be used and have been shown to reduce mortality in severe cases.
Indications: PaO2 <70 or A-a gradient >35 on room air.

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449
Q

What is an external hordeolum, what causes it, what is used to tx?

A

Hordeolum = stye.
Its an acute inflamm. disorder of the eyelash follicle or tear gland.
Often d/t S. aureus, but can be sterile.
Tx: warm compresses.
If it persists or is v. large may consider I+D.

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450
Q

Typical features of cerebellar hemorrhage:

A

Occipital HA (may radiate to neck/shoulders)
Neck stiffness (d/t extension of blood into 4th ventricle)
N/V
Nystagmus
Ipsilateral hemiataxia

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451
Q

First-line tx of Reactive arthritis:

A

NSAIDs.

Abx are not used.

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452
Q

Pulse in severe aortic stenosis:

A

Pulsus parvus et tardus

Delyaed/Slow-rising and diminished/weak carotid pulse.

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453
Q

Winter’s Formula:

A

PaCO2 = 1.5 (HCO3-) + 8 +/- 2

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454
Q

What are conduction abnormalities in pts. w/IE suspicious of?

A

Perivalvular abscess – most commonly seen with aortic valve involvement.
These are seen in almost 30-40% of patients with IE.

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455
Q

Postconcussive syndrome:

A

Follows TBI (hrs to days)
Sxs: HA, confusion, amnesia, difficulty concentrating or multitasking, vertigo, mood alteration, sleep disturbance, and anxiety.
Typically resolves w/in weeks to few months w/symptomatic tx.

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456
Q

What Rx increase risk of Exertional heat stroke?

A

Anticholinergics, antihistamines, phenothiazines, and TCAs.

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457
Q

Mgmt of exertional heat stroke:

A

Rapid cooling – ice water immersion preferred
Fluid resuscitation
Electrolyte correction
No role for antipyretics

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458
Q

Anticholinergic toxicity presentation:

A

Hyperthermia, tachycardia, dry skin, nonreactive mydriasis (Dilation w/ineffective accommodation), and decreased bowel sounds.
MOF/dysfxn is uncommon

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459
Q

What anti-DM medication is most likely to result in weight loss?

A

GLP-1 Receptor agonists (Exenatide, Liraglutide).

Pioglitazones (TZDs) and Sulfonylureas are likely to cause weight gain.

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460
Q

How to differentiate diarrhea in AIDS pts:

A

All can cause weight loss
Cyrptosporidium (CD4<180) – severe watery diarrhea, low fever
Micro/Isosporidium (CD4<100) – watery diarrhea, crampy AbdP fever RARE
MAC (CD4<50) – watery diarrhea HIGH FEVER (> 39/102)
CMV (CD4<50) – small volume diarrhea, only one that can be bloody/hematochezia, AbdP, low fever

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461
Q

When is asterixis seen?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy
Uremic encephalopathy
CO2 retention

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462
Q

Indications for Urgent Dialysis:

A

AEIOU
Acidosis – metabolic acidosis (pH < 7.1 and refractory to tx)
Electrolyte abnorms – symptomatic/severe hyperkalemia (EKG changes, arrhythmias, K>6.5)
Ingestion – toxic alcohols (MeOH, ethylene glycol), salicylate, Lithium, Na-valproate, carbamazepine
Overload – V overload refractory to diuretics
Uremia – symptomatic, encephalopathy, pericarditis, bleeding

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463
Q

What is hemi-neglect syndrome?

A

Caused by a lesion to the R/non-dominant parietal lobe, responsible for spatial organization.
Characterized by ignoring the L side of a space, and possible anosognosia

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464
Q

What are common BRAF inhibitors?

A

Vemurafenib and Dabrafenib

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465
Q

Adalimumab MoA and conditions it treats:

A

TNF-a inhibitor.

Txs IBD, RA, ankylosing spondylitis and psoriasis

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466
Q

What dx procedure should be done for pts. w/painless, gross hematuria?

A

Cystoscopy – to evaluate for bladder cancer.

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467
Q

Acid-Base abnormalities a/w salicylate toxicity:

A

Combined Respiratory alkalosis and an anion-gap metabolic acidosis

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468
Q

Clinical associations with FSGS:

A

AfAm + Hispanic ethnicity, obesity, HIV, heroin use

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469
Q

What post-MI cx is likely to cause biventricular failure?

A

Interventricular septum rupture aka VSD.

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470
Q

Aminoglycoside toxicity:

A

Can damage the cochlear cells – ototoxicity
Gentamicin especially can also damage the motion-sensitive hair cells in the inner ear to cause selective vestibular injury (vestibulopathy) w/or w/o ototoxicity.

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471
Q

What should be done before initiating trastuzumab therapy?

A

Trastuzumab = HER2 inhibitor
Baseline assessment of cardiac fxn by echo.
It is cardiotoxic.

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472
Q

2 Primary manifetations of Chagas disease:

A

Megacolon/megaesophagus and cardiac disease.

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473
Q

What patients should metformin be avoided in?

A

Acutely ill pts w/ARF
Pts predisposed for hypoxia (CVD, CKD, COPD)
Liver failure
Sepsis
All these conditions increase risk of lactic acidosis

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474
Q

Lab findings in PSGN:

A

UA: Protein+, Blood+, RBC casts +/-
Serum: decreased C3 and C4, increased Anti-DNase B, anti-AHase (antihyaluronidase), ASO, and anti-NAD

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475
Q

First line therapy for Raynaud?

A

Dihydropyridine CCBs (Nifedipine, Amlodipine) – just like vasospastic angina

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476
Q

What criteria must be met to receive pphx for Lyme dx?

A

Must meet all 5!
1- Tick is adult or nymphal Ixodes scapularis
2- Tick attached for >36hrs or engorged
3- Pphx started w/in 72hrs of removal
4- Local B. burgdorferi infection rate >20%
5- No contra’d to doxycycline

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477
Q

Effects of hypopituitarism on aldosterone:

A

There are no significant effects.

Adrenal aldosterone is mainly regulated by the RAAS and is not affected by low ACTH.

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478
Q

Tx of toxic megacolon:

A

IVF, BS Abx, and bowel rest.

IBD-induced should be treated w/IV corticosteroids

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479
Q

AEs of MTX:

A

Pancytopenia, folic acid deficiency, nausea, stomatitis, rash, hepatotoxicity, ILD, alopecia and fever.

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480
Q

Difference b/w case control and retrospective cohort:

A

Case control compares a group w/disease v w/o and tries to find risk factors
Retrospective cohort finds a group w/ a risk factor v a group w/o the risk and sees if the disease developed in each group.

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481
Q

Most appropriate diagnostic tests for acute HBV infection:

A

HBsAg and anti-HBc bc they’re both elevated during initial infection, and anti-HBc will remain elevated during the window period.

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482
Q

What is the most common tx of homocysteinemia?

A

Folate and B6.
Need B6 as cofactor for cystathionine B-synthase which catalyzes homocysteine to cystathionine.
If documented B12 deficiency then cobalamin is addcled.

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483
Q

Diagnosis of Dermatomyositis:

A

Increased CPK, aldolase, LDH
Anti-RNP, anti-Jo1 and anti-Mi2(anti-helicase) Abs
Can do EMG or mm./skin bx if uncertain
Should screen for malignancy once diagnosed.

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484
Q

Typical features of CJD:

A

Rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, and sharp, triphasic, synchronous discharges in EEG.

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485
Q

What are Hollenhorst plaques and when are they seen?

A

Bright, yellow, refractile plaques in the retinal a. seen on fundoscopy. These are seen in atheroembolism/cholesterol embolism and indicate a more proximal source (Internal carotid).

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486
Q

What is a mediastinal mass w/elevated AFP and B-hCG diagnostic of?

A

A nonseminomatous germ cell tumor.

If found a testicular US should be performed to exclude a sm. primary tm there.

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487
Q

What could pulsatile tinnitus in a young woman be concerning of?

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia with involvement of the carotid or vertebral aa.
Or Idiopathic Intracranial HTN

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488
Q

Treatment of Paget disease:

A

Bisphosphonates

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489
Q

What conditions are a/w Pseudogout?

A

Hemochromatosis
Hyperparathyroidism
Trauma/Overuse/Surgery

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490
Q

What is the main measure of association in case controls?

A

Exposure odds ratio

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491
Q

When is prevalence odds ratio calculated?

A

In cross-sectional studies

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492
Q

Tx for severe hypovolemic hypernatremia:

A

Isotonic 0.9% saline.
Once the volume deficit has been restored pts can be switched to half-normal 0.45% saline to better replace the free water deficit.
Goal rate of plasma Na+ correction is no more than 1mEg/L/hr to prevent cerebral edema.
Less severe cases can be treated w/5% dextrose in 0.45% saline

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493
Q

Most common cause of hypernatremia?

A

Hypovolemia

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494
Q

What is Ichthyosis vulgaris?

A

Chronic, inherited skin disorder characterized by diffuse dermal scaling. Caused by mutations in flaggrin gene.

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495
Q

Situational syncope:

A

Form of reflex/neurally mediated syncope a/w triggers – micturition, cough, defecation.
Triggers cause alteration in ANS response and lead to cardioinhibitory, vasodepressor or mixed response.
Increased PSNS and decreased SNS

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496
Q

Aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease:

A

Non-IgE mediated, psuedoallergic Rx reaction.
Seen in pts. w/hx of asthma, chronic rhinosinusitis w/nasal polyposis.
Characterized by bronchospasm and nasal congestion following aspirin ingestion.

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497
Q

Post-exposure pphx in HBV unvax’d pts:

A

Immediate HB vaccine and HB immune globulin with follow up serology.

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498
Q

HSV retinitits in an IMCP’d pt:

A

Rapidly progressing b/l necrotizing retinitis – “acute retinal necrosis syndrome.”
Initial sxs: keratitis, conjunctivitis w/eye pain, followed by rapid vision loss.
Fundoscopy: widespread, pale, peripheral lesions and central necrosis of the retina.
VZV may also cause this same type of retinal necrosis.

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499
Q

Most common cause of corneal blindness in the US:

A

HSV infection.

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500
Q

CMV retinitis:

A

Most common ocular cx in HIV pts.
Typically painless (unlike HSV)
Fundoscopy: fluffy or granular retinal lesions near the retinal vessels and assoc. hemorrhages.
No conjunctivitis or keratitis like in HSV.

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501
Q

What is sympathetic ophthalmia?

A

“Spared eye injury”
Immune-mediated inflammation of one eye after a penetrating injury to the other eye.
Typically see anterior uveitis, but panuveitis, papillary edema, and blindness may develop.
Pathophys is thought to be the uncovering of “hidden antigens.”

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502
Q

Cxs of Subarachnoid hermorrhage:

A
Re-bleed (first 24hrs)
Vasospasm (>3days – use nimodipine to prevent)
Hydrocephalus/increased ICP
Seizures
Hyponatremia (from SIADH)
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503
Q

Serum measurement of what has a high sensitivity of diagnosing CHF?

A

BNP.
Elevated levels of BNP correlate w/the severity of LV dysfunction and help differentiate dyspnea 2/2 CHF from other causes.

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504
Q

What conditions are a/w Nephrotic syndrome 2/2 AA amyloidosis?

A

Chronic inflammatory conditions: RA, IBD

Chronic Infections: Osteomyelitis, TB

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505
Q

Risk factors for Fluoroquinolone associated tendinopathy:

A

Age >60, normal BMI, female, concurrent oral corticosteroid use, recent transplant.

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506
Q

Anti-mitochondrial Abs:

A

Seen in PBC – high sensitivity and specificity

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507
Q

Typical presentation of Idiopathic Intracranial HTN:

A

Holocranial HA
Vision changes (blurry/diplopia)
Pulsatile Tinnitus

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508
Q

When is Papilledema a contraindication to LP?

A

Only when the pt has evidence of obstructive/non-communicating hydrocephalus +/- a space-occupying lesion, or midline shift.

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509
Q

What does the pronator drift test assess?

A

UMN or pyramidal/corticospinal tract disease.

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510
Q

What are signs of pyramidal tract injury?

A

Pronator drift, focal weakness, spasticity, hyperreflexia, and Babinski sign.

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511
Q

What is most likely a/w pts describing a “curtain drawn down” over the eye?

A

Retinal detachment.

May also be seen in amaurosis fugax/central retinal a. occlusion.

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512
Q

Lung cancer screening:

A

Can be done w/annual low-dose CT for patients 55-80 with >30 pack year smoking history.
CXR has not been shown to reduce mortality as a screening method.

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513
Q

Murmur heard in HCMP:

A

Harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur heard best at the apex and lower left sternal border.

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514
Q

Valvular abnormalities a/w bicuspid aortic valve:

A

In younger patients: Aortic regurg

In older: aortic stenosis

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515
Q

How to calculate the corrected Ca2+ level:

A

Corrected Ca2 = Measured Ca2 + 0.8 (4-Albumin)

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516
Q

Tx for Syphillis in a Pen-Allergic patient:

A

Oral Doxycycline for 14 days

Pen desensitization should be avoided if possible.

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517
Q

What abx therapy should be started in prostatitis while awaiting urine cultures?

A

TMP-SMX or Fluoroquinolone for acute

Fluoroquinolone for chronic.

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518
Q

Role of PEEP in respiratory distress:

A

PEEP prevents alveolar collapse and may also reopen some alveoli that have already collapsed, reducing shunting.
High PEEP will improve oxygenation and directly counteract a mechanism by which ARDS causes hypoxemia.
High PEEP may improve mortality in pts. w/severe ARDS.

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519
Q

When should hypercoagulability testing be done?

A

In pts <45 with a 1st time unprovoked DVT/PE
Pts w/recurrent DVT/PE
Pts w/unusual sites of thrombi (cerebral, mesentery, portal vv.)

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520
Q

Manifestations of HITT:

A

Thrombocytopenia – normally with platelets <60K. d/t RES removal of ab-coated platelets.
Thrombus – HIT Abs activate platelets and cause aggregation w/ release of procoagulant factors.

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521
Q

What is required for dx of malignant HTN?

A

Severe HTN w/retinal hemorrhages, exudates, or papilledema.

Malignant nephrosclerosis is often seen, but not always present and not required for diagnosis.

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522
Q

What differentials present with low DLCO?

A

Obstructive spirometry – Emphysema
Restrictive – ILD, Sarcoidosis, asbestosis, heart failure
Normal – Anemia, PE, pHTN

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523
Q

What differentials present with Normal DLCO?

A

Obstructive – Chronic bronchitis, asthma

Restrictive – MSK deformity, Neuromuscular disease.

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524
Q

What differentials present w/Increased DLCO?

A

Obstructive – asthma
Restrictive – morbid obesity
Normal – pulm hemorrhage, polycythemia

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525
Q

What is the management for pts w/Epidural spinal cord compression?

A

Emergent MRI, IV glucocorticoids (given 1st before confirmation w/MRI), and Neurosurgery consult.

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526
Q

Common presentation of pancreatic cancer:

A

Most occur in the head and compress the pancreatic duct and common bile duct –> painless jaundice.
Backup of bile leads to intra- and extrahepatic biliary duct dilation and nontender distended GB.
Jaundice can lead to pruritus, pale stools, and dark urine.

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527
Q

What is Felty syndrome?

A

RA – erosive jt disease/deformity, rheumatoid nodules, vasculitis (mononeuritis multiplex, necrotizing skin lesions)
Neutropenia
Splenomegaly.
Often are anti-CCP and RF +, have v. high ESR.

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528
Q

What causes the myopathy a/w Cushing syndrome?

A

Direct catabolic effects of cortisol on sk.mm. which leads to muscle atrophy.
NOT d/t an electrolyte imbalance.

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529
Q

How to diagnose CO poisoning:

A

ABG – check carboxyHb levels, EKG and cardiac enzymes is Ischemia or CAD.

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530
Q

How to diagnose acromegaly:

A

First test IGF-1, if elevated confirm w/ glucose suppression test – normal pts. glucose will rapidly suppress GH secretion. In acromegaly it will not decrease and may even have a paradoxical increase.

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531
Q

Treatment of Neurosyphillis:

A

IV penicillin for 10-14d (Not IM PenG like primary)

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532
Q

1st line tx for Chemo-Induced N/V:

A

5HT3R antagonists – odansetron

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533
Q

Common precipitating factors for HHS:

A

Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
Infection (most common)
Meds (Steroids, thiazides, pentamidine, atypical antipsychs.)
Injury/Acute Illness
Interruption of insulin tx
HHS typically develops over days – weeks.

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534
Q

What causes the neurologic sxs in HHS?

A

Confusion to coma can occur and are primarily d/t the high serum osmolality (norm. >320 mOsm)
HHS pts typically have pseudohyponatremia and therefore this is not a cause of neuro sxs

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535
Q

Nephropathy with dense intramembranous deposits that stain for C3 but not Igs:

A
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis type 2 aka Dense deposit disease.
IgG Abs (C3 nephritic factor) directed against C3 convertase of the alt. complement pathway lead to persistent complement activation and kidney damage.
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536
Q

What type of ulcers are typically seen on plantar surface of foot/toes?

A

Diabetic foot ulcers – tested for w/monofilament test.

In contrast arterial ulcers are often at v tip of toes but not plantar surface.

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537
Q

Causes and risk factors of GBS:

A

Most common cause is C. jejuni. Others – HHVs, Mycoplasma, H. influenzae.
Pts. at higher risk: Lymphoma, Sarcoidosis, SLE, recent HIV infection, and recent immunization.

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538
Q

Preferred tx for Pen-susceptible IE:

A

IV aqueous penicillin G or IV ceftriaxone for 4 wks.

PO abx aren’t recommended.

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539
Q

Tx of Ethylene glycol poisoning:

A

Fomepizole (competitive inhibitor of Alcohol DH) or EtOH. These prevent further breakdown into toxic metabs.
Bicarb can help alleviate acidosis
Hemodialysis may be required.

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540
Q

What does methylene blue tx:

A

Methemoglobinemia

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541
Q

Osteitis deformans:

A

Paget disease

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542
Q

Effect of serum albumin on Ca2+:

A

Decreases in albumin will cause a decrease in total serum Ca2+ bc about half of total blood Ca2+ is bound to it.
Ionized Ca2+ is hormonally regulated though and remains stable, so Ca2+ levels must be corrected based on albumin levels.

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543
Q

What Meds should always be considered in the differential dx of peripheral edema?

A

Dihydropyridine CCBs (Amlodipine and Nifedipine)

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544
Q

How to differentiate embolic v. thrombotic ischemic strokes:

A

Thrombotic are a/w AS risk factors, and sxs may alternate w/periods of improvement.
Emboli are a/w hx of cardiac disease and the onset is abrupt and normally maximal at the start. Will see multiple infarcts in different vascular territories.

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545
Q

pH effects on serum Ca2+:

A

Increased extracellular pH (alkalosis) causes H+ to dissociate from albumin, freeing up space for more ionized Ca2+ to bind. This leads to a decrease in ionized Ca2+, though total Ca2+ levels remain unchanged.
Causes signs/sxs of hypocalcemia – crampy pain, paresthesias, carpopedal spasm etc.
Seen in pts w/PE for example who get resp. alkalosis from hyperventilation.

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546
Q

What are the potential causes of hypocalcemia w/elevated PTH?

A

Endo: Vit.D def., CKD
Inflammatory: Pancreatitis, Sepsis
Oncology: Tumor lysis syndrome

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547
Q

Rxs that cause hypocalcemia:

A

Ca-chelators, Bisphosphonates, phenytoin

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548
Q

Features of Pyruvate Kinase deficiency:

A

Chronic hemolysis, hepatosplenomegaly, skin ulcers and pigmented gallstones.
Not triggered by stress/drugs like G6PD.
Seen as hemolytic anemia in a newborn.

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549
Q

Attributable risk percent calculation:

A

The risk percentage that can be explained by a particular exposure or risk factor
ARP = (Risk in exposed – risk in unexposed)/ Risk in exposed
ARP = (RR-1)/RR

(If a group has 4x risk w/an exposure the ARP=4-1/4=75%)

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550
Q

Tx for Exercise Induced Bronchoconstriction:

A

SABA 10-20min before exercise

Those who exercise daily can try ICS or antileukotriene agents.

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551
Q

What is Polymyalgia Rheumatica?

A

Seen commonly in pts w/temporal arteritis
Presents w/morning stiffness, pain and decreased RoM in the shoulders, neck and hip girdle.
Stiffness > Pain
Have normal muscle strength
Increase in ESR, normal CRP and creatinine kinase.
Tx w/glucocorticoids.

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552
Q

What are tophi?

A

Tumors formed in soft tissues by urate crystal deposition.

White in appearance and can ulcerate and drain a chalky material.

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553
Q

Mgmt of Diabetic foot infections:

A

Wound debridement and empiric IV abx (pip-tazo + vancomycin) to cover the polymicrobial nature of these infections.

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554
Q

Features of Interstitial cystitis:

A

Aka Bladder pain syndrome
A/w psychiatric and pain disorder (fibromyalgia)
Presents as bladder pain w/filling, relief w/voiding, increased freq, urgency and dyspareunia.
Pain can be exacerbated by exercise, EtOH and sex
Normal UA
Tx: not curative, can give Amytiptyline, pentosane polysulfate sodium, and analgesics for acute exacerbations.

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555
Q

Tx of Toxoplasmosis:

A

Sulfadiazine and Pyrimethamine + Leucovorin

PPhx w/TMP-SMX

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556
Q

Endocrine causes of recurrent pregnancy loss:

A
Thyroid disease
PCOS
DM
Hyperprolactinemia
**Celiac (not an endocrine dx) can also cause it
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557
Q

CA-MRSA Pneumonia:

A

A common cause of secondary bacterial pneumonia that complicates the flu. Often seen in young people.
Get severe, necrotizing pneumonia that’s rapidly progressive and often fatal.
Sxs: high fever, productive cough w/hemoptysis, leukopenia, and multilobar cavitary infiltrates.
CXR: multilobar (often midlung) infiltrates b/l and thin-walled cavities.

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558
Q

Behcet disease:

A

Seen in young adults of Turkish, middle east or Asian descent.
Get recurrent painful oral aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, eye lesions (uveitis), skin lesions (erythema nodosum, acneiform lesions) and thrombosis.
May also get pathergy – exaggerated skin ulceration w/ minor trauma (needlestick)

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559
Q

What Rx-Combo is likely to reduce the risk of CCB-assoc. peripheral edema?

A

CCB + ACEI

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560
Q

Features of PCP:

A

Elevated LDH! With diffuse reticular infiltrates on imaging.
Normally indolent in HIV but can cause acute respiratory failure in IMCP’d
Presents w/fever, dry cough and decreased O2 levels.

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561
Q

CVS manifestations of Primary HyperPTHism:

A

HTN, arrhythmias, ventricular hypertrophy and vascular/valvular calcification.
Significant HTN a/w HyperPTHism should be worked up for MEN2 and pheochromocytoma.

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562
Q

What should victims of smoke inhalation be treated for?

A

CN toxicity and CO toxicity.

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563
Q

What is the likely mechanism of lactic acidosis in smoke inhalation victims?

A

CN toxicity – it binds Ferric iron in Cytochrome oxidase a3 of electron transport chain which blocks oxidative phosphorylation and promotes anaerobic metab – lactic acidosis.

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564
Q

Features of Sideroblastic anemia:

A

Microcytic anemia w/dimorphic RBC population (both normo- and hypochromic RBCs)
Will have normal Fe levels and decreased TIBC to differentiate from Fe-def anemia.
Caused by B6/pyridoxine deficiency.

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565
Q

Derm associated cx of M. penumoniae infection:

A

SJS

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566
Q

What infection is a/w aged seafood?

A

Aka cured fish – get foodborne Botulism

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567
Q

Tx of Botulism:

A

Equine serum heptavalent botulinum antitoxin

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568
Q

Findings suggestive of severe AS:

A

Sxs of fatigue, exertional lightheadedness, syncope
Diminished/delayed carotid pulse – parvus et tardus
Mid to Late-peaking systolic murmur
Presence of soft and single S2.
Early peaking of the murmur suggests mild-mod AS – these pts are typically asx.

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569
Q

Cxs of PBC:

A

Malabsorption, fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies
Severe hyperlipidemia w/xanthelasmas
Metabolic bone disease – osteoporosis, osteomalacia (w/normal levels of Ca and Vit. D - bone dx isn’t from malabsorption)
HCCa.

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570
Q

Hyperlipidemia a/w PBC:

A

HDL elevation out of proportion to LDL.

Does not increase the risk of AS.

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571
Q

Where is bile absorbed?

A

In the ileum.

Pts w/ileal disease (Crohn’s) can get bile salt malabsorption/bile salt diarrhea

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572
Q

Effects of HoVolemia on Na+ values:

A

HoVolemia can cause hyponatremia as well, but many patients have normal serum Na+ levels, and some may even have hypernatremia.
However all patients w/V depletion will have decreased urine Na+ d/t RAAS activation and aggressive Na+ reabsorption in the kidney.

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573
Q

Most common causes of bloody diarrhea:

A

E. coli (esp. if fever is absent)
Shigella (a/w fever)
Campylobacter

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574
Q

What types of shock will see an increase in SVR (afterload)?

A

Hypovolemic and Cardiogenic.
Septic shock the SVR decreases
Differentiate Cardio v. Hypovolemic based on increase in preload (RA pressure, and PCWP) in cardiogenic and decreased preload in hypovolemic.

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575
Q

Mgmt of acetaminophen toxicity:

A

For pts who present early (<4hrs from ingestion) gastric decontamination (activated charcoal) and measurement of acetaminophen levels should be obtained.
Then based on levels and time since ingestion it can be determined if N-acetylcysteine should be admin’d
Pts can be asx during first 24hrs post-ingestion.

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576
Q

Tx recommendations in pregnant women w/suspected APS:

A

PPhx w/Aspirin and LMWH to prevent arterial and venous thromboses and pregnancy loss.

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577
Q

Tachycardia-mediated cardiomyopathy:

A

Presents w/progressive dyspnea, decreased exercise tolerance, aFib w/RVR, and LV systolic dysfxn.
Dx: EKG, Echo, and exclusion of other causes of LV dysfxn.
Tx: Aggressive rate or rhythm control

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578
Q

Tx of Latent TB:

A

9 mo of Isoniazid + Pyridoxine

Latent TB is dx’d w/positive PPD and negative CXR/no sxs.

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579
Q

What is Melanosis coli characteristic of?

A

Laxative abuse – seen on colonoscopy
Dark brown discoloration of the colon w/pale patches of lymph follicles “alligator skin”
Can disappear if laxatives are stopped.
Histo will show pigment in the MPs of the lamina propria

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580
Q

Tx for Giardia:

A

Metronidazole

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581
Q

Features of Putaminal (BG) hemorrhage:

A

Putaminal hemorrhages almost always involve adjacent internal capsule – contralateral hemiparesis and hemianesthesia + conjugate gaze deviation toward side of the lesion (from damage to frontal eye field efferents in ant. limb)
Common site of HTN intraparenchymal brain hemorrhage.

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582
Q

Pontine hemorrhage features:

A

Deep coma and total paralysis w/in mins. Pinpoint reactive pupils.

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583
Q

Primary Pphx of esophageal variceal hemorrhage:

A

Nonselective BBs (Propranolol/nadolol), or endoscopal ligation.

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584
Q

Best investigation for pleural effusion:

A

Thoracocentesis, except in pts w/clear evidence of CHF – they undergo trial of diuretic therapy first.

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585
Q

Characteristics of Acute Interstitial Nephritis:

A

Maculopapular rash, fever, new Rx exposure, +/- arthralgias.
Mostly caused by Rxs – Pens (Naficilin common), TMP-SMX, cephalosporins, NSAIDs, omeprazole
Labs: AKI, pyuria, hematuria, WBC casts, eosinophilia
Renal bx: inflammatory infiltrates and edema

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586
Q

Infectious causes of Acute Interstitial Nephritis:

A

Legionella, TB, Streptococcus

These are uncommon causes. Rxs are most common cause of AIN.

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587
Q

Cxs of Paget disease:

A

Giant cell tm and osteosarcoma

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588
Q

What can Beta-D-glucan be useful in diagnosing?

A

Fungal infections – esp. candida and aspergillus

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589
Q

Cxs of Giant Cell arteritis:

A

Permanent vision loss d/t anterior ischemic optic neuropathy from arteritis and aortic aneurysm.

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590
Q

How does prevalence affect PPV and NPV?

A

Increased prevalence increased PPV and decreases NPV

Decreased prevalence increases NPV and decreases PPV

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591
Q

What are the contributing factors to orthostatic HoTN in the elderly?

A

Decreased baroreceptor sensitivity, arterial stiffness, decreased NE content of SNS nerve endings, and reduced sensitivity of the myocardium to SNS stimulation.

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592
Q

Characteristics of Myasthenic crisis:

A

Increased generalized and oropharyngeal weakness, resp insufficiency/dyspnea
Risk factors: Infection, surgery, pregnancy/birth, tapering immunosuppressants, Rxs – aminoglycosides, BBs.
Tx: Intubation, Plasmapheresis, IVIG and corticosteroids.
Daily AchEIs used in MG mgmt. should be held to prevent xs airway secretions and risk of aspiration.

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593
Q

What are the features of De Quervain tenosynovitis and who is it commonly seen in?

A

Inflammation of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons – tenderness elicited w/direct palpation on the radial side of the wrist at the base of the hand.
Finkelstein test may also elicit pain.
Classically seen in new mothers who hold the babies w/ the thumb outstretched.

594
Q

Dx of Polymyositis:

A

Elevated m. enzymes – CK, aldolase, AST
Auto-Abs – ANA, anti-Jo-1
Bx – Endomysial infiltrate and patchy necrosis

595
Q

Effects of RAI therapy in Grave’s disease:

A

Resolution of Hyperthyroidism in 6-18 weeks, but most develop permanent hypothyroidism in mos-yrs following.
May also worsen Graves ophthalmopathy d/t increased titers of Thyroid stimulating Auto-Abs.

596
Q

What skin conditions are a/w HIV infection?

A

Sudden-onset severe psoriasis
Recurrent herpes zoster
Disseminated molluscum contagiosum
Severe seborrheic dermatitis

597
Q

What conditions are a/w severe Seborrheic dermatitis?

A

HIV and Parkinson

598
Q

What are the indication for parathyroidectomy in PHPT?

A

Symptomatic hypercalcemia!
Age <50
Cxs – osteoporosis, nephrolithiasis/calcinosis, CKD (GFR < 60)
Elevated risk of Cxs – Ca2+ >1 mg/dL above norm., urinary Ca2+ excretion >400 mg/day

599
Q

What should be suspected in an elderly pt. w/anemia + thrombocytopenia?

A

CLL – esp. if lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly are present.
Cxs: recurrent infections common, AIHA, Secondary malignancy (Richter transformation – AML)
Dx w/flow cytometry

600
Q

How to differentiate b/w an adrenal and ovarian androgen producing-tm:

A

Testosterone and DHEAS levels.
If only testosterone is elevated – ovaries (most common)
If both elevated – Adrenals, DHEAS is only produced in adrenals. Testosterone is produced in both.

601
Q

Diagnosis of Parkinson:

A

Clinically – need 2/3 cardinal signs: Rest tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia.

602
Q

Mgmt to reduce liver damage in HCV:

A

Avoid EtOH, HBV/HAV vax.

603
Q

Most common murmur heard at 1st R-ICS and features associated:

A

Supravalvlar AS – normally d/t congenital LV outflow tract obstruction.
Systolic murmur v. similar to normal AS.
May present w/unequal carotid pulses, differential BP in upper extremities, and palpable thrill in suprasternal notch.

604
Q

Rxs used in HCV treatment:

A

Ledipasvir, Sofosbuvir

605
Q

1st line tx of Bullous Pemphigoid:

A

High-potency topical glucocorticoids – Clobetasol

Topical is 1st choice even in extensive disease. Oral systemic steroids are not a/w with better outcomes and should be avoided unless topical is highly unpractical

606
Q

What does randomization of a trial prevent?

A

Confounding

607
Q

Middle Mediastinal masses:

A

Bronchogenic cysts, tracheal tms, pericardial cysts, lymphoma, LN enlargement, and aortic aneurysms of the arch.
Thymomas are in the anterior mediastinum.

608
Q

Common presentation of HSV keratitis:

A

Dendritic ulcers are most common, corneal vesicles, pain, photophobia, blurred vision, tearing and redness.
Common in pts w/xs sun exposure, outdoor occupations, fever or IMCPd.

609
Q

Features of Anterior Cord Syndrome:

A

Norm d/t anterior spinal a. trauma.
Bilateral hemiparesis – damage to lateral corticospinal tract
Diminished b/l pain and T – lateral spinothalamic tract (1-2 levels below injury bc decussation)
Intact b/l proprioception, vibration and light touch – dorsal column intact bc supplied by posterior spinal aa.

610
Q

Mgmt of HCMP:

A

Avoidance of volume depletion, BBs and CCBs (Non-Dihydropyridines ONLY), and surgery for persistent sxs.

611
Q

What should patients with new-onset aFib be screened for?

A

Occult hyperthyroidism as an underlying cause – get TSH and free T4 levels.

612
Q

Most common cause of death in acute liver failure:

A

Cerebral edema – coma, brain stem herniation, death.

613
Q

Indications for liver transplant in patients w/ALF:

A

Grade III or IV hepatic encephalopathy
PT > 100
Cr >3.4 mg/dL

614
Q

What type of conjunctivitis will have a reappearing discharge after wiping?

A

Bacterial

Viral and allergic conjunctivitis will not.

615
Q

Adult Still Disease:

A

uncommon inflammatory disorder – recurrent high fevers, arthritis/arthralgias, salmon colored macular or maculopapular rash.
ESR may be v elevated

616
Q

Empiric abx tx for Bacterial meningitis according to risk group:

A

Age 2-50: Vanc (S. pneumo) + 3rd gen cephalosporin (N. men)
Age >50: Vanc. + ampicillin (listeria coverage) + 3rd-gen cephalosporin
IMCPd: Vanc + ampicillin + cefepime (GNR)
Neurosurgery/Penetrating trauma: Vanc + Cefepime

617
Q

Malaria pphx:

A

Mefloquine started >2 weeks prior to travel, throughout and then 4 weeks after returning from an endemic country.
Chloroquine-resistant countries: Mefloquine, Doxycycline or Primaquine
Chloroquine-Sensitive (Carib/S.Am): Chloroquine

618
Q

Common causes of crystal-induced AKI:

A
Acyclovir
Sulfas
MTX
Ethylene glycol
Protease Inhibitors
Uric acid – tm lysis syndrome
Causes renal tubular obstruction
619
Q

Features of Lithium toxicity:

A

Tremor, hyperreflexia, ataxia, seizures, V/D

620
Q

Features of phenytoin toxicity:

A

Horizontal nystagmus, cerebellar ataxia, and confusion

621
Q

Senlie purpura:

A

aka solar or actinic purpura.
Non-inflammatory disorder most common in elderly, but can present in younger w/xs sun
D/t loss of elastic fibers in perivascular connective tissue.
Have residual brownish discoloration from hemosiderin deposition and many ecchymotic areas.

622
Q

What is pseudobulbar palsy?

A

Regurgitate liquids through the nose – from b/l damage to corticobulbar pathways.

623
Q

Features of Osler-Weber-Rendu Syndrome:

A

Aka Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
AD disease w/diffuse telangiectasis (ruby-colored papules that blanch w/pressure), recurrent epistaxis, and widespread AVMs.

624
Q

Why might pts w/Osler-Weber-Rendu have increased Hct?

A

If a pulmonary AVM is present.
Will shunt blood from the R – L heart causing chronic hypoxemia, digital clubbing, and reactive polycythemia.
Pulmonary AVMs can lead to massive, sometimes fatal hemoptysis.

625
Q

Treatment of Dermatitis herpetiformis:

A

Dapsone – has anti-inflammatory and immunomodulatory properties.
Long-term tx is gluten-free diet.

626
Q

Mgmt of patients with thromboembolic events:

A

If there is a clear provoking factor or there is a family hx suggesting the source workup should be done for these.
If there are no clear provoking factors then patients should undergo age-appropriate ca-screening to check for malignancy as the source of hypercoagulability.

627
Q

Light criteria for transudative pleural effusions:

A

Protein pleural/serum <0.5

LDH pleural/serum <0.6; Pleural LDH <2/3 upper limit of normal serum LDH.

628
Q

Causes of transudative pleural effusion:

A

Hypoalbuminemia – cirrhosis, nephrotic synd.

CHF

629
Q

Causes of exudative pleural effusion:

A

Infection (parapneumonic, TB, fungal, empyema)
Malignancy
PE
**Infectious or inflammatory causes – cytokine release and increased capillary permeability.

630
Q

Features of TB effusion:

A

Moderate lymphocytosis
V. elevated protein >4g/dL
Elevated LDH
Tend to occur on the R and have low pleural pH and glucose.

631
Q

Shy-Drager Syndrome:

A

Aka multiple system atrophy – degenerative disease characterized by:
Parkinsonism
Autonomic dysfxn – postural HoTN, abnorm sweating, bowel/bladder disturbances, abnorm salivation/lacrimation, impotence, and gastroparesis
Widespread neurologic signs – cerebellar, pyramidal or LMN.

632
Q

Diagnostic studies to asses for esophageal perforation:

A

CT – esophageal wall thickening, mediastinal air fluid level

CXR or CT (late) – wide mediastinum, pneumomediatinum, pneumothorax, air around paraspinal mm., pleural effusion

633
Q

What kind of Rx is Memantine and what is it used for?

A

A glutamate inhibitor of the NMDA receptor.

Used to tx mod-severe alzheimers

634
Q

What year did blood and organs start being screened for HCV?

A

1992 – anyone before this needs testing.

635
Q

When are BBs contra’d in the tx of acute MI?

A

When there is presence of pulmonary edema – acute decompensated HF.

636
Q

What is “ugly duckling sign?”

A

A lesion that is substantially different from others in a patient who has multiple pigmented lesions.
Has ~90% sensitivity for melanoma

637
Q

Tx of Bacillary angiomatosis:

A

Doxycycline or erythromycin + ART

638
Q

Rxs that cause pill-esophagitis:

A

Abx – tetracyclines
Anti-inflammatory agents – aspirin and many NSAIDs
Bisphosphonates – alendronate, risedronate
Others – potassium chloride, iron

639
Q

Endoscopic appearance of pill-esophagitis:

A

Circumferential deep ulceration w/relatively normal surrounding mucosa. Normally in mid-esophagus.

640
Q

Pupillary axn that can worsen glaucoma:

A

DILATION!!!

Anything that can dilate the pupil – ATROPINE – is contraindicated in glaucoma.

641
Q

Infections that can cause acute pancreatitis:

A

Legionella
Aspergillus
CMV
Less common viruses: HSV, Mumps, HBV, Coxsackie

642
Q

Initial tx of chronic venous insufficiency:

A

Leg elevation, exercise, and compression stockings

643
Q

Plasma aldosterone:renin value suggestive of primary hyperaldosteronism:

A

> 20

644
Q

Associated neoplasms of Lynch syndrome:

A

Colorectal ca., endometrial and ovarian

645
Q

Associated neoplasms of FAP:

A

Colorectal ca., desmoids & osteomas, brain tms.

646
Q

Associated neoplasms of von Hippel-Lindau:

A

Hemangioblastomas, RCCa (clear cell), Pheochromocytoma.

647
Q

Pulmonary effects of A1AT deficiency:

A

Causes panacinar emphysema with the majority of destruction involving the lower lobes.
Likely to present w/progressive SoB and cough w/mucoid sputum. Worse w/exertion.
CXR: b/l basilar lucency
Smokers present in their 30s, nonsmokers in their 40s

648
Q

What is a common precipitant of SIADH?

A

Any type of pulmonary pathology.
HIV pts are especially prone to develop SIADH – may occur after episode of PCP.
Suspect in any patient w/hypotonic, hyponatremic, euvolemia.
Infusion of NS may worsen hyponatremia in SIADH.

649
Q

What is acrochordon?

A

Skin tag

650
Q

Explanation for large amounts of blood on UA, but only few (0-1) RBCs on micro:

A

Myoglobinuria.

UA isn’t able to differentiate from Hb and Mb so use micro to distinguish between hemoglobinuria and myoglobinuria.

651
Q

Tx of cancer-related anorexia/cachexia syndrome:

A

DoC – Progesterone analogues (Megestrol acetate)
2nd line – corticosteroids
Cannabinoids have benefit in HIV cachexia but not cancer related.

652
Q

Features of lateral Medullary syndrome:

A

aka Wallenberg syndrome – most sxs ipsilateral
Vertigo, falling to side of lesion, diplopia, nystagmus, difficult sitting upright, limb ataxia
Abnormal facial sensation or pain
Dysphagia, aspiration, hoarseness
Horner’s syndrome, hiccups, lack of autonomic respiration

653
Q

Earliest renal abnormality present in pts w/DM:

A

Glomerular hyperfiltration

654
Q

Risk factors for C. diff infection:

A

Recent abx
Hospitalization
PPIs – gastric acid suppression

655
Q

What immune complexes are seen in HCV-cryoglobulinemia?

A

Complexes are formed from: HCV, anti-HCV IgG, IgM anti-IgG Abs (Rheumatoid factor) and complement.

656
Q

What endocrine complication can TB lead to?

A

Chronic primary adrenal insufficiency

657
Q

Granulomatous diseases that can lead to adrenal insufficiency:

A

TB, Histoplasmosis, Coccidiomycosis, Cryptococcosis and Sarcoidosis

658
Q

DTR in polymyositis:

A

NORMAL! Differentiates it between other causes of muscle weakness – Hypothyroidism (delayed), and Lambert Eaton (absent)

659
Q

Features of Trichinellosis:

A
Intestinal stage (w/in 1wk of ingestion) – asx, or AbdP, N/V/D
Muscle Stage (up to 4wks after) – myositis, fever, subungual splinter hemorrhages, periorbital edema, eosinophila, elevated CK and leukocytosis.
Clinical dx w/characteristic triad of periorbital edema, myositis and eosinophilia
660
Q

Typhoid fever presentation:

A

Progressive
1st week – fever
2nd – abdominal pain and salmon-colored rash
3rd – hepatosplenomegaly and abdominal complication, intestinal bleeding/perforation.

661
Q

Effects on mixed venous O2 saturation in different types of shock:

A

Both Hypovolemic and Cardiogenic will have decreased MvO2 d/t decreased tissue perfusion.
Septic shock will have increased MvO2 d/t hyperdynamic circulation and an inability of the tissues to adequately extract O2.

662
Q

What kind of shock can be seen in mineralocorticoid deficiency?

A

Distributive shock – norm from primary adrenal insufficiency.
Will have HoTN from low aldosterone levels and low SVR a/w hyperkalemia and hyponatremia.

663
Q

Stroke therapy w/in 3-4.5hrs of onset:

A

IV Alteplase

664
Q

Tx for stroke pts w/out prior antiplatelet tx:

A

Aspirin

665
Q

Tx for stoke pts on aspirin:

A

Aspirin + Dipyridamole OR clopidogrel

666
Q

Tx for stroke pts w/aFib:

A

Long-term ACs – Warfarin, dabigatran, rivaroxaban

667
Q

What antiplatelet agents are effective in reducing the risk of early recurrence of ischemic stroke?

A

ONLY ASPIRIN

Should be given w/in 24hrs to all pts w/ischemic stroke

668
Q

Complicated v. Uncomplicated Parapneumonic effusions:

A

Parapneumonic effusion = neutrophil dominate pleural effusion

Uncomplicated pleural analysis – pH > 7.2, Glucose > 60, WBC < 50K
Complicated – pH <7.2, Glucose <60, WBC > 50K
Both will have negative pleural fluid gram stain and culture
Tx: abx for both, drainage also for complicated

669
Q

How to differentiate empyema v complicated parapneumonic effusion:

A

Empyema will have frank pus on paracentesis and gram stains are typically positive for them as well.
Both require abx + drainage by chest tube

670
Q

Characteristics of pleural effusion 2/2 PE:

A

Exudative, and bloody. Typically have normal pH and glucose levels.

671
Q

Lab values a/w Chikungunya:

A

Lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, elevated liver enzymes

672
Q

What does a positive hepatojugular reflux signify?

A

A failing right ventricle – it cant accommodate an increase in VR w/abdominal compression.
Most common causes: Constrictive pericarditis, RV infarction, and restrictive cardiomypoathy

673
Q

When should abx be initiated in COPD exacerbations?

A

If they have 2+ cardinal sxs (increased dyspnea, increased cough, sputum production). Or if mechanical ventilation is required.

674
Q

What abx are used in COPD exacerbation?

A

Macrolides, respiratory fluoroquinolones (levofloxacin, moxifloxacin) or penicillin/B-lactamase inhibitors (amoxicillin-clavulanate)

675
Q

Dacrocystitis:

A

Infection of the lacrimal sac. Acute cases characterized by sudden onset pain and redness in the medial canthal region. Often can express purulent discharge from the area.
S. aureus and GBS are the main causes.

676
Q

What should be suspected in a patient with a pure motor stroke?

A

Lacunar infarct – especially if they have HTN.

Lacunar infarcts are from a combo of microatheroma formation and lipohyalinosis.

677
Q

Primary pphx of esophageal varices:

A

Nonselective BBs.
Endoscopic ligation can be done in pts w/contraindications to BBs
Endoscopic sclerotherapy is used only for actively bleeding varices, not as pphx

678
Q

What causes an anaphylactic rxn post-transfusion?

A

Host autoIgG-Abs against IgA. Happens in IgA deficient individuals.

679
Q

Which COPD patients have a lower threshold to start LTOT?

A

Pts w/Cor Pulmonale, evidence of RHF, or Hct >55%

680
Q

Clinical associations of Minimal change disease:

A

NSAIDs and lymphoma

681
Q

Most common form of nephrotic syndrome in pts/w Hodgkin lymphoma:

A

Minimal change

682
Q

Most common form of nephrotic syndrome a/w malignancies:

A

Membranous glomerulopathy.

Except lymphoma – minimal change disease, and MM – amyloidosis.

683
Q

How to differentiate between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency:

A

Primary – d/t AI destruction of adrenal gland will see hyperpigmentation and mineralocorticoid deficiency, HoTN etc. Eosinophilia and hyperplasia of lymphoid tissues (tonsils) are also common findings.

Secondary – d/t destruction of the pituitary gland will not have these effects and will only present w/signs of glucocorticoid and androgen deficiency.

684
Q

First test to order in suspected SLE pts?

A

ANA titers – v. sensitive (95-100%)
Should be first no matter what sxs they present with. If positive, then others can be ordered (anti-smith, anti-dsDNA etc)

685
Q

How does lymphoma lead to hypercalcemia?

A

Increased Vit. D. Will have increased Ca2+ absorption, decreased PTH, and increased PO4

686
Q

Tx of Uncomplicated cystitis:

A

Nitrofurantoin for 5d – avoid if suspected pyelo
TMP-SMX for 3d
Fosfomycin single dose
If complicated use fluoroquinolones
Only do Uculture if pts fail initial therapy

687
Q

Tx of Pyelo:

A

Outpatient – Fluoroquinolones

Inpatient – IV abx (fluoros, aminoglycosides +/- ampicillin)

688
Q

How to diagnose Patellofemoral syndrome:

A

Clinical – patellofemoral compression test.

Often see increased pain with squatting, running and using stairs.

689
Q

Tx for restless leg syndrome:

A

1st line – dopamine agonists (pramipexole)

2nd – Alpha-2-delta calcium channel ligands (gabapentin enacarbil)

690
Q

Secondary causes of restless leg syndrome:

A
Fe-def anemia
Uremia (ESRD, CKD)
DM
MS, Parkinson
Pregnancy
Rxs (antidepressants, metoclopramide)
691
Q

What Rx-combo should be added to reduce mortality in AfAms w/LVF?

A

Hydralazine and nitrates

692
Q

What does a hx of recent URI followed by sudden onset cardiac failure suggest?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy most likely 2/2 acute viral myocarditis
Coxsackie B is most common; Others – parvo, HHV6, adeno, and enteroviruses.

693
Q

What will be seen on echo of DCMP?

A

Dilated ventricles w/diffuse hypokinesia and a low EF (systolic dysfxn).

694
Q

How to differentiate b/w a stone in the cystic v. common bile duct based on labs:

A

Both will cause elevations in BR, AST, ALT and possibly amylase, but only common bile duct occlusion would be expected to cause obstructive jaundice w/scleral icterus and v. high AlkPhos levels.

695
Q

VIPoma v. Carcinoid syndrome:

A

Both cause very similar sxs, but VIPoma will be tm in pancreas, and Carcinoid is typically in the SI.
Carcinoid more likely to cause bronchospasm and cardiac cxs.

696
Q

When should tetanus-Ig be given as post-exposure pphx?

A

Only if the wound is dirty or severe AND the pt is unimmunized, uncertain, or has < 3 tetanus toxoid doses as a child.
All other cases only require Td booster

697
Q

Lab findings a/w atheroembolism:

A

aka cholesterol crystal embolism
Elevated serum Cr, eosinophilia (d/t IL-5 activation), hypocomplementemia
UA may also show eosinophiluria.

698
Q

Features and tx of TTP:

A

Decreased ADAMTS13 – uncleaved vWF multimers – platelet trapping and activation.
Causes hemolytic anemia w/schistocytes, renal failure, neuro sxs and fever
Tx w/plasma exchange, glucocorticoids, and rituximab

699
Q

Definition of Massive PE:

A

PE complicated by HoTN and/or acute right heart strain.
Syncope tends to only occur w/massive PEs, and likely to see JVD and RBBB on EKG.
Signs/sxs of cardiogenic shock common.

700
Q

CVS effects of acromegaly:

A

Cardiomyopathy, HTN – concentric LV hypertrophy, HF, valvular disease (mitral & aortic regurg)

701
Q

Pphx for migraines:

A

CCBs, propranolol, TCAs

Sumatriptans are used to abort episodes

702
Q

Rare cx in HIT:

A

Adrenal hemorrhage.
Should be suspected in pts w/shock in the setting of a drop in Hb after being diagnosed w/HIT.
Pts should undergo CT scanning right away.

703
Q

What differentiates HIT from other hypercoagulable states?

A

It effects both the arterial and venous systems. Others preferentially affect the venous system.

*Anti-phospholipid syndrome also commonly effects both systems

704
Q

How to dx Necrotizing fascititis:

A

Urgent surgical exploration. Imaging is not adequate enough and shouldn’t delay surgical intervention.

705
Q

Tx of Babesiosis:

A

Atovaquine + Azithromycin for mild to moderate cases

Clindamycin + Quinine in severe cases

706
Q

Tx of H. pylori:

A

PPI + Clarithromycin + Amoxicillin

In pen-allergic pts, metronidazole is sub’d for amoxicillin

707
Q

Definitive diagnosis of diverticulitis:

A

CT w/ oral and IV contrast

708
Q

Nitazoxanide:

A

An antiparasitic used to tx C. parvum in immunocompetent hosts.
Should only be used in HIV pts if they are already initiated on ART and their CD4 counts aren’t increasing and clearing the infection.

709
Q

What Rxs are used in HTN-urgencies to lower BP over hours?

A

Oral captopril, furosemide, or clonidine.

Nifedipine or IV meds like labetalol should be avoided bc they’ll lower it too quickly.

710
Q

How to calculate corrected Na+ in hyperglycemia:

A

Corrected Na+ = measured Na + (serum glucose – 100)/100 x 1.6

711
Q

First line tx of Torsades de pointes:

A

Magnesium sulfate

712
Q

Tx of perianal disease in Crohn’s:

A

Mild to moderate tx’d w/metronidazole

Mod-severe tx’d w/anti-TNFa Rxs like infliximab or adalimumab

713
Q

Initial test in suspected Paget’s disease:

A

Xray

714
Q

Tx of Goodpasture’s:

A

Plasmapharesis, then cyclophosphamide and steroids can be used to keep inflammation suppressed.

715
Q

How to differentiate spinal stenosis from herniated disc:

A

Radiculopathy is usually unilateral in disc herniation and b/l in stenosis.

716
Q

Most common renal stones in Hyperparathyroidism:

A

Calcium phosphate

717
Q

What should pts w/HIT be switched to instead of heparin?

A

Direct thrombin inhibitors like Bivalirudin

718
Q

Tx of DIC:

A

FFP – need for platelets and low fibrinogen level.

In pts w/normal fibrinogen and low platelets, platelet transfusion is enough.

719
Q

Tx of ITP:

A

glucocorticoids

720
Q

Tx of TTP:

A

plasma exchange

721
Q

Manifestations and mgmt. of tumor lysis syndrome:

A

Mostly in aggressive heme malignancies
Severe electrolyte abnormalities – hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, hyperuricemia and HYPOcalcemia
AKI d/t uric acid/calcium phosphorus
Cardiac arrhythmias
Tx – continuous telemetry and aggressive electrolyte monitoring/tx
Pphx – IVF, allopurinol or rasburicase

722
Q

MoA and AE of Hydroxychloroquine:

A

TNF and IL-1 suppressor.

Can cause retinopathy, pts need periodic eye exams while taking this Rx.

723
Q

Risk factors for Ascending v. Descending aortic aneurysms:

A

Ascending (60%) are d/t cystic medial necrosis (occurs w/aging) or CT disorders (ED and Marfan).
Descending (40%) usually d/t atherosclerosis – risk: HTN, hypercholesterolemia & smoking

724
Q

Features and cause of Cauda Equina Syndrome:

A

Compression of spinal nerve roots, leads to LMN signs.
B/l, severe radicular pain w/saddle hypo/anesthesia and hypo/areflexia
Get asymmetric motor weakness.
Contrast to conus medullaris syndrome w/symmetric motor weakness, hyperreflexia and perianal hypo/anesthesia

725
Q

Tx of CAP and HAP:

A

CAP – Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

HAP – Vancomycin and Pip-Tazo

726
Q

Manifestations of Chromium deficiency:

A

Impaired glucose control in Diabetics

727
Q

Manifestations of Cu deficiency:

A

Brittle hair, Skin depigmentation, Neuro dysfxn (ataxia, periph neuropathy), sideroblastic anemia and osteoporosis

728
Q

Manifestations of Selenium deficiency:

A

Thyroid dysfxn, Cardiomyopathy, immune dysfxn

729
Q

Manifestations of Zinc deficiency:

A

Alopecia, pustular skin rash (perioral and extremities), hypogonadism, impaired wound healing, impaired taste, immune dysfxn.

730
Q

Deficiency of what can cause impaired taste?

A

Zinc

731
Q

How to differentiate b/w Central and Nephrogenic DI:

A

Central typically don’t have an intact thirst mechanism so have decreased intake and significant hypernatremia >150
Nephrogenic have normal/near normal Na+ and intact thirst mechanism

732
Q

When are target cells seen?

A

Often in B-thalassemia.

B-thal minor pts are typically asx and require no tx.

733
Q

What is the most likely vessel occluded in a stroke pt w/urinary incontinence?

A

The anterior cerebral artery.

734
Q

Most common trigger of COPD exacerbation:

A

URI

735
Q

Pphx of Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis:

A

Fluroroquinolones

Tx when you already have it: 3rd gen ceph (cefotaxime)

736
Q

Classic EKG findings of PE:

A

S1Q3T3
Prominent S in lead 1, Q in lead III, and inverted T in lead III.
Only occur in a minority of cases though.
aFib is commonly a/w PE though

737
Q

Most common ear pathology in AIDS:

A

serous otitis media
d/t auditory tube dysfxn, characterized by presence of middle ear effusion w/out evidence of acute infection.
Otoscopy – dull tympanic membrane that is hypomobile
Conductive hearing loss most common sx

738
Q

What is Ludwig Angina (causes, sxs, tx):

A

Rapidly progressive cellulitis of the submandibular space. Mostly d/t dental infections in the molar roots.
Typically polymicrobial – need aerobic and anaerobic coverage
Sxs: rapidly develop systemic sxs (fever, chills, malaise), and local compressive (mouth pain, drooling, dysphagia, muffled voice, airway compromise)
May have crepitus.
IV abx – amp-sulbactam, clindamycin and removal of infected tooth

739
Q

PE signs of pulmonary HTN:

A

L parasternal lift/RV heave
Loud P2, right-sided S3
Pansystolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation
JVD, ascites, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly

740
Q

What is LVEDV?

A

PRELOAD!!!

Mitral regurg increases preload, and so does increased blood volume d/t renal Na+ and H2O retention in heart failure.

741
Q

Murmur heard w/Tricuspid regurgitation:

A

Holosystolic and increases in intensity w/inspiration.

742
Q

What differentiates R-sided systolic murmurs from all others?

A

Augmentation of intensity with inspiration.

Only R-sided systolic murmurs will change w/inspiration.

743
Q

What is central cord syndrome?

A

Often a result of hyperextension injuries in elderly w/pre-existing degenerative spinal changes.
Characterized by weakness more pronounced in the upper extremities than lower. May have complete loss of movement and sensation in UEs.

744
Q

What is posterior cord syndrome?

A

A/w b/l loss of vibratory and proprioceptive sensation. Often w/weakness, paresthesias and urinary incontinence or retention.
MS and vascular disruption are most common causes.

745
Q

How does Acetazolamide tx IIH?

A

It inhibits choroid plexus carbonic anhydrase which decreases CSF production.

746
Q

What studies are considered Observational, Experimental, Review?

A

Observational: Cohort, Corss-sectional, Case-control, Case-study
Experimental: Randomized control, nonrandomized design
Review: Meta-analysis

747
Q

What is considered a positive bronchodilator response?

A

> 12% increase in FEV1

748
Q

Difference in immune response to the pneumococcal vaccines:

A

PPSV23 is a polysaccharide vax. It alone can’t be presented to T-cells so it induces a relatively T-cell-independent B-cell response.
PCV13 is a conjugate vax and induces a T-cell-dependent B-cell response.
PCV13 produces a more effective response.

749
Q

What is Metolazone?

A

A thiazide Diuretic

750
Q

What Thyroid tx will worsen ophthalmopathy?

A

RAI bc increased TRABs are released
Pts. w/moderate to severe ophthalmopathy should undergo thyroidectomy instead of RAI.
Glucocorticoids can prevent complications in pts w/mild ophtalmopathy

751
Q

Features of malignant biliary obstruction:

A

Conjugated hyperBRemia, elevated AlkPhos, painless jaundice, and systemic sxs.

752
Q

Organisms that alkalinize the urine:

A

Proteus and Klebsiella. Often have pH>8

E. coli will not cause alkaline urine bc it doesn’t produce urease

753
Q

What is the tx for Cervicofacial Actinomyces?

A

Penicillin for 2-6mos

May need surgery if fistulas form

754
Q

What would increase the risk of HACEK IE?

A

Periodontal infection, poor dentition, and dental procedures.

755
Q

How to differentiate b/w glomerular and non-glomerular hematuria:

A

Glomerular will have microscopic > gross hematuria w/Blood and protein + RBC casts and dysmorphic RBCs on UA
Non-glomerular has Gross > micro hematuria w/blood, no protein and normal appearing RBCs on UA.

756
Q

Differences in renal cysts:

A

On CT/MRI simple renal cysts will have absence of contrast enhancement and smooth thin walls. These do not require any tx (esp in asx pts)
Malignant renal cysts will have irregular walls, contrast enhancement and need follow-up

757
Q

When are BBs contra’d in MI pts?

A

If they have bradycardia or cardiogenic shock

758
Q

What is a GI complication of uric acid stones?

A

Ileus d/t a vagal reaction caused by ureteral colic.
Not just uric acid stones. Can be anything causing renal/ureteral colic.
Should get CTabdo, US, or IV pyelography to dx underlying stones and tx to resolve ileus.

759
Q

Preventative migraine Rxs:

A

Topiramate, Divalproex sodium, TCAs, BBs

760
Q

Abortive migraine Rxs:

A

Triptans, NSAIDs, Acetaminophen, Antiemetics (metoclopramide, prochlorperazine), Ergots

761
Q

In pts w/suspected MG but negative acetylcholine-R Abs, what should be checked?

A

Muscle-specific TK Abs

762
Q

What type of acid-base disorder is likely seen in shock?

A

Primary metabolic acidosis d/t lactic acidosis 2/2 hypoperfusion.

763
Q

Nerve injuries a/w humeral fractures:

A

Spell ARM proximally to distally
Axillary – humeral neck
Radial – mid shaft or anterolaterally displaced supracondylar
Median – anteromedially displaced supracondylar

764
Q

Main cause of traveler’s diarrhea?

A

ETEC

Presents w/bloating, watery nonbloody stools that are foul smelling

765
Q

Mgmt of esophageal full-thickness tears:

A

Operative repair.

766
Q

When do you hear S3?

A

Heard during rapid ventricular filling in diastole.
D/t turbulent blood flow to the ventricles d/t increased volume
Normal: Children, young adults, pregnancy
Abnormal: Age >40, heart failure, RCMP, High-output states

767
Q

When do you hear S4?

A

Heard immediately after atrial contraction as blood is forced into a stiff ventricle.
Normal: healthy older adults
Abnormal: younger adults, children, ventricular hypertrophy, ACUTE MI!

768
Q

Mgmt of Hypovolemic hypernatremia:

A

Symptomatic pts get NS until euvolemic and then switch to 5% dextrose
Asx pts get 5% dextrose from beginning
If euvolemic they just get free H2O supplementation

769
Q

Most common cause of febrile neutropenia & tx:

A

GNR – esp Pseudomonas.

Tx w/Pip-Tazo

770
Q

What are the features of Milk-Alkali Syndrome?

A

Pathophys: xs intake of Ca leads to renal vasoconstriction and decreased GFR w/renal loss of Na+ and H2O and reabs of HCO3-.
Sxs: N/V/Constipation, polyuria, polydipsia, neuropsych sxs
Labs: Hypercalcemia, metab alkalosis, AKI, suppressed PTH
Tx: NS then furosemide

771
Q

Most common electrolyte abnormality in primary adrenal insufficiency:

A

Hyponatremia - leads to increased renin activity

Must be corrected w/a mineralocorticoid like Fludrocortisone

772
Q

Contraindications to the Yellow Fever Vaccine:

A

Egg allergy
AIDS w/CD 4 <200
IMCP’d – especially those a/w thymus disorders or recent stem cell transplant
Immunosuppressive therapy – TNF antagonists, high-dose steroids, etc

773
Q

What are PVCs and how are they treated?

A

Premature ventricular contractions – wide, distorted QRS.

Tx: asx pts do not need therapy. Those w/sxs need escalating doses of BBs or CCBs

774
Q

Features of PVCs (4):

A

QRS >0.12 seconds
Bizarre morphology not resembling any conduction abnormality
T wave in opposite direction of QRS axis
Compensatory pause

775
Q

What is Calciphylaxis?

A

Aka calcific uremic arteriolopathy
Arteriolar and soft tissue calcification
Local tissue ischemia & necrosis
NO vasculitis

776
Q

Risk factors of calciphylaxis (5):

A
ESRD
Hypercalcemia, hyperphosphatemia
Hyperparathyroidism
Hypomagnesemia (Mg inhibits extraosseous calcification)
Obesity/DM
Oral anticoagulants (warfarin)
Vitamin K deficiency
777
Q

Clinical manifestations of calciphylaxis:

A

Painful nodules and ulcers
Soft tissue calcification on imaging
Skin bx: arterial calcification/occlusion, subintimal fibrosis

778
Q

What is the most specific diagnostic test for osteomyelitis?

A

Bone bx and culture.

Should be done before starting abx

779
Q

What nerve is commonly compressed by the inguinal ligament?

A

The lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (L2, 3)

780
Q

What should be used to tx UTIs in children?

A

Typically 3rd gen cephalosporins – cefixime

781
Q

What are the common features/sxs of Sick sinus syndrome?

A

Bradycardia – fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, lightheadedness, confusion, and syncope/presyncope
If atria is affected – aFib/atrial arrhythmias, or bradycardia-tachycardia syndrome.

782
Q

What causes Sick sinus syndrome?

A

Typically d/t age-related degeneration of the cardiac conduction system w/fibrosis of the SAN.
Characterized by inability of the SAN to generate an adequate HR.

783
Q

What are the features of Benzo withdrawal?

A

Tremulousness, hallucinations, and elevated VS (HTN, tachycardia).
Severe cases pts may develop seizures

784
Q

What is gamma gap, and what would a large one suggest?

A

Gamma gap Is the difference b/w total protein and albumin.

Large gamma gaps can be seen in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia and Multiple myeloma.

785
Q

Major internal manifestations of Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia:

A

Hyperviscosity syndrome
Neuropathy
Bleeding
Hepatosplenomegaly
Lymphadenopathy
Cryoglobulinemia and renal insufficiency – a nephritic syndrome
“sausage-link” (dilated, segmented, tortuous) retinal vv.

786
Q

Lab values a/w Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia:

A

Anemia
Gamma gap
Elevated ESR
If cryoglobulinemia develops, may show hypocomplementemia

787
Q

Screening test for Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia:

A

Serum electrophoresis – will show IgM spike.
Peripheral smear will show rouleaux (like in MM)
And BM bx will show >10% clonal B cells (differentiates from the >10% plasma cells in MM).

788
Q

Sxs experienced in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia:

A
Vision changes
Headaches (bi-temporal common)
Vertigo
Dizziness
Ataxia
Rarely stroke or coma may occur
789
Q

How is a urethral diverticulum likely to present?

A

As a tender anterior vaginal wall mass.
May lead to dyspareunia or a palpable mass on pelvic exam.
If urine and debris collect inside it can lead to a purulent discharge, dysuria, or postvoid dribbling.
Diagnosis confirmed w/MRI.

790
Q

What is considered normal labor progression in the active phase of labor?

A

When the cervix dilates 1+ cm every 2hours.

791
Q

How is chronic bacterial prostatitis likely to present?

A
In young and middle age men
Recurrent UTIs (w the same organism)
\+/- prostatic tenderness and swelling (often absent)
Pain with ejaculation
Hx of abx tx w/transient improvement
792
Q

How is Chronic bacterial prostatitis dx’d and tx’d?

A

Dx: pyuria & bacteriuria on UA. Bacteria in prostatic fluid.
UA before prostatic massage has less bac than after massage
Tx: Fluoroquinolones (Cipro) for 6wks

793
Q

What will cause xs collagen deposition in the bone marrow?

A

Myelofibrosis – deposits xs collagen or reticulin in the BM

Presents w/fatigue, fevers, and HPT-SP-megaly.

794
Q

What effect will Down syndrome have on muscle tone?

A

Babies are v hypotonic – possibly protruding tongue and floppy body and extremities.

795
Q

What are some common disorders that present with hypotonia in infancy?

A
Down Syndrome
Cretinism/Hypothyroid
Fragile X
Prader-Willi
Infantile Botulism
796
Q

What are the most common bacteria that cause Epiglottitis?

A

H. influenzae
Strep. spp. (S. pneumo, S. pyogenes)
S. aureus

797
Q

What is the tx of epiglottitis?

A

Broad spectrum abx:
Ceftriaxone – targets H. influ and Strep. Spp.
Vancomycin – targets S. aureus (including MRSA

798
Q

What is chronic exertional compartment syndrome?

A

Increased pressure within a muscle group during exercise – often seen in young athletes.
Will not have point tenderness or bone tenderness.

799
Q

How will injury to the interosseous ligaments present?

A

Aka a high ankle sprain – presents w/acute anterolateral ankle pain often following rotational force on a dorsiflexed ankle.
Often have associated fibular fracture

800
Q

What is medial tibial stress syndrome?

A

Shin splints

801
Q

How are anterior shoulder dislocations typically caused?

A

By a blow to the externally rotated and abducted arm.

802
Q

How do anterior shoulder dislocations often present?

A

With flattening of the deltoid prominence
Protrusion of the acromion
Anterior axillary fullness (bc humeral head is now here)
Arm abducted and externally rotated

803
Q

What nerve is most commonly injured in shoulder dislocations and what deficits will be seen?

A

Axillary n.
It innervates: Teres minor
Deltoid – weakened abduction
Sensory innervation of lateral shoulder – numbness

804
Q

What does the radial n. innervate and how is it most commonly injured?

A

Primary innervation of the wrist and digit extensors.
Sensation to posterior arm, forearm and dorsolateral hand.
Most commonly injured in mid-humeral fractures and from improperly fitted crutches.

805
Q

What is responsible for the biceps reflex?

A

Mediated by C5 and C6 spinal nerves, via the musculocutaneous n.

806
Q

Damage to what nerve causes scapular winging?

A

The long thoracic n. which innervates the serratus anterior.

807
Q

What would indicate neuroimaging in a child w/a HA?

A

Coordination difficulties
Presence of numbness/tingling/focal neurologic signs
Hx of HA that awakens from sleep
Hx of increasing HA frequency

808
Q

1st line mgmt. of migraines in peds pts:

A

Acetaminophen or NSAIDs + counsel the fam.

809
Q

What will the crystals look like on UA in cystinuria?

A

Hexagonal crystals

810
Q

What does the urinary cyanide-nitroprusside test detect?

A

Elevated levels of cystine

811
Q

When is complete bedrest recommended in pregnancy?

A

NEVER – has not been proven to be effective and increases risk of thromboembolisms.

812
Q

What is the initial mgmt. of mixed incontinence?

A

A voiding diary – helps classify the predominant type of incontinence and determine tx.

813
Q

What are some of the features unique to Ehlers-Danlos syndrome?

A

Skin manifestations – transparent/hyperextensible skin, easy bruising, poor healing, velvety w/atrophy and scarring
Abdominal and inguinal hernias
Uterine prolapse
High arched palate

814
Q

What are some of the features unique to Marfan syndrome?

A
Tall w/long extremities
Pectus carinatum
Progressive aortic root dilation
Lens and retinal detachment
Spontaneous pneumothorax
815
Q

Genetics a/w Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndromes:

A

Both AD inheritance
ED – COL5A1 and COL5A2 mutations
Marfan – FBN1 mutation

816
Q

What are the chronic cxs a/w Giardiasis?

A

Malabsorption – lactose intolerance
Profound weight loss
Vitamin deficiencies

NOT a/w GBS

817
Q

How is CMV transmitted?

A

Through contact w/infected bodily fluids (urine, saliva, breast milk)

818
Q

What are the stimuli for ADH secretion?

A
Osmotic: Serum osmolality >285mOsm
Nonosmotic: 
   Nausea
   Pain
   Physical/emotional stress
   HoTN
   HoVolemia
   Hypoxia
   HoGlycemia
819
Q

What is Exercise-associated hyponatremia?

A

Phenomenon in athletes who participate in prolonged exercise – most often caused by ingestion of xs hypotonic fluids which triggers SIADH.
Sxs: lethargy, N, seizures, profound confusion

820
Q

What are common associations with erythema multiforme development?

A

Infections – HSV and Mycoplasma
Rxs – sulfonamides
Malignancies
Collagen vascular disease

821
Q

Rxs that often trigger hemolysis in G6PD deficiency:

A
Dapsone
Isobutyl nitrite
Nitrofurantoin
Primaquine
Rasburicase
Sulfonamides
TMP-SMX
822
Q

Presentation of Infantile botulism:

A

Age <12mos
Constipation, poor feeding, hypotonia
Oculobulbar palsies (absent gag reflex, ptosis)
Symmetric, descending paralysis
Autonomic dysfxn (decreased salivation, fluctuating HR/BP)

823
Q

What is herpes zoster oticus?

A

Aka Ramsay Hunt Syndrome – reactivation of VZV from geniculate ganglion w/spread to CN VIII
2 defining manifestations: erythematous, vesicular rash on the auditory canal or auricle and ipsilateral facial droop/paralysis
Other sxs: vertigo, N/V, hearing/taste disturbances

824
Q

How to differentiate central from peripheral vertigo:

A

Peripheral – horizontal +/- vertical/torsional nystagmus; walking usually preserved, may have hearing loss or tinnitus.

Central – purely vertical/torsional nystagmus, severe postural instability, no hearing loss/tinnitus, often has other neuro signs.

825
Q

Causes of central v. peripheral vertigo:

A

Central – Stroke, MS, migraine, CNS tm, cerebellar infarction
Peripheral – BPPV, Meniere’s, vestibular neuritis, acoustic neuroma

826
Q

What would gamma-tetramers on Hb-electrophoresis represent?

A

Alpha-thalassemia/Hb Barts

827
Q

What would lab evaluation in Hb Barts look like?

A

Low MCV
Increased RBCs
Target cells on peripheral smear

828
Q

What might prevertebral calcifications on a spinal XR indicate?

A

AAA – calcifications seen in the aorta.

829
Q

What cardiac cxs are a/w Turner syndrome?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve, aortic root dilation, aortic coarctation and HTN.
Pregnancy increases risk of dissection in Turner pts.

830
Q

What are common sxs of snake bites?

A

Hemoglobinuria, bleeding, mm. paralysis, severe local pain and swelling, and discoloration w/in hrs of the bite.

831
Q

How to differentiate brown recluse from black widow bites:

A

Black widow – N/V w/in hrs of the bite, then muscle pain, abdominal rigidity, and muscle cramps. Ulceration uncommon.

Brown recluse – deep skin ulcer w/an erythematous halo and necrotic center progressing to an eschar.

832
Q

What should pts with Restless Leg Syndrome be screened for?

A

Fe-def anemia

833
Q

What is the target BP reduction in HTN-emergencies?

A

Reduce BP by 20-25% or get DBP less than 100 mmHg within mins or hrs

834
Q

What are recommended agents for lowering BP over hrs in HTN-urgency?

A

Oral captopril, furosemide, or clonidine

835
Q

How does chlamydial pneumonia often present?

A

In infants 3-16wks.
Often are sick for several weeks and appear nontoxic and afebrile, but are tachypneic w/prominent cough.
Over 50% have conjunctivitis as well
Often have eosinophilia on CBC

836
Q

What is the criteria for introducing a 5-a-reductase inhibitor to treat BPH?

A

Evidence of prostatic enlargement or PSA >1.5.

If these criteria aren’t met then use an a-blocker, PDE-5 inhibitor, or antimuscarinic for BPH

837
Q

Recommended tx for a mallet fracture (forced flexion injury of DIP):

A

Splinting the DIP in extension for about 8weeks.

838
Q

What is active phase protraction and what is the most common cause?

A

Active phase protraction is when the cervix dilates <1cm every 2 hrs.
Commonly caused by cephalopelvic disproportion

839
Q

How do the two different types of Vulvar Lichen Planus present?

A
Erosive variant (most common): Erosive, glazed lesions w/white border, vaginal involvement +/- stenosis, associated oral ulcers
Papulosquamous variant: Small pruritic papules w/purple hue
Both present in women age 50-60 w/vulvar pain or pruritus, and dyspareunia
840
Q

What are some common Lab abnormalities seen in lead poisoning?

A
Anemia
Elevated venous lead level
Elevated serum zinc protoporhpyrin
Hyperuricemia (from impaired purine metab)
Elevated Cr (nephrotoxicity)
Basophilic stippling on peripheral smear
841
Q

What is increased QRS-complex voltage consistent with?

A

LV hypertrophy

842
Q

What is retinal arteriovenous nicking, and what is it indicative of?

A

When the retinal venules are narrowed at the intersection points w/arterioles and then bulge on either side.
Consistent w/hypertensive retinopathy

843
Q

What is isolated ambulatory HTN?

A

Aka masked HTN
Pts often present w/normal BP readings in the clinical setting but have consistently high BP throughout the day and night.
They are often only caught once there is evidence of HTN end-organ damage.
Dx w/ambulatory pressure monitoring

844
Q

Who has greatest risk of developing osteosarcoma?

A

Pts w/mutations in RB1 or TP53
So typically have hx of previous ca. (Retinoblastoma in RB1 and leukemia, breast, brain, or adrenocortical tms in TP53/Li Fraumeni synd.)

845
Q

Tx of Spinal Epidural abscess:

A

BSA – vanc + ceftriaxone

Aspiration/surgical decompression

846
Q

Classic triad of Spinal Epidural Abscess:

A

Fever
Focal/Severe back pain
Neuro sxs – motor/sensory change, bowel/bladder dysfxn, paralysis

847
Q

Rx causes of Osteoporosis (7):

A
Glucocorticoids
Heparin
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
PPIs
Aromatase Inhibitors
Medroxyprogesterone (depot)
848
Q

Endocrine causes of osteoporosis:

A

Hyperthyroidism (accelerated bone turnover)
Hyperparathyroidism (PTH increases bone breakdown)
Hypercortisolism (inhibit bone formation)
Hypogonadism (decreased estrogen)

849
Q

What type of bone lesions would cause an increase in ALP?

A

Osteoblastic lesions
Osteolytic lesions would not increase ALP and therefore there should not be a rise in disorders that cause pure osteolytic lesions – Multiple myeloma, RCCa

850
Q

Tx of Viral or Idiopathic acute pericarditis:

A

NSAIDs + Colchicine

851
Q

What virus causes Croup?

A

Aka Laryngotracheitis – caused by Parainfluenza virus

852
Q

What is mixed connective tissue disease and what are the lab findings?

A

AI disorder w/variable features of: SLE, Systemic Sclerosis and Polymyositis
Lab findings: Anti-U1 ribonucleoprotein, ANA, RF, anti-CCP, elevated CK, anemia/cytpoenias

853
Q

What effect does chronic hyperglycemia have on the renal arterioles?

A

Causes dilation of the renal afferent arterioles and constriction of the efferent arterioles – glomerular hyperfiltration and Diabetic nephropathy.

854
Q

What could early deceleration in head growth signify?

A

Rett Syndrome
These pts also have breathing abnormalities characterized by alternating episodes of hyperventilation and hypoventilation/apnea, and retropulsion (rocking back and forth).

855
Q

Features of anaphylactic blood transfusion rxn:

A

HoTN
Rapid onset of shock, angioedema/urticaria & resp. distress
Happens w/in sec-min of transfusion
Caused by recipient anti-IgA Abs (seen in pts w/IgA deficiency)
Tx: IM Epi, antihistamines, vasopressors +/- high-dose steroids

856
Q

Features of Transfusion-related acute lung injury:

A

HoTN, Resp. distress & signs of noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
Happens w/in 6hrs of transfusion
Caused by donor anti-leukocyte Abs

857
Q

Features of primary HoTN rxn caused by blood transfusion:

A

Transient HoTN often in pts on ACEIs
Happens w/in min of transfusion
Caused by bradykinin in blood products

858
Q

Features of transfusion-transmitted bacterial infection (TTBI):

A

Greatest in pts receiving platelet transfusions (bc platelets are stored at room temp)
High fever (>39C), HoTN, rigors, tachycardia (>120bpm), DIC, septic shock
Happens w/in approx. 30 min. of completing transfusion
Tx: stop transfusion, IVF, blood cultures, and BSAbx

859
Q

How would Candidal otitis externa present and what is used to tx?

A

With pruritus and white flaky debris in the ear canal.

Tx: Clotrimazole

860
Q

DoC for acute otitis media:

A

Amoxicillin

If tx failure happens tx w/Amoxicillin-Clavulanate (Augmentin)

861
Q

What are common sxs of HME?

A

Human monocytic erlichiosis
Nonspecific sxs – HA, myalgias, cough, rash
Labs – leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, elevated transaminases
Seen in S. US, caused by Lone Star tick
Tx w/Doxycycline

862
Q

When should pts w/Hb between 8-10 be transfused?

A

If they meet any of the following criteria:
Symptomatic anemia
Acute and ongoing blood loss
Acute coronary syndrome w/ischemia

863
Q

What would a combo of increased VLDL and TGs indicate?

A

Type IV familial dyslipidemia
Caused by xs hepatic VLDL production.
Often leads to acute pancreatitis

864
Q

What could create a false positive for amphetamines?

A

Atenolol/Propranolol
Buproprion
Nasal Decongestants

865
Q

What opioids will not show up on urine drug screens?

A

Semisynthetics – Hydrocodone, hydromorphone, oxycodone
Synthetics – Fentanyl, meperidine, methadone, tramadol
Only morphine and its metabolites (heroin, codeine) are detected

866
Q

What Rxs may create a false positive for PCP?

A
Dextromethorphan
Diphenhydramine
Doxylamine
Ketamine
Tramadol
Venlafaxine
867
Q

What are common presenting sxs of C. neoformans infection?

A

Fever, malaise, umbilicated skin lesions (resembles molluscum)
Increased ICP w/enlarged ventricles, HA/N/V, abducens n. palsy

868
Q

What is multifocal atrial tachycardia and what are its common causes?

A

Rapid, irregular pulse w/ 3+ P-wave forms and atrial rate >100/min on EKG
Typically asx
Common causes: exacerbation of pulmonary disease/COPD, electrolyte disturbance/hypokalemia, catecholamine surge (sepsis)
Norm. tx is just to correct underlying issue

869
Q

What are the indications for aortic valve replacement?

A

Severe AS and 1+ of the following:
Onset of sxs (angina, syncope, etc.) - symptomatic pts w/severe AS have a high risk of SCD
LVEF <50% (regardless of sxs)
Undergoing other cardiac surgery (CABG, etc.)

Only pts. who are truly asx and have severe AS w/LVEF >50% can be monitored w/serial echos instead of undergoing valve replacement.

870
Q

Criteria to dx severe aortic stenosis:

A

Aortic jet velocity >/= 4.0 m/sec
OR
Mean transvalvular pressure gradient >/= 40mmHg

Valve area is normally <1 cm but this isn’t required to dx

871
Q

What is the most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula worldwide?

A

Obstructed labor

872
Q

Features of delirium tremens:

A

Onset w/in 48-96hrs

Sxs: Confusion, agitation, fever, tachycardia, HTN, diaphoresis, hallucinations

873
Q

Differentiation of pseudoaneurysm from AV fistula:

A

AV fistula – no palpable mass, but continuous bruit and palpable thrill over the region. May have decreased distal pulses in the region.
Pseudoaneurysm – pulsatile mass with an audible systolic (not continuous) bruit.

874
Q

What are the skin conditions often a/w HIV infection?

A

Sudden-onset severe psoriasis
Recurrent herpes zoster
Disseminated molluscum contagiosum
Severe seborrheic dermatitis (also a/w Parkinson)

875
Q

What are the features of secondary varicocele?

A

Pathophys: extrinsic compression (renal or retroperitoneal mass) of the IVC; Or venous thrombosis
Clinical features: “bag of worms” mass, persists when supine, Prepubertal onset on R (often Wilms), Older onset on L (often RCCa)
Mgmt: Abdominal US in children, CT Abd in adults (investigate for cause – Wilms tm, RCCa etc.)

876
Q

Features of urethral stricture:

A

M>F
Often caused by: urethral trauma (catheter), urethritis, or radiotherapy
Sxs: weak/spraying stream, incomplete emptying, irritative voiding (dysuria, frequency)
Will typically have normal UA and high PVR

877
Q

What are the features and mgmt. of superficial dehiscence?

A

Separation of the skin and subQ tissue w/intact rectus fascia.
Often in overweight/obese pts.
Have scant serosanguineous discharge without signs of infection
Mgmt: regular dressing changes

878
Q

When should a toddler’s legs be straight?

A

By 18mos.
From 6-18mos: physiologic genu varum
4yrs: physiologic genu valgum
7+yrs: straight legs

879
Q

Characteristics of nasopharyngeal carcinoma:

A

Endemic to Asia, and linked to EBV reactivation.
Risks: diet (salty fish), smoking, genetics
May present w/obstruction – congestion, epistaxis, HAs; CN palsies, otitis media; Neck mass – cervical LAD

880
Q

Surgical indications for severe mitral regurgitation:

A

Surgery if LVEF 30-60% regardless of sxs

Surgery is successful valve repair is highly likely in pts w/sxs & LVEF <30% or asx & LVEF >60%

881
Q

What is referred otalgia and what is it commonly a/w?

A

Ear pain without an otic origin.
Often a/w: dental disease, TMJ disorders, and mucosal head and neck SCCa.
Almost never due to a central CNS cause

882
Q

What is the most common cancer of late adolescence (15-19)?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

883
Q

Xray findings in Osteoarthritis v RA:

A

OA – Narrowed joint space and osteophytes

RA – periarticular erosions and soft tissue swelling

884
Q

Ottawa ankle rules (when x-ray of the ANKLE is required):

A

If pain at the malleolar zone
AND
Tender at post. margin/tip of medial malleolus; or
Tender at post. margin/tip of lateral malleolus; or
Unable to bear weight 4 steps (2 on each foot)

885
Q

Ottawa ankle rules (when x-ray of the FOOT is required):

A

If pain at the midfoot zone
AND
Tender at the navicular; or
Tender at the base of the 5th metatarsal; or
Unable to bear weight 4 steps (2 each foot)

886
Q

What allows for severe chronic AR pts to remain asx in the short term?

A

Eccentric hypertrophy allows for increased LV compliance as well as increased LV contractility to sustain increased SV and maintain CO.

887
Q

What is blepharospasm?

A

A form of focal dystonia involving recurrent forceful contraction of the eyelid muscles – commonly affected by sensory input/triggered by bright lights.
When a/w spasm of the lower face it’s called Meige syndrome

888
Q

What are the HTN guidelines for mgmt.?

A

Elevated BP (120-129)/<80 – only lifestyle changes
Stage I HTN (130-139/80-89) – Lifestyle + 1 anti-HTN Rx
Stage II HTN (140+/90+) – Lifestyle + 2 anti-HTNs

889
Q

Clinical features of Asbestosis:

A

Presentation – prolonged asbestos exposure, sxs developing 20+ yrs after exposure, progressive dyspnea, basilar fine crackles, clubbing.
Diagnosis: pleural plaques on chest imaging; imaging, PFTs, and histo consistent w/pulmonary fibrosis

890
Q

What are the systemic manifestations a/w RA (7)?

A

Pericarditis
Scleritis
Felty syndrome – RA w/splenomegaly & neutropenia
Still’s disease – RA w/fever, rash and splenomegaly
Interstitial lung disease
Caplan syndrome – RA plus pneumoconiosis
Sjogren’s syndrome

891
Q

What is the most common tx of Pediatric UTIs?

A

3rd-gen Cephalosporin (Cefixime)

892
Q

What are some of the common features to suggest Cervical Myelopathy?

A

LMN signs at the level of the lesion – weakness and atrophy in the arms
UMN signs below the lesion – gait dysfxn, and hyperreflexia in the legs

893
Q

What are common risk factors for PCP pneumonia?

A

HIV with low CD4 count

Chronic glucocorticoid

894
Q

What is the most common location for Epidural spinal cord compression?

A

Thoracic #1, then lumbosacral

895
Q

What are the AEs of MTX therapy?

A

Hepatotoxicity
Stomatitis – painful oral ulcers
Cytopenias

896
Q

Tx of Paget:

A

Bisphosphonates

897
Q

What is likely in a patient that can walk on their toes but not heels?

A

Peripheral n. compression of the common peroneal n.
Will have:
unilateral foot drop
numbness/tingling over dorsum and lateral shin
impaired ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension (can’t walk on heels)
preserved plantar flexion (can walk on toes)

898
Q

What are the AEs of the anti-thyroid Rxs?

A

Thionamides – agranulocytosis
MTZ: 1st-trimester teratogen, cholestasis
PTU: Hepatic failure, ANCA-associated vasculitis

899
Q

What are the hallmarks of secretory diarrhea?

A

Larger daily stool volumes (>1 L/day)
Diarrhea that occurs even during fasting and sleep
Reduced stool osmotic gap

900
Q

What are the common txs of acute migraine episodes?

A

SubQ tripans (contraindicated in CAD)
Antiemetics (D2 antagonists – Prochlorperazine)
** BBs have no role in abortive/acute mgmt. of migraine **

901
Q

Injury to which nerve will cause numbness and burning pain over the lateral aspect of the thigh?

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous n.
Often compressed by the inguinal ligament
No motor fibers, so no weakness
Risks: obesity, increased lumbar lordosis (pregnancy), DM

902
Q

What is Chromogranin A a marker for, and when will it be elevated?

A

It is a marker for well-differentiated neuroendocrine tms.

Can be elevated in: carcinoid tms, hyperthyroidism, chronic atrophic gastritis, and chronic PPI tx.

903
Q

What kind of arrhythmia is Carotid massage used for?

A

Helps to terminate PSVT – a regular, narrow-complex tachycardia. It increases PSNS activity which helps directly slow AVN conductivity
Not used in the tx of aFib
Contraindications: recent TIA/stroke, carotid bruit

904
Q

What are risk factors for atraumatic splenic rupture?

A

Heme malignancy – leukemia/lymphoma
Infection – CMV, EBV, Malaria
Inflammatory diseases – SLE, pancreatitis
Splenic congestion – cirrhosis, pregnancy
Medications – anticoagulation, G-CSF

905
Q

How is gallstone pancreatitis managed?

A

ERCP

Elective cholecystectomy should be performed but only after the pancreatitis and cxs are cleared.

906
Q

Findings of anterior cord syndrome:

A

B/l hemiparesis at level of cord injury and below – damage to lateral corticospinal tracts
Loss of b/l pain and temp. – lateral spinothalamic tract injury
Intact b/l proprioception, vibration and light touch

907
Q

Difference b/w narrow and wide-complex tachycardia:

A

Narrow complex = supraventricular tachycardia

Wide complex = ventricular tachycardia

908
Q

EKG features of Narrow-complex tachycardia:

A

aka SVT

Have narrow QRS complexes w/no discernable P-waves bc they’re buried w/in the QRS complex.

909
Q

How to dx diverticulitis:

A

CT w/contrast

910
Q

What age should mammogram start being the diagnostic imaging test of choice for breast lesions?

A

30 and older!

Women under 30 should get US first.

911
Q

What parasite is a/w rectal prolapse?

A

Trichuriasis or Whipworm
When there is a heavy parasite load it can cause rectal prolapse.
Heavy loads can also affect a child’s growth and cognition

912
Q

What are some cxs a/w Enterobiasis infection?

A

In high worm burden can get abdominal pain.fullness or N/V

Rare cxs: UTIs/vulvovaginal pruritus in girls, eosinophilic enterocolitis and appendicitis.

913
Q

What is considered a wide QRS complex?

A

QRS >.12s or 3 small boxes on EKG strip

914
Q

What is the LDL goal in patient with KNOWN coronary artery disease?

A

LDL <100mg/dL
Known CAD = previous MI, angina, etc.
Disease equivalents to known CAD = DM, Cerebrovascular disease, AAA, PAD.

915
Q

Difference in site of pain for testicular torsion and inguinal hernia:

A

Torsion – Scrotal pain
Hernia – Groin pain
Both can be from increased abd pressure, exercise, etc. Site is one of main differences

916
Q

What is a cx of testicular torsion and how is it identified?

A

Testicular necrosis can occur w/ >12hrs torsion/ischemia – can lead to nonviability.
Will be seen as heterogenous echotexture on US.

917
Q

Most common cause of community-acquired bacterial meningitis:

A

S. pneumoniae

Often secondary to dissemination, and may occur w/or w/out pneumococcal pneumonia

918
Q

What are some common sites for SCC of the skin to arise in?

A

Within chronically wounded, scarred or inflamed skin

Overlying a focus of osteomyelitis, radiotherapy scars, and venous ulcers

919
Q

What kind of infection is ringworm?

A

It is a Dermatophyte infection – Tinea Corporis
Aka this is a fungal, NOT parasitic infection and needs to be tx’d 1st line w/topical anti-fungals (Clotrimazole, terbinafine)
Dermatophyte infection involving the scalp (tinea capitis), diffuse or refractory cases are tx’d w/oral anti-fungals (griseofulvin, terbinafine)

920
Q

Tx of Polymyalgia Rheumatica:

A

Low-dose corticosteroids

921
Q

Indications for gastric bypass:

A

BMI >40

BMI >35 + comorbid conditions

922
Q

What is the cause of physiologic hydronephrosis in pregnancy?

A

High progesterone levels cause ureteral dilation and decreased peristalsis.
As the uterus enlarges it also compresses the ureters at the pelvic brim worsening the hydronephrosis.

923
Q

Signs of pHTN:

A

L parasternal lift, RV heave
Loud P2, R-sided S3
Pansystolic murmur of tricuspid regurg,
JVD, ascites, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly

924
Q

How to differentiate LVF from RVF based on S3:

A

RVF S3 is best heard at the L-lower sternal border on end-inspiration
LVF S3 is best heard at the apex on end-expiration

925
Q

What are the common manifestations of Tumor Lysis Syndrome?

A

Severe electrolyte abnormalities – increased PO4, K+, uric acid, and v. high LDH
Hypocalcemia (d/t the hyperphosphatemia binding all the Ca2+)
AKI – d/t uric acid/calcium phosphorus
Cardiac arrhythmias

926
Q

Pphx of Tumor Lysis Syndrome:

A

IV fluids and Allopurinol or Rasburicase

927
Q

When would you see pencil cells on peripheral smear?

A

Iron deficiency

928
Q

What are the features and triggers of Microscopic colitis?

A

MC is a chronic, immune-mediated colitis.
Features: watery, non-bloody diarrhea (secretory), fecal urgency & incontinence, nocturnal diarrhea (classic sign)
Less common sxs: abdP (50%), fatigue and wt. loss.
Triggers: smoking, Rxs – NSAIDs, PPIs, SSRIs, Ranitidine

929
Q

How to dx Microscopic colitis and differentiate the 2 types:

A

Dx w/colonoscopic bx – lymphocytic infiltration of lamina propria
Collagenous type – thickened subepithelial collagen band
Lymphocytic type – high levels of intraepithelial lymphocytes (>20 for every 100 epithelial cells)

930
Q

Mgmt of Microscopic colitis:

A

Remove possible triggers, antidiarrheal Rxs, Budesonide

931
Q

What thyroid cancer arises from the parafollicular cells?

A

Medullary thyroid carcinoma – overproduces calcitonin
Calcitonin levels correlate w/the risk of metastasis and recurrence and should be measured at the time of dx and then serially after tx.
CEA also correlates w/disease progression and should be monitored w/calcitonin

932
Q

What should be the first step in evaluation of hypospadias?

A

Karyotype analysis.
It is often indicative of a disorder of sex development (androgen receptor mutation, etc.).
May represent virilization of an XX female, or undervirilization of an XY male.

933
Q

What are the common pulmonary features of RA?

A

Interstitial lung disease w/pulmonary nodules

Exudative pleural effusions – v. low glucose (<50mg/dL), v. high LDH (>700), and low pH resembling bacterial empyema.

934
Q

What are the most common causes of pleural effusions w/very low glucose (<50)?

A

RA
Empyema
Malignancy
TB

935
Q

Common risk factors of brain abscess:

A
Cyanotic heart disease (ToF)
Sinusitis
Mastoiditis
Otitis media
Dental Infection
**most commonly caused by S. aureus or S. viridans**
936
Q

How to differentiate Viral v. Bacterial acute rhinosinusitis:

A

Viral – no fever, or early resolution of fever
Mild sxs (mild facial pain, etc.)
Improvement & resolution by day 5-10
Bacterial – fever 3+ days, OR
New/recurrent fever after initial improvement, OR
Persistent sxs 10+ days

937
Q

Tx of acute rhinosinusitis:

A

Intranasal saline, saline irrigation, NSAIDs

Need abx if bacterial

938
Q

Most common causes of a positive hepatojugular reflux:

A

Constrictive pericarditis
RV infarction
Restrictive cardiomyopathy

939
Q

What does leukocyte esterase in the urine signify?

A

Significant pyuria

940
Q

What does nitrite positive urine signify?

A

Presence of enterobacteriacae (converts urinary nitrates to nitrites)

941
Q

What is the expected dipstick finding in acute pyelonephritis?

A

Pyuria, significant bacteriuria – positive for nitrites and esterase

942
Q

Tx of Actinomyces:

A

Penicillin (oral) is DoC; Severe cases may require IV pen or surgery

943
Q

What causes the diarrhea/steatorrhea in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

Excess gastric acid in the SI causes diarrhea and then steatorrhea can develop d/t inactivation of pancreatic enzymes and injury to the mucosal brush border.

944
Q

How to calculate and interpret the SAAG:

A

Serum-to-ascites albumin gradient
Calculated by subtracting peritoneal fluid albumin from serum albumin
SAAG >/= 1.1: Indicates portal HTN – cardiac ascites, cirrhosis, Budd-Chiari syndrome
SAAG < 1.1: absence of portal HTN – TB, peritoneal carcinomatosis, pancreatic ascites, nephrotic syndrome

945
Q

Tx of Bell’s Palsy:

A

Oral Corticosteroids

946
Q

When should topical/rectal Mesalamine be used in tx of UC?

A

In patients with mild disease that doesn’t extend beyond the mid-sigmoid colon.

947
Q

What is pathognomonic for Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

Peripheral smear showing giant granules in the neutrophils.

948
Q

Tx of tension HAs:

A

NSAIDs are 1st line

HAs refractory to NSAIDs, or rebound HAs can be treated with TCAs

949
Q

Mgmt of ASCUS in a patient 21-24:

A

Immediate HPV testing/reflex HPV testing or repeat pap in 1 year.

950
Q

How long must pts be on PPIs before considered refractory to tx?

A

12 weeks!

951
Q

Tx of Lyme disease in a child <8yrs:

A

Amoxicillin or Cefuroxime

952
Q

How long should Fluoxetine be dc’d before initiating another serotonergic med?

A

5 weeks – has longer t1/2 than the other SSRIs which only need 2 weeks

953
Q

What arteries are commonly affected by FMD?

A

Preferentially affects the renal and internal carotids
Less common the vertebral, iliac, or mesenteric are affected.
Leads to arterial stenosis, aneurysm or dissection

954
Q

Most common presenting sx of FMD:

A

Recurrent HA – d/t carotid a. stenosis or aneurysm

955
Q

What PE maneuvers can assess for appendiceal abscess?

A

Psoas sign, obturator sign, and rectal tenderness.
Obturator and rectal tenderness also test for pelvic appendix
Psoas sign also tests for retrocecal appendix.
All of these maneuvers assess the deep abdominal spaces

956
Q

Which benzo is most likely to result in seizures following abrupt dc?

A

Alprazolam – short t1/2

957
Q

Difference b/w diagnostic tests of choice for Diverticulitis v. Diverticulosis:

A

Diverticulosis – barium enema is test of choice

Diverticulitis – Contrast CT is test of choice (barium enema and colonoscopy are contraindicated until rupture is r/o)

958
Q

Difference in presentation of Proximal v. Mid/Distal SBOs:

A

Proximal – present w/early vomiting, abd discomfort, and abnorm contrast filling on XR
Mid or distal – present as colicky abd pain, delayed vomiting, prominent abd distention, constipation-obstipation, hyperactive BS, and dilated loops of bowel on abd XR

959
Q

What are Ladd’s bands?

A

Congenital adhesions seen in children

960
Q

What causes the bleeding and possible anemia in Meckel diverticulum?

A

Ectopic gastric mucosa secretes HCl acid which causes surrounding small-bowel ulceration and subsequent bleeding.

961
Q

What is one way to differentiate Niacin from Riboflavin deficiency?

A

Both cause dermatitis and glossitis.
Only riboflavin will cause normocytic-normochromic anemia
Only niacin will cause neuro and GI sxs

962
Q

What is the timeline for fat embolism?

A

24-72 hrs following the inciting event

963
Q

Risk factors of cerebral palsy:

A

Prematurity

Low birth weight

964
Q

Why does prematurity increase the risk of Cerebral Palsy?

A

Premature infants are more likely to have periventricular leukomalacia (white matter necrosis from ischemia/infarction) and intraventricular hemorrhage
Both of these are a/w CP

965
Q

Time course of post-MI cxs:

A

RVF – Acute
Papillary muscle rupture – acute, or w/in 3-5 days
Interventricular septum rupture – acute or w/in 3-5 days
Free wall rupture – w/in 5 days-2 weeks
LV aneurysm – up to several mos.

966
Q

What findings on CXR would suggest Bronchiectasis?

A

Linear atelectasis
Dilated and thickened airways
Irregular peripheral opacities

967
Q

How is VUR diagnosed?

A

Voiding cystourethrogram

968
Q

Abx used for GBS+ patients w/penicillin allergy at low-risk for anaphylaxis?

A

Cefazolin

969
Q

What patients require immediate defibrillation?

A

Vfib or pulseless ventricular tachycardia

VT w/a pulse needs cardioversion not defibrillation

970
Q

When should atropine be given to pts w/bradycardia?

A

If persistent bradyarrhythmia + one:
HoTN or signs of shock
Acute mental status changes
Chest discomfort concerning for cardiac ischemia
Acute heart failure
If no response to atropine: transcutaneous pacing, IV dopamine or IV epinephrine

971
Q

What are the main organisms that cause central line-associated bloodstream infections?

A
#1: Coagulase negative staph.
Others: S. aureus, gram negs. (Klebsiella, pseudomonas), and Candida
972
Q

How to differentiate Obesity hypoventilation syndrome from ILD:

A

OHS will have a normal DLCO whereas ILD will have decreased DLCO
Only ILD will have cough and bibasilar crackles

973
Q

What are the NOACs?

A

Non-vitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants
Rivaroxaban
Dabigatran
Apixaban
Edoxaban
Should be given to patients w/aFib and a mod-high risk of thromboembolic events

974
Q

Tx of Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis:

A
Empiric abx (3rd gen cephalosporins – Cefotaxime)
Fluoroquinolones are used for pphx
975
Q

Precipitating factors of Hepatic Encephalopathy:

A
Drugs (sedatives, narcotics)
Hypovolemia (diarrhea)
Electrolyte changes (hypokalemia)
Increased Nitrogen load (GI bleed)
Infection (pneumonia, UTI, SBP)
Portosystemic shunting/TIPS
976
Q

What type of shock would be seen in acute Fe poisoning?

A

All three can occur
Hypovolemic shock – from GI losses
Distributive shock – vasodilation
Cardiogenic shock – direct injury to myocardium

977
Q

Complications of acute Fe poisoning:

A

Hepatic necrosis
Shock
GI bleeding – scarring and obstruction

978
Q

What are the most important prognostic factors for astrocytomas?

A

Patient age
Functional status
Tumor grade – increased atypia/anaplasia, mitoses, neovascularity and necrosis are all considered worse prognoses

979
Q

What is the worst astrocytoma?

A

Grade IV – aka Glioblastoma multiforme

It has neovascularity and necrosis w/a high degree of anaplasia and many mitoses

980
Q

Most common brain tm in adults?

A

Astrocytoma (subcategory of glioma)

981
Q

How to differentiate CML from CLL:

A

CML has marked leukocytosis of predominately neutrophil origin
CLL has marked leukocytosis of predominately lymphocyte origin

982
Q

Where do you see smudge cells?

A

CLL “crushed little lymphocytes”

983
Q

What preceding infection is likely to cause a brain abscess in the temporal lobe or cerebellum?

A

Otitis media or mastoiditis

984
Q

What preceding infection is likely to cause a brain abscess in the frontal lobe?

A

Sinusitis or dental infection

985
Q

What effects will renal tubular necrosis have on volume status?

A

It can be seen in pts w/severe HoTN and impaired renal perfusion – HYPERvolemic hyponatremia w/urine Na>20

986
Q

How to differentiate between types of Hypovolemic Hyponatremia:

A

Must have serum Na < 135 and signs/sxs of Hypovolemia

  1. Extrarenal losses (D/V, burns, pancreatitis): urine NA <20
  2. Renal losses (diuretics, mineralocorticoid deficiency): urine Na >20
  3. Decreased effective circulating volume (CHF, cirrhosis)
987
Q

Conditions which require pphx against bacterial endocarditis:

A

High-risk cardiac conditions:
Prosthetic heart valve
Previous IE
Structural valve abnormality in a transplanted heart
Unrepaired cyanotic congenital heart disease
Repaired CHD w/residual defect

988
Q

First step in evaluating dizziness:

A

Classification of sxs into 1/3 categories:
Vertigo – sensation of spinning
Presyncope – feeling like about to faint
Disequilibrium – a sense of imbalance

989
Q

Most common UA findings in pts w/Multiple Myeloma:

A

UA will often be normal with little/no proteinuria (it detects albumin but not the monocloncal protein)

990
Q

Most common cause of renal insufficiency in pts w/MM:

A

Myeloma cast nephropathy – the monoclonal light chains clog the renal tubules and cause intratubular cast formation and toxicity.

991
Q

What does the PCWP measure?

A

It reflects L atrial pressures

992
Q

What would the results of cardiac catheterization in a patient w/a PE show?

A
Cardiac output: decreased
RA pressure: increased
RV pressure: increased
Pulmonary a. pressure: increased
PCWP: normal
993
Q

Who is likely to get septic arthritis from gram negative bac?

A

IVDU
Severe IMCP
Advanced age
Sexually active young adults (N. gonorrhea)

994
Q

Most common coagulopathy in malignancy:

A

DIC

Often in gastric, breast and lung cancer pts.

995
Q

What valvular abnormality is caused by chordae tendonae degeneration?

A

Mitral regurgitation

NOT aortic regurg.

996
Q

When would hyposegmented neutrophils be seen on PBS?

A

In Myelodysplastic syndrome

Get granulocytes – hyposegmented/hypogranular NPs and ovalomacrocytosis – dysplastic RBCs

997
Q

What investigation should be done in pts. w/widened mediastinum on CXR post-trauma?

A

A TEE or Chest CT w/contrast to look for ruptured aorta

A TTE will not adequately visualize the thoracic aorta and should not be performed

998
Q

What is thyroid acropachy?

A

Nail clubbing in the setting of hyperthyroidism

Uncommon, but specific finding of Graves disease (like ophthalmopathy)

999
Q

How is lid lag described on PE?

A

Sclera seen above the iris on downward gaze

1000
Q

Respiratory effects of opioid poisoning:

A

Decreased RR and tidal volume – decreased minute ventilation and CO2 retention – respiratory acidosis

1001
Q

What causes ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome?

A

Overexpression of VEGF in the ovaries leads to b/l enlarged and cystic ovaries w/increased vascular permeability (increased Doppler flow) which causes 3rd spacing – ascites and pulmonary edema

1002
Q

Conditions associated with Pyoderma gangrenosum:

A

IBD
Inflammatory arthritis/RA
Malignancy

1003
Q

Malignancies that may secrete PTHrP and lead to hypercalcemia:

A
Squamous cell of: lung, head and neck
Renal cell carcinoma
Breast
Bladder
Ovarian
1004
Q

What is drug-induced acne and what are common causes of it?

A
Acute papular inflammatory rash – has monomorphic papules and lacks comedomes. 
Seen in any age group
Rxs: 
  Glucocorticoids/steroids
  Androgens
  Immunomodulators (azathioprine, EGFR inhibitors)
  Anticonvulsants (phenytoin)
  Antipsychotics
  Anti-TB Rxs (Isoniazid)
1005
Q

Cxs of cardiac myxoma:

A

Embolization – stroke, acute limb or mesenteric ischemia, etc.
Sudden cardiac death d/t impaired CO.

1006
Q

How does b/l choanal atresia present?

A

Shortly after birth with cyanosis that worsens during feeding and improves when crying.
May also have noisy breathing/stertor
Unable to pass a catheter from the nares into the oropharynx.
Often a/w CHARGE syndrome

1007
Q

How does unilateral choanal atresia present?

A

As chronic nasal discharge during childhood.

1008
Q

What are the sxs of a Left ventricular aneurysm?

A

Progressive enlargement of the LV can cause:
Heart failure
Refractory angina
Ventricular arrhythmias
Mural thrombus w/systemic arterial embolization
Mitral annular dilation w/MR

1009
Q

When is Clopidogrel used?

A

Clopidogrel and ticlopidine are ADP-R inhibitors – inhibit platelet aggregation.
These are only used to tx arterial thromboses – MI and Stroke.
They have no use in the tx of venous thrombosis (DVT, PE)

1010
Q

What bug is most commonly a/w pediatric seizures in the setting of acute bacterial gastroenteritis?

A

Shigella spp.
The seizures are typically self-limited with a quick return to baseline
(unlike seizures a/w Reye syndrome or hyponatremia)
If the seizure occurs a week after the diarrhea has resolved, likely HUS

1011
Q

What are the long term cxs of Mitral Stenosis?

A

MV narrowing causes LA enlargement which causes increased LAP during ventricular diastole
This leads to elevated pulmonary artery pressure and pHTN
Ultimately causes RHF

1012
Q

What abnormalities would be seen on PBS in CMV infection?

A

Atypical lymphocytes - -have granulated LCs

1013
Q

Difference between pitting and non-pitting edema:

A

Pitting edema is caused by low protein in the ISF – Liver failure (hypoalbuminemia), nephrotic syndrome, and Congenital/Congestive HF
Nonpitting edema is d/t high protein in the ISF – lymphatic network dysgenesis/congenital lymphedema

1014
Q

How should minimal bright red blood per rectum be managed?

A

<40y/o and no red flags – anoscopy
40-49 w/out red flags – sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy
>50 or red flags – colonoscopy

1015
Q

By what age do most SCD patients have functional asplenia?

A

5 years old

1016
Q

What are helmet cells?

A

Schistocytes

1017
Q

Recommended tx for splenic abscess:

A

Splenectomy
Abx alone have 50% mortality rate
If poor surgical candidate may consider percutaneous drainage instead

1018
Q

Tx of severely enlarged tonsillitis/pharyngitis in Infectious Mononucleosis:

A

Corticosteroids – decreases the airway edema and risk of acute airway obstruction

1019
Q

What are children who develop premature adrenarche at risk for?

A

PCOS, type 2 DM, and metabolic syndrome – risk increases in obese children.
Obesity is also a risk factor for premature adrenarche – adipose triggers xs insulin production which stimulates adrenals to produce androgens

1020
Q

Tx of gallstone ileus:

A

Surgical removal of stone and simultaneous or delayed cholecystectomy

1021
Q

How to distinguish b/w gallstone ileus and emphysematous cholecystitis:

A

Both will have penumobilia

Gallstone ileus – colicky, diffuse abdP, bloating, distention, inability to pass flatus or stool, HoTN.
These patients will have HYPERactive bowel sounds d/t mechanical obstruction
Emphysematous cholecystitis – RUQ pain, fever, septic sxs
These patients may have HYPOactive bowel sounds d/t paralytic ileus

1022
Q

What age group is at increased risk for developing Listeria meningitis?

A

Those >50 years

Must add Ampicillin coverage for anyone >50 (in addition to the normal Vancomycin + 3rd gen-ceph)

1023
Q

What should be added to the tx regimen of Meningitis in addition to empiric abx?

A

Dexamethasone – helps prevent the neuro cxs (deafness, focal deficits) a/w S. pneumo meningitis in adults and H. influenzae in children
If cultures r/o s. pneumo or H.flu as the cause it should be dc’d

1024
Q

When should Cefepime be part of the tx regimen for meningitis?

A

If the person is IMCP’d or it occurs after neurosurgery/penetrating skull trauma
It’s a 4th gen-ceph and covers: S. pneumo, N. meningitidis, GBS, H. influenzae, MSSA and Pseudomonas

1025
Q

What is one of the leading causes of new-onset urinary incontinence in the elderly?

A

UTIs – may cause concurrent delirium w/o systemic signs/sxs (fever, etc.)
Should obtain UA to r/o this before other investigations

1026
Q

B vitamins:

A
B1 – Thiamine
B2 – Riboflavin 
B3 – Niacin
B5 – Pantothenic acid
B6 – Pyridoxine
B7 – Biotin
B9 – Folate
B12 – Cobalamin
1027
Q

What causes the pulmonary edema seen in preeclampsia/HELLP syndrome?

A
Systemic HTN leads to:
    Increased afterload – increased pulmonary capillary P
Decreased renal function
Increased vascular permeability
Hypoalbuminemia
1028
Q

What are the current guidelines recommended for PCI in pts w/acute STEMI?

A

Reperfuse w/PCI if:
W/in 12hrs of symptom onset
AND
w/in 90min from first medical contact to device time at a PCI capable facility
OR
w/in 120min from first contact to device time at non-PCI capable facility

1029
Q

What is dead space ventilation?

A

It is the ventilation of areas of the lung that are not perfused with blood – effected in PE, etc.
Pneumonia does not interfere w/pulmonary vasculature and does not cause significant alterations in dead space ventilation.

1030
Q

When is a tube thoracostomy not enough to manage hemothorax?

A

In patients who have:
An initial bloody output >1.5L
Persistent hemorrhage – >200mL/hr for >2hrs
Continuous need for blood transfusion to maintain hemodynamic stability

Patients with any of these factors need emergent thoracotomy

1031
Q

What is the current recommendation for Td/Tdap vaccination in adults?

A

Adults should get Td booster every 10 years, with a one-time dose of Tdap in place of the Td booster.
Pregnant women should get Tdap with every pregnancy.

1032
Q

Lab values seen in G6PD deficiency:

A

Hemolysis – decreased Hb and haptoglobin, increased BR and LDH
PBS – bite cells and Heinz bodies
Negative Coombs test
Decreased G6PD levels, but may be normal during an attack!

1033
Q

What causes the short stature in Turner’s and how is it tx’d?

A

Short stature is caused by absence of X chromosome

Tx’d w/GH even though GH levels are typically normal

1034
Q

What may be seen on US in a threatened abortion?

A

Subchorionic hematoma

1035
Q

How should hemodynamically stable v. unstable pts w/evidence of renal trauma be evaluated?

A

Stable patients: US and contrast-CT of abdomen and pelvis.

Unstable: IV pyelography prior to surgical evaluation

1036
Q

What are the risk factors of chronic venous stasis?

A

Obesity
Advanced age
Varicose veins
Hx of DVT

1037
Q

What will be seen on imaging in a patient w/Complex regional pain syndrome?

A

XR: Patchy demineralization/osteopenia

Bone scintigraphy: increased uptake in the affected limb

1038
Q

What is sialadenosis and what patients are at risk for it?

A

It is a benign, non-tender, non-inflammatory swelling of the salivary glands – a/w abnormal autonomic innervation of the glands w/accumulation of secretory glands in the acinar cells.
Patients at risk: Advanced liver disease (alcoholic and non), altered dietary patterns and malnutrition (DM, bulimia)
No mgmt. necessary except to tx underlying condition

1039
Q

Tx of Neurocysticercosis:

A

Antiparasitics – albendazole
Corticosteroids
Antiepileptics – phenytoin if seizures

1040
Q

When should a CT be ordered in a patient w/vertigo?

A

Vertigo may indicate an underlying stroke or hemorrhage, so a noncontrast CT is needed if patients have 1+ of the following:
Prominent stroke risk factors – hyperlipidemia, HTN, DM
New-onset HA
Neurologic signs/sxs

1041
Q

Most common congenital heart defect in Down Syndrome:

A

Complete AV septal defect—failure of endocardial cushions to merge

1042
Q

How should warfarin anticoagulation be reversed prior to urgent surgery?

A

1 – Immediately dc warfarin
2 – administer Prothrombin complex concentrate (contains vitK-dependent cofactors + normalizes INR <10 min)
3 – Give IV vitamin K
If PCC is unavailable can give FFP (IV colloid) but it is less effective

1043
Q

What are the sxs of Pelvic congestion syndrome?

A

A dull, ill-defined pelvic ache that worsens w/intercourse or long periods of standing.
Pain is often relieved by menses

1044
Q

What causes Friedrich ataxia?

A

Trinucleotide expansion (normally GAA) in the frataxin gene

1045
Q

What is acute cerebellar ataxia?

A

Typically post-infectious – presents w/acute onset of ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria 1-3wks post-viral illness.
Reflexes, proprioception and vibration NOT affected.
Most commonly in children <6
Used to be highly a/w varicella but is decreasing now w/vaccine (can occasionally see it after getting VZV vaccine).
Coxsackie and herpes viruses most common
Usually resolves w/supportive care in <2 weeks

1046
Q

Tx of Friedrich ataxia:

A

Supportive – PT and psychosocial support. No Rxs to tx it

1047
Q

Most common organisms to cause brain abscess:

A

S. aureus
S. viridans
Less commonly – anaerobes

1048
Q

What causes aFib in patients with Mitral stenosis?

A

Dilated left atrium and increased pressures within it.

1049
Q

What is the problem in factor V Leiden?

A

It causes a resistance to activated protein C
Most common thrombophilia in white people
(2nd most common is mutation in prothrombin)

1050
Q

What is a common imaging finding in pts w/Idiopathic intracranial HTN?

A

Empty sella

1051
Q

What are some common causes of functional asplenia where you would see Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

Sickle cell disease
Sarcoidosis – and other infiltrative disorders of the spleen
Splenic congestion – thrombosis, etc.

1052
Q

Typical presentation of Friedrich ataxia:

A

Neurologic dysfxn – spastic weakness, loss of vibration and proprioception, ataxia
Cardiomyopathy – HCMP
Diabetes (frataxin is highly expressed in the pancreas)
Skeletal abnormalities – kyphoscoliosis, pes cavus (high arched feet)

1053
Q

Difference in mgmt. of exertional v. non-exertional heat stroke:

A

Exertional – rapid cooling, ice-water immersion, IVF, etc.

Non-exertional – evaporative cooling: spraying lukewarm water and blowing w/fans etc.

1054
Q

Cxs of Zenker diverticulum:

A

Tracheal compression
Ulceration w/bleeding
Regurgitation
Pulmonary aspiration

1055
Q

Who is at greatest risk for developing Cholangiocarcinoma and what lab values will be seen?

A

Risk is greatest in pts w/fibropolycystic liver disease and primary sclerosing cholangitis (90% a/w UC)
Labs will show cholestatic liver enzyme pattern: Hyperbilirubinemia, mild increase in ALT/AST, increased ALP & GGT, and often CEA and CA 19-9 are elevated

1056
Q

What will be seen on abdominal imaging in Cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Intrahepatic or common bile duct dilation.
Common bile duct may be normal depending on the level of the lesion.
EUS or ERCP are needed for tissue bx after this is seen

1057
Q

Clinical signs of traumatic AV fistula:

A

Widened pulse pressure
Strong peripheral arterial pulsation (brisk carotid upstroke)
Systolic flow murmur
Tachycardia
Flushed extremities/site affected will be erythematous and more flushed
LVH w/displaced PMI

1058
Q

Physiologic changes in a patient w/traumatic AVF:

A

The fistula shunts large amounts of blood and causes:
Decreased SVR
Increased preload
Increased CO
This will cause a compensatory increase in HR and SV to meet O2 requirements of peripheral tissues.
Ultimately leads to high output heart failure`

1059
Q

What are the common lab values seen in HCC?

A

Large increases in AFP and ALP (esp. if mets to the bone)

AST/ALT may be normal or mildly elevated.`

1060
Q

What type of bone lesions are a/w HCC?

A

HCC mets to the bone cause a mixed osteolytic and osteoblastic pattern

1061
Q

Clinical features of Langerhans cell histiocytosis:

A

Lytic bone lesions (skull, jaw, femur-often diaphysis)
Skin lesions (purplish papules, eczematous rash)
LAD, hepatosplenomegaly
Pulmonary cysts/nodules (present w/cough)
Central DI
May have recurrent otitis media w/mass involving mastoid bone

1062
Q

What are the common infectious complications seen in atopic dermatitis?

A

Impetigo
Eczema herpeticum
Molluscum contagiosum
Tinea corporis

1063
Q

What is hepatopulmonary syndrome and what are the likely findings?

A

Syndrome that results from intrapulmonary vascular dilations in the setting of chronic liver disease.
Patients often have platypnea (increased dyspnea when upright) and orthodeoxia (decreased O2 saturation when upright)

1064
Q

What is postoperative endophthalmitis and how will it present?

A

Most common form of endophthalmitis – bacterial or fungal infection w/in the eye (mostly the vitreous)
Occurs w/in 6wks of surgery
Presents w/swollen eyelids and conjunctiva, hypopyon, corneal edema, exudates in the anterior chamber and decreased visual acuity.

1065
Q

Risk factors and complications of Hidradenitis suppurativa:

A

Risks – Obesity, tobacco use and Fhx

Cxs – Contractures, lymphatic obstruction, fistula

1066
Q

How to differentiate b/w rotator cuff tear and impingement/tendinopathy:

A

Impingement or tendinopathy will have pain w/abduction and external rotation, subacromial tenderness and normal ROM w/positive impingement tests
Tear will present similar but may have less pain and more weakness – weakness w/abduction and external rotation and positive drop arm test

1067
Q

What are the common cxs of PPROM?

A

Preterm labor
Intraamniotic infection
Placental abruption
Umbilical cord prolapse

1068
Q

When would you not use B-agonists to tx hyperkalemia?

A

If the patient has active coronary artery disease (angina etc.) – they can cause tachycardia and precipitate angina.

1069
Q

Cxs of cholesteatomas:

A

Hearing loss
Cranial n. palsies
Vertigo
Infections – brain abscess, meningitis

1070
Q

Common causes of cylothorax:

A

Tramua – cardiothoracic surgery
Congenital malformations
Syndromes – Down syndrome, Noonan syndrome
Malignancy

1071
Q

Major AEs of Metoprolol:

A
Bradyarrhythmias
Acute worsening of HF
Bronchoconstriction
Fatigue
Depression 
Weight gain
Sexual dysfxn
1072
Q

What enzyme is deficient in hereditary fructosemia and how will it present?

A

Aldolase B deficiency
Presents in infancy after the introduction of fruits and vegetables leads to accumulation of fructose-1-phosphate
Sxs: V, poor feeding and lethargy. May lead to seizures or encephalopathy if fructose isn’t removed from the diet

1073
Q

Enzyme deficient in Galactosemia and presentation:

A

Galactase-1-phosphate uridyl transferase in RBCs
Presents in first few days of life w/jaundice, hepatomegaly and failure to thrive after consumption of breast milk or formula

1074
Q

What are the current screening guidelines for DM in asx pts?

A

Screen in pts w/sustained BP >135/80 (whether tx’d or untx’d)
Screen in all pts 45+ and those at any age w/addn’l risk factors (BMI >25, hx of gDM, Fhx, etc)

1075
Q

What is responsible for the development of male external genitalia and prostate?

A

DHT which is converted from testosterone via 5-a-reductase
5-aR deficiency will therefore lead to normal internal male genitalia (testes) and external female (blind-ending vagina) which become virilized during puberty (clitoromegaly)

1076
Q

Why don’t patients w/5 a-R deficiency have breast development?

A

Because they still have responsive androgen receptors (unlike AIS) so the increased levels of testosterone bind and inhibit estrogen from binding and stimulating breast proliferation.

1077
Q

What are the sxs of hypokalemia?

A

Sxs depend on the severity but may include:
Weakness, fatigue, and mm. cramps
Flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, tetany
Arrhythmias (K <2.5 norm) – aFib, TdP, Vfib can all occur

1078
Q

How do the nasal polyps a/w CF appear on PE?

A

Translucent shiny, grey or yellow masses that obscure the nasal turbinates. Present bilaterally

1079
Q

What GI complications can occur in CF?

A

Blockage of pancreatic ducts – pancreatic insufficiency and CF-related diabetes
Blockage of the biliary tree – biliary cirrhosis from increased pressure and subsequent fibrosis

1080
Q

What does peak airway pressure in a ventilated patient measure?

A

Total airway resistance + plateau pressure

plateau pressure inversely measures lung compliance and = elastic pressure + PEEP

1081
Q

What would cause an increase in peak pressure without a change in plateau pressure in a ventilated patient?

A
Increased peak and normal plateau means total resistance has increased
Causes:
   Bronchospasm
   Mucus plug
   Biting endotracheal tube
1082
Q

What would cause an increase in both peak and plateau pressure in a ventilated patient?

A
Increase in plateau signifies decreased lung compliance or increased elasticity
Causes:
   Pneumothorax
   Pulmonary edema
   Pneumonia
   Atelectasis
   R mainstem intubation
1083
Q

How are plateau pressure and PEEP measured?

A

Plateau is calculated by performing the end-inspiratory hold maneuver

PEEP is calculated by performing the end-expiratory hold maneuver

1084
Q

What are the cofactors for PTH secretion?

A

Magnesium and Vitamin A

In alcoholism there is hypomagnesemia which leads to decreased PTH and therefore hypocalcemia

1085
Q

What causes Hypocalcemia in alcoholism?

A

Alcoholics have decreased magnesium which leads to decreased PTH secretion and ultimately hypocalcemia

1086
Q

What causes Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Abs against the acetylcholine Rs on the motor endplate – plenty of Ach gets released, but it cannot bind to the Rs bc they’re blocked.
Lambert eaton blocks release of Achth

1087
Q

How to diagnose HTN in pediatric population:

A

Measure BP on 3 separate occasions at least 1 week apart.

1088
Q

Defect in which cells will leave a child at greatest risk for TB?

A

T cells, specifically Th1 cells.

Often seen in IL-12 receptor deficiency – unable to produce/activate Th1 cells

1089
Q

What causes acne?

A
Pilosebaceous follicles (holocrine glands) on the face have increased sebum, keratin and bacteria that lead to:
   Obstruction – causing comedomes
   Inflammation – causing papules/pustules, nodules and cysts
1090
Q

What are apocrine glands and where are they found?

A

They are sweat glands found in the axilla, groin and areola

They are scent glands – why we smell when we sweat

1091
Q

What is the most common cause of acquired ataxia and how will it present?

A

Alcoholic cerebellar degeneration
It effects LE > UE and leads to gait resembling EtOH intoxication “reeling from one side to the other”
MRI will show atrophy of cerebellar vermis

1092
Q

Most frequent pathogens to cause infection in Multiple Myeloma:

A

S. pneumoniae

Gram negatives

1093
Q

What will be seen on fundoscopy in optic neuritis?

A

Pallor of the optic disc or hyperemia and swelling

Depends on time of exam

1094
Q

When should cervical conization be done?

A

When CIN grade 2 or 3 is found on colposcopy

In young women observation is preferred for CIN-2

1095
Q

What is anemia of prematurity and how will it present?

A

Seen in preterm infants d/t impaired EPO production, short RBC lifespan and iatrogenic blood sampling
Normally asx, but may have tachycardia, apnea, and poor weight gain

1096
Q

Lab findings in anemia of prematurity:

A

Low Hb and Hct
Low reticulocytes (bc decreased EPO)
Normocytic, normochromic RBCs
Tx: minimize blood draws, Fe supplements, transfusions

1097
Q

What pediatric patients are at risk for Wilm’s tm. and hepatoblastoma?

A

Patients with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, as well as those with isolated Hemi-hyperplasia
(WAGR complex and Denys-Drash are also at risk for Wilm’s tm.)
Both need to undergo frequent screening w/US and AFP measurements

1098
Q

What are the features of Denys-Drash syndrome?

A

Early-onset nephrotic syndrome (diffuse glomerulosclerosis) leading to kidney failure in childhood
Male pseudohermaphroditism or ambiguous genitalia w/undescended testes in 46XY pts
- Females typically have normal genitalia
Wilms tumor (develops in 90% of cases)

1099
Q

What malignancy is commonly a/w Sjogren syndrome?

A

Non-hodgkin lymphoma

1100
Q

What signs should raise suspicion of HIT?

A

Heparin exposure >5d and any of the following:
Platelet count reduction >50% from baseline
Arterial or venous thrombosis
Necrotic skin lesions at heparin injection sites
Acute systemic (anaphylactoid) reactions after Heparin

sxs may manifest sooner in pts previously exposed to Heparin

1101
Q

Causes of Hyperthyroidism w/decreased RAI uptake:

A

Painless/silent Thyroiditis (nontender goiter)
Subacute/granulomatous thyroiditis aka De Quervain (tender goiter)
Iodide exposure
Exogenous thyroid hormone

1102
Q

What is the MoA of hyperthyroidism with decreased RAIU?

A

It is d/t release of preformed thyroid hormone, so the thyroid gland is underworking in these states and not being stimulated.

1103
Q

What is the most common congenital cyanotic heart disease in the neonatal period?

A

Transposition of the great vessels

1104
Q

What is the only cyanotic congenital heart disease that might present w/o a murmur?

A

Transposition of the great vessels
It requires a VSD, PDA or PFO to survive in the neonatal period, and a VSD and PDA will both present with murmur but if the patient has a PFO then there will be no murmur

1105
Q

What conditions are a/w Erythema Nodosum?

A
Strep Infection
Sarcoidosis
TB
Endemic fungal diseases – Histoplasmosis
IBD
Behcet disease
1106
Q

Mgmt of Toxic megacolon (d/t C. diff):

A

Bowel rest, NGT
Aggressive abx tx: Oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole
d/c anything that contributes to decreased GI motility (opiates)
Lack of response/deterioration often need surgery – subtotal cholectomy

1107
Q

What is iliotibial band syndrome and how will it present?

A

It is an overuse injury and will cause lateral pain w/tenderness at the lateral femoral condyle

1108
Q

What are the effects of Na+ on Ca2+ absorption?

A

Increased Na+ intake enhances Ca2+ excretion in the urine – hypercalciuria and increases the risk of developing calcium stones.
Low Na+ intake promotes Na+ and Ca2+ reabsorption. Therefore pts w/renal calculi should be advised to follow a low-Na diet w/normal dietary Ca2+ intake

1109
Q

What would promote hyperoxaluria and Ca-Oxalate stone formation?

A
Decreased Ca2+ intake – leads to free Oxalate absorption in the gut and hyperoxaluria
Increased Vitamin C intake 
Malabsorption syndromes (Crohn, CF) that have increased intestinal FAs that form salts w/Ca2+ and lead to increased Oxaluria reabsorption
1110
Q

When is amnioinfusion contraindicated?

A

In a patient w/prior uterine surgery

1111
Q

How to differentiate Histoplasma from Coccidioiomycosis based on CXR:

A

Histoplasma is typically bilateral, focal, reticulonodular or miliary infiltrates and b/l hilar or mediastinal LAD
Coccidiodes is typically a unilateral infiltrate w/ipsilateral hilar LAD

1112
Q

When do hemothoraces require emergent surgical thoracotomy?

A

If chest tubes (tube toracostomy) put out immediate bloody drainage >1.5L

1113
Q

Preferred imaging modality to assess for an empyema:

A

Chest US – can assess volume and location of fluid + presence or absence of loculated fluid.

1114
Q

Most common cause of acute v. subacute unilateral LAD in children:

A

Acute – S. aureus and S. pyogenes (tender LN)
Subacute – MAC and other non-TB mycobacteria (non tender LN)

acute in poor dentition is most commonly caused by anaerobes (prevotella)

1115
Q

Most common cause of acute v. subacute bilateral LAD in children:

A

Acute – Adenovirus and other URIs

Subacute – CMV and EBV

1116
Q

What is the difference b/w PMR and Polymyositis?

A

PMR has pain and stiffness in muscles, but NO weakness. Have increased ECR and CRP, but CK, aldolase, etc are all normal

Polymyositis has severe weakness, but pain is mild/absent and no stiffness. Will have increased CK, aldolase, AST and ANA/Anti-Jo-1 Abs. Need muscle bx to dx this but not PMR

1117
Q

Tx of Peri-infarction pericarditis:

A

Aka early post-MI pericarditis (not Dressler)
Tx is supportive – should avoid anti-inflammatory meds (NSAIDs, steroids) bc they’ll disrupt healing and increase risk of other cxs (free wall rupture, etc)

1118
Q

What kind of malabsorption is Lactose intolerance?

A

Carbohydrate malabsorption

No problems w/fat absorption in these pts so have negative acid steatocrit tests

1119
Q

What is the most common cause of hearing impairment in children?

A

Conductive loss d/t repeated ear infections

1120
Q

What effect does hyperthyroidism have on Ca2+?

A

Increased Thyroid hormone increases osteoclast activity and bone resorption – hypercalcemia and decreased PTH.
Ultimately leads to hypercalciuria as well and increases risk of Ca-stones.

1121
Q

DoC for tocolysis <32 weeks gestation:

A

Indomethacin

Contraindicated >32 weeks d/t risk of closing the PDA

1122
Q

What causes febrile non-hemolytic transfusion rxn and how does it present?

A

Small amounts of leukocytes remain in red cell concentrate after being separated from whole blood and plasma, and when stored the leukocytes release cytokines that cause sxs when transfused.
Sxs: transient fevers, chills, and malaise w/o hemolysis
Will have negative Coombs/direct antiglobulin test and negative free Hb

1123
Q

What is the timeline for acute hemolytic transfusion rxns and how will they present?

A

Presents w/in 1 hour of transfusion w/fever, chills, flank pain, and hemoglobinuria which can progress to renal failure and DIC.
Will have a positive direct coombs/antiglobulin test and plasma free Hb >25

1124
Q

Using whole blood increases the risk of what kind of rxn?

A

Whole blood contains lots of leukocytes and increases the risk of febrile non-hemolytic rxn
It is rarely used bc of this, and normally only for cases of acute massive hemorrhage (trauma)

1125
Q

What do plasma mixing studies tell you about increased PT or aPTT?

A

In patients w/prolonged pt or aptt plasma mixing studies differentiate b/w coagulation factor deficiencies or coagulation inhibitors:
Coagulation corrects w/mixing study – there is a deficient coagulation factor
Coagulation does not correct w/mixing – there is an inhibitor present

1126
Q

What is one of the most common coagulation inhibitors in females?

A

Lupus anticoagulant – a type of antiphospholipid Ab.

It prolongs the aPTT and will not correct w/plasma mixing studies, but will correct w/the addition of phospholipids

1127
Q

What coagulation study would be prolonged in pts taking Xa inhibitors?

A

Thrombin time (PT and aPTT should be normal)

1128
Q

How should patients with long QT syndrome (Jervell-Lange-Nielsen, etc.) be treated?

A

BBs
+
Pacemaker – if hx of syncope or sxs (lightheadedness, palpitations, etc.)

1129
Q

How will pts w/Galactokinase deficiency present?

A

With cataracts – otherwise asx

1130
Q

When is diagnostic peritoneal lavage used?

A

Typically only in unstable pts w/equivocal FAST results, or if CT/US are unavailable

1131
Q

What is the significance of endometrial cells being found on Pap test?

A

Endometrial cells on pap test mean that the endometrial lining is shedding.
In women <45yrs this is not reported on results bc it’s a normal finding esp if in the 1st 10 days of the menstrual cycle
Women >45 yrs this is concerning for an abnormality and might signify endometrial hyperplasia/ca and these women need an endometrial bx to investigate

1132
Q

Tx of Invasive Aspergillosis:

A

1-2wks of IV Voriconazole + an Echinocandin (Capsofungin)

Then can be transitioned to prolonged oral tx of Voriconazole alone

1133
Q

Predominant MoA for ventricular arrhythmias in the immediate post-MI period:

A

Reentry – most commonly leads to Vfib and sudden cardiac arrest
These are called phase 1a ventricular arrhythmias and occur w/in 10min of coronary occlusion

1134
Q

What are the immunologic responses seen in IE?

A

Positive Rheumatoid factor (possibly d/t Ab production)
Immune complex-mediated glomerulonephritis (get hematuria and RBC casts)
Cutaneous lesions – osler nodes (painful fingertip nodules)
Roth spots – edematous/hemorrhagic lesions of the retina

1135
Q

What needs to occur in pregnant women w/a non-reactive NST?

A

Must be followed up w/a BPP or CST – they are equivalent to each other, but CST is contraindicated in any woman where labor is contraindicated (placenta previa, prior myomectomy, etc.)

1136
Q

What are the cxs of Biliary cysts?

A

Cysts may transform into cholangiocarcinoma and require surgical resection.
Older children may present w/the normal sxs (jaundice, acholic stools, dark urine, abd pain, etc.) with pancreatitis superimposed on top of it.

1137
Q

What effects will maternal Listeria infection have on a baby?

A

If infection during 1st trimester – often causes fetal death, may lead to premature birth
Perinatal – can cause newborn infections that are typically severe w/fever, Granulomatosis infantiseptica: disseminated abscesses in multiple organs (liver, spleen, lungs, kidneys, brain) and skin lesions.

1138
Q

When would you see a pendular knee reflex?

A

In cerebellar degeneration – commonly seen in EtOH-induced cerebellar degeneration

1139
Q

What kind of lesion would the presence of clonus suggest?

A

Lesion in the pyramidal tracts – UMN lesion

1140
Q

When should a baby be able to sit unsupported?

A

By 7mos

At 6mos they should be able to sit propped on their hands and unsupported for a few moments

1141
Q

What features of ureterolithiasis would warrant a Urologic consult?

A
Signs of urosepsis – fever, chills, tachycardia, etc.
Anuria
Acute kidney injury
Pain refractory to analgesics
Large stones (10+ mm)
Stones that do not pass w/in 4-5 weeks
1142
Q

What are the 3 main categories of Diabetic Retinopathy?

A
  1. Background/Simple retinopathy: consists of microaneurysms, hemorrhages (dot & blot), exudates (hard) and retinal/macular edema (what causes visual impairment)
  2. Pre-proloferative: w/cotton wool spots
  3. Proliferative/malignant: consists of newly formed vessels
1143
Q

What is erythromycin use in neonates a/w?

A

Pyloric stenosis

Should avoid use in all children <1mo.

1144
Q

What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?

A

Endometriosis and Fhx

delayed menarche and early menopause are protective

1145
Q

What causes unilateral pain in the middle of the menstrual cycle?

A

Mittelschmerz – rupture of the ovarian follicle releases the egg and the small amount of blood released at this time can irritate the peritoneum.
Typically occurs on days 10-14 of the menstrual cycle (this starts counting from the 1st day of the previous menses)

1146
Q

What are the common adult causes of osteomalacia?

A
Malabsorption (IBD, CF, etc.)
Bypass surgery
Celiac sprue
Chronic liver disease
Chronic kidney disease (RTA type 2)
1147
Q

Most common skin malignancy in pts on chronic immunosuppressive tx:

A

SCC – esp. if they’re on immunosuppressants for organ transplant
Often aggressive w/local recurrence, regional mets, and perineural invasion

1148
Q

What are broad casts and when would they be seen?

A

Seen in chronic renal failure
Arise in the dilated tubules of enlarged nephrons that have undergone compensatory hypertrophy in response to reduced renal mass.
Waxy casts (shiny, and translucent) are also seen in chronic renal disease

1149
Q

When are RBC casts found in the urine?

A

In glomerulonephritis or vasculitis (malignant HTN, etc.)

1150
Q

What does the progesterone withdrawal test evaluate for?

A

Secondary amenorrhea – will determine if amenorrhea is from low estrogen (no withdrawal bleed).

1151
Q

Characteristics of the tremor a/w Parkinson’s:

A

Resting tremor that decreases w/voluntary movement.

Also have pill-rolling tremor

1152
Q

What type of tremors will be worse w/goal-directed movement?

A

Essential tremors

Intention tremors d/t cerebellar dysfxn.

1153
Q

What causes the bounding peripheral pulses in septic shock?

A

The Cardiac Index and SV both increase to compensate for the intravascular hypovolemia and this creates an increased pulse pressure which manifests as bounding peripheral pulses (like in AR)
This happens in the early phase of sepsis/the hyperdynamic phase

1154
Q

What Rxs should be used to treat patients w/accessory pathways (WPW)?

A
Class IA – Procainamide, Quinidine, Disopyramide
Class III (K+ channel blockers) – Amiodarone, Sotalol, Dofetilide, Ibutilide
1155
Q

What is likely the cause of a painless corneal abrasion?

A

Abrasion in a patient who has damage to the V1 (ophthalmic) branch of the trigeminal n.
Common causes of trigeminal dysfxn: tumor, trauma, prior zoster infection.

1156
Q

How would a corneal abrasion be expected to present?

A

Severe eye pain (from V1 sensory innervation), photophobia w/reluctance to open the eye, and possible sensation of foreign body in the eye.
May have decreased visual acuity and pupillary dysfxn.
Will see corneal staining defect on fluorescein exam

1157
Q

How should patients w/neurogenic bladder be managed to avoid catheter-assoc. UTIs?

A

Clean intermittent catheterization – decreases risk of infection, performed every 4-6 hours
Another option is subrapubic catheterization

1158
Q

What medications can be used to tx Kleptomania?

A

SSRIs, opioid antagonists, lithium and anticonvulsants.

Should also use CBT

1159
Q

How would cholecystitis and cholangitis be differentiated on US?

A

Cholecystitis will show gallbladder wall thickening and edema/pericholecystic fluid (no obstruction, just inflammation)

Cholangitis will show dilation of the intrahepatic ducts and common bile duct (obstruction leading to infection)

1160
Q

What is a common complication of gallstone pancreatitis?

A

Acute cholangitis – should be suspected in anyone w/gallstone pancreatitis who has fevers, RUQ pain, jaundice, AMS, and HoTN.
Must do ERCP stat to relieve obstruction to prevent development of sepsis and death

1161
Q

Who is at highest risk of developing severe infections with Vibrio vulnificus?

A

Patients with liver diseases (cirrhosis, hepatitis) as well as DM.
Hemochromatosis is especially a risk bc the free iron is a growth catalyst for the bacteria

1162
Q

How will infection w/V. vulnificus present and how is it tx’d?

A

It is rapidly progressive and presents in <12hrs most of the time with:
Septicemia – septic shock and bullous lesions
Cellulitis – hemorrhagic bullae and necrotizing fasciitis (much quicker presentation than most causes of nec.fasc. – s.aureus/s.pyogenes)
Tx: IV ceftriaxone + doxycycline in anyone w/even suspected illness bc highly fatal

1163
Q

What are the major and minor criteria for Acute rheumatic fever?

A

Major: (JONES)
Joints- migratory arthritis (esp. in the wrists, ankles and knees)
<3 – Carditis (friction rub, long PR, diffuse ST elevation)
Nodules – subcutaneous/erythema nodosum
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham chorea
Minor:
Fever, arthralgias, elevated ESR/CRP, prolonged PR interval

1164
Q

Why do OCPs cause HTN?

A

Estrogen causes increased angiotensinogen synthesis during hepatic 1st-pass metabolism

1165
Q

Why does a-Thalassemia major cause Hydrops fetalis?

A

These fetuses have no a-chains for Hb and instead form gamma tetramers (HB Barts)
y-tetramers have >10x more affinity for O2 than normal HbA and bind all the O2 and don’t release it to the tissues
This causes severe hypoxemia leading to high-output HF and subsequent hydrops fetalis

1166
Q

What conditions are a/w Hydrops fetalis?

A
Achondroplasia 
Turner syndrome
Parvo B19 infection
a-Thalassemia major/Hb Barts
Rh alloimmunization
1167
Q

Diseases a/w the different gene losses in a-Thalassemia:

A

1 gene loss (aa/a-): a-Thalassemia minima – asx, silent carrier
2 losses (aa/–) or (a-/a-): a-Thal minor – mild microcytic anemia
3 losses (a-/–): Hb H disease – chronic hemolytic anemia
4 losses (–/–): Hb Barts/Hydrops fetalis – High-output HF, anasarca, death in utero
can only get babies like this from 2 parents w/cis losses (aa/– or a-/–)

1168
Q

How does secondary syphilis often present?

A

Weeks to months after initial exposure:
Systemic sxs – fever, malaise, sore throat, HAs
Widespread LAD – cervical, axillary, inguinal, epitrochlear
Oral lesions – often seen as grey mucous patches
Condylomata lata – raised grey genital papules
Diffuse maculopapular rash – begins on trunk and spreads to extrems. and involves palms and soles

1169
Q

How to differentiate Syphilis from RMSF based on the rash:

A

Secondary syphilis – will have a centrifugal rash that starts on the trunk and spreads out to involve palms and soles
RMSF – will have centripetal rash that starts on extremities and palms/soles and then moves in to involve the trunk

1170
Q

What is chronic hyperthyroid myopathy?

A

Myopathy that manifests as proximal muscle weakness weeks to months after the onset of hyperthyroidism
May have muscle atrophy early on, but usually there is no muscle tenderness
Tx of the hyperthyroidism often improves the myopathy
May also see myopathy in Hypothyroidism

1171
Q

What stage of labor can neuraxial anesthesia have an effect on?

A

It can lengthen the second stage – 10cm dilation until fetal delivery
It will have no effect on the first stage/latent and active phases

1172
Q

What post-MI pts are at greatest risk for SCD?

A

Those w/prior MI complicated by LV systolic dysfxn and ejection fraction <30%
These patients often have normal systolic fxn or improved fxn w/proper therapy, but those who do not improve w/meds and still have <30% EF need an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator

1173
Q

What are the common manifestations of cardiac sarcoidosis?

A
Conduction defects – complete AV block is most common
Restrictive CMP (early manifestation)
Dilated CMP (late)
Valvular dysfxn
Heart failure
1174
Q

When should oral abx be given to children w/AOM?

A

All children <6mo

6+ mos only need abx if they have: high fever, severe pain, or bilateral disease

1175
Q

What are the extraarticular features a/w Ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Patients may develop:
Anterior uveitis
IBD
Cardiac involvement w/aortic regurgitation

1176
Q

What are the characteristics of the rash in disseminated gonoccal infection?

A

Vesiculopustular rash – rarely involves the face

1177
Q

When is rouleaux formation seen?

A

In conditions that cause elevated serum protein – MM, Waldenstrom, Connective tissue diseases, etc.

1178
Q

How long post-partum before women can be prescribed combined OCPs?

A

3+ weeks

Cannot prescribe <3 weeks

1179
Q

How does the disease course differ for PCP in HIV pts v.non-HIV IMCP’d?

A

Typically causes an indolent disease in HIV pts.
Immunosupressed pts w/o HIV often develop acute respiratory failure w/tachypnea, dyspnea, hypoxia leading to respiratory alkalosis, dry cough and fever
Pts on prolonged glucocorticoid tx (esp if combined w/other immunosuppressants) should be on TMP-SMX pphx

1180
Q

Where would lesions be expected to be seen in Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Anterior and medial thalami, and corpus callosum

1181
Q

What neuropathologic findings are seen in Wernicke encephalopathy?

A

Mamillary body atrophy and dorsomedial thalamic neuron loss

1182
Q

What is the mgmt. of prepatellar bursitis?

A

Must do fluid aspiration for cell count, gram stain and culture.
About 1/3 of cases are infectious and need abx
If infection is r/o then can manage w/NSAIDs

1183
Q

What will be seen in exercise testing of a patient w/Sick sinus syndrome?

A

Chronotropic incompetence – inadequate HR response to exercise
These patients need pacemakers

1184
Q

What infections are patients w/Hemochromatosis at increased risk for?

A

Listeria
V. vulnificus
Yersinia enterocolitica

1185
Q

What are the msk, endocrine and cardiac manifestations of Hemochromatosis?

A

MSK: arthralgia, arthropathy, choncrocalcinosis
Endo: DM (“bronze diabetes”), Hypothyroidism, secondary hypogonadism
Cardio: Restrictive or Dilated CMP, and conduction abnormalities (sick sinus syndrome)

1186
Q

What are the PDA-dependent congenital heart diseases (5)?

A
Coarctation of aorta
Transposition of the great arteries
Hypoplastic LH syndrome
Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection
Tricuspid atresia
1187
Q

What extrarenal features are seen in AD-PCKD?

A
Cerebral aneurysms
Hepatic and pancreatic cysts
Mitral valve prolapse, aortic regurg, HTN
Colonic diverticulosis
Ventral and inguinal hernias
1188
Q

Risk factors for Psoas abscess:

A

HIV, IVDU, DM, Crohn’s

Diverticulitis and vertebral osteomyelitis are also risk factors bc they can be causes of direct spread.

1189
Q

What are the risk factors and common findings in chronic pulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Risks: lung disease/damage (cavitary TB)
Findings: 3+ months of wt. loss, productive cough (may have blood-tinged sputum), hemoptysis, and fatigue. Cavitary lesions may contain debris and fluid, or a fungus ball – Aspergilloma
Dx: positive aspergillus IgG serology

1190
Q

How to differentiate Type I Cryoglobulinemia from Mixed (Types II and III):

A

Type I: often asx, may have hyperviscosity (blurry vision), thrombosis (Raynaud), skin findings (Livedo reticularis, purpura)
- Seen in lymphoproliferative or heme diseases (MM)
- NORMAL complement levels, and negative RF
Mixed: Often have systemic sxs, renal (HTN, glomerulonephritis), Pulm (dyspnea, pleurisy), Skin (palpable purpura, leukoclastic vasculitis), and liver involvement
- Seen w/chronic HCV, HIV, and SLE
- LOW complement, often v. low C4, elevated transaminases, and positive RF

1191
Q

Tx of Essential tremor:

A

1st line: BBs – Propranolol
Anticonvulsants – Primidone (can be used alone or in combo w/the BBs)
Small amounts of EtOH
Benzos – Clonazepam

1192
Q

What will be seen on CXR in Takayasu arteritis?

A

Aortic dilation and widened mediastinum – CT/MRI will show wall thickening and narrowing of the lumen

1193
Q

What will be the lab findings in acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Leukocytosis
Elevated amylase and phosphate
Metabolic acidosis (d/t elevated lactate)
Elevated Hb (hemoconcentration)

1194
Q

What is spondylothisthesis and in what age is it most common?

A

It is a fracture of the pars interarticularis (spondylosis) and then slippage of a vertebral body.
Most common in adolescents (10-19) during growth spurts d/t increased physiologic lumbar lordosis and decreased bone mineralization.
Pain w/extension of spine, and athletes w/repetitive extension (gymnastics, ballet, diving) are at greatest risk

1195
Q

How should billous emesis be managed in children?

A

Stop feeds, NGT decompression, IVF
then do AbXR – if no evidence of free air, distal obstruction (dilated loops of bowel) or duodenal atresia (double bubble) then need to get an upper GI series/barium swallow

1196
Q

What are common causes of asterixis?

A

Hepatic encephalopathy
Uremic encephalopathy
Hypercapnia
Each requires unique mgmt. and careful review of labs and hx should be done to determine the cause before initiating tx.

1197
Q

What screening tests are part of the routine newborn care?

A

Comprehensive newborn screen – metabolic/genetic disorders
Hyperbilirubinemia
Hearing screen
Pre and Post-ductal pulse ox (tests for CHD)
Hypoglycemia in select populations

1198
Q

What antidote may be used as a mucolytic in CF patients?

A

N-acetylcysteine

1199
Q

What is required to diagnose Bipolar II?

A
Hypomanic episode(s) and at least 1 MDE
No psychotic features (requirement to be hypomanic) if psychotic features are present it is automatically mania/BP-I
MDE may happen in BP-I but is not required for the diagnosis
1200
Q

What will be heard on cardiac auscultation in aortic dissection?

A

New aortic regurgitation

1201
Q

What would be the expected clinical presentation of a lesion in the vertebrobasilar system?

A

Vertebrobasilar vessels supply the brain stem – lesions would cause:
Alternate syndromes w/contralateral hemiplegia and ipsilateral cranial n. involvement
Possible ataxia

1202
Q

What is the difference in presentation of a stroke involving the MCA of the dominant v. non-dominant lobe?

A
Both will present w/contralateral motor and somatosensory deficits worse in the face/UEs, and homonymous hemianopia/quadrantanopia
     Dominant lobe lesions (L) often present w/aphasia
     Nondominant lobe (R) often present w/hemineglect or anosognosia (lack of awareness of illness)
1203
Q

What is the most common electrolyte abnormality in chronic alcoholism?

A

Hypomagnesemia

1204
Q

How might hypophosphatemia present?

A

Typically only have sxs in severe deficit but may cause weakness, rhabdomyolysis, paresthesias, and respiratory failure.

1205
Q

What is the tx of actinic keratosis?

A

Fluorouracil cream

1206
Q

What would the results of a Hb electrophoresis show in a and B thalassemia minors?

A

a-minor will show normal results

B minor will show increased HbA2

1207
Q

What is the Mentzer index and how can it differentiate b/w types of anemia?

A

Mentzer index is the ratio of MCV/RBC
Mentzer index < 13 is seen in a- and B-Thal minors (decreased MCV/normal or high RBCs)
Mentzer index > 13 is seen in Fe-def anemia (decreased MCV/decreased RBCs)

1208
Q

What can be used as an alternative antidote to Methylene blue?

A

Methylene blue is the antidote for methemoglobinemia, but is sometimes unavailable or contra’d (G6PD def.)
High-dose ascorbic acid/Vit. C can be used in these cases

1209
Q

What are periarticular erosions on XR indicative of?

A

RA

1210
Q

What drugs might cause pancreatitis?

A
Diuretics – furosemide, thiazides
IBD rxs – sulfasalazine, 5-asa
Immunosuppressants – azathioprine, 6-MP
HIV rxs – didanosine, pentamidine, PIs, NRTIs
Abx – metronidazole, tetracycline, sulfas
Anti-epileptics – valproate
GLP-1 agonists (exenatide/liraglutide)
Cannabis (only illicit drug to cause it)
1211
Q

What lab value will suggest biliary pancreatitis?

A

ALT > 150

This is helpful when no stone is seen on US (in cases where the stone may have already passed)

1212
Q

What is the most likely cause of statin-induced myopathy?

A

Statins decrease coenzyme Q10 synthesis involved in muscle cell energy production which most likely causes the myopathy a/w these Rxs

1213
Q

What would cause loss of pain and temp in the ipsilateral face and contralateral trunk and limbs?

A

Wallenberg/lateral medullary syndrome – d/t occlusion of the PICA
- Will have motor function of face intact, but will have bulbar sxs
Lateral pontine syndrome – d/t occlusion in the AICA
- Will have loss of facial motor function, but no bulbar sxs
Both vessels are brs. of vertebral a.

1214
Q

A lesion in what vessel is the only one that will cause hoarseness and dysphagia as part of the stroke syndrome?

A

Lesion in PICA (br. of vertebral a.) – these effects are d/t its supply of the nucleus ambiguus
Only a lesion of the PICA will cause loss of gag reflex, hoarseness and dysphagia

1215
Q

When should coronary angiography be done as the first diagnostic test?

A

In patients w/high (>90%) pretest probability of ischemic heart disease:
Typical angina in men 40+ or typical angina in women 60+

1216
Q

What is required to classify typical/classic angina?

A

Must have all three of the following:
1. Typical location (substernal), quality and duration
2. Provoked by exercise or emotional stress
3. Relieved by rest or nitroglycerin
Atypical is 2/3 and <2 is considered non-anginal

1217
Q

What kind of heart failure is prolonged HTN a risk for?

A

Diastolic LHF

1218
Q

What are the ocular cxs of PDE-5 inhibitors?

A

Blue discoloration of vision

Nonarteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

1219
Q

What is the BP goal in diabetics?

A

DM w/signs of nephropathy: <130/80
DM w/o signs of nephropathy < 140/90
- this is also the goal BP for all pts age <60, or who have CKD
all pts age 60+ goal is <150/90 whether they have DM or not

1220
Q

What is the etiology of serum sickness-like reaction?

A

It is a type III HS rxn w/immune-complex formation
Occurs 1-2 wks after tx w/B-lactams (penicillin, amoxicillin, cefaclor) or TMP-SMX
May also be seen in acute HBV infection

1221
Q

Most common cause of gross lower GI bleeding in adults:

A

Diverticulosis

1222
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice when CLL is suspected?

A

Flow cytometry – will show a clonality of mature B cells

LN or BM biopsy are typically not needed, but can help dx HL and NHL

1223
Q

What is the early-morning cortisol test used for?

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency – will show low or low-normal levels
This test is NOT useful in assessing hypercortisolism in suspected Cushing’s

1224
Q

What are the features and tx of Chronic prostatitis/chronic pelvic pain syndrome?

A

Non-infectious chronic prostate inflammation (separate dx from chr. bac. prostatitis)
Sxs: pain in low back, pelvis, perineum and genitalia; irritative voiding sxs, hematospermia, and pain w/ejaculation
Will have no/mild prostate tenderness and a sterile UCx
Mgmt: a-blockers, abx (Cipro – esp. if hx of UTI), and 5-a-reductase inhibitors

1225
Q

What neurotransmitters does tetanus toxin prevent release of?

A

Inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine

1226
Q

What is the timeline of presentation in order for a patient to be considered for alteplase therapy?

A

Must present w/in 3-4.5hrs of sx onset and not have any contraindications to thrombolytic therapy

1227
Q

What is the recommended mgmt. of a Hydatidiform mole?

A

Suction curettage and then weekly B-hCG levels until it is undetectable.
- if these levels increase or plateau = gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
Once undetectable check monthly levels for 6mo (must use contraception during this time)
- if B-hCG becomes detectable again = gestational trophoblastic neoplasia
Once clear for 6mo pts can attempt pregnancy again

1228
Q

What is the therapeutic Magnesium range for treating preeclampsia?

A

5-8mg/dL

Mg2+ becomes toxic at concentrations >8`

1229
Q

What are the Centor criteria and who are they used for?

A

Centor criteria predicts likelihood of Strep throat in adults only, should NOT be used in preadolescents and children.
Criteria: fever by hx, tender anterior cervical LAD, tonsillar exudates, absence of cough
0-1 – no testing or tx for strep
2-3 – rapid strep test (pen or amox if +)
4 – Empiric penicillin or amoxicillin or do rapid test

1230
Q

What Rxs are a/w causing exacerbations of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Abx: Fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, azithromycin
Anesthetics: neuromuscular blocking agents
Cardiac meds: BBs, procainamide
Others: Mag sulfate, penicillamine
Tapering immunosuppressants can also cause exacerbations

1231
Q

What surgery is a particular risk for exacerbation of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Thymectomy – aka one of its tx options

1232
Q

What are the common clinical findings in neonatal HSV infection?

A

Pathogenesis: vertical transmission intrauterine, perinatal, or postnatal
Skin/membranes: mucocutaneous vesicles, keratoconjunctivitis
- cutaneous sxs may be absent in CNS or disseminated infections
CNS: seizures, fever, lethargy, temporal lobe hemorrhage/edema
Disseminated: sepsis, hepatitis, pneumonia

1233
Q

What patient population is Otosclerosis most likely to effect?

A

Young adults 20s-30s w/female predominance

abnormal remodeling of the otic capsule – stapes becomes fixed to the oval window

1234
Q

What are the common sxs a/w Herpetic whitlow?

A

Norm. have mild prodrome of fever/malaise, and then development of grouped vesicles on an erythematous base typically on the hand – often have tingling, burning and pain
Some pts have epitrochlear and axillary LAD

1235
Q

What are common findings in burn wound sepsis?

A
May have some or all of the following:
Temperature <97.7 or >102.2
Progressive tachycardia >90bpm
Progressive tachypnea >30/min
Refractory HoTN (SBP <90)
Oliguria
AMS
Unexplained hyperglycemia
Thrombocytopenia
1236
Q

What is the tx of TCA overdose?

A

O2 and intubation if necessary
IVF
Activated charcoal if pts present w/in 2 hrs and there are no signs of ileus
IV Na-HCO (alleviates depressant axn on myocardial Na channels)

1237
Q

What finding a/w Raynaud is suggestive of the presence or future development of a CTD?

A

Abnormalities such as dilated or dropout vessels in the nailfold capillaries

1238
Q

Who should undergo carotid endarterectomy?

A

Symptomatic pts (previous TIA or stroke in distribution of affected vessel w/in last 6 mos) w/high-grade carotid stenosis (>70%)
Asymptomatic pts w/stenosis >80%
Everyone else should get aspirin + other meds to control their risk factors (including asx pts w/stenosis up to 80%)

1239
Q

How to differentiate XLA from CVID:

A

XLA – low B cells (lymphocytes – Tcells) and low numbers of all immunoglobulin classes
Presents in infancy/early childhood
CVID – normal B cells w/decrease in all immunoglobulin classes
Presents w/less severe sxs than XLA and after adolescence

1240
Q

What is the best way to secure an airway in an unstable cervical spine injury?

A

Still orotracheal intubation – can stabilize the neck w hand during procedure, its quick, and there isn’t that much movement

1241
Q

What is the pathophys of secretory diarrhea and what are its common causes?

A

Occurs when luminal ion channels are disrupted in the GIT and results in a state of active secretion

Common causes: bacteria (Cholera), viruses (Rota), congenital disorders of ion transport (CF), early ileocolitis, and postsurgical changes

1242
Q

What cxs can occur in pts w/only sickle cell trait?

A

Hematuria/papillary necrosis (most common)
Hyposthenuria
Splenic infarction (esp. at high altitudes)
Venous thromboembolism
Priapism
Exertional rhabdomyolysis
Will have normal Hb, retic count, RBC indices and morphology

1243
Q

Renal cxs in sickle cell trait:

A
Hematuria – mostly from papillary ischemia or necrosis
Renal medullary carcinoma
UTIs
Hyposthenuria
Distal renal tubular acidosis
1244
Q

What are the features of postdural puncture HA?

A

Occurs after LP or neuraxial anesthesia – dural puncture causes CSF leakage, low CSF pressure and slight herniation of brain/brainstem
Positional HA worse when upright, improves when supine
Neck stiffness
Photophobia, diplopia
Hearing loss and tinnitus

mostly self-limited but severe sxs can be tx’d w/epidural blood patch

1245
Q

What is alcoholic neuropathy and how does it present?

A

EtOH is a neurotoxin and results in axonal neuropathy w/a reduction in the number of small myelinated and unmyelinated fibers. May occur alone or a/w thiamine def.

Features: symmetric distal polyneuropathy in stocking glove pattern, paresthesia, burning pain, numbness, loss of DTRs (starting w/ankle), low of light touch and vibration, and gait ataxia

Tx: EtOH cessation, thiamine to prevent secondary neuropathies, gabapentin and TCAs for pain

1246
Q

What will be seen on imaging in Colonic ischemia?

A

CT scan: Colonic wall thickening and fat stranding (although may have only nonspecific findings)

Endoscopy: Edematous and friable mucosa

1247
Q

Difference between colonic and mesenteric ischemia:

A

Colonic – mostly d/t low blood flow/HoTN or non-occlusive ischemia w/underlying atherosclerotic disease. Effects watershed regions most (splenic flexure and rectosigmoid jxn)

Mesenteric – d/t atheroembolic or thrombotic events causing occlusive ischemia of the small bowel typically (jejunum, ileum, duodenum)

1248
Q

What Rxs are used to tx Frontotemporal Dementia?

A

SSRIs and Trazodone can both help the neuropsychiatric sxs

1249
Q

What should be done in patients w/suspected blunt cardiac injury?

A

Continuous cardiac monitoring w/echo (TTE or TEE in intubated/unstable pts) and EKG for 24hrs to detect arrhythmias that may occur

1250
Q

What are the CVS hemodynamic effects of Thyrotoxicosis?

A

Systolic HTN and increased PulseP
Increased contractility and CO
Decreased SVR
Increased myocardial O2 demand

1251
Q

What is one of the most common causes of acute renal failure in hospitalized patients?

A

CONTRAST INDUCED NEPHROPATHY!!!
always pay attention when there is imaging done in pts w CKD and then worsening of renal failure
Can prevent w/IVF pre-procedure and by holding NSAIDs

1252
Q

What are the 2 main toxic products of combustion that can harm pts w/inhalation smoke injuries?

A
Hydrogen Cyanide (aka cyanide toxicity)
Carbon monoxide – carboxyhemoglobin 
**methemoglobinemia does NOT occur 2/2 inhalational smoke exposure and is actually used to tx the cyanide poisoning that may occur**
1253
Q

What will be seen on coagulation studies in severe B12 def causing pancytopenia?

A

Normal results.

Severe deficiency can cause decrease in all cell lines, but coagulation will be normal

1254
Q

Cardiac causes of hemoptysis:

A

Mitral stenosis/acute pulmonary edema

1255
Q

Timeline difference b/w Crystal-induced AKI and AIN:

A

Crystal-induced typically occurs w/in 24-48hrs of starting a drug and is often asx

AIN usually occurs 7-10d after starting a Rx and rash + eosinophilia, etc.

1256
Q

What kind of infections does Kingella kingae cause and what abx is often used to treat them?

A

Septic arthritis, osteoarthritis, bacteremia and endocarditis
Most infections are found in children
They are aerobic gram neg. and often tx’d w/Ceftriaxone

1257
Q

What cx of appendicitis is significantly increased after laparoscopic procedures v. laparotomy?

A

Intra-abdominal abscess – often found sub-phrenic causing hiccups, pleural effusions and SoB

1258
Q

What is the mgmt. of Primary Ovarian Insufficiency?

A

Estrogen therapy and Progestin added if there is an intact uterus

1259
Q

What is the most common mechanism of leukopenia and thrombocytopenia in SLE?

A

Immune-mediated destruction

1260
Q

How can a large PE be differentiated from RV MI?

A

PE is more likely to cause tachycardia, dyspnea, and syncope
RVMI is more likely to cause bradycardia and arrhythmias
Both can cause RV dysfxn, increased CVP and decreased LV preload and CO

1261
Q

When should Penicillin desensitization be done to tx Syphilis?

A

If other txs (Doxycycline) are contraindicated – like in pregnancy
If it has progressed to Neurosyphilis/Tertiary stage (CVS/aortitis effects, gummas)
All other pts. w/severe penicillin allergies can receive Doxycycline instead

1262
Q

What does the Secretin stimulation test diagnose?

A

Gastrinoma/ZES
Normal G cells in the stomach are inhibited by Secretin, but gastrinoma cells are stimulated by it. Secretin will not cause a rise in gastrin levels in any other causes of hypergastrinemia besides ZES/gastrinoma

1263
Q

How is Seborrheic dermatitis tx’d?

A

Topical antifungals (ketoconazole, selenium sulfide) – malassezia spp. are thought to play a role in its pathogenesis

1264
Q

What stroke syndrome is least likely to cause Hemiparesis?

A

Cerebellar – almost all others will cause paresis/paralysis

1265
Q

What stroke syndrome is most likely to cause seizures?

A

Cerebral lobar strokes

1266
Q

What are the most common causes of Steppage gait?

A

L5 radiculopathy or neuropathy of the common peroneal n.

1267
Q

What are the soft signs of extremity vascular trauma?

A
Hx of hemorrhage
Diminished pulses
Bony injury
Neurologic abnormality
These should be investigated w/imaging (CT, US, Angio) if the pt. is stable and there are no hard signs present
1268
Q

Mgmt of Neonatal Varicella exposure:

A

Give VZIG if exposure or if mother developed infection 5d pre- or 2d post-delivery
If varicella infection develops tx w/Acyclovir (safe in pregnancy and infancy)

1269
Q

What renal pathology does HBV infection increase the risk for?

A

Membranous nephropathy – a nephrotic syndrome.
Thought to be d/t HBeAg deposits in the glomeruli
(membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis has also been a/w HBV but is much less common)

1270
Q

What is a common source of nosebleeds in pregnancy?

A

Pyogenic granulomas of the anterior nasal septum. Pregnant women have an increased incidence of these.

1271
Q

Most common organisms cultured from peritoneal fluid in SBP:

A

E. coli and Klebsiella

1272
Q

Risk factors for Hydatidiform mole:

A

Extremes of maternal age
Previous Hx of mole
Vitamin A def. (seen post Roux-en-Y surgery)

1273
Q

How will viral myocarditis likely present?

A

Post-URI w/fatigue, dyspnea, elevated JVP and cardiomegaly on CXR
Typically have audible S3 and bibasilar rales w/pulmonary vascular congestion on imaging.

1274
Q

What is seen on UA in hemoglobinuria?

A

Will be dipstick positive for blood but there will be absent RBCs on microscopy bc the heme is lysed from the RBCs and excreted in the kidneys but the whole RBC is not intact in the urine (hematuria)

1275
Q

Anti-DM Rxs used in pregnancy:

A

Insulin is 1st choice, but Metformin and Glyburide may also be used, but these both cross the placenta

1276
Q

Mgmt of Aortic Dissections:

A
Pain control w/Morphine, and IV BBs should be started right away, then: 
     Type A (involving the ascending aorta) need immediate surgical repair
     Type B (only descending involved) can be managed w/pain and tight BP control unless there are signs of organ malperfusion, (mesenteric ischemia, etc.) then these need surgery asap as well
1277
Q

What are the common lab findings and mgmt. of acute mesenteric ischemia?

A

Labs: leukocytosis, elevated amylase and phosphate, elevated Hb (hemoconcentration) and metabolic acidosis (elevated lactic acid)
Mgmt: immediate operative evaluation, or dx w/CT-angio. Then need bs-abx and anticoagulation

1278
Q

What kind of arthritis does Lyme disease cause?

A

A mono-articular migratory arthritis.
Most commonly involves the knee, but only involves 1 joint at a time and then may resolve and affect another joint later.

1279
Q

What is EPO?

A

A cytokine

1280
Q

Endocrine causes of recurrent pregnancy loss:

A

Thyroid disease (anti-TPO Abs a/w miscarriage in both euthyroid and hypothyroid women)
PCOS
DM
Hyperprolactinemia
Celiac dx (not an endocrine cause, but remember it)

1281
Q

How long should a pt. be seizure free before considering dc of anti-epileptics?

A

> 2 years

Must slowly taper and then dc

1282
Q

What is the tx of Carcinoid syndrome?

A

Octreotide for sxs and prior to surgery/anesthesia

Surgery for liver mets

1283
Q

What products do carcinoid tms secrete?

A

Histamine
5-HT and 5-HIAA
VIP

1284
Q

What are the CVS features of DM-autonomic neuropathy?

A

Tachycardia, impaired exercise tolerance

Postural HoTN w/loss of diurnal BP variation

1285
Q

What is the role of ADH in ADPCKD?

A

Tubular destruction leads to a mild nephrogenic DI which then increased ADH levels.
The high ADH levels may promote renal cyst growth, so Vasopressin-2-R antagonists (tolvaptan) have been shown to slow progression of the disease.

1286
Q

What causes aFlutter?

A

Reentrant circuit around the tricuspid annulus

1287
Q

What are the clinical features of Neurofibromatosis 1?

A

Café-au-lait macules (1st cutaneous finding-often in infancy), axillary and inguinal freckling, Lisch nodules and neurofibromas
Pseudoarthrosis
Pheochromocytoma
These pts are at increased risk for neurologic disorders: cognitive deficits, learning disabilities, seizures, intracranial neoplasms (astrocytomas, brainstem gliomas), and optic pathway gliomas

1288
Q

What are the features of Tuberous sclerosis?

A

Neurocutaneous disorder w/benign tumors in multiple organs – intracardiac rhabdomyomas
Angiofibromas, ash-leaf spots and shagreen patches (thick leathery skin, dimpled like an orange peel)

1289
Q

What are the features of Sturge-Weber syndrome?

A

Triad of port-wine stain on the face, ocular disease (visual deficits or glaucoma), and leptomeningeal capillary-venous malformations.
Often have seizures from the malformations

1290
Q

When does renal biopsy need to be performed in the pediatric population?

A

Kids >10 w/nephrotic syndrome
Kids of all age w/nephritic syndrome
Patients <10 w/minimal change that don’t respond to steroids

1291
Q

How should pulseless electrical activity be managed?

A

This is a rhythm on the monitor w/o a palpable pulse or measurable BP
Mgmt: CPR x 2min, IV access, Epi every 3-5min, possible advanced airway. Continue this until there is a shockable electrical rhythm or the underlying causes have been reversed

1292
Q

What is Lemierre Syndrome?

A

Infection caused by Fusobacterium necrophorum – affects young immunocompetent pts.
Typically starts w/tonsillitis (but may be 2/2 dental work or mastoiditis) then the bacterium invades the lateral pharyngeal space and causes IJV thrombosis and infection

1293
Q

What is the typical presentation of Lemierre syndrome?

A

A prolonged duration (1+ week) of sore throat w/high fever, rigors, dysphagia and neck pain w/swelling along the SCM (IJ thrombosis)
Once the IJ is infected septic thromboembolic can seed other organs – esp. the lungs, see nodules and cavitation on imaging

1294
Q

What are the common effects of Growth Hormone?

A
Hyperglycemia
Sodium retention
HTN
Swollen hands
Joint and muscle pain
1295
Q

What would be the expected hormone levels in exercise-induce hypothalamic amenorrhea?

A

Decreased: GnRH, LH, FSH and Estrogen

Normal TSH and PRL

1296
Q

What would be used to make the diagnosis of Mallory-Weiss syndrome?

A

Upper GI endoscopy – can confirm dx and tx persistent bleeding
This is a mucosal tear w/bleeding (contrast to Boerhaave which is transmural and EGD is contraindicated)

1297
Q

How is thyroglobulin used as a tumor marker?

A

Thyroglobulin is produced by normal thyroid tissue and differentiated thyroid cancer – papillary, follicular
Once patients have undergone Thyroidectomy w/RAI tx they should have no Thyroglobulin production. A rise in its concentration would signify recurrence of the cancer

1298
Q

What is often used as bs-coverage in PID?

A

Cefoxitin + Doxycycline

Metronidazole may also be used as part of the regimen

1299
Q

Patients with what condition have increased sensitivity to lactate infusions?

A

Patients w/Panic Disorder

Lactate infusion can provoke panic attacks in susceptible pts.

1300
Q

What should be suspected in a neonate w/direct hyperbilirubinemia and hepatomegaly?

A

Biliary atresia

1301
Q

Tx of Bacterial Vaginosis in pregnant pts:

A

Metronidazole or Clindamycin is the tx regardless of pregnancy status

1302
Q

What are the characteristics and common locations of Tophi?

A

Tophi are nodular deformities filled w/chalky material, often found on the ears, tendons and periarticular tissues of the digits.
Unlike acute gout tophi are normally painless.
In pts w/gout who develop tophi a urate-lowering Rx (allopurinol) is required

1303
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing DM in pts w/PCOS?

A

Oral glucose tolerance test

This is more sensitive for detecting glucose intolerance than the standard DM screening tests (fasting glucose, HbA1c)

1304
Q

When is BRCA mutation testing indicated?

A

In pts w/Fhx of ovarian ca. at any age and a personal or Fhx or breast cancer <50.
Not indicated for Fhx of endometrial cancer

1305
Q

What are the most common inciting factors of Hepatorenal syndrome?

A

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

GI bleeding

1306
Q

What is the tx of Hepatorenal syndrome?

A
Address precipitating factors and return liver fxn to normal
Liver transplantation
Splanchnic vasoconstrictors (Midodrine, octreotide, NE) and albumin
1307
Q

Most common cause of chronic mitral regurg in developed countries?

A

MVP – murmur may be more consistent w/severe mitral regurg (holosystolic radiating to axilla) in late stage instead of the classic mid/late systolic click

1308
Q

How will changes in K+ affect patients w/cirrhosis?

A

Hypokalemia is a common precipitant to hepatic encephalopathy and even slight decreases require prompt repletion. This commonly occurs after the initiation of diuretics which deplete K+ and cause low intravascular volume despite total volume overload

Metabolic alkalosis (increased HCO3-) is often a/w hypokalemia which also exacerbates HE by increasing conversion of NH4+ to NH3

1309
Q

What are the common inherited forms of Pheochromocytoma?

A

VHL gene w/Von hippel-Lindau
RET gene – MEN type 2
NF1 gene – Neurofibromatosis Type I

1310
Q

What test can be performed to assess ovarian fxn?

A

Day 3 FSH testing – during the follicular phase
As ovarian reserve and fxn decline, estradiol and inhibin dencrease – negative feedback leads to increased FSH as ovarian fxn decreases

1311
Q

When would hypertrophic osteoarthropathy be seen?

A

It is a paraneoplastic syndrome a/w intrathoracic malignancy + other pulm diseases (CF)
Polyarthropathy a/w digital clubbing and periostosis (xs bone formation)

1312
Q

Important diagnostic clues for Psoriatic arthritis:

A

Involvement of the DIPS and nail changes – pitting and onycholysis (separating of the nail from nailbed)
Often presents as asymmetric oligoarthritis or symmetric polyarthritis
May have seronegative spondyloarthritis or aggressive/destructive arthritis mutilans

Psoriatic arthritis manifestations are increased in pts positive for HLA-B27 or w/involvement of the nails

1313
Q

Tx of acne:

A

Always start w/topical retinoids, salicylic or glycolic acid
For mild inflammatory can start topical retinoids + benzoyl peroxide
Next step add topical abx
Next add oral abx
Last resort for unresponsive severe nodular/cystic acne can replace other Rxs w/oral isotretinoin

1314
Q

What clinical picture should a biliary leak be suspected with?

A

A patient w/low-grade fever, RUQ tenderness, N/V, leukocytosis and obstructive-appearing liver enzymes (elevated BR and ALP) w/normal-appearing biliary ducts or mild dilation on imaging 2-10d post-cholecystectomy (or other biliary surgeries)

1315
Q

How to tell if there’s a statistically significant difference b/w 2 groups based on CIs:

A

If the CIs of 2 different groups do not overlap (A = 1-2 and B = 3-4) then that suggests there is a statistically significant difference b/w the two groups

1316
Q

Manifestations of early Lyme disease:

A

Erythema Migrans
Systemic sxs: malaise, fatigue, arthralgia
Regional LAD
Neuro: meningitis, CN palsy (often b/l facial n. palsy), radiculoneuritis
CVS: AV block
most pts 1st present w/erythema migrans (80%) but some may present w/early disseminated signs such as Neuro signs and/or carditis
All of these sxs may occur alone or in combinations

1317
Q

What should be suspected in a patient w/flu-like sxs and b/l facial palsy?

A

Lyme disease

1318
Q

What tm markers are commonly increased in testicular cancer?

A

AFP and B-hCG

1319
Q

Common causes of Intertrigo:

A

Candida #1 (will also form satellite lesions w/vesicles, papules or pustules)
S. aureus + others

1320
Q

What will present as segmented hyphae on KOH prep?

A

Dermatophyte infections

1321
Q

What is the most common congenital infection worldwide?

A

CMV – it is also one of the only ones a/w microcephaly

1322
Q

What are some relative contraindications to NSAIDs in acute gout attacks?

A

Pts. taking anticoagulants (increase risk of bleeding) and those w/heart failure (can acutely worsen HF)

In these pts. Colchicine or steroids should be used for acute attacks
But shouldn’t use colchicine in elderly or w/severe renal dysfxn, and steroids are not preferred in DM

1323
Q

How does ocular rosacea present and how is it treated?

A

It is seen in the majority of pts w/rosacea and may appear on its own w/out skin findings.
Involves the cornea, conjunctiva and lids and often has recurrent chalazia

Sxs: burning or foreign body sensation/”dirt in eyes sensation”, blepharitis, keratitis, conjunctivitis, and corneal ulcers

Tx: Mild – lid scrubs, topical abx (metro, erythro), and ocular lubricants; Severe may require systemic abx and topical immunosuppressive agents

1324
Q

What is seen in the clinical presentation of Acute Liver Failure?

A

Generalized sxs – fatigue, lethargy, anorexia, N
RUQ abd pain
Pruritus and jaundice – from hyperbilirubinemia
Renal insufficiency
Thrombocytopenia
Hypoglycemia
Signs of HE – somnolence, disorientation, asterixis

1325
Q

What is the most common neural tube defect?

A

Myelomeningocele

1326
Q

What might be the fetal effects of maternal cigarette smoking?

A

FGR, intra-uterine fetal demise, and cleft lip/palate

1327
Q

What is a severe cx of basal ganglia hemorrhages?

A

Uncal herniation – hemorrhage compresses part of the temporal lobe (uncus) laterally and downward against the tentorium cerebelli.

1328
Q

What are sxs of an uncal herniation?

A

Aka transtentorial herniation
CN-III palsy – dilated, nonreactive pupil ipsilateral to the side of herniation (d/t direct compression)
Contralateral extensor/decerebrate posturing, coma and respiratory compromise (d/t compression of the midbrain)
Often occur after hemorrhagic strokes 2/2 HTN

1329
Q

What are sxs of a cerebellar tonsillar herniation?

A

Neck tilt, flaccid paralysis, coma, BP instability, and respiratory arrest
all d/t tonsillar herniation and compression of structures through the foramen magnum

1330
Q

What can be done in pts w/increased risk for pulmonary cxs in the post-op period to decrease their risk?

A

Pre-op PT w/aerobic exercise, and inspiratory muscle training can significantly reduce the risk of atelectasis and pneumonia
Smoking cessation 8+ weeks pre-op is also of benefit

1331
Q

Besides infections, what are some cxs of Wiskott-Adrich syndrome?

A

Bc they have microthrombocytopenia they are at increased risk for bleeding.
May have just petechiae/purpura or more severe bleeding like hematuria, hematochezia, or intracranial hemorrhage

1332
Q

What are the features of Chediak-Higashi syndrome?

A

Lysosomal defect – impaired phagocytosis

Signs/Sxs: Albinism, peripheral neuropathy, recurrent skin and soft-tissue pyogenic infections, giant granules in NPs

1333
Q

Why might pts w/Hypercalcemia present w/signs of dehydration?

A

Hypercalcemia induces nephrogenic DI – polyuria and volume depletion.
This is why NS is the first line tx of hypercalcemia – restores intravascular volume and promotes urinary Ca2+ excretion

1334
Q

When should glucocorticoids be used to tx hypercalcemia?

A

When the hypercalcemia is d/t extrarenal calcitriol production – Lymphomas and granulomatous diseases (sarcoid)

1335
Q

What are the target INR ranges for pts taking Warfarin w/a mechanical prosthetic valve?

A

Mitral valve: INR 2.5-3.5

Aortic valve: INR 2.0-3.0

1336
Q

What are the clinical features of mechanical prosthetic valve thrombosis?

A

Inadequate coagulation (#1 risk factor)
Mitral valve risk > aortic valve
Obstructive thrombus mimics valvular stenosis—get rapid onset dyspnea, pulm edema w/crackles, lightheadedness
HF, cardiogenic shock
Systemic thromboembolic events (stroke, limb ischemia)

1337
Q

Most common cause of persistent nasal obstruction in childhood:

A

Adenoid hypertrophy – have signs/sxs of chronic upper airway obstruction:
Nasal congestion refractory to medical mgmt., recurrent sinus and ear infections, mouth breathing, sleep disturbances/snoring d/t apnea
May also have mucopurulent nasal discharge, postnasal drip, and elongated/flattened facial features
Concurrent tonsillar hypertrophy is common

1338
Q

What are the cxs of Ventricular aneurysms post-STEMI?

A
Progressive LV enlargement – HF 
Refractory angina
Ventricular arrhythmias
Systemic arterial embolization – stroke, mesenteric ischemia, UE or LE ischemia
Mitral annular dilation – MR
1339
Q

What are the features of Beriberi?

A

High-output heart failure and peripheral neuropathies

Caused by Thiamine/B1 deficiency

1340
Q

Contraindications to the two types of IUD:

A

Levonorgestrel – active liver disease, breast ca., active pelvic infection
Copper – Wilson disease, Cu allergy, Menorrhagia, Acute pelvic infection

1341
Q

Risk factors and most common causes of Pyelonephritis in pregnancy:

A

Risks – asx bacteriuria, DM, age <20, Tobacco use

Common pathogens – E. coli (most common), Klebsiella, Enterobacter, GBS

1342
Q

What are signs of cervical ca. tm extension?

A

Low back pain from pelvic extension
Lymphedema from obstruction of lymphatics and BVs
Hydronephrosis from obstruction of ureters

1343
Q

What are potential cxs of chronic hypoparathyroidism?

A

Nephrocalcinosis
Cataracts
Deposition of Ca2+ in the basal ganglia (may cause EPS)
cxs are higher in those w/hyperphosphatemia and a Calcium x Phosphorus product >55, this increases risk of soft tissue calcification

1344
Q

What are the risk factors for retained placenta?

A

Gestational age 24-27wks
Stillbirth
Placenta accreta
Hx of prior retained placenta

1345
Q

What is the difference b/w Type I and II Chemo-induced cardiomyopathy?

A

Type I: a/w anthracyclines (Doxorubicin). Causes myocyte necrosis and destruction w/fibrosis. Causes asx decline in LV systolic fxn which progresses to overt HF. Unlikely to be reversible

Type II: a/w Trastuzumab. Causes myocardial stunning/hibernation w/o myocyte destruction. Get asx LV systolic dysfxn. Often reversible when Rx is dc’d

1346
Q

Risk factors for penile cancer:

A

Age >60, HPV, phimosis, cigarette smoking

Most are SCC

1347
Q

What is pulmonary cachexia?

A

Phenomenon of loss of lean muscle mass a/w chronic pulm. Disease (mostly advanced COPD)
Suggested by BMI <20 or >5% wt. loss
Occurs in 20-40% of COPD pts and leads to impaired balance, increased susceptibility to lung infections and increased mortality.
Development of the disorder correlates w/disease severity.

1348
Q

What is pHTN and what are the causes of pulmonary venous HTN?

A

pHTN = mean pulm. arterial P 25+ at rest
Causes of venous pHTN: L heart disease (LV dysfxn, AR/S, MR/S, etc.), chronic lung disease/hypoxemia, chronic thromboembolic disease, other – hematologic, systemic or metabolic disorders

1349
Q

What kind of pHTN do connective tissue diseases cause?

A

CTDs (SLE, RA, sclerosis) cause narrowing and obliteration of the small arterioles and alveolar capillaries which leads to pulmonary ARTERIAL HTN.

1350
Q

What is an osteoclastoma?

A

Giant cell tumor

1351
Q

What is the likely presentation and outcome of a constitutionally small infant?

A

Prenatally will be seen as estimated fetal wt. <10% for gestational age, but then will have normal Doppler a. US during follow-up and appropriate interval growth via US

Outcome is normal neonatal course and no adverse outcomes.
Often seen in women w/low pre-pregnancy wt. and short stature

1352
Q

What are the long-term cxs of infants w/FGR?

A

Neuro cxs: delayed cognitive development, motor dysfxn, behavioral probs (ADHD)
Growth failure
Childhood obesity and Metabolic syndrome

1353
Q

What value is considered small for gestational age in a term infant?

A

2500g or 5lb 8oz

1354
Q

How is incisional hematoma managed?

A

For large symptomatic hematomas the incision needs to be opened to evacuate the clot, obtain hemostasis and then reclosed.
Incisional hematomas can be a nidus for bacterial growth, bc of their stagnant fluid, and increase the risk of surgical site infection (cellulitis, abscess)

1355
Q

What ophthalmologic disease is a/w gradual peripheral vision loss?

A

Open-angle glaucoma

On fundoscopy see: Enlargement of the optic disc/cupping, increased cup:disc ration, and elevated IOP

1356
Q

What are the cxs seen in infants of DM mothers w/hyperglycemia in the 1st trimester?

A

Congenital heart disease
Neural tube defects
Small L colon syndrome
Spontaneous abortions

1357
Q

What are the cxs seen in infants of mothers w/Hyperglycemia in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters?

A

Polycythemia
Organomegaly
Neonatal hyperglycemia
Hypocalcemia (d/t PTH suppression, but norm asx)
Macrosomia – shoulder dystocia, brachial plexopathy, clavicle fracture, perinatal asphyxia

1358
Q

Most common causes of DRESS syndrome?

A

Allopurinol and Anti-epileptics (Phenytoin, Carbamazepine)
Less commonly abx – sulfas, minocycline, vancomycin
Long latency from Rx initiation to rxn – 2-8wks
Possible cross-reactivity b/w herpesvirus lymphocytes and drug antigens – most pts have Ab evidence of HHV6 reactivation during DRESS syndrome

1359
Q

How will Ogilvie syndrome present on imaging?

A

Aka acute colonic pseudo-obstruction

Colonic dilation w/oral contrast visualized throughout the entire colon – suggesting no anatomical obstruction

1360
Q

What will be the clinical presentation of Ogilvie syndrome (acute colonic Pseudo-obstruction)?

A

Abdominal distension, pain, N/V
Constipation/obstipation or paradoxical diarrhea
Increasing dilation may lead to ischemia/perforation – guarding, rigidity, extreme tenderness
Partial/total colonic dilation w/o anatomic obstruction on CT

1361
Q

What spp. of Malaria have a dormant phase?

A

P. vivax – seen in Non-african countries. Need tx w/Chloroquine and Primaquine (kills hepatic hypnozoites)
P. falciparum – seen in Africa doesn’t have a dormant phase

1362
Q

Where is Choriocarcinoma most likely to met?

A

Lungs – dyspnea/ARDS

Vagina – bloody or purulent vaginal discharge, vascular/friable nodule on pelvic exam

1363
Q

Features of chronic ischemic colitis:

A

Chronic abd pain, bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and colonic strictures
May see mucosal atrophy and granulation tissue on colonic biopsy

1364
Q

What are the risk factors and features of Myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Hematipoietic stem cell neoplasm
Risks: advanced age, hx of chemo or radiation
Causes dysplasia and cytopenias – typically decrease in all cell lines
Anemia – weakness and fatigue
Granulocytopenia – infections and hyposegmented NPs
Thrombocytopenia – bleeding and bruising
Cx: transformation to AML

1365
Q

How to differentiate Hairy cell leukemia from the chronic leukemias:

A

All may cause massive splenomegaly
Hairy cell – pancytopenia (d/t fibrosis of bone marrow: dry tap)
CLL – lymphocytosis
CML – leukocytosis

Myelofibrosis may also cause massive splenomegaly w/pancytopenia

1366
Q

What pulmonary sxs does Listeria cause?

A

NONE! You’re thinking of legionella, they’re different
Listeria = GI and Neuro; G+ aerobic rod
Legionella = GI then pulmonary; G- aerobic rod

1367
Q

What are the clinical features and tx of Legionella?

A

G- aerobic rod, a/w travel and hospital
Spreads via aerosolized water droplets from contaminated source (ac, ventilator)
Get GI sxs first (D/V, cramps), then fever (>101.8), relative bradycardia for fever (70s norm) and then pulmonary sxs are delayed and show last
Often have Hyponatremia and patchy unilobar or interstitial infiltrates
Tx: Resp fluoroquinolone (levo) is DoC, newer macrolides (azithro) are 2nd choice

1368
Q

AEs of oral Isotretinoin tx:

A
Teratogenic – spontaneous abortion, fetal malformations
Hyperlipidemia
Chelitis (dry, cracked lips), dry skin
Myalgias
Pseudotumor cerebri
1369
Q

What causes testicular torsion

A

Twisting of the spermatic cord d/t inadequate fixation of the lower pole of the testis to the tunica vaginalis – compression of pampiniform plexus and reduced venous outflow

1370
Q

When will women start menstruating post-partum?

A

Formula feeding: 8-14 weeks

Exclusive breastfeeding: >6mos (variable)

1371
Q

Common causes of SIADH:

A

CNS disturbance – stroke, hemorrhage, trauma
Meds – Carbameazepine, SSRIs, NSAIDs, Cyclophosphamide,
Lung disease (pneumonia)
Ectopic ADH secretion (SCLC)
Pain and/or nausea

1372
Q

Most common type of fibroid to cause heavy/prolonged menstrual bleeding:

A

Submucosal; Intramural may as well, but less common. Subserosal will not.

1373
Q

What is the best diagnostic step to confirm uterine fibroids?

A

Sonohysterography – saline infusion US

1374
Q

What does omental caking on CT signify?

A

Intra-abdominal carcinomatosis

1375
Q

What are common causes of Uric acid stones?

A

Uric acid stones are relatively uncommon (5-10%)
Increased serum uric acid levels: gout, tumor lysis syndrome
Chronic HCO3- loss: diarrhea, dehydration

1376
Q

What is the tx of Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?

A

Plasma exchange – to remove the xs serum IgM

1377
Q

When would ultrafiltration be used?

A

In pts. w/massive volume overload whose condition doesn’t respond to aggressive diuretics

1378
Q

What is the most common form of lung cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

1379
Q

How to tell different types of lung ca. based on CXR:

A

Squamous cell – often a single, upper lobe, cavitary lesion. Typically the only type to cause a cavitary lesion
Adenoca. – peripheral nodule
Bronchoalveolar – typically a solitary peripheral nodule, but may have multiple nodules or lobar consolidation
SCLC – central (hilar, perihilar) mass, often w/mediastinal LAD

1380
Q

What type of hernia may extend into the scrotum?

A

Indirect inguinal – protrudes through deep inguinal ring into inguinal canal d/t patent processus vaginalis (lat. to inferior epigastrics)
Direct – protrude through weakness in transversalis fascia/inguinal canal floor (med. To inferior epigastrics). Has no route into the scrotum.

1381
Q

What is the tx of Condylomata accuminata in pregnancy?

A

Topical trichloroacetic acid
Imiquimod and podophyllin resin are contraindicated d/t teratogenicity
Excisional removal is avoided d/t increased anesthetic and surgical risks
Viral culture does not need to be done bc it won’t change mgmt.

1382
Q

What pattern of pain suggests Ureterolithiasis obstruction at the UVJ?

A

Severe flank pain that radiates to the perineum, penis, scrotum, or inner thigh

1383
Q

What imaging studies should be done when Pancreatic ca. is suspected?

A

If jaundice is present – abdominal US

No jaundice – CT

1384
Q

What is likely to cause jejunal atresia and how will it present?

A

Jejunal and ileal atresia likely d/t vascular insults in utero that cause necrosis and resorption of fetal intestine
Common causes: maternal vasoconstrictive meds, tobacco or cocaine abuse
Presents w/bilious emesis, abdominal distension and “triple bubble” sign on xray and gasless colon typically w/in first 24hrs

1385
Q

Tx of Acute Cholangitis:

A

Abx covering enteric bacteria

ERCP drainage w/in 24-48hrs

1386
Q

What are common secondary causes of RLS?

A
Fe-def anemia
Uremia – ESRD, CKD
DM
MS or Parkinson
Pregnancy
Drugs – antidepressants, metoclopramide
1387
Q

Tx of RLS:

A

DA-agonists (Pramipexole, Ropinirole) are 1st line
a-2-d calcium channel ligands (Gabapentin) may be preferred in pts w/comorbid insomnia, chronic pain syndrome or anxiety
Opioids are last choice for refractory sxs

1388
Q

What are the features of Medication overuse HA?

A

Near-daily HA in the setting of regular use of acute HA medications
Occurs in pts w/a preexisting HA disorder (migraine) and sxs must be present for 3+ mos
The pts underlying HA disorder may worsen or they may develop a new HA pattern
Sxs frequently mimic tension-type or migraine-type HA and are commonly present upon awakening

1389
Q

What are the feats. and tx of tissue-invasive CMV disease?

A

Mostly affects immunosuppressed, esp. after solid organ transplant
Can cause: pneumonitis, gastroenteritis (w/hematochezia), hepatitis, and meningoenceohalitis
Tx: dc any immunosuppressants and start anti-virals – IV ganciclovir for severe disease, oral valganciclovir for pts w/minimal signs

1390
Q

What are the 2 ways to improve oxygenation in pts on ventilators?

A

Needs to be done in pts who have PaO2 <60:
Increase PEEP – prevents alveolar collapse and decreases hypoxemia
Increase FiO2 – delivers higher amounts of O2 to the lungs, but should be decreased to <60% as soon as possible

1391
Q

What are the ways to improve ventilation in pts. on ventilators?

A

Should be done in pts w/high levels of PaCO2:
Increase the respiratory rate
Increase the tidal volume
Both will increase the minute ventilation and decrease the PaCO2

1392
Q

1st line therapy for pts w/RAS:

A

1st line for both unilateral and bilateral RAS is ACEIs or ARBs
b/l RAS should only dc ACEIs if there is >30% increase in Cr after starting the Rx
Revascularization should be avoided and only done in refractory cases

1393
Q

Neurovascular injuries seen in supracondylar humeral fractures:

A

Most common pediatric elbow fracture – FOOSH w/elbow hyperextension
Anterolateral displacement – radial n. injury
Anteromedial displacement – brachial a. or median n. injury
Posteromedial displacement (rare) – ulnar n. injury; happens w/fracture during elbow flexion

1394
Q

Mgmt of acute v. chronic hyponatremia:

A

Acute (<48hrs) – poorly tolerated and pts at high risk for brain herniation. Pts w/ANY sxs of elevated ICP should get 3% NS boluses to rapidly correct serum Na+ (neural adaptations haven’t occurred at this point, so low risk of osmotic demyelination)

Chronic (48+ hrs) – better tolerated so 3% NS is reserved for severe hyponatremia (<120), severe sxs, or concurrent intracranial pathology (mass, stroke, etc)

1395
Q

What is the difference in pathology of the types of pHTN Systemic sclerosis can cause?

A

Primary paHTN d/t hyperplasia of the intimal sm. mm. of the pulm. aa. The lung parenchyma will be unaffected w/normal FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio as well as a normal CXR
-This type is more common in the limited cutaneous type/CREST syndrome

Secondary pHTN caused by ILD (alveolar spaces filled w/fibroblasts) may also occur and will present w/a restrictive pattern on spirometry and reticular opacities on CXR
- More common in the diffuse cutaneous type

1396
Q

First line tx of Idiopathic intracranial HTN:

A

Acetazolamide +/- Furosemide

1397
Q

What are common PE and lab findings in vertebral osteomyelitis?

A

PE: Exquisite focal tenderness on percussion of affected spinous processes, increased muscle spasm and decreased ROM, +/- fever

Labs: WBC count may be normal or elevated, BCx positive in majority of pts, ESR and CRP usually v. elevated

1398
Q

What are some disorders that increase the risk of pediatric thromboembolic events?

A

Homocystinuria – presents w/Marfan habitus, fair complexion, developmental delay, lens dislocation, and hypercoagulability. Cystathionine synthase def.

Fabry disease – presents w/angiokeratomas, peripheral neuropathy, asx corneal dystrophy, increased risk for renal and heart failure as well as thromboembolic events. a-Galactosidase def.

1399
Q

What are the common lab findings in Hodgkin Lymphoma?

A

CBC and PBS are often completely normal, however Reed-Sternberg cells, when seen, are pathognomonic

1400
Q

What is the only type of pathology that will cause increased breath sounds on auscultation?

A
Consolidation (lobar pneumonia) – will cause increased tactile fremitus as well as increased breath sounds seen as crackles and egophony present
Everything else (pleural effusion, pneumothorax, emphysema, atelectasis, etc) will cause decreased or absent breath sounds and decreased tactile fremitus
1401
Q

When should congenital fetal heart block be suspected?

A

In pts w/SLE or Sjogren syndrome w/anti-Ro (anti-SSA) Abs.

These may cross the placenta and cause heart block presenting as fetal bradycardia (<110) on NST.

1402
Q

Tx and most common causes of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis:

A
  1. Nontypeable H. influenzae (~50%)
  2. S. pneumoniae (~25%)
  3. Moxarella catarrhalis
    Tx: Amoxicillin +/- Clavulanate
1403
Q

Bacteremia with what bacteria should prompt a screening colonoscopy?

A

Clostridium septicum – can cause bacteremia and acalculous cholecystitis
Streptococcus bovis (group D strep.) – this should also prompt TTE d/t risk of IE
These are both a/w colon cancer and when found should prompt screening colonoscopy

1404
Q

What type of screening exams should be prompted after finding Candida bacteremia?

A

Ophthalmologic evaluation – even in asx pts bc it commonly causes fungal endophthalmitis

1405
Q

What are the neurotropic effects of the Mumps virus?

A

Aseptic meningitis (norm benign) and sensorineural hearing loss (often transient but may lead to deafness)

1406
Q

Common acid-base disturbance seen in Laxative abuse:

A

Metabolic alkalosis – unlike most other causes of diarrhea that cause metabolic acidosis
Facticious diarrhea can also cause acidosis, but the finding of alkalosis in a pt. w/diarrhea should raise suspicion for laxative abuse

1407
Q

What Rxs are known to increase Lithium levels?

A

ACEIs, NSAIDs, Tetracyclines, Metronidazole, Thiazides

+ anything that decreases renal perfusion will decrease Li clearance and increase risk of toxicity.

1408
Q

What are common causes of constrictive pericarditis?

A
Idiopathic pericarditis
Prior cardiac surgery (CABG, valve surgery)
Mediastinal irradiation
TB
Malignancy
Uremia
1409
Q

What will be seen on imaging of constrictive pericarditis?

A

Pericardial calcifications and thickening of the pericardium

1410
Q

What is a pericardial knock?

A

Mid-diastolic sound heard in constrictive pericarditis

1411
Q

How will pts likely present w/Constrictive pericarditis?

A

Fatigue and dyspnea on exertion
Signs of RHF: peripheral edema, ascites, increased JVP, may have hepatic congestion and hypoalbuminemia
May hear pericardial knock (middiastolic murmur) on auscultation
Pulsus paradoxus, Kussmaul’s sign

1412
Q

What causes Vasovagal syncope?

A

Abrupt PSNS activation leads to a cardioinhibitory response that manifests as bradycardia w/sinus arrest
This causes abrupt decrease in cerebral perfusion leading to syncope

1413
Q

What protein is coded for by the NF2 gene?

A

Merlin

NF1 tumor suppressor gene encodes protein neurofibromin

1414
Q

What is retinitis pigmentosa?

A

Inherited degenerative disease of retinal photoreceptor cells that causes b/l tunnel vision and eventually binocular blindness usually begins w/night blindness and may lead to scotoma (central vision loss)
a/w A-betalipoproteinemia
Fundoscopy: bone spicule-shaped deposits around maucla

1415
Q

What are the cxs of McCune Albright Syndrome?

A

It causes overproduction of all pituitary hormones:
Peripheral precocious puberty (LH, FSH)
Thyrotoxicosis (TSH)
Acromegaly (GH)
Cushing syndrome (ACTH)
Recurrent fractures d/t polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

1416
Q

What are the common features of Tick-Borne paralysis and how is it differentiated from GBS?

A

Progressive ascending paralysis over hrs-days; may be more localized/pronounced in one extremity
Sensory exam is usually normal
No fever or prodromal illness (GBS has this)
CSF analysis is normal (contrast to GBS – high protein few cells)
Caused by neurotoxin release from a tick, must feed for 4-7d before toxin release
Search for and removal of tick results in improvement w/in an hr and complete recovery w/in days
NO ANS dysfxn (tachycardia, urinary retention) like seen in GBS

1417
Q

Sxs of GVHD:

A

Typically develop w/in 100d of transplant (bone marrow is highest risk)

Maculopapular rash – can be painful and become confluent, may resemble SJS

Profuse, watery diarrhea – secretory pattern (persistent, occurs at night, even when fasting)

Liver inflammation – damage to biliary tract epithelium w/increased BR, ALP and transaminases

1418
Q

How to differentiate HCCa caused by a Hepatic adenoma and Cirrhosis:

A

Hepatic adenomas rarely undergo malignant transformation, but when they do there is no associated decompensated liver failure bc only one small part of the liver has lost its fxn

Cirrhosis caused HCCa will have liver failure bc the entire organ has been affected
Both can have a palpable liver nodule and cause cachexia, anorexia, wt. loss, etc.

1419
Q

At what gestational age do tocolytics become contraindicated?

A

34+ weeks
At this point in time the risks of the tocolytics for the mother and fetus outweigh the risks of premature delivery

Pts in preterm labor <37wks and >34 wks need steroids, abx, and delivery (route depends on status of fetus and mother)

They are always contraindicated in PPROM though, if membranes rupture prior to onset of labor (regular contractions) they can’t be given

1420
Q

What are the features of Stress-induced CMP?

A

Aka Takotsubo CMP/apical ballooning syndrome/broken heart syndrome
Transient systolic dysfxn of apical/mid segments of the LV w/hyperkinesis of the basal segments
Causes balloon-like appearance of the LV in systole
Seen in older adults in response to intense physical/emotional stress or acute medical illness

1421
Q

What is the only MEN syndrome that would cause parathyroid adenomas?

A

MEN1

MEN2 only causes primary hyperparathyroidism by parathyroid hyperplasia, MEN1 can cause adenomas or hyperplasia

1422
Q

What conditions should Succinylcholine be avoided in and why?

A

Succinylcholine is a depolarizing NM blocker and binds post-synaptic Ach-Rs to cause influx of Na+ and efflux of K+
Pts w/upregulation of Ach-Rs or who are already at risk for hyperkalemia should not receive this bc can cause cardiac arrhythmias
Exs: Crush Injuries (rhabdo), Burn injury, Disuse muscle atrophy, denervation – stroke, GBS, critical illness polyneuropathy
use non-depolarizers for these pts (vecuronium, rocuronium)

1423
Q

What anesthetic can lead to adrenal insufficiency?

A

Etomidate – it inhibits 11B-hydroxylase

1424
Q

What pts should Propofol be avoided in?

A

Those w/ventricular systolic dysfxn

It can cause severe HoTN d/t myocardial depression

1425
Q

What would be seen on FHR tracing w/a nuchal cord?

A

Variable decels

1426
Q

What would Benzene exposure cause?

A

Aplastic anemia d/t chromosomal breakage.

Benzene is found in solvents, polishes and gasoline

1427
Q

Cxs of Severe Pancreatitis:

A
Severe acute pancreatitis = pancreatitis + 1 or more organ failure
Pseudocyst
Peripancreatic fluid collection
Necrotizing pancreatitis
ARDS
GI bleeding
Acute renal failure
1428
Q

What is the mgmt. of CIN3?

A

If age >25 and not pregnant need immediate: Cone biopsy +/- LEEP and cryoablation
Then need pap w/HPV test 1 and 2 yrs post-procedure

1429
Q

What are the risks a/w Porphyria cutanea tarda?

A
HCV
HIV
Xs EtOH
Estrogen use
Smoking
1430
Q

How will porphyria cutanea tarda present?

A

Mostly skin mainfestations – blisters, bullae and scarring on sun-exposed skin, increased skin fragility on the dorsal surfaces of the hands, and facial hypertrichosis
May have hypo/hyperpigmentation
Scarring and calcification similar to scleroderma
Mild elevation of liver enzymes and Fe overload

1431
Q

How would paraneoplastic myelopathy present?

A

It is lesion against the spinal cord and will present w/flaccid or spastic paraplegia or quadriplegia, sensory deficits +/- urinary or fecal retention/incontinence

1432
Q

What is the most common cause of gastric MALTomas?

A

H. Pylori infection!!!!
Causes 90% of tms
All pts w/MALTomas should be tested for H. pylori and undergo eradication tx, for those w/early-stage, which causes most tms to go into complete remission
Sjogren and Hashimoto also increase risk of MALToma

1433
Q

What kind of cancers are pts. w/Pernicious anemia at risk for?

A

Gastric adenocarcinoma and gastric carcinoids

NO risk for MALTomas

1434
Q

How will the UA differ in glomerular v. nonglomerular hematuria?

A

Glomerular have microscopic > gross hematuria and will have blood and protein on UA w/RBC casts and dysmorphic RBCs

Nonglomerular have gross > micro hematuria and UA will have blood, no protein and normal appearing RBCs
(non-glomerular is more common)

1435
Q

Most common causes of nonglomerular hematuria:

A
Nephrolithiasis
Cancer (RCCa, prostate)
PCKD
Infection – cystitis
Papillary necrosis
1436
Q

Common causes of renal papillary necrosis:

A
Mnemonic: NSAID
NSAIDs
Sickle cell
Analgesic abuse (long-term abuse)
Infection (pyelo)
Diabetes
1437
Q

What characteristic of CF bronchiectasis helps differentiate it from other causes?

A

Upper lung lobe involvement – CF is the main cause of bronchiectasis involving the upper lobes
Infection w/Pseudomonas is also characteristic

1438
Q

Mothers with what blood types are capable of causing a neonatal ABO incompatibility?

A

A (against baby B or AB blood), B (against A or AB), or O (against everything)
AB mothers have no Abs against the other bloodtypes and will not cause hemolysis

1439
Q

What are the common presenting features of Thyroid lymphoma?

A

Mostly occurs in pts w/Hashimoto and high anti-TPO Abs
Rapidly progressive thyroid enlargement +/- mild tenderness, hoarseness and dysphagia
Retrosternal extension is common and compresses surrounding vasculature – get JVD, and facial plethora, worse w/raising the arms.
B sxs may also be present – night sweats, fatigue, wt. loss, fever

1440
Q

What might be seen on imaging in a mitral stenosis?

A

EKG – “p mitrale” (broad, notched P waves), atrial tachyarrhythmias (aFib), RVH (tall R waves in V1 and V2)
Echo – MV thickening and calcification, decreased mobility and coexisting MR

1441
Q

What test should be done to diagnose suspected tracheobronchial ruptures?

A

Bronchoscopy
CT scan can detect large injuries but misses small tears
Most pts require surgery

1442
Q

What are the sxs of Trochanteric bursitis?

A

Unilateral hip pain that is worse w/external pressure to the upper lateral thigh (like when you sleep on your side) external rotation and with resisted hip abduction

1443
Q

What bugs should be suspected when urine pH is >8?

A

Urease producing: Proteus (most common) and Klebsiella

1444
Q

What is the recommended workup for a thyroid nodule?

A

First get TSH levels
Low – do RAI scan low uptake requires further workup (FNA, US) high uptake just tx hyperthyroidism
High or Normal – do US and consider FNA based on the findings

1445
Q

What are common precipitants of recurrent episodes of Herpes simplex keratitis?

A

Excessive sun exposure/outdoor occupation, fever or immunodeficiency

1446
Q

How should oligohydramnios be managed in late and post-term pregnancies?

A

Oligohydramnios or a non-reactive NST individually are indications for immediate delivery
Position of fetus, and status of it and the mother determine method – vag v c-section

1447
Q

How to differentiate sepsis/infection post liver-transplant and acute rejection:

A

Infection is more likely to cause rapid-onset hemodynamic instability, high fever and significant leukocytosis

Rejection occurs <90d post-transplant and will cause fever, RUQ pain, and elevation in liver fxn tests but leukocytosis and rapid hemodynamic instability are less common

1448
Q

Timeline of infections post-liver transplant:

A

<1mo: Bacteria from op-cxs (hepatic abscess, biliary leak, wound infection) or hospitalization (catheter, external drain)

Months 1-6: Opportunistic pathogens (CMV, Aspergillus, TB)

> 6mo: Immunosuppressants at lower doses so typical community acquired infections most common

1449
Q

What is ventricular remodeling and what can prevent it post-MI?

A

Remodeling gradually causes dilatation of the LV w/thinning of the ventricular walls. Get globular shaped LV
Prevent w/ACEIs started w/in 24hrs of an MI

1450
Q

What are the common presenting features of Gaucher disease?

A

Onset may be delayed and present in mid-late adolescents
Bone marrow infiltration – anemia and thrombocytopenia
Splenomegaly – typically severe and more prominent than hepatomegaly
Bony pains d/t skeletal involvement – often mistaken for “growing pains”
May have osteopenia and pathologic fractures following minimal trauma
Failure to thrive – height and weight <5th percentile
Delayed puberty (tanner stage I in a 16yo)

1451
Q

How will an infant w/posterior urethral valves present?

A

In the neonatal period with decreased/absent urine output
Distended abdomen and weight gain (rather than the normal loss) d/t retained urine
Postnatal respiratory distress d/t lung hypoplasia from oligohydramnios in utero
Often missed in those who don’t follow-up prenatal care

1452
Q

Most common causes of Duodenal ulcers:

A

H. pylori

NSAIDs

1453
Q

What causes the myopathy a/w Cushing syndrome?

A

Catabolic effects on skeletal muscle which leads to muscle atrophy
Get progressive proximal mm. weakness and atrophy w/o pain. LE more involved
ESR and CRP will be normal

1454
Q

What diseases will have a decreased absorption of D-xylose?

A

Small intestinal mucosal disease (Celiac)

malabsorption d/t enzyme deficiencies will have normal absorption (CF, lactose)

1455
Q

What is the inheritance pattern and comorbidities a/w Myotonic dystrophy?

A

AD inheritance of trinucleotide repeat (CTG)

Comorbidities: arrhythmias, cataracts, balding, testicular atrophy/infertility

Presentation: onset 12-30; facial weakness, hand grip myotonia, dysphagia (risk of aspiration pneumonia). May have ptosis, frontal balding, and generalized muscle wasting

1456
Q

Common causes of adrenal hemorrhage:

A

Pts on anticoagulants w/acute stress (sepsis)

Hemorrhagic necrosis w/systemic infections: meningococcemia or pseudomonas sepsis

1457
Q

What causes adrenoleukodystrophy?

A

Accumulation of VLCFAs within the adrenal glands leads to adrenal insufficiency
Only affects males, females are carriers

1458
Q

What electrolyte disturbances are seen in refeeding syndrome?

A

Increased insulin occurs d/t carbohydrate ingestion (IV or enteral)
This causes increased cellular uptake and decreased serum levels of: K+, PO4, Mg2+, and Thiamine
Phosphate is the primary deficient electrolyte bc its needed to make ATP
Deficiencies in Mg2+ and K+ cause cardiac arrhythmias
Thiamine deficiency causes Wernicke
Aggressive nutrition w/o adequate electrolyte replacement – cardiopulmonary failure

1459
Q

Lab/Imaging findings in ILD:

A

CXR – reticular/nodular opacities
CT – fibrosis, honeycombing, traction bronchiectasis
PFTs – normal or increased FEV1/FVC, decreased DLCO, decreased TLC, decreased RV
Resting ABG – normal or mild hypoxemia; Exertion will cause significant hypoxemia
V/Q mismatch and Increased A-a gradient

1460
Q

What is Miller-Fisher syndrome and how will it present?

A

It is a variant of GBS and will also present post-infection w/the same organisms
It is d/t Anti-Gq1b Abs (highly sensitive for MFS) that attack peripheral nerves
Will cause rapid-onset ophthalmoplegia, diplopia, ptosis, cerebellar-like ataxia (dysmetria) and areflexia
Ophtho signs may be unilateral with the areflexia and extremity weakness bilateral
Paralysis is less common in MFS than classic GBS
CSF analysis and mgmt. are the same as classic GBS

1461
Q

What would cause decreased or absent response to vaccination in an adult?

A

CVID

1462
Q

Who is most at risk for CA-MRSA and how is it tx’d?

A

CA-MRSA preferentially attacks young patients w/influenza – severe, destructive, secondary necrotizing pneumonia
Often causes leukopenia instead of leukocytosis
Most pts need to be tx’d in the ICU w/IV abx – Vancomycin or Linezolid

1463
Q

What are common abx used for anaerobe coverage (esp. in aspiration pneumonia)?

A

Clindamycin
Metronidazole + Amoxicillin (high failure when metro is used as monotx)
Amoxicillin + Clavulanate
Carbapenems

1464
Q

How to differentiate Tabes Dorsalis from Subacute Combined Degeneration:

A

Both affect dorsal columns – sensory ataxia from decreased proprioception and vibration sense w/+Romberg
Tabes dorsalis – Argyll robinson pupils + nerve root involvement: decreased Pain/T and hypo/areflexia
SACD – lateral corticospinal tract involvement: spastic paresis and hyperreflexia

1465
Q

How to tell cauda equina and conus medullaris syndromes apart:

A

Cauda equina – asymmetric motor weakness, hypo/areflexia and b/l severe radicular pain

Conus medullaris – symmetric motor weakness, hyperreflexia and sudden-onset severe back pain

contrast both to Spinal cord compression when there is typically no pain and numbness can begin higher up – umbilical area, etc.

1466
Q

What Rxs are contraindicated or should be avoided in pts w/RVMI?

A

Nitrates – decrease RV preload and cause profound HoTN and cardiogenic shock
Diuretics – volume depletion and HoTN
Opiates – venous dilation and decreased RV preload
BBs – sometimes appropriate, but contraindicated in pts w/bradycardia or cardiogenic shock

1467
Q

When should amyloid cardiomyopathy be suspected?

A

In pts w/unexplained CHF, proteinuria (>300mg/d), and LV hypertrophy w/o hx of HTN
This is a cause of restrictive CMP and RHF sxs seem to predominate
Echo: concentric LV hypertrophy, nondilated LV cavity, LA enlargement and preserved EF
Other sxs: anemia, thrombocytopenia, hepatomegaly, thickened skin, peripheral neuropathy

1468
Q

Difference in mgmt. of hernias:

A

All symptomatic hernias should undergo surgical resection
Asx femoral hernias – elective surgical resection (high risk of incarceration and strangulation)
Asx inguinal hernias – can be reassured and observed (low risk of incarceration)

1469
Q

Mgmt of hepatic adenomas:

A

asx and <5cm – stop OCPs

Sxs or >5cm – surgical resection

1470
Q

What are common lab findings in Wilson disease and how is it tx’d?

A

Increased AST and ALT only may occur – w/AST being almost 2x higher than ALT
ALP, BR, and GGT may all be completely normal
Tx: Chelators – D-penicillamine, trientine; Zinc – will interfere w/Cu absorption

1471
Q

How will CNS tms manifest based on their location?

A

Supratentorial: Increased ICP, weakness, sensory changes, and seizures
- Astrocytoma, Glioblastoma, Craniopharyngioma

Posterior fossa (infratentorial): Increased ICP, cerebellar dysfxn – dysmetria, ataxia, clumsiness
     - Astrocytoma, Ependymoma, Medulloblastoma

Brainstem: ataxia, clumsiness, CN palsies

Spinal cord: back pain, weakness, abnormal gait
- Ependymoma (much less common than post. fossa)

1472
Q

What are the most common posterior fossa tms in children and what structures do they arise from?

A
#1 – Ependymoma: arises from the ependymal cell lining of the ventricles and spinal cord.
#2 – Medulloblastoma: arises from the cerebellar vermis
1473
Q

What causes Meniere’s disease?

A

Elevated endolymphatic pressure and volume, likely d/t defective resorption of endolymph
Sxs: low-freq tinnitus in affected ear, episodic vertigo (may have N/V, lightheaded), sensorineural hearing loss in affected ear

1474
Q

Most common cause of urethritis in men:

A

Gonococcus – contrast to chalmydia being most common in women

1475
Q

Tx of bacterial vaginosis:

A

Metronidazole or Clindamycin (topical or oral)

1476
Q

What are the sxs of an uncal herniation?

A

Compression of contralat. crus cerebri – ipsilateral hemiparesis (same side of hemorrhage)
Compression of CN III – mydriasis (early), ptosis and down-n-out gaze (late) of ipsilateral eye
Compression of PCA – contralateral homonymous hemianopsia (opposite eye of CN III defects)
Compression of reticular formation – altered level of consciousness, coma
seen in basal ganglia hemorrhages 2/2 HTN and epidural hematomas

1477
Q

What should be suspected in Non-pupil sparing CN III palsies?

A

Non-pupil sparing palsies are most often caused by mass effect. They should be assumed to be d/t aneurysm until proven otherwise and need immediate MRA or CTA of the head

Pupil-sparing (doesn’t affect the PSNS fibers on the outside of the n., only motor in the center)
Are most often d/t microvascular ischemia – DM, HTN. HLD, advanced age. These can be observed in most cases and worked up by risk factors

1478
Q

Abnormal proliferation of what type of cells leads to epithelial ovarian ca.?

A

It can be d/t abnormal proliferation of: ovarian, fallopian/tubal, or peritoneal cells.
All three will cause lg. ovarian tm. causing ascites and solid mass w/thick septations on US

1479
Q

How will Phenytoin toxicity present?

A

Acute toxicity: signs of cerebellar dysfxn – horizontal nystagmus, ataxia/wide-based gait, dysmetria, slurred speech, paresis; N/V and hyperreflexia

Severe toxicity: AMS (lethargy, confusion), coma, paradoxical seizures (unlike most anti-epileptic toxicities), and death

Rapid phenytoin infusion can also result in HoTN and bradyarrhythmias

susceptible to toxicity in renal or hepatic dysfxn or when taken w/Valproate, and Rxs that inhibit CYP-450

1480
Q

What will be seen on echo in LV aneurysm?

A

Thin and dyskinetic myocardial wall