uworld Flashcards

1
Q

Parenteral nutrition can provide total nutrition directly into the blood stream of patient’s who are unable to receive enteral nutrition. what is a common and serious complication?

A

Because it must be administered through a central venous catheter when given for >48 hrs there is risk of central line-associated bloodstream infection.

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2
Q

Pt with CP, signs of decreased cardiac output, and pulsus paradoxus following viral infection most likely have what resulting in what arrhythmia?

A

likely pericarditis resulting in cardiac tamponade

may not have any murmur and lungs remain clear.

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3
Q

CSF findings in HSV encephalitis?

A

Usually nonspecific; however classic findings are lymphocytic pleocytosis, elevated protein, elevated RBC count, and normal glucose.

the CSF RBC elevation is the result of hemorrhagic destruction of frontotemporal lobes

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4
Q

what will you see on spirometry of someone with ILD? specifically in regards to FEV, FEV1, and ratio?

A

decrease in both FEV and FEV1 with normal ratio.

pts usually have hx of smoking, and you often hear fine bibasilar “crackles” (velcro like) on exam

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5
Q

pt has HTN and hyperpigmentation associated with a mediastinal mass which suggests pulmonary malignancy with ectopic production of what?

A

ACTH

this is a polypeptide hormone - common with small cell lung cancer

pt will have manifestations of severe hypercortisolism including wide purple striae, fatigue, easy bruising, proximal muscle weakness, and central obesity (although hypermetabolic state associated with the malignancy may cause weight loss)

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6
Q

Describe light criteria for pleaural effusions (transudate vs exudate)

A

Trans: Protein less than or equal to 0.5 and LDH = 0.6 (pleural/serum), LDH is = 2/3 upper limit of normal serum LDH.

Ex: pleural/serum protein ratio >0.5 and LDH >0.6, pleural LDH > 2/3 upper limit of normal serum LDH

Common causes of trans are hypoalbuminemia (cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome) and CHF. For Exudate think Infection (parapneumonic, TB, fungal, empyema), malignancy, and PE

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7
Q

What color is described with a chylothorax?

A

Milky white

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8
Q

vaccines for adults with HIV?

A

HAV, HBV, HPV, Influenza (inactivated), Meningococcus, Pneumococcus, Tdap

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9
Q

Lung malignancy pt with headache, facial swelling, and JVD without peripheral edema makes you think?

A

Sperior vena cava syndrome. Primary treatment is radiation therapy as a palliative measure

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10
Q

Measures to prevent aspiration pneumonia in hospitalized pt includes…?

why not ng tube?

A

oral care
diet modification for pt with dysphagia, and compensatory techniques like elevated the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees

jejunal feeding reduces risk of aspiration but simple ng or percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tibes predispose to aspiration pneumonia

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11
Q

how is SBP thought to develop? where does the infection come from?
typical treatment?

A

Enteric bacteria are thought to translocate across the intestinal wall and seed ascitic fluid within the peritoneal cavity.

treatment typicaly IV abx (3rd gen cephalosporins, flouroquinolones)

NOTE mental status changes common in SBP

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12
Q

Bullous pemphigoid vs pemphigus culgaris - which has tense vs flaccid which is hemi and which is des?

A

BP is hemides with tense blisters

PV is desomosomes with flaccid (usually involvement of the oral cavity too.) will not typically see ANY intact blisters because skin is so fragile.

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13
Q

Proximal muscle weakness (eg difficulty climbing up stairs) and pain is mild to absent with elevated muscle enzymes (CK, aldolase, AST) makes you think?

A

Polymyositis

confirm dx with ANA, anti-Jo-1 and biopsy showing endomysial infiltrate with patchy necrosis

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14
Q

Age >50, systemic signs/symptoms, stiffness > pain in shoulders hip girdle and neck, associated with giant cell arteritis makes you think?

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

will see elevated ESR, CRP and rapid improvement with gluccocorticoids

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15
Q

combo of UMN and LMN signs is characteristic of what disease (sensation is usually intact)

A

ALS

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16
Q

Absence seizures usually occur in children but what do you think of in an adult with staring spells (and maybe automatisms like lip smacking or chewing)

A

these would be complex partial seizures (complex due to LOC and partial involving local area of brain

may also experience postictal state or todd paralysis after

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17
Q

recommended initial treatment for stable Vtach?

A

amiodarone

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18
Q

pt presents with weakness and leg cramps after initiation of thiazide diuretic suggests?

A

significant hypokalemia

in setting of persistent HTN think Primary hyperaldosteronism

can manage with aldo antagonists like spironolactone or eplerenone.

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19
Q

pt with sudden onset cholicy abdominal pain associated with eating after recent Roux-en-Y makes you think?

A

rapid weight loss induced gallstones with possible cholecystitis.

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20
Q

differences in post strep GN vs IgA nephropathy?

A

bacterial vs viral and delayed vs early onset of sx’s

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21
Q

Pt with hypocalcemia dn hyperphosphatemia in setting of CKD has typical presentation of ?

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

decreased production of VitD due to CKD leads to decreased absorption of calcium in gut. As GFR decreases kidney cant get rid of phosphate. increased phosphate binds up the circulating calcium which stimulates release of PTH which leads to parathyroid hyperplasia

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22
Q

what would you prescribe to a pt with neurogenic bladder?

A

a cholinergic agonist. (bethanechol) to aid in bladder contraction and urethral relaxation.

muscarinics are for urge incontinence (detrusor overactivity) and relax bladder

pelvic floor exercises for stress incontinence

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23
Q

Precipitating factors for Hepatic Encephalopathy?

A
Drugs (sedativesm narcs)
Hypovolemia (diarrhea)
Elecctrolyte changes (hypokalemia)
Increased nitrogen load (GI bleed)
Infection (PNA, UTI, SBP)
Portosystemic shunting (TIPS)
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24
Q

what is restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

often caused by myocardial infiltrative diseases such as amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, or hemachromatosis

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25
Q

Young patient presents with recent viral illness, heart failure symptoms,, chest pain, or arrhythmia should make you think?

A

Myocarditis

most patients have at least partial recovery of myocardial function, but some will develop dilated cardiomyopathy

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26
Q

64 year old pt with fever, weight loss, night sweats, cough and fatigue with cavitary lesion in lung apex on imaging and disease in the spine. Pt also has hx of smoking but quit 15 years ago. Why is this more likely to be TB than primary lung malignancy?

A

abstinence from smoking for 15 years makes risk of lung cancer much less and fever is not a typical feature of lung cancer.

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27
Q

what lab test should be ordered in all pt’s with afib particularly if they have weight loss as well?

A

TSH and T4

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28
Q

twisting knee injury with impaired extension, instability, and exacerbation of pain with squatting. on exam there is joint line tenderness and an effusion. what is likely dx?

A

meniscal tear.

also may have locking or catching when the joint is extended while under load.

dx with MRI

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29
Q

What is the best predictor of prognosis of pt with brain tumor astrocytoma of the following: size, metastatic disease, degree of anaplasia, location of tumor, or vascular invasion

A

degree of anaplasia (GBM is a grade IV astrocytoma with worst prognosis).

metastatic disease is rare because pt usually dies before this happens

size and location effect symptoms

neovascularity is negative prognostic factor but pt with vascular invasion does not necessarily have a worse prognosis

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30
Q

IL-1 receptor antagonists are useful in treatment of what?

A

RA

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31
Q

TNF-alpha inhibitors are useful in tx of what?

A

RA and Crohn’s

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32
Q

What is Imatinib and what does it treat?

A

it inhibits the product of the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase fusion gene in CML

reminder: CML presents with marked leukocytosis (predominantly neutrophil) whereas CLL is multiple chain lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, mild cytopenias (anemia/platelets) and predominent lymphocytic leukocytosis (shows smudge cells on peripheral smear)

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33
Q

Pt with infective endocarditis may have bacterial emboli to lungs but what about pt with neurologic symptoms?

A

Brain abscess is possible as it is possible to have mitral valve involved not just tricuspid valve.

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34
Q

How could you tell if a pt’s hyponatremia was from fluid loss or renal tubular necrosis based on labs?

A

hypovolemic pt with have stimulation of ADH and urine sodium of <20 whereas RTN pt will have severe hypotension and urine sodium >20

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35
Q
Common bugs associated with the following infections in sickle cell patients: 
PNA
Osteomyelitis/septic arthritis
Bacteremia/sepsis
Meningitis
A

PNA-Strep pneumo

Osteo/septic arth-S. aureus and salmonella

Bacteremia/sepsis-S. pneumo and Hib

Meningitis-S. pneumo

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36
Q

who do you give abx prophylaxis to prevent infective endocarditis prior to invasive procedures such as dental procedures?

A

Those with:

  • prosthetic heart valve
  • Previous hx of IE
  • Structurally abnormal heart valve in a transplanted heart
  • Certain congenital disease (unrepaired cyannotic CHD, repaired CHD with prosthetic material within 6 mos of repair, repaired CHD with residual defects)

IT IS NOT recommended in pt with mitral valve prolapse, or other acquired valvular dysfunction (rheumatic fever), and relatively low-risk congenital heart disease( ASD, bicuspid)

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37
Q

How do you calculate sensitivty and specificity?

A

SN= TP/ (TP+FN)

SP= TN/ (TN+ FP)

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38
Q

What is the pharmacotherapy for acute dystonia in a pt treated with antipsychotic?

A

Benztropine or diphenhydramine

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39
Q

Injury to the radial nerve would cause what on exam?

A

wrist drop, decreased sensation over dorsum of hand

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40
Q

Which form of dementia is associated with impaired acteylcholine synthesis?

A

Alzheimer disease

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41
Q

How hypertensive would you expect to see a pt with renal artery stenosis?

A

severe htn >180/120

and recurrent flash pulmonary edema

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42
Q

young boy with trinucleotide repeat on the X chromosome makes you think?

A

fragile X syndrome

intellectual disability, autistic behavior, elongated face with large ear and enlarged testes

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43
Q

Pt with hx of breast cancer has labs that show thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased INR which are indicative of what?

A

DIC

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44
Q

Pt with findings consistent with DIC (thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased INR) also shows elevated LDH, reticulocyte count, and bilirubin which is consistent with what process and due to what mechanism?

A

consistent with hemolysis from MAHA (commonly associated with DIC, but can occur without DIC. Schistocytes on smear)

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45
Q

What pathology is associated with the following on cardiac auscultation: loud first heart sound, early diastolic sound after second heart sound, (opening snap) and low pitched mid-diastolic murmur best heard at apex.

A

Mitral Stenosis

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46
Q

What is the USPSTF recommendations for breast cancer screening?

A

Mammogram q2y for women 50-74

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47
Q

In adults, the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome is ?

A

FSGS

particularly Af Am

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48
Q

teen who presents with progression from absence to myoclonic to generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Typically occur upon awakening. dx?

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

symptoms can worsen with sleep deprivation.

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49
Q

Why are nitrates used in MIs and angina?

A

preferential venodilation treats the pain caused by cardiac ischemia

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50
Q

what is febuxostat?

A

xanthine oxidase inhibitor used in gout to decrease uric acid production. Allopurinol is preferred so febuxostat reserved for those who cannot tolerate allopurinol

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51
Q

what is probenacid

A

a gout medication to increase uric acid excretion in the kidneys

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52
Q

decerscendo diastolic murmur along the left sternal border at the third and fourth interspace is due to what?

A

Aortic regurg

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53
Q

What kind of murmur do you hear with aortic root dilation and where is best spot to hear it?

A

decrescendo diastolic murmur just like in aortic regurg but with root dilation its best heard along the right sternal border (not the left like in AR)

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54
Q

when will you see xanthochromia in the CSF?

A

with subarach hem

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55
Q

what is factitious disorder

A

making it up to assume the sick role (no secondary gain)

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56
Q

Do you do further workup in pediatric population with sore throat, cough, runny nose, and oral vesicles?

A

no. likely viral, herpangina

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57
Q

Pheochromocytoma arises from what cells?

A

neuroendocrine cells of the adrenal medulla

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58
Q

pt presents with poor energy, weight gain and psychosis. What lab should you order to rule out possible cause

A

TSH r/o hypothyroid

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59
Q

treatment for pt with perforated ulcer?

A

urgent ex-lap

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60
Q

What is pubic symphysis diastasis?

A

can occur after traumatic delivery and presents with radiating suprapubic pain exacerbated by weight-bearing. Treatment is conservative with supportive care.

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61
Q

What is the most common malignancy diagnosed in patients exposed to asbestos?

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

especially in smokers

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62
Q

delayed carotid pulses and midsystolic murmur over right sternal border suggest? What else might be seen in severe cases?

A

Aortic stenosis

In severe dz: diminished and delayed carotid pulse (pulsus parvus and tardus) due to blood flow obstruction. Mid- to late-peaking systolic murmur from turbulence due to the stenosis. Presence of soft and single second heart sound (S2)

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63
Q

Mid to late diastolic murmur at apex is suggestive of?

A

mitral stenosis

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64
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic disorder characterized by intravascular and extravascular hemolysis and hemaglobinuria?

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

most patients present in 4th decade with: hemolysis leading to hemoglobinuria, Cytopenias (fatigue and dyspnea from anemia), Hypercoaguable stat (portal vein thrombosis etc causing acute abdominal pain)

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65
Q

after 6 mos of age, inadequate dietary intake becomes the most important cause of what deficiency?

A

Iron

(little kid drinking only cows milk with microcytic anemia

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66
Q

Diagnosis requires > or = how many of the 9 symptoms of depression and for how long?

A

5/9 for at least 2 weeks

in addition to support groups etc you have to recommend antidepressant therapy and pyschotherapy

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67
Q

Tinea versicolor is the only tinea infection NOT caused by what? and what causee Tinea versicolor?

A

not caused by a derpatophyte infection

it is caused by Malassezia furfur or Malassezia globosa

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68
Q

differential for anterior mediastinal mass?

A

4Ts: Thymoma, Teratoma (or other germ cell tumor), thyroid neoplasm, and terrible lymphoma

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69
Q

What lab would be elevated in a nonseminomatous germ cell tumor that would not be elevated in seminomatous germ cell tumor?

A

AFP is elevated in non-seminoma and will not be elevated in seminoma

beta-hcg will be elevated in both

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70
Q

child with recurrent bacterial infections, severe peridontitis, and marked leukocytosis is consistent with ?

A

Leaukocytosis adhesion deficiency (LAD)

caused by defective integrins

exam shows inflammation with lack of purulence.

first presentation of LAD is delayed umbilical cord separation

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71
Q

What management do you use if endometriosis is suspected and conservative treatment with NSAIDs and OCPs isnt helping pain/ sx’s?

A

Laparoscopy indicated after failure of empiric therapy

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72
Q

What is Riluzole?

A

A glutamate inhibitor approved for use in ALS

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73
Q

Risk factors for ARDS other than intubated ICU pt?

A

Infection (sepsis), trauma, massive transfusion, acute pancreatitis

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74
Q

what is cutoff of normal thickness endometrial strip?

A

= 4mm

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75
Q

what is dactylitis?

A

(hand-foot syndrome) can be the earliest manifestation of vaso-occlusion in sickle cell disease pt.

usually presents at 6mos to 4 years with acute pain and severe swelling of hands and feet. Low grade fever sometimes present

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76
Q

what do you think of when you read endocardial cushion defect?

A

ASD

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77
Q

continuous flow murmur that is often asymptomatic and detected incidentally on routine cardiac auscultation?

A

PDA

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78
Q

What’s the treatment for iron poisoning?

A

deferoxamine, binds ferric iron allowing urinary excretion

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79
Q

How do you treat BV in a pregnant pt?

A

same as non pregnant pt. Metronidazole

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80
Q

Benign intracranial HTN has what serious possible complication if ICP is not lowered?

A

blindness

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81
Q

differential dx for pt with marfanoid body habitus?

A

Marfan syndrome and Homocystinuria

homocystinuria is AR error in methionine synthesis. associated with intellectual disability and thrombosis (downward lens dislocation vs marfan which is upward lens dislocation)

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82
Q

High dose IV acyclovir can cause what renal injury?

A

crystal induced AKI where crystalluria can cause renal obstruction

administering IV fluids concurrently with the drug can help reduce the risk of acute kidney injury

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83
Q

Microcytic anemia , disproportionately elevated RBC count and peripheral smear with hypochromia and poikilocytes including target cells is indicative of?

A

Beta-thalassemia minor

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84
Q

child age 2-5 with abnormally low platelet count (<100,000) resulting in increased bruising and bleeding following viral infection?

A

ITP

no treatment needed

Glucocorticoids or IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) is first line treatment with mucosal bleeding

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85
Q

What BUN:Cr ratio is suggestive of pre-renal AKI?

A

> 20:1

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86
Q

Which types of bacteria would you expect to see in early (<3months) vs delayed (3-12 months) prosthetic joint infection? how do the presentations differ other than timing?

A

acute (< 3 months) acute pain, wound infection or brreakdown, fever - S. aureus, G- rod, anaerobe

delayed (3-12mos) chronic joint pain, implant loosening, sinus tract formation - coagulase negative staph (like staph epi), propionibacterium, enterococci

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87
Q

pt with hx of gallstones presents with colicky pain, hyperactive bowel sounds, and peumobilia on CT, dx?

A

gallstome ileus

treatment is surgical

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88
Q

treatment of mild and severe or worsening croup?

A

mild-corticosteroids

severe - corticosteroids (dexamethasone) and nebulized epinepherine

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89
Q

Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sertraline, citalopram, escitalopram, and fluvoxamine are all??

A

SSRIs

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90
Q

Venlafaxine, desvenlafaxine and duloxetine are all???

A

SNRIs

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91
Q

Buproprion has what MOA?

A

Norepi and dopamine reuptake inhibitor

does not cause weight gain or sexual side effects

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92
Q

Phenelzine and Nortriptyline are ??

A

MAOIs

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93
Q

Vortioxetine is what kind of drug?

A

serotonin modulator

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94
Q

Placenta accreta typically occurs in pt’s with what hx?

A

Prior c-section, myomecyomy or D&C

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95
Q

what is immediate tx for uterine inversion?

A

put it back manually with your hands!

utertonic administration before replacement may make uterine replacement impossible to perform!

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96
Q

Symmetric decel and return to baseline of fetal HR with contraction suggests what etiology?

A

fetal head compression

no treatment is necessary

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97
Q

Late decel that mirrors conrtaction has what etiology?

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

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98
Q

Variable decels with contractions indicate?

A

cord compression, oligo, or cord prolapse

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99
Q

dysgerminomas secrete ?

A

LDH or beta-hcg

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100
Q

Mature teratomas are concerning?

A

they are benign and may secrete thyroid hormone (struma ovarii)

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101
Q

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors secrete?

A

androgens (testosterone and androtestenedione typically causing virilization

amenorrhea, deep voice, clitoromegaly in females

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102
Q

Yolk sac tumors secrete?

A

AFP

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103
Q

tomoxifen puts women at risk for what due to its MOA?

A

endometrial polyps in premenopausal and endometrial hyperplasia and cancer in post menopausal women due to estrogen agonist in the uterus.

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104
Q

inferior wall MI is due to occlusion of what coronary artery causing damage to what area of the heart?

A

Right coronary causing RV infarct

RV failure leads to decreased preload and resultant hypotension

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105
Q

What lab findings might you see in a pt with tubo-ovarian abscess?

A

nonspecific (leukocytosis, CRP, CA-125)

CA-125 elevation is nonspecific and does not indicate malignancy

also pt with fever suggests infection rather than malignancy

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106
Q

What do you see with kawasaki disease

what is tx?

A

aka mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome. It’s a vasulitis characterized by FEVER >/= 5days in addition to at least 4 of the following:

Conjunctivitis (bilateral non exudative
Oral mucosal changes (erythemia, fissured lips, “strawberry tongue”)
Rash
Extremity changes (erythema, edema, desquamation of the hands and feet
Cervical lymphadenopathy: > 1.5cm node

IV immunoglobulin should be started within 10 days of fever onset to help prevent coronary artery aneurysms

Aspirin indicated to help with inflammation and antiplatelet effect (even with risk of reye still give it).

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107
Q

Pt’s with what hx are more susceptible to molluscum contagiosum infection?

A

Imparied CELLULAR immunity (HIV)

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108
Q

pt wit cold symptoms and cough that screams viral infection also has some crackles at one lung base. Management?

A

have to get chest xray to look for possible consolidation

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109
Q

Vaginal bleeding, malodorous discharge, and ulcerated vaginal lesion are concerning for what in post menopausal woman>

A

vaginal squamous cell carcinoma

need vaginal biopsy for dx

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110
Q

skin necrosis at injection site of a pt who recently started subQ hepain screams what?!

A

HIT

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111
Q

which biliary disease is assocaited with UC?

A

PSC

PBC is middle aged women with anti-mito antibodies

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112
Q

CKD pt with pleuritic chest pain, friction rub, and BUN 90 likely is suffering from what?

A

Uremic pericarditis - needs dialysis

typically happens with BUN >60

usually doesnt have the classic EKG findings associated with pericarditis

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113
Q

slowly developing back pain with neurologic dysfunction and palpable step off deformity in the lumbosacral area is typical for ?

A

spondylolisthesis

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114
Q

short stature, aortic coarctation, and absence of menarche in young girl likely due to?

A

turner syndrome 45 X

estrogen deficient risk of osteoporotic fracture

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115
Q

How would you differentiate a diverticular bleed from hemorrhoids?

A

diverticular bleeds are typically painless (hemorrhoids can also be painless) but hemorrhoids will not usually cause enough bleeding to compromise hemodynamic status (diverticular might)

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116
Q

Pt with itching after bathing, facial plethora and splenomegaly screams what? what is MOA of dz and what lab is characteristically DECREASED?

A

Polycythemia vera

JAK2 mutation for constitutive activation resulting in high erythrocytes (also high leukocytes and thrombocytes)

will have LOW EPO levels

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117
Q

Can a mom with HepC breast feed?

A

yes. Breastfeeding does not increase the risk of HCV transmission to the neonate

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118
Q

Are HepA and HepB vaccines safe in pregnancy?

A

Yes they are inactivated vaccines

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119
Q

Would you adjust a pt’s levothyroxine if they become pregnant?

A

yes. Pt’s with hypothyroidism should increase dose because in pregnancy you make more thyroid binding globulin andif you are hypothyroid you cant make extra hormone

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120
Q

Lithium and Valproate are first line for bipolar maintenance. In what pt population would you avoid either drug (ie what chronic disease would make you not prescribe either drug)

A

Lithium is avoided in pt’s with renal dysfunction because it can lead to high levels and toxicity.

Valproate needs to be monitored for hepatotocixity and thrombocytopenia

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121
Q

Constipation, back pain, and lab evidence of anemia, renal insufficiency and hypercalcemia indicate what malignancy?

A

Multiple Myeloma

(pt will have M-spike) and peripheral smear with ROULEAUX

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122
Q

why does excess gastric acid in ZES lead to diarrhea and steatorrhea?

A

because of inactivation of pancreatic enzymes and injury to the mucosal brush border

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123
Q

Why are ace inhibitors given to CHF patients

A

to lessen ventricular remodeling

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124
Q

which traumatic penetrating wounds require emergent ex lap?

A

Any penetrating injury in the thorax below the level of the nipples has potential to involve the abdomen through the diaphragm and is assumed to involve both compartments until proven otherwise

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125
Q

If a suicidal teenager refuses hospitalization and asks you not to tell his parents about his plans what do you do?

A

Inform the parents and hospitalize him immediately with or without parental consent

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126
Q

PAP result comes back with high grade squamous intraepithelial lesion what is next step in management?

A

colposcopy to evaluate and visualize lesion

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127
Q

Osteoarthritis of the foot usually involves what areas?

A

the mid foot and first metatarsophalangeal joint

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128
Q

A young girl who presents with primary amenorrhea and male- range testosterone levels with no cervix on exam likely has what?

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome (46XY)

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129
Q

What is the treatment for lymes in a patient <8yo

A

oral amoxicillin or cefuroxime

no flouroquinolones this young

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130
Q

Most common cause of acute and recurrent headaches in the pediatric population?

A

Migraines. First line treatment is Tylenol, NSAIDs and supportive management

triptans may be tried if these are not effective

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131
Q

What is somatic symptom disorder?

A

Excessive anxiety and thoughts about the seriousness of at least 1 somatic symptom.

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132
Q

What causes low FSH and estradiol in females with irregular menses and infertility?

A

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism via loss of GnRH pulsatile secretion precipitated by weight loss, stress, or chronic illness.

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133
Q

What is false labor?

A

Mild irregular contractions that DO NOT cause cervical change (ie braxton hicks)

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134
Q

What labs will you see in someone suspected to have antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

prolonged PTT because the lupus anticoagulant binds phospholipids

this finding is artifact and does not correlate with bleeding.

20-40% will also have thrombocytopenia even though they are hypercoagulable

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135
Q

what is the initial test for someone with high likelihood of DVT?

A

Compression US

d-dimer is more helpful to rule out and is not very specific if positive

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136
Q

What happens to reticulocytes and platelets in aplastic crisis?

A

increased reticulocytes (compensatory) and decreased platelets (they are trapped in spleen)

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137
Q

What differences do you see in RDW and reticulocyte count with thalessemia vs iron deficiency anemia?

A

Thal will have normal RDW and retics might be slightly elevated or normal

Iron def will have increased RDW and low retics

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138
Q

When would you typically see a drug fever after administration of drug?

A

1-2 weeks post admin

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139
Q

pt population most at risk for osteosarcoma?

where do you usually see it on the bone? what does it look like?

A

it is the most common primary bone tumor in children and young adults. Boys between ages 13-16 are at higher risk

seen frequently at the metaphyses of long bones such as distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus.

typically see spiculated “sunburt” pattern and peristeal elevation (Codmans triangle)

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140
Q

what do you see on Xray with Ewing Sarcoma?

A

osteolytic lesion with a periosteal reacion - “onion skin” appearance

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141
Q

Bortholin duct systs are found in what area?

A

4 and 8 ocklock positions of the labia majora

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142
Q

Spondyloarthropathies are characterized by what type of pain?

A

back pain and stiffness that worsens with rest and improves with activity

(aka ankylosing spondylitis)

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143
Q

Limited upward gaze, upper eyelid retraction and pupils non reactive to light but reactive to accommodation indicated what?

A

Parinaud syndrome (like from pineal growth in the dorsal midbrain)

can also cause obstructive hydrocephalus resulting in headache and vomiting

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144
Q

When do you and when do you not prescribe oral antibiotics for kid with otitis media?

when are tubes necessary?

A

All infants <6mos and >/=6 mos w/ high fever, severe pain, or bilateral disease.

pt =6mos with low grade fever, mild or no pain, and unilateral disease gets analgesia and observation as an option.

Recommend tubes for >/=3 episodes of otitis in 6 mos or >/=4 episodes in 12 months

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145
Q

What are the first line treatments for smoking cessation?

A

Nicotene replacement therapy, varenicline, and bupropion.

Bupropion is contraindicated in pt with seizures or any pt who may have acitve bulimia

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146
Q

Acute onset of psychotic symptoms (bizarre behavior, auditory hallucinations) in a child or adolescent with neurological symptoms (slurred speech, drooling, or hand tremor) and abnormal LFTs are concerning for?

A

Wilson disease

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147
Q

Sickle cell pt with acute drop in hgb, low retic count, without splenomegaly is consistent with ?

A

aplastic crisis

functional systolic murmur may be present due to hyperdynamic blood flow

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148
Q

Vaccination for medically stable preterm infants should be given according to what age (gestational or chronilogic)

A

Chronologic age not gestational.

All stable preterm infants should receive the first dose of HepB at birth (unless weighs <2kg) and HepB dose 2, rotavirus, tetanus, diptheria, acellular pertussis, Hib, pneumococcal, and inactivated polio at 2 mos

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149
Q

treatment for symptomatic 3rd degree AV block?

A

temporary pacemaker to look for reversible cause then permanent pacemaker if no reversible cause found.

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150
Q

Will ECT pt most likely experience anterograde or retrograde amnesia?

A

Both

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151
Q

Acute renal transplant rejection (days) should be treated with?

A

IV steroids

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152
Q

What do you see with digoxin toxicity?

A

Diarrhea, nausea, and fatigue

typically presents with N/V decreased appetite, confusion and weakness.

may also have visual symptoms of scotomata, blurry vision with color changes or blindness.

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153
Q

Treatment for restless legs?

A

Iron supplementation for deficiency, conservative measures, and pharmacotherapy with dopamine agonsits (pramipexole) or alpha-2-de;ta calcium ligands (gabapentin)

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154
Q

hypercalcemia with low PTH is concerning for what in a pt with non specific symptoms

A

malignancy

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155
Q

Hemiparesis and aphasia after injury to the posterior pharynx are suspicious for what type of injury?

A

Injury to the cervical internal carotid artery, which is located directly lateral and posterior to the tonsilar pillars

injury can result in dissection or thrombus, which occurs over hours to days and can extend into the MCA and ACA. Pt may develop thunderclap headache and sx of ischemic stroke (hemiparesis, facial droop, aphasia). confirm dx with CT or MR angiography

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156
Q

What is Zenker’s diverticulum?

A

most common in elderly patients, particularly men. occurs in posterior lower cervical esophagus near the cricopharyngeal muscle

Patients may complain of dysphagia and regurgitation often have halitosis and are at risk for aspiration pneumonia

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157
Q

what happens to amount of amniotic fluid if pregnancy goes past 41 weeks>

A

Uteroplacental insufficiency results in chronic fetal hypoxemia and CNS suppression that can lead to fetal demise. To prevent suppression, blood is preferentially distributed to the brain rather than the peripheral tissue. This redistribution can be evidenced on US as OLIGOHYDRAMNIOS as amniotic fluid is dependent on renal perfusion and urine production

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158
Q

What does HELLP stand for?

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes and Low Platelets

serious liver problems include centrilobular necrosis, hematoma formation, and thrombi in the portal capillary system. These processes cause swelling and distension of the hepatic (Glisson’s) capsule, resulting in RUQ or epigastric pain

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159
Q

Treatment for intra-amniotic infection is?

A

broad spectrum abx and immediate delivery via augmentation of labor

C-section is reserved for standard OB indications (non-reassuring fetal tracing, breech presentation, prior uterine surgeries)

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160
Q

workup of baby with asymptomtic murmur likely due to VSD?

A

echo to evaluate location and rule out other defects. most small VSDs close spontaneously and require no treatment

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161
Q

Obese boy comes in with hip or knee pain of insidious onset causing limping. PE shows loss of abduction and internal rotation of the hip as well as external rotation of the thigh while the hip is being flexed. dx?

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

displacement of the femoral head on the femoral neck due to disruption of the proximal femoral growth plate.

should be promptly treated with surgical pinning of the slipped epiphysis to lessen risk of avascular necrosis

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162
Q

lymphocytic predominant leukocytosis in a kid that had bad cough that made him puke but is otherwise afebrile and VS normal?

A

Pertussis aka whooping cough

tx is macrolides

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163
Q

What are the medications used to treat alzheimer disease

A

Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine

cholinesterase inhibitors

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164
Q

pt is hyponatremic to 128 and is in DKA, what fluids do you give to correct sodium?

A

NS -

pt’s in DKA can have pseudohyponatremia due to hyperglycemia

hypertonic saline is reserved for true (severe) hyponatremia

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165
Q

Pt with ESRD needs to be put on a blood thinner, what is preferred tx?

A

warfarin is preferred long term and to bridge use unfractionated heparin

LMWH (enoxaparin) and rivaroxaban are not recommended in ESRD because they are metabolized by the kidney and can reach toxic levels

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166
Q

abx tx of choice for human bite?

A

amoxicillin clavulanate due to good G- and G+ and beta lactamase producing organism coverage

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167
Q

Old man recently started on anti-depressant and cant pee, which drug was he given?

A

Amitriptyline (or another TCA)

a TCA with anticholinergic properties ca result in urinary retention

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168
Q

fever, back pain, and focal spinal tenderness suggest?

A

infection such as vertebral osteomyelitis

needs MRI

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169
Q

Most common cause of short stature and pubertal delay in adolescents?

A

Constitutional growth delay characterized by delayed growth spurt, delayed puberty, and delayed bone age.

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170
Q

GCS is scored of what three categories?

A

Eye opening, Verbal response, motor response

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171
Q

What labs do you order before starting Lithium?

A

BMP, UA, Calcium, pregnancy test (in women), and thyroid function tests.

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172
Q

first line therapy for social anxiety disorder?

A

SSRI or SNRI with CBT

beta blocker or benzo only for the performance subtype

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173
Q

60 yo female with adnexal mass and hx highly suspicious for ovarian cancer should uet what type of management>

A

Ex lap with surgical staging

biopsy could lead to rupture of the mass and resultant spreading of cancerous cells

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174
Q

What is hyposthenuia and what patients do you see it in?

A

Inability to concentrtae urine by the kidneys. Seen in sickle cell and sometimes sickle cell trait

In response to hypoxic, hyperosmolar conditions of the renal medulla, red blood cells sickle in the vasa recta, impairing free water reabsoprtion and countercurrent exchange. Pt typically has polyuria and nocturia despite fluid restriction. Urine osmolality is low; however, normal serum sodium is maintained due to intact ADH

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175
Q

Victims of smoke inhalation should be treated empirically for what kind of poisoning?

A

Cyanide poisoning. with an antidote such as hydroxycobalamin or sodium thiosulfite with nitrates to induce methemaglobinemia.

Hydrogen cyanide and carbon monoxide are the 2 major products of combustion in closed spaces.

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176
Q

How can antipsychotics contribute to infertility?

A

By blocking dopamine-2 receptors in the infundibular pathway, the production of prolactin increases which can result in galactorrhea, menstrual irregluarities, and infertility

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177
Q

Renal vein thrombosis is associated with causes of nephrotic syndrome but most commonly with which nephropathy?

A

Membranous glomerulopathy.

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178
Q

Adhesions and fibrosis of the shoulder joint synovial lining describe what pneomenon?

A

Adhesive capsilitis “frozen Shoulder”

persistent pain with decreased ROM in multiple planes. can be idiopathic or due to underlying pathology.

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179
Q

HSP is associated with what GI complication due to intestinal edema and bleeding

A

Intussusception

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180
Q

Hypercalcemia, hypophosphatemia, and elevated PTH are consistent with ?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

recommend parathyroidectomy if pt has complications such as osteoporosis, (Tscore 1mg/dL above normal, urinary excretion of calcium >400mg/day

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181
Q

features of cocaine withdrawal?

A

Predominantly psychological features: depression, fatigue, hypersomnia, increased dreaming, hyperphagia, impaired concentration, and intense drug craving

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182
Q

what is the most accurate method of determining gestational age?

A

First tri ultrasound with crown-rump length

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183
Q

Why do women get HELLP syndrome? MOA?

A

abnormal placentation, triggering systemic inflammation and activation of the coagulation system and complement cascade.

circulating platelets are rapidly consumed, MAHA it detrimental to the liver resulting in hepatocellular necrosis and trhombi in the portal system

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184
Q

Treatment for HELLP syndrome?

A

Delivery, Mg for seizure prophylaxis, and antihypertensives

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185
Q

What cardiac pt’s cannot receive PDE-5 inhibitors for ED? (who doesn’t get to have viagra?)

A

anyone on a nitrate or alpha blocker due to risk of hypotension

beta blockers are ok

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186
Q

Elderly pt with hypercalcemia, normocytic anemia, renal insufficiency, and protein gap (difference between total protein and albumin >4g/dL)

A

Multiple Myeloma

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187
Q

What are the contraindications to the rotavirus vaccine?

A

Previous anaphylaxis to ingredients, hx of intussusception, hx of uncorrected congenital malformation of GI tract (meckel’s), SCID

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188
Q

Causes of NORMAL anion gap mebanolic acidosis

A

Diarrhea, fistulat (pancreatic, ileocutaneous etc), Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, Renal tubular acidosis, ureteral diversion (ileal loop), iatrogenic

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189
Q

Non-anion gap metabolic acidosis in presence of conserved kidney function indicates?

A

Renal Tubular acidosis

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190
Q

Which type of RTA is seen in porrly controlled diabetes?

A

hyperkalemic RTA (type 4 RTA)

damage to the juxtaglomerular apparatus, causes state of hyporenimic hypoaldosteronism

low aldo causes retention of H+ and K+

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191
Q

Dilation of the papiniform plexus describes what?

A

A varicocele

soft, irregular mass (“bag of worms”) that increases in size with standing and valsalva

more common on left side bc left spermatic vein drains to the left renal artery which then passes between the SMA and aorta prone to compression.

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192
Q

Most common causes of viral meningitis?

A

enteroviruses like coxsackievirus

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193
Q

An ovarian mass in a postmenopausal pt is very concerning for malignancy and should be investigated by?

A

pelvic US and CA-125 measurement

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194
Q

What is preferred option for renal transplant: living related donor, non-related donor, or cadaveric donor?

A

living related then living non then cadaver

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195
Q

Labs seen in pt with turner syndrome?

A

elevated FSH and LH with low estrogen, low testosterone

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196
Q

what is d-xylose test for?

A

test for intestinal malabsorption (celiac dz)

d-xylose is a monosach that can be absorbed in the proximal intestine without degradation and then excreted in urine. Pt with proximal intestinal mucosal dz (celiac) cannot absorb and urinary and serum levels of d-xylose will be low, Pt with malabsorption due to enzyme deficiency (pancreatitis) will have normal absorption.

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197
Q

Old person with UTI acting crazy, psychological dx?

A

Delirium

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198
Q

What is a restrictive pattern of PFTs?

what about obstructive?

A

reduced vital capacity and total lung capacity with normal FEV1/FVC ratio

obstructive: reduced FEV1(<80%) and FEV1/FVC (<70%)

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199
Q

Child with recurrent cutaneous and pulmonary infections with catalse positive bacterial and fungal organisms

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

Leukocyte, platelet, and B and T cell concentrations are normal

Dx made by oxidative burst testing (dihydrorhodamine or nitroblue tetrazolium testing) and confirmed by gene testing

pts should receive abx prophylaxis with TMP_SMX and itraconazole

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200
Q

What is Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome?

A

overgrowth disorder characterized by predisposition to neoplasms. Most patients have sporadic or inherited alteration of chromosome 11p15, which includes genes that encode insulin-like growth factor 2, a growth promoting hormone similar to insulin. At birth, classic findings include

macrosomia, macroglossia, hemihyperplasia, and medial abdominal wall defects ( umbilical hernia, omphalocele)

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201
Q

Anorexia vs bulimia vs binge eating?

A

Anorexia-significantly low weight (binge/purge subtypes)

bulimia: recurrent binging with compensatory behavior like vomiting or exercise, worry about body and maintains NORMAL weight

binge-eating: no compensatory behavior just recurrent binging with lack of control

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202
Q

In child, viral URI followed by heart failure symptoms is most likely caused by?

A

Viral myocarditis (coxssackie B or adenovirus)

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203
Q

Because urine protein dipstick has high false-positive and false-negative during pregnancy the findings should be confirmed by?

A

Urine protein/creatinine ratio or 24-hour collection for total prtoein

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204
Q

difference in serous otitits media and acute otitis media?

A

Serous will not have inflammatory signs like fever tympanic membrane buldging just effusion following AOM treatment and if chronic can lead to hearing loss

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205
Q

In infants, areas of erythematous patches and plaques of yellow, oily scales, and mild pruritis on the scalp, eyelids, nasolabial folds, postauricular area, and umbilicus?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis caused by malassezia species

“cradle cap”

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206
Q

Why do obese people get non-alcoholic fatty liver disease? MOA?

A

increased transport of free fatty acides from adipose to the liver, decreased oxidation of FFA in the liver, or decreased clearance of FFA from the liver (due to decreased VLDL production).

frequently related to Insulin resistance leading to increased peripheral lipolysis, triglyceride synthesis, and hepatic uptake of fatty acides.

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207
Q

Hyperkeratotic papules on the soles of the feet that are painful when walking or standing most commonly in young adults and immunocomprimised

A

HPV

warts

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208
Q

overwhelming life event causes man to forget who he is or how he got to his current location, dx?

A

Dissociative amnesia

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209
Q

Pt with bad chest trauma post MVA with pneumomediastinum, and subcutaneous emphysema on physical exam despite placement of chest tube is consistent with?

A

Tracheobronchial rupture

esophageal rupture is more from ednoscopy or esophagitis not blunt force trauma

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210
Q

When does MG typically present in Males vs Females and with what sx’s? what is the ice pack test?

A

6th-7th decade for men

2nd to 3rd decade for women

symptoms of extraocular (ptosis, diplopia) and bulbar (dysphagia, dysarthria) muscles. Weakness can be exacerbated by meds (aminoglycodsides, magesium, beta blockers, neuromuscular blocking agents), surgery (thymectomy), pregnancy, or infections

Ice pack test is when ice pack applied to eyelids for several minutes leads to improvement of sx’s. Cold temp inhibits breakdown of ACh at neuromuscular junctionincreasing availability to nicotinic receptor. Pt with + test should get MG confirmed with AChR antibody testing.

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211
Q

Most common cause of unilateral bloody discharge from the breast without a coexisting breast mass?

A

Intraductal papilloma

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212
Q

What is fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

Non-inflammatory nonatherosclerotic condition most common in women 15-50. primarily affects renal arteries causing HTN. Involvement of the Cerebrovascular arteries (carotid, vertebral) can cause symptoms of brain ischemia (TIA, amaurosis fugax, stroke) or non specific sx’s (HA, pulsatile tinnitus, dizziness).

DX confirmed by CT or US

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213
Q

Adverse effects of Tomoxifen (SERMs)

A

Hot flashes, Cenous Thromboembolis, Endometrial hyperplasia & carcinoma

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214
Q

Nodular pattern of radioactive isotope uptake on thyroid scan is indicative of what vs a diffuse pattern?

A

Toxic adenoma or multinodular goiter

diffuse indicated Graves (usually other sx’s too like exopthalmos and pre-tibial myxedema)

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215
Q

Mom brings in kid concerned about possible developmental delay and pt only hx if multiple ear infections and eczema

A

check hearing for conductive hearing loss that is parading as developmental delay

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216
Q

Common symtpoms of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy include?

A

syncope, dyspnea, and chest pain

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217
Q

Peripheral neuropathy of the facial nerve is what Dx?

A

Bells palsy

inability to raise eyebrow or close eye, drooping of the mouth corner and disappearance of the nasolabial fold. If pt can still crinkle forehead this suggests central lesion

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218
Q

Atypical glandular cells on Pap testing in women >/=35 or <35 with risk factors (obesity, anovulation) requires evaluation for what? and how?

A

may be due to cervical or endometrial cancer

investigate with colposcopy, endocervical curettage, and endometrial biopsy to evaluate ectocervix, endocervix, and endometrium

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219
Q

Most commonly injured nerve with anterior shoulder dislocation? symptoms?

A

Axillary nerve

innervation to the teres minor and deltoid - weakness in abduction with injury

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220
Q

Do binge eating disorder pt’s have compensatory behavior>

A

no

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221
Q

how do you evaluate secondary amenorrhea (pt had cycles before now >/=3 cycles or >=6 months of no period)

A

beta hcg to r/o pregnancy, then prolactin+TSH+FSH

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222
Q

Pt who wear contact lenses wakes with painful, red eye and opacification and ulceration of the cornea is typical of what?

A

contact lens associated ketatitis - most cases due to Pseudomonas and serratia

medical emergency needs to discard the lenses and get topical abx

cornea is usually spared in bacterial conjunctivitis infections associated with contact lenses

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223
Q

15 yo male presents with worsening articulation and ataxia, MSK exam shows scoliosis and absent deep tendon reflexes in the lower extremities, MRI shows atrophy of the medulla and dorsal columns of the spinal cord.

Dx and usual complication that can be fatal?

A

Friederich ataxia

GAA

clinical features include: cerebellar ataxia, dysarthria, loss of vibration and/or position sense, absent deep tendon reflexes, Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, skeletal deformities (scoliosis), diabetes mellitus

most common COD is cardiac dysfunction

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224
Q

What is avoidant/restrictive eating disorder?

A

lack of interest and avoidance of eating based on the sensory characteristics of food, with onset in infancy or early childhood

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225
Q

What is the tx for Erb-duschene palsy (brachial plexus injury - waiter tip hand)

A

up to 80% of patients have spontaneous recovery within 3 months.

surgical intervention for infants with no improvement 3-6 months

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226
Q

Osteomyelitis in sickle cell pt most likely due to?

A

salmonella and Saureus

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227
Q

Prolonged administration of high doses of oxytocin can result in what complication?

A

water intoxication and hyponatremia

oxytocin looks like ADH

hyponatremic sx’s include HA, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and tonic-clonic seizures.

treat with hypertonic saline

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228
Q

What drug therapies are used to prevent recurrent nephrolithiasis

A

Thiazide diuretic (less calcium excreted in urine), urine alkalinization (potassium citrate. bicarbonate salt), Allopurinol (for hyperuricosuria-related stones)

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229
Q

RA typically involves what area of the spine?

A

cervical spine

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230
Q

when do you start screening women with dexa scan for osteoporosis?

A

> =65 as well as <65 who have an equivalent risk of fx

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231
Q

single most important prognostic consideration in the treatment of pt with breast cancer?

A

Tumor burden (TMN staging)

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232
Q

pharmacotherapy for pagets disease?

A

bisphosphonates

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233
Q

what medications can cause pseudotumor cerebri aka IIH?

A

growth hormone, tetracyclines, and excessive vitamin A and its derivitives (isoretinoin, all-transretinoic acid)

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234
Q

what is pulsus paradoxus?

A

exaggerated fall in systemic BP >10 furing inspiration. it is found in carciac tamponade but also can occur in conditions without pericardial effusion such as severe asthma or COPD

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235
Q

key difference between dissociative amnesia and transient global amnesia>

A

DA: localized or selective amnesia for a particular event with inability to recall personal identity

TGA: anterograde amnesia for time and place but NO LOS OF PERSONAL IDENTITY. typically resolves in 24 hrs

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236
Q

Persistent pneumothorax and significant air leak following chest tube placement in pt with blunt force trauma to chest suggests? (hint pt has pneumomediastinum and subcutaneous emphysema)

A

tracheobronchial rupture

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237
Q

Delayed (slow-rising) and diminished (weak) carotid pulse (“Pulsus parvus and tardus”), presence of single and soft second heart sound (S2), Mid- to late- peaking systolic murmur with maxima intesity at the second right intercostal space ratiating to thecarotids

all suggestive of ???

A

Severe aortic stenosis

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238
Q

Pt received epidural for labor, 6 hrs later has continuous small amounts of urine since delivery, has edematous perineal area

how do you manage urinary sx’s?

A

urethral catheter

drainage of >=150mL confirms retention, catheterization also decompresses the bladder

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239
Q

presenting features of herpetic whitlow?

A

tingling and burning of the hand associated with localized vesicular rash. Symptoms WOULD NOT BE bilateral and symmetric.

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240
Q

timeline of alcoholic withdrawal symptoms from 6hrs to 96 hrs

A

6-24hr: mild withdrawal-anxiety, insomnia, tremors, diaphoresis, palpitations, GI upset, intract orientation
12-24hr: seizures - single or multiple generalized tonic-clonic seizure
12-48: visual, auditory, or tactile hallucinations, intact orientation, stable vital signs
48-96hr: delerium tremens

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241
Q

Marfan pt with acute chest pain should be evaluated for???

A

acute aortic dissection

exam may show >20 variation in SBP between arms. pt with dissection or progressive aortic root dilatation can develop aortic regurgitation (early crescendo decrescendo diastolic murmur.

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242
Q

infant with anemia, increased MCHC, indirect hyperbili, and negative coombs is indicative of >

A

hereditary spherocytosis

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243
Q

what will muscle biopsy show for pt with duschene MD? is muscle biopsy the gold standard for DX?

A

will show absent dystrophin,

gold standard is genetic testing

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244
Q

What non stimulant can be prescribed in adult ADHD?

A

atomoxetine

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245
Q

which has low complement levels post strep GN or IgA nephropathy?

A

PSGN

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246
Q

eval for pt with blunt genitourinary trauma?

A

UA and if hematura and stable ctrast CT

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247
Q

severe symptomatic hypercalcemia (>14mg/dL) can cause what sx’s?

tx?

A

weakness, GI upset and neuropsychiatric sx’s (confusion, stupor, coma)

treat with saline hydration and calcitonin

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248
Q

treatment for placenta previa?

A

pelvic rest until 36-37 weeks then c section

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249
Q

female on day x of period presents with macular rash involving hands and soles as well as hypotension - dx?

A

TSS Staph aureus

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250
Q

What compound will be elevated in the blood of B12 deficiency? (homocystein, methionin, VMA or ferritin?)

A

homocysteine (needs B12 to go to methionine)

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251
Q

most likely cause of macrocytic anemia in pt with sickle cell?

A

folate deficiency

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252
Q

what is atlantoaxial instability?

A

malformation in 10-15% of downs syndrome pt due to excessive laxity in the posterior transverse ligament, which causes increased mobility between the atlas (c1) and axis (c2)

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253
Q

what are gross motor milestones at 18 months?

A

running, kicking a ball

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254
Q

treatment for narrow complex tachycardia (SVT)

A

adenosine

amiodarone for wide complex tachy (VTACH

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255
Q

female with weight gain, proximal muscle weakness, HTN, easy bruisability, hyperpigmentation, and hyperandrogenism is indicative of?

A

cushings

also may see hyperglycemia, hypokalemia and alkalosis, and hypercortisolism

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256
Q

Any pt with UTI less than age 2 should get what as part of workup?

A

renal & bladder US to evaluate for anatomic abnormalities that could predispose to UTI

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257
Q

What do you hear on pulmonary exam of pleural effusion vs consolidation?

A

pleural effusion: decreased breath sounds and decreased tactile fremitus and dullness to percussion

consolidation: increased breath sounds, dullness to percussion, increased tactile fremitus

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258
Q

black and white rule in pediatric ethics regarding care that parent doesnt want to give?

A

Parent not allowed to refuse life saving treatment

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259
Q

Which antidepressant would you expect withdrawal symptoms from?

A

those with short half life like paroxetine

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260
Q

How do you differentiate normal grief from clinical depression?

A

With normal grief, sadness is typically focused on the deceased and decreases over weeks with intermittent waves mixed with positive memories

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261
Q

What do you expect to see as far as recurrence of symptoms in genital herpes in someone treated vs not treated?

A

treatment mostly makes outbreak shorter and helps reduce recurrence but even without treatment recurrence should be less frequent over time as cell mediated immunity is built up

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262
Q

What is a congenital melanocytic nevus?

A

benign proliferation of melanocytic cells. Present within the first few months of life, usually solitary with dense course hair

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263
Q

What is congenital dermal melanocytosis?

A

(mongolian spots) flat grey blue patches that are poorly circumscribed and will fade with time

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264
Q

Would you still be suspicious for pelvic inflammatory disease (like an abcess from ascending infection) in pt without leukocytosis or fever?

A

this would be very unlikely

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265
Q

what are modifiable risks of breast cancer?

A

alcohol use
nulliparity
Hormone replacement therapy
increased age at first live birth

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266
Q

what kind of prophylaxis should be given to people with hx of rheumatic heart disease?

A

Penicillin to prevent future strep A pharyngitis

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267
Q

inspiratory stridor and barky cough are indicative of ?

A

croup (parainfluenza)

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268
Q

What are the major and minor criteria for acute rheumatic fever?

A

Major: J<3NES - joints (migratory arthritis), carditis, nodules (subcutaneous, eryhtmea marginatum, syndenham chorea

Minor: fever, arthralgias, elevated ESR or CRP, prolonged PR interval

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269
Q

What is breast feeding jaundice?

A

in first week of life hyper unconjugated hyper-bili due to insufficient breast milk intake.

baby will be dehydrated

(conversely breast milk jaundice will appear with adequate intake and no sign of dehydration from 3-5 days and peak at 2 weeks)

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270
Q

What level of prolactin is diagnostic for prolactinoma?

A

> 200 ng/dL

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271
Q

You start CPR, give O2 and attach AED to pt in carciac arrest. monitor reads asystole/PEA, next step?

A

CPR x 2 min, IV access, give epi, place advanced airway

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272
Q

What medication can be prescribed to pt with mild grave diasese?

A

methimazole

most graves will require radioactive iodine and thyroidectomy.

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273
Q

What is PBC associated with?

A

xanthelasmas, severe hyperlipidemia, pruritis, anti-mito antibody, may develop osteoporosis or asteomalacia

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274
Q

Chronic alcohol user with gait instability, truncal ataxia, and difficulty with rapid alternating movements - due to??

A

cerebellar dysfunction “alcoholic cerebellar degeneration”

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275
Q

neonate with painless, illuminescent, scrotal swelling that fluctuates with crying - dx and management?

A

hydrocele

observation

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276
Q

which antibody shows acute hepB infection

A

IgM anti-HBc

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277
Q

child with cafe au lait macules, axillary freckling, and monocular eye protptosis with vision changes likely has?

A

NF1 with optic pathway glioma

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278
Q

What is typical presentation of retinitis pigmentosa?

A

bilateral tunnel vision and eventually blindness

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279
Q

chest/abdominal pain with subcutaneous emphysema suggests?

A

esophageal perf

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280
Q

multiparous woman >40 with dysmenorrhea and heavy mesntrual bleeding (can progress to chronic pelvic pain) and on exam boggy (soft/f;accod) tender, uniformly enlarged uterus…dx?

A

adenomyosis

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281
Q

What would a uterus with fibroids feel like on exam?

A

nontender, firm, and irregularly enlarged.

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282
Q

Pt with hematologic malignancy starts chemo and develops hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia…why? what do you do for managment?

A

Tumor lysis syndrome

IV fluids to flush the kidneys and uric acid metabolism inhibitors like allopurinol and rasburicase

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283
Q

recent URI, dyspnea, elevated JVP, clear lung sounds, and increased cardiac silhoutte on CXR is suggestive of?

A

early cardiac tamponade due to pericardial effusion

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284
Q

pt with COPD and acute onset of SOB, hypoxia and unilateral decreased breath sounds likely has ??

A

secondary spontaneous pneumothorax

may also see CP and hyper-resonance on percussion

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285
Q

what are the VitK dependent factors?

A

II, VII, IX, and X

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286
Q

In the US, the most common cause of constrictive pericarditis is idiopathic or viral (>40%), radiation therapy (30%), cardiac surgery (10%), and connective tissue disorders. What is most common cause in developing countries like Africa, India, and China?

A

tuberculosis

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287
Q

What is abx treatment for Infective endocarditis?

A

most likely due to viridans strep (mutans) treat empirically with vanc then depending on susceptibility give IV penicillin G or IV ceftriaxone for 4 weeks

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288
Q

dermal blisters that are painless and heal with scarring, increased skin fragility on tha dorsal hands, facial hypertichosis and hyperpigmentation are all indicative of what? especially in a pt with underlying HepC…

A

Porphyria cutanea tarda

disorder of heme synthesis

leads to photosensitivity due to accumulation of porphyrinogens that react with oxygenon excitation by UV light

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289
Q

Precosious puberty, irregular cafe au lait macules confined to one side of body and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (bone fractures) is consistent with ?

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

constant overproduction of pituitary homrones so can also lead to thyrotixicosis, acromegaly, and cushing syndrome

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290
Q

What is the first few steps of evaluating precosious puberty?

A

bone age?

if advanced then look at LH to determine peripheral (low LH) vs central (high LH)

if normal look at breast (thelarche) and pubic hari (adrenarche)

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291
Q

What increases the murmur in HCM?

A

things that decrease preload (valsalva, abrupt standing, and nitro)

increasing afterload or preload will decrease murmur (hand grip, squatting, and passive leg raise)

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292
Q

Bilateral hemiparesis, Diminished bilateral pain and temp, and intact bilateral proprioception, vibratory sensation, and light touch is indicative of ?

A

Anterior cord syndrome.

injury to the anterior spinal artery

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293
Q

Life threatening complication of retropharyngeal abscess characterized by fever, chest pain, odynophagia, and requires urgent surgical intervention?

A

Acute necrotizing mediastinitis

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294
Q

Commonly used immunosuppressant that can cause gingival hypertrophy and hirsutism among other things…

A

cyclocsporine

295
Q

best contraceptive for breast cancer pt?

A

copper IUD

296
Q

Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is increased in what type of hemodynamic shock?

A

cardiogenic!

decrease in hypovolemic and normal or decreased in septic

297
Q

labor contractions generating how many MVUs are considered adequate?

A

200MVUs

298
Q

What is the definition of arrest of labor?

What is management?

A

no cervical change for >= 4hrs with adequate contractions

OR

No cervical change for >=6 hrs with inadequate contractions

needs c-section

299
Q

PDA hearing loss and cataracts in baby is indicative of what in uteru?

A

rubella infection

300
Q

early descrescendo diastolic murmur at left sternal border indicative of what?

A

aortic regurg

301
Q

pt in septic shock with compensated metabolic acidosis should get what IV managemnt?

A

Normal saline

only give sodium bicarb if pH <7.2

302
Q

Uremic encephalopathy needs what management?

A

hemodialysis

303
Q

What is initial treatment of chronic venous insufficiency with pitting edema?

A

leg elevation, compression stockings, and exercise.

diuretics likely to cause dehydration and are not recommended

304
Q

cyanosis within 24 hrs of life with single S2 on auscultation indicates?

A

transposition of the great vessels, give prostaglandins to keep PDA open

305
Q

Pt with recent cardiac cath presents with hemodynamic instability and flank/back pain ipsilateral to arterial puncture site located above the inguinal ligamnet…dx?

A

retroperitoneal hematoma

usually w/in 12 hrs of cath

306
Q

Most common vaginal foreign body in children?

A

toilet paper

307
Q

what is pertussis treatment and post-xposure prophylaxis for those involved?

A

if pt <1 month give azithromycin x 5days otherwise give azithromycin x5d or clarithro x7d or erythro x14d

give to al close contacts regardless of immunization status or symptoms

308
Q

acute renal failure, fever, rash, wbc casts indicative of

A

allergic interstitial nephritis

309
Q

do OCPs cause HTN

A

yes in 5% of pts

310
Q

at what age do you start doing low dase CT for lung cacner screening

A

55-80 w/ >=30 year pack hx and current or quit w/in last 15 yrs

311
Q

what is management of simple breast cyst?

A

aspiration if pt desires and breast exam f/u in 2 mos to check for reaccumulation

312
Q

elderly pt in developed country develops iron deficiency anemia…why and what do you do for workup?

A

most likely due to a bleed. do an endoscopic eval

313
Q

is breast milk jaundice conjugated or unconjugated hyperbili?

A

unconjugated

314
Q

drug induced acne commonly involves what areas of the body?

A

upper back, shoulders, and upper arms

315
Q

What percent of each hemaglobin (A, S, F) would you see on electrophoresis of a normal pt vs sickle cell pt?

A

normal is 99% HgbA

SCD is 85-98% HgbS and 5-15% HgbF

316
Q

What is the treatment for trich? do you treat the partner too?

A

oral metronisazole and tinidazole are first line.

yes treat partner too

317
Q

most common cause of SBO?

A

adhesions

318
Q

help with smoking cessation, help with weight loss, and no sexual side effects describes what antidepressant commonly used?

A

Buproprion

319
Q

What is the work-up for possible intestinal obstruction (bilious emesis) in new neonate?

A

abdominal xray to exclude pneumoperitoneum then barium enema

320
Q

webbed neck, carpal and pedal edema, nail dysplasia and horshoe kidney indicate?

why do they get the hands and feet swelling?

A

Turner syndrome.

congenital lymphedema from lymphatic network dysgenesis

edema is non pitting due to high protein count

321
Q

what are common lab findinsg in JIA?

A

elevated inflamm markers, hyperferritinemia, hyperagammaglobulinemia, thrombocytosis, ANEMIA

322
Q

what is an easy way to differentiate Erysipelas from cellulitis just by looking at it?

A

erysiplelas will have sharply demarcated edges and cellulitis will have flat edges with poor demarcation

323
Q

What would you expect the CD4 count to be in a pt with diarrhea from MAC or CMV

A

<50

CMV is bloody diarrhea and MAC is not

324
Q

Very high urine hydroxyproline in a older gentlemen suggests what dz?

A

Paget

hydroxyproline is derived almost exclusively from breakdown of collagen, and levels will be increased in pagets

325
Q

when do you expect baby blues to resolve?

A

14 days

326
Q

What is pseudocyesis?

A

amenorrhea, breast fullness, morning sickness, and abdominal distention (early pregnancy symptoms) in a pt who believes she is pregnant but is not.

it is a somatization disorder from stress

327
Q

What is pilonidal disease?

A

painful, fluctuant mass 4-5cm cephalad to anus in the intergluteal region with associated mucoid, purulent, or bloody drainage

this is not to be confused with perianal abscess that is located immediately adjacent to anus

328
Q

Is fever always present in vertebral osteomyelitis?

A

no, only in 50% of cases!

329
Q

which is bright and which is dark on non contrast CT

ischemia vs blood

A

blood is bright and ischemia is dark

330
Q

young athletic woman with chronic anterior knee pain that is worse with climbing stairs or running is consistent with what dx and exam?

A

patellofemoral syndrome

pain elicited by extending the knee while compressing the patella

management is exercises to stretch and strengthen thigh muscles

331
Q

is uncomplicated seizure following vaccine administration a contraindication to future vaccination?

A

no

332
Q

congenital adrenal hyperlasia is caused by what deficiency and will have what labs?

A

21 hydroxylase deficiency

decreased aldo - dehydratio, salt wasting (hyponatremia and hyperkalemia)
decreased cortisol - fasting hypoglycemia
increased testosterone - virilization

dehydration, salt wasting and virilization

elevated 17 hydroxyprogesterone levels are diagnostic

333
Q

What are the features of WPW?

A

short PR <0.12 (less than 3 little boxes)

Slurred and broad upstroke of QRS (delta wave)

QRS widening with ST/T wave changes

334
Q

transplant pt with pulmonary symptoms, bloody diarrhea, and fever is indicative of what?

A

CMV

335
Q

What will be seen on imaging of a pt with vascular dementia?

A

cortical and/or subcortical infarction with or without deep white matter changes from chronic ischemia

336
Q

How do you treat PCP intoxication?

A

supportive management and benzo’s for agitation

urinary acidification is not recommended because it does not work

337
Q

What do you see with primary ovarian insufficiency as far as GnRH, FSH, and estrogen levels?

A

increase in GnRH and FSH

decrease in estrogen

low estrogen means no negative feedback for GnRH or FSH

338
Q

Can procedures be performed on a deceased pt for the purposes of education?

A

with family permission and under supervision

339
Q

Abrupt onset of regular tachycardia that resolves with cold water immersion is consistent with?

what is the most common form

A

PSVT

Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia is most common form of PSVT. Vagal maneuvers increase parasympathetic tone in the heart and result in a temporary slowing of conduction in the AV node and increase in refractory period leading to termination

340
Q

pt who experienced EPS with a first gen antipsychotic should be prescribed a second gen, which one?

A

ziprasidone is better than olanzapine as far as side effects

341
Q

What is the difference between a missed abortion and a threatened abortion?

A

Missed will have no fetal cardiac activity or an empty sac and no bleeding

threatened will have fetal cardiac activity with bleeding

both have closed cervix

342
Q

succinylcholine can cause what life threatening condition?

A

hyperkalemia with cardiac arrhythmia

343
Q

horner syndrome with cervical paravertebral mass in pediatric pt is consistent with?

A

Neuroblastoma

344
Q

best treatment to reverse warfarin in acutely bleeding pt?

A

fresh frozen plasma

345
Q

best fluid choice for INITIAL resuscitation in severe hypovolemic hypernatremic pt?

A

normal saline.

346
Q

Post op pt with new onset hypotension, JVD, and RBBB is indicative of what?

A

massive PE

347
Q

what do you do when you see a new solitary pulmonary nodule on routine chest xray?

A

look at previous xray

if no previous or new then get chest CT to further characterize

348
Q

What is the difference between a cherry angioma and a superficial hemangioma?

A

superficial hemangioma aka strawberry hemangioma is vascular birthmark in kids that regresses

cherry angioma is benign vascular proliferation in adults (basically they are the same only the cherry doesnt regress and you get more cherry’s with age)

349
Q

pt with COPD that gets supplemental O2 can have improvement of hypoxia but worsening of what?

A

hypercapnia causing respiratory acidosis

goal oxyhemaglobin sat in these pt’s is 90-93%

350
Q

18 month old with normal development then subsequent regression of speech, loss of purposeful hand movements (inability to feed or dress oneself), gait abnormalities, and stereotypical hand movements is indicative of?

A

Rett Syndrome

351
Q

Normal internal genitalia, external virilization (clitoromegaly) and undetectable serum estrogen levels in female are consistent with dx of?

A

aromatase deficiency

352
Q

pt with suspected neurocognitive impairment should undergo what testing?

A

neurocognitive testing

353
Q

do OCPs cause weight gain?

A

no

354
Q

what does neurocardigenic syncope mean?

A

a vasovagal episode resulting in syncope

355
Q

What are some complications that small for gestational age infants are at risk for?

A

hypoxia, perinatal asphyxia, meconium aspiration, hypothermia, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, and polycythemia (increased EPO in response to fetal hypoxia)

356
Q

which benzo do you give in alcohol withdrawal?

A

lorazepam

diazepam is longer acting

357
Q

which mood stabilizer is used in bipolar and used specifically to treat bipolar depression that has a significant side effect of drug rash?

A

lamotrigine

SJS can happen in severe cases

358
Q

breast abscess from untreated mastitis needs to be treated with?

A

needle aspiration and abx

359
Q

breastfed babies are at increased risk for what vit deficiency that can cause skull bone abnormality?

A

VitD deficiency - called frontal bossing

genu varum is bowing of the legs

360
Q

STI screening happens when in prenatal course?

A

first prenatal visit with HIV, HepB, GC chlamydia, and syphilis

361
Q

Prematurity is important risk factor for RDS, what other risk factors?

A

male sex, perinatal asphyxia, maternal diabetes, and c-section delivery

362
Q

Thrombocytopenia, MAHA, renal insufficiency, neurologic changes (HA, confusion, coma, stroke), and fever is pentad for what?

how do you treat it?

A

TTP

PT and PTT are normal - will see schistocytes on smear

treat with emergent plasma exchange

363
Q

pt with severe resistant HTN with continuous bruit in the right periumbilical area is indicative of ?

A

renovascular disease

it is most common and correctable cause of resistant HTN

364
Q

subperiosteal hemorrhage that occurs due to birth trauma particularly with forceps or vacuum-assisted deliveries, limited to surface of 1 cranial bone and appears as a scalp swelling with the following features:

firm, nontender, does not cross suture lines, no skin dicoloration

A

cephalohematoma

capput succedaneum refers to scalp swelling superficial to the periosteum that crosses suture lines. The edema usually involves the portion of the had presenting during vertex delivery and is typically identified at birth

365
Q

numbness or pain between 3rd & 4th toes , clicking sensation when palpating space between 3rd and 4th toes when squeezing the metatarsal joints

A

Morton neuroma

(interdigital neuroma)

mechanically induced neuropathy that causes numbness, aching, and burning in the distal forefoot from the metatarsal heads to the third and fourth toes.

treatment is conservative

366
Q

side effects associated with olanzapine

A

weight gain and metabolic adverse effects (hyperglycemia)

clozapine is also a second gen antipsychotic with side effects

ariprazole, lurasidone, and ziprasidone are associated with lower risk

367
Q

what is the most effective emergency contraceptive?

A

copper IUD

368
Q

UA results show urinary alkalization pH>8, what bugs are likely culprits?

A

urease producing organisms like Proteus mirabilis (most commonly) and Klebsiella pneumoniae

369
Q

what is dacrocystitis?

A

infection of lacrimal sac (tear duct)

370
Q

how do you treat malignant (necrotizing otitis externa (MOE)?

A

usually caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa

treat with Ciprofloxacin

371
Q

Where is Broca’s area located? dominant? nondom side? frontal? occipital? parietal?

A

Dominant frontal lobe lesions can cause expressive (Broca’s) aphasia

372
Q

all nonpregnant pt’s >25 with CIN3 require what treatment?

A

excision of the transformation zone (cone biopsy) due to high risk of progression to invasive squamous cell cervical carcinoma

373
Q

Pt with asthma complains of sore throat, morning hoarseness, worsening cough only at night, and increased need for albuterol inhaler following meals indicates?

A

GERD

374
Q

Crampy, postprandial epigastric pain (intestinal angina), food aversion, and weight loss in pt with atherosclerosis is indicative of?

A

chronic mesenteric ischemia

CT angio for dx

375
Q

diarrhea dermatitis and dementia are the triad consistent with?

A

niacin deficiency (B3)

376
Q

why do patients with OSA have increased hematocrit?

A

kidneys respond to hypoxemia by increasing EPO

377
Q

what do you expect to see with MCV and RDW in a pt with iron deficiency anemia?

A

decreased MCV and increased RDW

378
Q

pt >=13 with no period or secondary sexual characteristics… what is the workup?

A

first pelvic US to look for presence of a uterus

then FSH level to distinguish peripheral vs central causes of amenorrhea

379
Q

what germ cell tumor produces AFP?

A

nonseminomatous

380
Q

dome shaped, firm, freely moveable cyst or nodule with a small central punctum, can remain stable or gradually increase in size

may produce a cheesy white discharge

usually resolves spontaneously

dx?

A

Epidermal inclusion cyst

381
Q

What is torus palantinus

A

benign bony growth (exostosis)

located on the midline suture of the hard palate

fleshy immobile mass

382
Q

what is intermittent explosive disorder?

A

impulse control disorder

pt unable to control aggressive impulses, resulting in verbal or physical aggression that is out of proportion to the provocation.

383
Q

what is management of adolescent with fibroadenoma?

A

re-examine breast mass after her menstrual period for a decrease in mass size or tenderness

384
Q

what basic tests should be performed to evaluate hypertension

A

UA for occult hematuria and urine protein/creatinine ratio

chemistry panel

lipid profile

baseline EKG

these are used to evaluate for secondary causes

385
Q

What is the management for caustic ingestion?

A

secure airway, breathing, circulation

decontamination (clothes etc)

chest xray if respiratory symptoms

endoscopy within 24 hours

386
Q

primary amenorrhea in pubertal pt with cyclic lower abdominal pain,

pelvic exam reveals smoothe clue, bulging vaginal mass that swells with increased intraabdominal pressure

dx?

A

imperforate hymen

387
Q

What meds are used to treat tourette’s

A

antidopaminergic agents

(tetrabenazine, risperidone, haloperidol)

alpha-2 adrenergic agonists (guanfacine, clonidine) are also used but not as good

388
Q

what trisomy has cutis aplasia

A

13 patau

389
Q

How would you tell the difference between serum sickness from a mono pt treated with penicillin that gets a rash

A

serum sickness classic manifestations: fever, urticaria, and polyarthralgia and lymphadenopathy with no mucosal involvement, pt appears ill, typically 1-2 weeks after exposure

pt with mono that gets treated with penicillin can develop morbiliform rash on trunk, reash typically spares the extremities and arthralgia does not occur

390
Q

pt with diffuse telangiectasias (ruby-colored papules that blanch with pressure), recurrent epistaxis, and widespread AVMs

pt has nosebleeds and oral lesions

dx?

A

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome

AVMs in the lungs can shunt blood from the right to the left side of the heart, causing chronic hypoxemia, digital clubbing, and a reactive polycythemia

Pulmonary AVMs can also present as massive, sometimes fatal hemoptysis

diagnosis must be considered in pt with recurrent nosebleeds and orla lesions

391
Q

most common cause of heavy menstrual bleeding?

A

fibroids

392
Q

precosious puberty with advanced bone age, high LH and FSH indicates?

A

central precocious puberty

from early activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary gonadal (HPG) axis

pt requires MRI of brain to evaluate for a hypothalamic or pituitary tumor activating the HPG axis

if MRI is negative the cause is most likely idiopathic precocious puberty, and GnRH therapy can be initiated

393
Q

what is the MOA of MPGN type 2

A

deposits of C3 caused by IgG antibodies directed against C3 convertase of the alternative complement pathway

these antibodies reacting with C3 convertase lead to persistent complement activation and kidney damage.

394
Q

abdominal pain, constipation, neuropsychriatric manifestations (forgetfulness), motor and sensory neuropathies (extensor weakness, stocking-glove distribution), and hematologic abnormalities (microcytic anemia) indicate what poisoning?

A

lead

disrupts heme synthesis and causes microcytic anemia

395
Q

What is initial management of dumping syndrome? (a common post gastrectomy complication)

A

Small/frequent meals, replace simple sugars with complex carbs, incorporate high-fiber & protein-rich foods

symptoms of DS usually diminish over time. A minority of patients with refractory symptoms may benefit from a trial of octreotide or require reconstructive surgery, but this is usually not needed

396
Q

adult pt with blunt chest trauma who presents with persistent jugular venous distention, tachycardia, and hypotension despite aggressive fluid resuscitation should raise suspicion for? chest xray with normal cardiac silhouette without tension pneumo

A

Acute cardiac tamponade due to small pericardial effusion

397
Q

What is initial management after diagnosis of a solid testicular mass has been made (painless hard mass in testicle + suggestive US)

A

removal of the testis and its associated cord

398
Q

management of preterm labor at <32 weeks (medical management rx)

A

corticosteroids (betamethasone): decrease the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

Tocolytics: at <32 weeks, indomethacin is thee first-line tocolytic of choice

Magnesium sulfate: provide fetal neuroprotection (CP)

399
Q

A palpable, well-circumscribed, mobile breast mass in women age <30 suggests a benign process, most commonly ??

what would CONFIRM this dx?

A

a fibroadenoma

a biopsy

400
Q

Initial management of abruptio placenta

A

aggressive fluid resuscitation and uterine displacement to optimize maternal circulation

401
Q

episodic pounding sensation (due to flushing and associated rise in pulse rate), chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and valvular heart disease with tricuspid regurgitation is all consistent with?

A

carcinoid syndrome

402
Q

treatment for lichen sclerosus

A

high potency topical corticsteroids

eg clobetasol

403
Q

Systemic sclerosis is divided into diffuse cutaneous and limited cutaneous subtypes. Although there is considerable overlap in disease manifestations between the 2, internal oran involvement such as (interstitial lung disease) is more common and more extensive in ?

A

diffuse cutaneous SS, leading to a worse prognosis

anti-scl-70 antibodies
anti-RNA polI antibodies

404
Q

acute symmetric arthritis of the hands (MCP, PIP, and wrist), knees, and ankle joints in adult with exposure to children is likely due to??

A

Parvo B19 infection

405
Q

Most common cause of both early onset (age <=7 days) and late-onset neonatal sepsis as well as meningitis in young infants?

A

GBS

406
Q

Preeclampsia with severe features at <20 weeks gestation is concerning for what??

A

Hydatidaform mole

treatment is uterine evacuation

407
Q

newborrn of mother with HBV infection should receive what treatment?

A

passive immunization with hepatitis immune globulin and active immunization with HBV vaccine within 12 hours of birth

408
Q

Pt with TB also has hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, and EOSINOPHILIA, all suggestive of ?

A

Primary adrenal insufficiency aka addisons disease

Addisons disease causes aldo deficiency and presents with non-anion gap hyperkalemic and hyponatremic metabolic acidosis

409
Q

what is metatarsus adductus?

treatment?

A

most common congenital foot deformity, characterized by medial deviation of the forefoot with a normal neutral position of the hindfoot

reassurance - usually corrects spontaneously

410
Q

joint fluid with clear appearance, 200-2,000WBCs, and 25% PMNs in pt with exertional pain and morning stiffness is due to?

A

osteoarthritis

411
Q

Medications shown to improve long-term survival in patients with left ventricular systolic dysfunction include ??

A

beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, meralocorticoid receptor antagonists, and (in African AMerican patients ) a combination of hydralazine and nitrates

412
Q

Pt from Mississippi who was initially thought to have sarcoidosis (cough, hilar adenopathy, erthema nodosum, and noncaseating granulomas in an African American Individual) but deteriorated after hihg-dose corticosteroid therapy is likely to really have?

A

Histoplasmosis

413
Q

Corneal sensation is due to what nerve?

A

Trigeminal

414
Q

Trouble with oxidative burst is charactistic of what pediatric disease?

how do you diagnose it?

A

chronic cranulomatous disease

diagnose by testing neutrophil function via detection or absence of an oxidative burst (eg dihydrorhodamine 123 or nitroblue tetrazolium test)

415
Q

hyperkalemia in pt with hypertension and hypercholesterolemia taking hydrochlorothiazide, amiloride, and simvastatin - EKG with normal sinus and no other abnormalities - management?

A

change amiloride to amlodipine and recheck labs in 1 week

common offending medications include nonselective beta-adrenergic blockers, potassium sparing diuretics (triamterene, amiloride), angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor blockers, and NSADs

hydrochlorothiazide causes hypokalemia

416
Q

What muscle tear causes weakness of abduction, which can be appreciated in the drop arm test where pt arm is abducted above the head and the pt is asked to lower the arm slowly, pt unable to lower arm smoothly and it will drop rapidly around mid-adduction

A

complete supraspinatus tear

“rotator cuff tear”

417
Q

Infertility and secondary amenorrhea after a hyerosopic myomectomy is likely due to ??

A

Asherman syndrome

developemtn of symptomatic intrauterine synechiae

418
Q

After stopping offending agent what is next step in treatment of Neuroleptic malignant syndrome when symptoms are not improving?

A

dopaminergic agents that can reverse dopamine blockade, such as bromocriptine or amantadine, can be considered in pt’s who do not respond to supportive care and withdrawal of medication

419
Q

antibiotic prescribed for acne that cause phototoxicity?

A

tetracyclines

420
Q

Which vitamin deficiency causes abgular cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis, normocytic anemia, and seborrheic dermatitis

A

Riboflavin

B2

421
Q

newborn with blue extremities and pink body when assessing apgars? management?

A

reassurance

this is very common, benign, and can last for 1-2 days

in contrast, cyanosis of the face or central body should raise concern for hypoxia from respiratory or cardiac problems such as congenital heart disease

422
Q

Episode of apnea precipitated by frustration, anger, or pain in child 6 months to 2 years is likely due to

A

breath holding spells

cyanotic or pallid

cyanotic classically presents with crying and breath-holding in forced expiration; followed by limpness, and loss of consciousness.

pallid typically triggered by a minor trauma, child experiences fleeting loss of consciousness followed by breath-holding, pallor, and diaphoresis. this lasts <1 minute with subsequent confusion and sleepines for a few minutes

423
Q

triple bubble sign in pt with bilious vomiting ?

A

jejunal atresia

424
Q

Pt with persistent anxiety about GI symptoms, despite multiple negative diagnostic evaluations and time-consuming preoccupation with her symptoms, is most consistent with ??

A

somatic symptom disorder

diagnosis requires >=1 somatic symptoms causing distress and functional impairment for >=6 months

425
Q

most common HIV related nephropathy

nephrotic range proteinuria, azotemia, and normal sized kidneys

A

collapsing focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis

426
Q

peripheral edema, increased JVP with prominent a wave, loud S2, right-sided heave, pulsatile liver from congestion, and tricuspid regurg in pt with COPD consistent with?

A

cor pulmonale

427
Q

treatment of parkinson disease psychosis?

A

dose reduction in antiparkinson meds, med substitution, and/or addition of low potency antipsychotic medication

quetiapine, clozapine, primavanserin

428
Q

most common side effects of carbidopa/levadopa therapy?

A

early side effects include hallucinations, confusion, agitation, dizziness, somnolence, and nausea

5-10 years later can have involuntary movements like dyskinesia and dystonia

429
Q

What do see with levels of MSAFP. b-hCG, estriol, and inhibinA in trisomy 18 vs 21

A

18 everything decrease with normal inhibinA

21 is low MSAFP and estriol with high b-hCG and inhibinA

430
Q

what normal renal changes are seen during pregnancy?

A

increase in GFR and Renal blood flow which cause serum BUN and Cr to become decreased compared to pre-pregnancy levels

431
Q

Primary dose limiting side effect of hydroxyurea?

A

myelosuppression (neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia

432
Q

cyanotic spells in infant with harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic mumur and singe S2 - dx?

A

TOF

433
Q

Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis is diagnosed by one of what 3 criteria?

A

sx’s (cough congestion) >=10days w/o improvement

sx’s are severe in onset (fever >39 [102.2] + drainage) for >=3 days

sx’s worsen following initial imrpovement (biphasic illness)

434
Q

medical name for hair loss after pregnancy (or other stressful life event)

A

Telogen effluvium

435
Q

Chronic, numb, hypopigmented lesion with peripheral nerve involement (nodular/painful nerve deformations with diminished sensory/motor activity).

A

leprosy

436
Q

metabolic abnormalities associated with hypothyroidism?

A

hyperlipidemia, hyponatremia,

elevated CK and transaminases

437
Q

After confirmatory testing of myasthenia gravis with acetylcholine receptor antibodies what should be done next?

A

Chest CT to r/o thymoma

438
Q

HCM pt’s with symptoms (syncope, HF, angina) should be treated with?

A

negative inotropic agents

(beta blockers, verapimil, disopyramide)

beta blockers most common monotherapy

439
Q

initial management of stable pt with esophageal variceal bleed?

A

volume resuscitation, somatostatin analog (octreotide)

prophylactic abx in cirrhotic pt’s

urgent endoscopy (within 12 hours) if uncontrolled bleeding

440
Q

what is klumpke palsy?

A

injury to 8th cervical nerve and 1st thoracic nerves

complication of hand paralysis

sometimes associated with damage tot he sympathetic chain and ipsilateral horner syndrome

441
Q

lab findings in pt with HUS

A

MAHA, thrombocytopenia and AKI

442
Q

initial step to confirm cushings?

A

confirm hypercortisolism with a late night salivarycortisol assay, 24 hour urine free cortisol measurement, and/or overnight low-dose dexamethasone supression test

2/3 should be abnormal

next measure ACTH to determine dependent (cushings) vs independent (adrenal adenoma)

443
Q

what treatment can worsen the eye symptoms in graves disease?

A

radioactive iodine

444
Q

infant with eyelid swelling and bilateral eye drainage second week of life should be treated with?

A

oral macrolide like oral erythromycin

topical has high failure rate

445
Q

difference between schizoaffective disorder and Bipolar I with psychotic features?

A

schizoaffective is schizophrenic symptoms in absence of mood symptoms and some mood symptoms for short duration

Bipolar I with psychotic features - psychotic symptoms occur exclusively during manic or depressive episodes

446
Q

suprasellar tumor with caclifications on MRI?

A

craniophayngioma

447
Q

what is the mechanism behind spider angioma and palmar arythema in pt with cirrhosis?

A

both arise from hyperestrinism due to impaired hepatic metabolism of circulating estrogens, a process that begins in the cytochrome P450 system

448
Q

What are the target organs for graft vs host disease that are involved in typical acute graft-versus-host disease?

A

skin (maculopapular rash involving palms, soles, and face that may generalize)

intestine (blood-positive diarrhea)

Liver (abnormal liver function tests and jaundice)

449
Q

Coombs-negative hemolytic anemia (low hemoglobin, reticulocytosis, jaundice/hyperbilirubinemia), splenomegaly and spherocytes on peripheral smear is concerning for?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

key lab finding is MCH conccentration >36% due to cellular dehydration and membrane loss

current gold standard for dx is combo of eosin-5 malemide binding test (flow cytometry) with acidified glycerol lysis test

450
Q

acute unilateral lymphadenitis in children is usually caused by?

A

bacterial infection

451
Q

how can you differentiate CML from leukmoid reaction?

A

leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score

in CML the neutrophils are cytochemically and functionally abnormal, so LAP score is usually low

452
Q

how can you differentiate between adhesive capsulitis and rotator cuff tendonitis?

A

with adhesive capsulitis there will be lack of ROM even with passive

with tendonitis there will be increased pain with ROM but still able to go through ROM

453
Q

What are the symptoms of lead poisoning? How is diagnosis confirmed?

A

anemia, abdominal pain, and encephalopathy

Capillary (finger stick) blood specimens are widely used in screening, but many false positives

confirm with venous lead level if capillary level >=5

454
Q

At what lead levels would you use chelation therapy, EDTA, and succimer for treatment

A

chelation >45

Succimer 45-69

Dimercaperol with EDTA for levels >=70

455
Q

amenorrhea, height <3rd% and weight 20%, tanner stage 1 hair, increased FSH, prepubertal uterus and small ovaries is indicative of?

A

Turner syndrome - complete androgen receptor insensitivity

456
Q

Which SNRI is associated with dose dependent hypertension?

A

venlafaxine

457
Q

first trimester screening raises suspicion for trisomy, what is the confirmatory diagnostic test for follow up at 15 weeks?

A

amniocentesis

458
Q

management and treatment of peritonsillar abscess in stable pt

A

needle aspiration regardless of vitals then IV abx

459
Q

pt comes home form vacation abroad with fever, N/V, and abdominal pain followed by jaundice and pruritis is indicative of what?

A

acute HepA infection

460
Q

Pt routinely exposed to antique wood, has polyneuropathy, pancytopenia, mild transaminase elevation, and a variety of skin lesions is characteristic of what?

A

arsenic toxicity

toxic exposure is more likely through mining, pesticide manufacturing, metalworking, and working with antique pressure-treated wood preserved with arsenic

hypo- and hyperpigmentation of the skin occurs early and hyperkeratosis and scaling of the soles and palms is often seen later

Mees lines(horizontal striation of the fingernails) are characteristic

461
Q

Does optimized glycemic control in diabetes reduce risk of microvascular or macrovascular complications? or both?

A

Microvascular (nephropathy, retinopathy)

macro effects uncertain

462
Q

diagnostic test for Meckel’s diverticulitis?

A

Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan

463
Q

Pt on risperidone and experiencing extra-pyramidal side effects, dose reduction results in resoved EPS sx’s but increased psychosis. Next step in management?

A

When dose reduction is not feasible, secondary parkinsonism can be treated with an anticholinergic antiparkinsonian medication such as benztropine

amantadine, a dopaminergic medication, and a weak N-methyl-Daspartate receptor antagonist can also be used

464
Q

What would you expect to see on the peripheral smear of a pt with sickle cell disease?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies (nuclear remnants of RBCs)

465
Q

What side in relation to the lesion will the pt experience -hemiparesis

  • decreased proprioception, vibration, light touch
  • decreased pain and temp

in Brown-sequard syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral hemiparesis: lateral corticospinal tract at the level of the injury

Ipsilateral decreased proprioception, vibration, light touch: dorsal columns at the level of the injury

Contralateral decreased and temp: lateral spinothalamic tract 1-2 levels below because decussation above.

466
Q

What is electrical alternans with sinus tach and what does it correspond to?

A

varying amplitude of QRS complexes

corresponds to pericardial effusion

pt needs pericardiocentesis

467
Q

would you expect to hear a 4th heart sound in pt with acute MI?

A

this is often heard due to left ventricular stiffening and dysfunction

468
Q

What kind of carcinoma should be suspected in pt with significant smoking history, hypercalcemia, and a hilar mass?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

469
Q

Child with a cold brought in with acute onset hallucinations. What should you expect as cause? (neurological exam is normal)

A

over the counter cold medications containing antihistamines (diphenhydramine, doxylamine) decrease nasal discharge but also have anticholinergic properties that can cause confusion and hallucinations

470
Q

placental adherence and hemorrhage at time of attempted placental delivery in pt with previous c section and D&C is consistent with what pathology?

A

Placenta accreta,

uterine villi attach directly to the myometrium

471
Q

complications of nephrotic syndrome other than edema?

A

hypercoagulation

increased platelet aggregation, hyperfibrinogenemia due to increased hepatic synthesis, impaired fibrinolysis

renal vein thrombosis is most common manifestation but arterial thrombosis and PE may also occur

472
Q

painless thyroiditis is characterized by hyperthyroid phase due to release of preformed thyroid hormone, followed by a hyperthyroid phase or return to euthyroid state.

how do you treat it?

A

No specific therapy, but a beta blocker may by prescribed to control symptoms due to hyperthyroidism

473
Q

treatment for localized non-bullous impetigo?

A

topical abx preferred for localized infection due to fewer side effects and less antibiotic resistance compared to oral therapy

474
Q

what is icthyosis vulgaris and what is the treatment?

A

chronic, inherited skin disorder characterized by diffuse dermal scaling

skin looks like fish scales or reptile skin

treatment options include emollients, keratolytics and topical retinoids

475
Q

What are the characteristics of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid deficiency (fatigue, loss of appetite, weight loss) (othostatic hypotension, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, elevated plasma renin activity)

476
Q

Pt with low-grade fever, RUQ tenderness, nausea, and vomiting after recently undergoing a lap chole has findings concerning for what common complication?

A

Bile leak

associated leukocytosis and obstructive-appearing lever enzymes often present

477
Q

Name clinical findings related to all congenital infections vs just CMV, Toxo, Syphilis, or Rubella

A

All: IUGR, hepatosplenomeg, jaundice, blueberry muffin rash

CMV: periventricular calcifications
Toxo: diffuse intracerebral calcifications, severe chorioretinitis
Syphilis: rhinorrhea, abnormal long-bone xray, desquamating or bullous rash
Rubella: cataracts, heart defects (PDA)

478
Q

Management of blisters secondary to sunburn in adolescent?

A

prevent bacterial superinfection with topical agents such as silver sulfadiazine or mupirocin

479
Q

Pt with eye symptoms associated with an erythematous, pustular rash affecting the central face, consistent with?

A

ocular rosacea

rosacea can present with primary manifestations:

erythematotelangiectatic rosacea: erythema and facial flushing, telangiectasias, roughness or scaling, and burning discomfort

papulopustular rosacea: small papules and pustules resembling acne

Phymatous rosacea: Chronic, irregular thickening of hte skin, usually involving the nose

Ocular rosacea: involvement of the cornea, conjunctiva, and lids with burning or foreign body sensations, blepharitis, keratitis, conjunctivitis, corneal ulcers, and recurrent chalazia

480
Q

What is the etiology behind stress vs urge vs overflow incontinence?

A

stress is due to decreased urethral sphincter tone and urethral hypermobility

urge is detrusor hyperactivity
and overflow is impaired detrusor contractility or bladder outlet obstruction

481
Q

between the choices of elevated alk phos, ggt, bili, and PTT which is most specific to acute liver failure?

A

increased PTT is most specific although all will likely be elevated

482
Q

uncal herniation is due to hemorrhage where in the brain?

A

basal ganglia hemorrhage

ipsilateral dilated non reactive pupul due to compression of the third CN as temporal lobe (uncus) pushes down against tentorium cerebelli

further displacement causes midbrain compression and contralateral extensor posturing, coma, and respiratory comprimise.

483
Q

what are signs of cerebellar tonsillar herniation?

A

neck tilt, flaccid paralysis, coma, blood pressure instability, and respiratory arrest

484
Q

serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome are easily confused. what physical exam findings set them apart?

A

serotonin syndrome wi;; have tremor, hyperreflexia, and myoclonus

NMS has muscular rigidity and bradyreflexia

485
Q

Most common cause and etiology of postpartum fever?

A

Postpartum endometritis from infection of the decidua diagnosed by fever >24 hrs later, uterine tenderness, and purulent lochia

486
Q

treatment for atypical pneumonia?

A

macrolide (azithromycin) or respiratory flouroquinolone

487
Q

Narcolepsy is associated with what findings on sleep study (specifically regarding REM sleep)

A

decreased REM latency

pt entering REM sleep withing 15 minutes of sleep onset (normal is 90 minutes)

488
Q

21 month old male with recurrent infections, eczema, and microthrombocytopenia (small platelet size on smear and low #) is consistent with?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

x rec

489
Q

pt presents with fatigue, arthropathy, hypogonadism (decreased libido and ED) and mild hepatomegaly. dx?

A

hematochromatosis

iron overload

classic diabetes hyperpigmentation and cirrhosis is rare

490
Q

nausea, vomiting, constant epigastric pain partially relieved by leaning forward indicates?

A

acute pancreatitis

491
Q

Differences in lambert eaton vs myasthenia gravis.

etiology, clinical, and associate neoplasm

A

Lambert: abs to PREsynaptic CALCIUM channels
proximal limb weakness, decreased or absent reflexes, improvement with contraction, autonomic dysfunctions (dry mouth) associated with small cell lung cancer

MG: abs to POST synaptic ACETYLCHOLINE receptors, muscle weakness (ovular-ptosis, diplopia. bulbar-dysphagia, dysrthria. Proximal libs arms>legs), normal reflexes, weakness WORSE with activity. associated with thymoma

492
Q

inadequately treated AOM in child with fever, otalgia, and mastoid process inflammation with ear displacement is indicative of what and needs what treatment?

A

Mastoiditis needs IV abx

493
Q

When would you see gas in the colon of a person with a SBO?

A

if its a partial SBO

494
Q

most common dermal manifestation of antiphospholipid syndrome? what liver lab will be prolonged?

A

livedo reticularis (transient lattivelike rash on lower extremitites)

prolonged PTT

495
Q

What female cancer do you suspect in pt with back pain, edema, lower uterine mass, and hydronephrosis?

A

cervical cancer

496
Q

would you give steroids before or after biopsy in pt with suspected glomeruloonephritis>

A

after. have to confirm dx

497
Q

basophilic stipling of RBC on smear is indicative od what poisoning>

A

lead

498
Q

CT or MRI findings of focal nodular hyperplasia (most common benign nonvascular iver lesion)

A

hypo- or isodense lesion with arterial enhancement and a central stellate scar!

499
Q

Imaging study to diagnose esophageal perf?

A

gastrografin-contrast esophogram or CT esophaogram

500
Q

periosteal elevation in bone tumor of child indicates?

A

osteosarcoma (sunburst pattern)

ewing sarcoma has layers of reactive bone like onion

501
Q

eval of pt post menopauusal woman with new breast lump? last Mammo was 6 mos ago

A

another mammo

regardless of exam features or recent mammography

502
Q

Glaucoma is characterized by what findings on fundoscopic exam?

A

atrophy of the optic nerve head resulting in enlargement of optic cup (CUPPING) with increased IOP

503
Q

how does chronic open angle glaucoma present

A

progressive loss of peripheral vision

not painful

504
Q

What is the reason a pt treated for malaria that got better would have a relapse in symptoms after they had completed therapy and symptoms had previously resolved?

A

Pvivax has a dormant hepatic phase that may cause recurrent parasitemia weeks or months after initial infection.

505
Q

How do you treat PTSD?

A

CBT, SSRI/SNRI, prazosin for nightmares

506
Q

preferred imaging for uterine fibroids?

A

sonohysterography (saline infusion ultrasonography) improves sensitivity of diagnosing submucous fibroids on US by enhancing endometrial visualization with intrauterine saline infusion and is hte best study to confirm the diagnosis

507
Q

First line therapy for panic disorder?

A

SSRI/SNRI &/or CBT

508
Q

does indirect or direct inguinal hernial go through the deep inguinal ring?

A

indirect - due to patent processus vaginalis

direct goes through triangle - due to weakness of transversalis fascia

509
Q

How do you treat acute psychosis in a cooperative pt?

A

oral antipsychotic medication is preferred (over IM injection)

510
Q

Pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure may lead to congestive hepatopathy. what other signs/symptoms would you see with this?

A

peripheral edema, elevated JVP, positive hepatojugular reflex, S3 on cardiac auscultation

511
Q

Pt with placenta previa has inconclusive NST. what is next step to evaluate baby?

A

BPP or contraction stress test are options. Because pt has placenta previa, dont want to induce labor so do BPP

512
Q

Pt with single episode of non valvular afib that resolves and is less than 60 yo has CHADSVASc score of? treatment?

A

0

no treatment needed

513
Q

ulcerated bleedin itchy skin lesion on arm of elderly person most likely what>

A

squamous cell carcinoma

basal cell more on face and neck

514
Q

infant with suspected meningitis has sudden vasomotor collapse and skin rash (large purpuric lesions on the flanks). dx?

A

waterhouse-friderichsen syndrome due to adrenal hemorrhage

515
Q

pt presents with palpable purpura, proteinura, low complement levels and hematuria with underlying HCV, dx?

A

mixed cryoglobulinemia

HSP usually in childhood with normal complement levels

516
Q

abx tx for cat bite?

A

prophylactic amoxicillin/clavulanate

517
Q

baby presents with eczema, regurgitation or vomiting and/or PAINLESS bloody stools, dx?

A

milk- or soy-protein induced protocolitis

518
Q

medical tx for rhino-orbital cerebral mmurcormycosis?

A

amphotericin B

519
Q

treatment choices for stable pt with wide complex tachycardia

A

amiodarone, procainamide, sotalol, lidocaine

520
Q

fever, jaundice, and RUQ pain +/- hypotension and AMS is characteristic of ?

A

acute cholangitis

521
Q

when do babies experience stranger anxiety?

A

8-9 months, resolves by age 2

522
Q

what signs of magnesium toxicity should you watch for in preggo being treated? why do patients get magnesium toxicity

A

symptoms: somnolence, areflexia, respiratory suppresion

happens often with renal insufficiency because it is excreted by kidneys

523
Q

is osteoporosis prevention and indication for hormone replacement therapy?

A

NO

duh

524
Q

why would you see proximal muscle weakness in a pt with hyperthyroid symptoms?

A

Chronic hyperthyroid myopathy can happen along with muscle atrophy

treatment of hyperthyroid usually improves the myopathy

525
Q

what are light criteria for exudative effusion?

A

pleural:serum

protein >0.5
LDH >0.6

pleural LDH >2/3 upper limit of normal for serum

526
Q

sexually active young female with non exudative phayngeal edema and nontender cervial lymphadenopathy with fever and lower abdominal pain, dx?

A

gonococcal pharyngitis with PID

EBV will have exudative and tender lymphadenopathy

527
Q

Treatment for Beta blocker OD?

A

first IV fluid boluses and IV atropine

then glucagon

glucagon increases intracellular levels of cAMP and has been effective in treating both beta blocker and calcium channel blocker toxicity

528
Q

most common pathogen in sputum of child vs adult with CF and symptoms of pneumonia?

A

child-S aureus

adult-P aeruginosa

529
Q

boy with grip myotonia (delayed muscle relaxation), facial weakness, foot drop, dysphagia, and cardiac conduction anomalies (with possible cataracts, testicular atrophy and baldness) is characteristic of what disease?

A

Myotonic musculr dystrophy

auto dom

530
Q

needle shaped crsytals on UA indicate?

A

uric acid stone

531
Q

Stable pt after blunt abdominal trauma has left sided abdominal pain and anemia - most likely has what injury needing what management/eval

A

splenic injury

needs FAST exam and if normal then CT (pt at high risk due to gauring and anemia)

532
Q

in evaluating ascites a serum-to-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) >=1.1g/dL vs <1.1 indicates what etiologies?

A

> = 1.1 indicates portal hypertensive etiologies (cardiac ascites, cirrhosis

<1.1 indicates non-portal hypertensive etiologies (malignancy, pancreatitis, nephrotic syndrome, TB)

533
Q

What is suspected cause of newborn with cyanosis that is aggravated by feeding but relieved by crying

A

choanal atresia

534
Q

newborn in first few weeks with inspiratory stidor exacerbated by exertion or distress and improves with prone-positioning

A

laryngomalacia

535
Q

treatment for pt with ischemic heart failure due to an acute anterior wall MI causing acute pulmonary flash edema

A

diuretic

536
Q

what is childhood-onset fluency disorder

A

stuttering

537
Q

what do you do for treatment of child with recent MMR that presents 1-3 weeks later with fever and maculopapular rash?

A

nothing. reassurance the illness is minor and self limiting due to less severe viral strain in vaccine

538
Q

baby with biphasic stridor that improves with neck extension is most likely due to>

A

vascular rings

539
Q

breast mass evaluated by US shows hyperechoic mass and biopsy shows fat globules and foamy histiocytes, dx?

A

benign fat necrosis

540
Q

treatment for asyptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant pt?

A

cephalexin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, and nitrofurantoin

541
Q

abx for lyme disease in pregnant pt?

A

amoxicillin

542
Q

fluctuating fatigable muscle weakness that worsens with repetitive motions of the sam muscle groups and improves with rest. Ocular (diplopia, ptosis) or bulbar (dysarthria, dysphagia) dysfunction is the presenting symptom in most patients.

A

Myasthenia Gravis

543
Q

pt with pancreatic mass, watery diarrhea, muscle weakness/cramps, and hypo- or achlorhydria is consitent with?

A

VIPoma

pancreatic cholera

vasoactive intestinal peptide

544
Q

is acyclovir prophylaxis indicated in HIV pt with low CD4

A

only if recurrent herpes simplex infections

545
Q

treatment for torsades?

A

defib in unstable pt

magnesium in stable pt

546
Q

treatment for ringworm?

A

topical clotrimazole or terbinafine

547
Q

earliest renal abnormality seen in diabetic nephropathy?

A

glomerular hyperfiltration

548
Q

child presents with what you think is absence seizure but hyperventilation does not evoke 3Hz spikes on EEG. what is likely instead?

A

focal seizure

549
Q

Hypertensive hemorrhages generally involve basal ganglia (putamen), cerebellar nuclei, thalamus, and pons

putaminal hemorrhage almost always involves the adjacent internal capsule - this leads with what symptoms?

A

contralateral hemiparesis and hemianesthesia (due to diruption of the corticospinal and somatosensory fibers in the posterior limb) and
conjugate gaze deviation toward the side of the lesion (due to damage of frontal eye field efferents in the anterior limb)

550
Q

eczema microthrombocytopenia and recurrent infections

A

wiskott-aldrich syndrome

551
Q

first line treatment for bullous pemphigoid

A

high potency topical glucocorticoid (clobetasol)

systemic steroid doesnt work

552
Q

infection associated with atopic dermatitis. painful vesicles, “punched out” erosions, and hemorrhagic crusting along with fever and lymphadenopathy are typical of?

A

ezcema herpeticum HSV1

553
Q

pelvic pain in pt with known ovarian mass should be suspected as ?? until proven otherwise?

A

ovarian torsion

554
Q

dermoid ovarian cyst (mature cystic teratoma) is a common benign germ cell tumor that occurs in premenopausal women.

cyst includes sebaceous fluid, hair and teeth.

adnexal fullness on PE in otherwise healthy pt is common although some complain of pelvic pain or pressure

US shows hyperechoic nodules and calcifications

what would you see with an ovarian endometrioma?

A

homogenous mass on imaging and hx would include dysmenorrhea

555
Q

Pt with tardive diskinesia from antipsychotic that cant tolerate dose reduction. treatment?

A

switching (ccross-tapering) to clozapine, less likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms.

valbenzine, a reversible inhibitor of vesicular monamine transporter 2 is recently approved tx for TD

556
Q

Idiopathic TTP is usually diagnosed after excluding other possible causes of thrombocytopenia. these patients should be tested for ??

A

HepC and HIV as thrombocytopenia can be the initical presentation of HIV

557
Q

Maternal serum AFP is measured at 15-20 weeks to screen for?

A

open neural tube defects

increased indicated abdominal wall defects and multiple gestation

decreased indicated aneuploidies

558
Q

Pt with suspected urethral injury should undergo?

A

retrograde urethrogram to evaluate the diagnosis

559
Q

acute onset of headache following a meal in pt taking phenelzine raises concern for ??

A

hypertensive crisis.

phenelzine is one of seval MAOIs that have drug interaction with foods containing tyramine

560
Q

girl with hx of arhtralgia and psychosis, together with thrombocytopenia, hematura, and proteinura concerning for

A

SLE

order antinuclear antibodies

the sudden onset of psychosis in a child or adolescent is rare, and it is important to search for potentially reversible conditions such as medical disorders r substance abuse.

common medicla conditions to rule out include systemic lupus erythematosus, thyroiditis, metabolic or electrolyte disorder, CNS infection, or epilepsy

561
Q

common agents in the treatment of RA include

A

mthotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, and TNFa inhibitors (inflixamab and etanercept)

562
Q

fanconi anemia is the most common cause of congenital bone marrow failure nad is due to defective DNA repair. In addition to pancytopenia, what characteristic features do you see?

A

short stature, thumb anomalis and abnormal skin pigmentation

present with bleeding or bruising easily

563
Q

HUS characterized by triad of?

A

hemlytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and AKI

presentation typically occurs after bloody diarrhea

564
Q

meds commonly used to treat acute bipolar depression?

A

second gen antipsychotics: quetiapine and lurasidone and anticonvulsant lamotrigine. Lithium, vlaproate, and the combo of olanzaine and fluoxetine have also demonstrated efficacy

antidepressent monotherapy should generally be avoided in pt with Bipolar I due to risk of precipitating mania

565
Q

pt with normocytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and AKI following diarrheal illness - dx?

A

HUS

566
Q

Oxytocin is a potent uterotonic hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. A synthetic analog of ocytocin is used in labor induction and augmentation as well as in the prevention and managment of postpartum hemorrhage.

what are adverse effects?

A

hyponatremia
hypotension
tachysystole

567
Q

T/F does hx of cervical laser ablation increase risk of preterm labor?

A

false

568
Q

lymphadenopathy and HSM can result form extramedullary leukemic spread. The chest xray suggests lymphadenopathy in the mediastinum

how would you dx leukemia?

A

BONE MARROW BIOPSY!

not lymph node biopsy

> 25% lymphoblasts from bone marrow biopsy is diagnostic

569
Q

acute hyponatremic encephalopathy is a medical emergency and should be treated with

A

hypertonic (3%) saline

570
Q

pt receiving valproate should have ?? tests prior to therapy and regularly thereafter?

A

Liver tests for hepatotoxicity

in addition to hepatotoxicity, valproate is also associated with tremor thrombocytopenia and alopecia

571
Q

antiphospholipid syndrome is very common in SLE

what other rapid antigen test can show false positive in this patient population due to cross reaction with anti-cardiolipin?

A

RPR can be false positive

572
Q

By placing pt in a knee-chest position during a cyanotic spell you get increased pulmonary blood flow, and improved hypoxemia by what MOA?

A

increased systemic vascular resistance

573
Q

acute trachoma presents with follicular conjunctivitis an inflammation. Repeated or chronic infection causes inversion of the eyelashes and scarring of the cornea.

due to what bug??

A

chlamydia trachomatis

more common in children. more common in refugee camps/ crowded unsanitary places

574
Q

adenomyosis typically presents with?

A

chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhea, and heavy menstrual bleeding. on physical exam, uterus is symetrically enlarged, boggy, globular, and tender

575
Q

vaginal bleeding, closed cervix and no fetal cardiac activity is ?? vs cardiac activity?

A

missed vs threatened

576
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease affects what population and has what signs/sx’s

A

boys 3-12 peak age 6

lower extremity pain, hesitant to weight bear/limp
limited internal rotation and abduction of the hip

LCP is idiopathic avascular necoriss of the femoral head

577
Q

pt with epigastric pain/tenderness and weight loss in setting of nonspecific systemic symptoms and significant smoking history. combo strongly suggests?

A

a malignancy affecting the upper GI tract or associated solid organs such as liver, gallbladder, or pancreas

578
Q

chronic HTN predates pregnancy but can be diagnosed anytime before what gestational age?

A

20 weeks

579
Q

most consistently replicated neuroimaging finding in schizophrenia?

A

enlargement of ventricles

580
Q

Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in young children. Renal biopsy not required for initial diagnosis as the condition is highly responsive to??

A

Minimal change disease

responsive to steroids

581
Q

Infant with cyanosis and hypoxia that fail to improve with trial of 100% oxygen also machine like murmur

dx and tx?

A

PDA

PGE2 to keep it open

582
Q

Guillan barre Syndrome management?

A

serial spirometry to monitor respiratory status

583
Q

Fat embolism syndrome has what triad?

A

petechia
decreased O2
confusion

584
Q

a normal (reactive NST should demostrate?

A

> = 2 heart rate accelerations that are >=15 beats/min above baseline and >=15 seconds long within a 20 minute period

585
Q

routine one time screening for AAA with abdominal US for men age?? with hx of ?? but otherwise not needed in pt’s without suspicious symptoms

A

65-75

hx of smoking

586
Q

inexpensive noninvasice test used to confirm diagnosis of PAD

A

ankle brachial index <=0.9

587
Q

menopausal genitourinary syndrome refers to what symptoms? what is treatment?

A

vulvovaginal atrophy and related urinary symptoms due to hyperestrogenism

vaginal estrogen is indicated for moderate to severe symptoms with urinary involvement.

588
Q

mirtazapine is preferred choice for pt with what depressive symptoms

A

insomnia, poor appetite, weight loss

589
Q

Nonallergic rhinitis usually presents with one of the chronic rhinitis symptoms (nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, sneezing, and postnasal drainage) without a specific etiology. Routine allergy testing is not necessary prior to initiating empiric treatment. Depending on the severity of the symptoms, patients should be treated with??

A

intranasal antihistamine
intranasal steroid

or combo therapy

590
Q

first line therapy for acute mania include

A

anti psychotics, lithium, and anticonvulsants (valproate)

591
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disease characterized by intrahepatic cholestasis due to autoimmune destruction of small bile ducts. It presents in middle-aged women with fatigue, pruritis, hepatomegaly, and elevated alkaline phosphatase. The diagnosis is confirmed with serum??? antibody

A

anti mito

592
Q

Pt comes in after exposure to oxidizing agent (dapsone, nitrates, or local/topical anesthetic) looking cyanotic with low O2 sats. Dx?

A

methemaglobinemia

pt will have normal PaO2

593
Q

Olanzapine and clozapine are second gen antipsychotics which appear to pose the greatest risk of what and how should patients be monitored?

A

metabolic side effects

check glucose and cholesterol

594
Q

chronic diarrhea, lymphadenopathy, failure to thrive and severe infections are suggestive of what in infancy??

A

HIV

I thought CF but CF does not have lymphadenopathy and would have recurrent pneumonia

595
Q

first line intervention for newly diagnosed stage I hypertension and current smoker?

A

diet and lifestyle modification

smoking cessation not linked to decreased BP but should be encouraged.

596
Q

What should be suspected in pt with missed menstrual period (amenorrhea), abdominal pain and/or vaginal bleeding (pt may have cervical motion tenderness)

A

ruptured ectopic

597
Q

pregnancy >41 weeks puts baby at risk of decels and fetal demise due to what complications?

A

uteroplacental insufficiency

598
Q

Anosmia, hypogonadotropic hypogonadism makes with think what karotype and disease?

A

Kallman! syndrome (recessive X) boys 46xy girls 46 xx with random mutation

599
Q

Acute, unilateral LAD (lymphadenitis?/opathy), which is most commonly caused by

A

Staph aureus

strep pyogenes?? disease is the

600
Q

major cause of morbidity and mortality in pt with PAD, pt with PAD and intermittent claudication have an estimated 20% 5-year risk of??

A

cardiovascular

20% 5 year risk of nonfatal MI

601
Q

presents subacutely with fever and lower abdominal or flank pain, although symptoms (anorexia, weight loss) can be nonspecific

recent hx of skin infection

A

Psoas abscess diagnose with CT

US not sufficient to see deep enough into pelvis to diagnose

602
Q

would you expect an ANOREXIC to have hyper or hypo kalemia?

A

hypo

all electrolytes may be depleted

603
Q

pt with a single episode of major depressive disorder should continue antidepressants for ??? following acute response to reduce risk of relapse.

pt with recurrent, chronic, or severe episodes should be considered for maintenance treatment which lasts??

A

6 months following acute

1-3 years or indefinitely for recurrent, chronic, or severe

604
Q

RTA is caused by a defect in either hydrogen excretion or bicarb resorption in the kidney. In infancy, it most commonly presents with??

A

FTT due to chronic, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.

treatment consists of oral bicarb replacement

605
Q

when should an anorexic pt be hospitalized?

A

signs of dehydration, unstable vitals, cardiac dysrhythmias, electrolyte disturbances, organ involvement due to malnutrition or very low weight

606
Q

severe abdominal pain, fever, tachycardia, and signs of peritonitis (rigidity, reduced bowel sounds, rebound tenderness)

signs of what is diagnosed with xray?

A

perforated ulcer

607
Q

mesenteric angiography is the gold standard for evaluating ???, which typically presents with periumbilical pain out of proportion to exam findings and hematochezia

A

mesenteric ischemia

608
Q

Hyperemesis gravidum can be differentiated from typical nausea and vomiting of pregnancy by the presence of what in the urine?

A

ketones

609
Q

complicated SBO with increased risk of impending ischemia, strangulation, findings include changed in character of pain, fever, hemodynamic instability (hypotension, tachycardia), guarding, leukocytosis, and significatn metabolic acidosis

these findings warrant what management

A

urgent surgical intervention

610
Q

new onset of psychiatric and neurological abnormalities accompanied by unexplained acute abdominal pain and a family history of similar symptoms is suggestive of

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

611
Q

low serum IgA and IgG in combo with markedly elevated IgM is concerning for

A

Hyper-IgM syndrome

612
Q

What does calcium chloride or gluconate do

A

makes cardiac membrane resistant to effects of hyperkalemia

does nothing to change potassium levels

613
Q

cryptococcal meningoencephalitis usually develops in patients with advanced HIV disease (CD4 cell count <100/uL). Induction therapy includes

A

amphoteracin B plus flucytosine followed by fluconazole

614
Q

hypokalemia with hypernatremia and low plasma renin aldosterone in pt with HTN makes you think?

A

primary hyperaldosteronism

615
Q

symptomatic patients with prolonged QT syndrome (lightheadedness, palpitations) or those with hx of syncope require what interventions?

A

beta blocker and pacemaker

avoid any meds that mess with electrolytes

616
Q

FIrst line treatment of gestational DM is dietary modification and exercise. If nutritional therapy fails to produce euglycemia, what do you prescribe?

A

insulin or oral anti-diabetic medications are indicated.

Not sulfonylurea and not a glitter med for pregnant women

617
Q

Penile fracture is a urologic emergency and requires urgent operative repair. Patients with evidence of urethral injury (eg, blood at the meatus, dysuria, urinary retnetion) should undergo what imaging?

A

retrograde urethrogram! blood at meatus is not contraindication

618
Q

Effective treatment options for premenstrual disorder include?

A

SSRI or OCP

OCP contraindicated in pt with migraines

619
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a reaction to neuroleptic medications (haloperidol, fluphenazine) that results in

A

Severe (“lead pip”) muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, delerium, and autonomic instability

620
Q

LAI antipsychotics are administered intramuscularly every 2-3 weeks, eliminating the need to take oral medication daily.

who would you prescribe this to?

A

Schizophrenic who doesnt take his oral meds

621
Q

Anemia in pregnancy is defined by the CDC as hgb in the first and third tri’s and in the second

A

<11 in 1 and 3

<10.5 in second

622
Q

Pt with penetrating trauma who have evidence of significant injury to abdominal organs, such as hemodynamic instability, pertonitis, evisceration, or blood from ng tube or rectal exam, should undergo???

A

urgent ex lap

623
Q

Vasospastic angina is characterized by recurrent chest discomfort resulting from hyperreactivity of smooth muscle, leading to intermittent coronary artery vasospasm. ??? syndrome Affects digital arteries and occurs through similar mechanism?

A

Raynauds

624
Q

Central (gonadotropin-dependent) precocious puberty (PP) is characterized by premature breast and pubic/axillary hair developemtn, advanced bone age, and elevated LH. Patients with Central PP require what testing or imaging?

A

MRI of brain to evaluate for tumor prior to starting GnRH agonist therapy

625
Q

PDD (parkinson disease dementia) and DLB (dementia with lewy bodies) share similar pathology and clinical features. However they can be differentiated based on course; PDD is diagnosed when??

A

Parkinsonism predates cognitive impairment by >1 year, by contrast, DLB cognitive impairment would develop before or at the same time as parkinsonism

626
Q

Clozapine is indicated for the treatment of psychotic patients who do not respond to other antipsychotics. Patients must undergo regular monitoring for???

A

risk of neutropenia and agranulocytosis

627
Q

development of atrioventricular block in a patient with infective endocarditis should raise suspicion for??

A

perivalvular abscess extending into the adjacent cardiac conduction tissues

628
Q

Scaly, erythematous patch that can progress to alopecia with inflammation, lymphadenopathy, and scarring??

Oral griseofulvin or terbinafine are the preferred initial treatment options

A

Tinea capitis

dermatophyte infection

629
Q

The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is uterine atony. Initial treatment includes

A

Bimanual uterine massage and utertonic agents (oxytocin)

ergots contraindicated in HTN
-prost contraindicated in asthma

630
Q

Mild papular or nodular skin lesion and ipsilateral lymphadenitis of gradual onset. These symptoms in the setting of cat exposure are sufficient to make a clinical diagnosis of??

A

bartonella - cat scratch disease

631
Q

Excessive daytime sleepiness, hallucinations while falling asleep, and cataplexy (transient loss of muscle tone in response to intense emotion) are suggestive of ??

A

Narcolepsy

632
Q

Risk factors for ovarian torsion include ovulation induction (infetility treatment) and preexisting ovarian masses, especially those that are large

describe onset of symptoms?

A

acute severe lower abdominal pain

tender to deep palpation

633
Q

patients with acute cholecystitis should be treated with laparoscopic cholecystectomy within???

A

72 hrs

634
Q

Drug-induced interstitial nephritis can also present with acute kidney injury; however, urinalysis shows

A

WBC casts and eosinophiluria

635
Q

SLE will result in what change to complement levels?

A

over activation results in reduced complement levels

636
Q

osgood-schlatter disease is also called?

A

traction apophysitis

637
Q

Treatment includes increased fiber and fluid intake, stool softeners, sitz baths, and topical anesthetics and vasodilators (nifedipine, nitro)

all for what butt problem?

A

anal fissure

638
Q

Women with recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis infections (>=4 in a year) and other signs (nocturia, urinary frequency) should be evaluated with a ??

A

Hgb A1C for diabetes

639
Q

These scaly macules and papules are typically distributed obliquely along the lines of tension in a “christmas tree” pattern, most noticeable on the back. The rash is often asymptomatic but may be associated with mild pruritis. a viral prodrome may precede

what dx

A

Pityriasis rosacea

640
Q

first line medical treatment for IIH (pseudo tumor cerebri)

A

Acetazolamide

641
Q

Violent muscle contractions, as seen in a seizure or electrocution injury, are a common cause of what type of shoulder dislocation?
(hint-adducted and internally rotated)

A

posterior dislocation

642
Q

treatment of catatonia includes

A

benzo’s and ECT

643
Q

Craniofacial anomalies, thymic hypoplasia, and congenital heart diseaes are all features of what new born disease that can have life threatening hypocalcemia?

A

DiGeorge

644
Q

Inferior wall MI presents with ST-segment elevations in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF)

what artery is usually ocluded?

A

RCA>LCX

645
Q

Lithium, valproate, quetiapine, and lamotrigine are first line maintenance treatments for what psych disorder?

A

Bipolar I

646
Q

Renal complications in patients with sickle cell trait include

A

painless hematuria (medullary necrosis usually self resolving), urinary tract infections, and renal medullary cancer

647
Q

Epiglottitis presents with acute onset of respiratory distress (eg stridoor, tripod positioning) dysphagia, and drooling.

what do you do first to manage these patients?

A

secure an airway

648
Q

first steps in management of patients with suspected infective endocarditis>

A

BLOOD CXs

Abx

TEE

649
Q

PAS-positive material in the lamina propria of the small intestine is a classical biopsy finding in what disease?

A

whipple

650
Q

why are people anemic with beta thalassemia?

A

decreased Hgb synthesis

NOT MEMBRANE DEFECT

651
Q

Adult chronic cough, worse at night with no other symptoms(maybe white sputum) makes you think>

A

asthma - PFTs with bronchodilator challenge

652
Q

anaerobic coverage for aspiration pneumonia?

A

metronidazole with amoxicillin

amox-clav

clinda

653
Q

why is normal to elevated PaCO2 in asthma exacerbation bad?

A

Pt’s should have respiratory alkalosis, if normal or elevated then impending respiratory failure

654
Q

non-traumatic SAH in adult most commonly due to what?

in kid?

A

adult: ruptured berry aneurysm
kid: cerebral AVM

655
Q

acute therapy for hyperkalemia is reserved for what situation?

A

symptomatic with EKG changed or K greater than or equal to 7

656
Q

initial FM treatment should emphasize patient education, regular aerobic exercise, and good sleep hygeine. patients who do not respond to conservative measures may require medications

what is first line for FM

A

TCAs

657
Q

Minimal change disease (MCD) is the most common form od nephrotic syndrome in patients with NSAID use and what hematologic malignancy

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

658
Q

(coarse facial features, arthralgias, uncontrolled hypertension, enlargement of the digits, carpal tunnel syndrome) is consistent with

A

Acromegaly

caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone most commonly due to pituitary adenoma

659
Q

Muscarinic (M1) receptors, leading to anticholinergic symptoms (dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention)

histamine receptors, leading to lethargy

alpha adrenergic receptors, leading to orthostatic hypotension

these are all common side effects of what drug hat blocks NE and serotonin reuptake

A

amitryptyline

660
Q

osteonecrosis (aseptic necrosis) of the femoral head, including progressive hip pain, limited internal rotation and abduction, and normal xrays and inflammatory markers (eryhtocyte sedimentation rate [ESR])

what causes it?

common in what blood disorder?

A

caused by occlusion of end artery

common in sickle cell

661
Q

differential for anemia with decreased MCV

A

iron deficiency

lead toxicity

thalassemia

sideroblastic anemia

*hereditary sphereocytosis

662
Q

Severe hypercalcemia can cause weakness, gastrointestinal distress, and neuropsychiatric symptoms. Initial treatment includes ?

A

Rehydration

663
Q

Loss to follow-up is a problem for prospective studies as it creates the potential for a type of ?? bias known as attrition bias.

A

Selection

664
Q

Legionaires’ disease is treated with antibiotics that acheive high intracellular concentration, particularly??

A

Macrolides or flouroquinolones

ex levofloxacin

665
Q

Symptoms are indolent and include headache, malaise, fever, and incessant dry cough.

Nonpurulent pharyngitis, macular skin rash, and subclinical hemolytic anemia (due to cold agglutinins) may occur.

WBC count is usually normal. Chest Xray typically reveals interstitial infiltrates; a serous pleural effusion may be present in approximately 25 % of patients

A

Atypical pneumonia

like mycoplasma

666
Q

Rapid treatment with ?? is necessary in patients with hyperkalemia who devlop significant EKG changes

A

calcium gluconate

667
Q

How does squatting vs Valsalva effect hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? how is it inherited?

A

Squatting will make it quieter, valsalva makes it louder

auto dom

668
Q

women. headaches due to internal carotid artery stenosis and secondary HTN due to renal artery stenosis are common presentations. Accompanying bruits may be found in the neck and abdomen

what disease

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

669
Q

Patients with HIV who have subacute-onset of low-grade fever, headache, and signs of increased intracranial pressure should be evaluated for ???

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

670
Q

Pt with HIV who develop progressive disseminated histoplasmosis (PDH) require IV ?? what drug?

A

amphoteracin B

671
Q

??? and corticosteroids have been shown to increase appetite and weight gain in patients with cancer-related anorexia/cachexia syndrome

A

progesterone analogues

672
Q

Patients with this disease have prolonged bleeding time and activated partial thromboplastin time. Platelet counts are typically normal.

A

Von Willebrund

673
Q

Carcinoid syndrome causes pellagra (diarrhea, dermatitis, glossitis, angular stomatitis, and dementia) due to deficiencies in what??

A

Tryptophan and niacin

precoursor to make serotonin

674
Q

preferred diagnostic study in patients with renal insufficiency or hemodynamic instability for aortic dissection is??

A

TEE

675
Q

difference between incidence and prevalence

A

incidence is new cases in a time period

prevalence is existing cases in a time period

676
Q

Methods used to control for confounding bias during data analysis include?

A

Matching

restriction

randomization

677
Q

Inflammatory arthritis, splenomegaly, and neutropenia. This triad of clinical findings is characteristic of ??

A

Felty syndrome

often in pt with long hx of RA but sometimes presenting symptoms before diagnosis

678
Q

Hydroxychloroquine is commonly used in SLE and can sometimes cause what unfortunate side effect after prolonged use?

A

retinal toxicity

pt should have baseline opthalmologic exam and then follow up in 5 years

679
Q

ibutilide or pracainamide is used for rhythm control in afib w/RVR in what subset of patients

A

WPW

680
Q

Worsening epigastric pain and weight loss in setting of idiopathic chronic pancreatitis suggests?

A

pancreatic cancer

get a CT

681
Q

One of the earliest findings in ??? is pt complaint of vision distortion of straight lines such that they appear wavy

A

macular degeneration

682
Q

TMP-SMX is the initial drug of choice for the treatment of PCP regardless of pneumonia severity. Typically lasts for 21 days.

what else should be given with TMP-SMX that has been shown to reduce mortality in pt with acute pcp?

A

Steroids

683
Q

In what setting would you hold metformin in a diabetic?

A

Metformin should not be given to acutely ill patients with acute renal failure, liver failure, or sepsis as these conditions increase the risk of lactic acidosis

684
Q

History of gastrectomy and presence of glossitis are more suggestive of what deficiency?

A

B12 deficiency

glossitis may also be seen in deficiencies such as riboflavin, niacin, folic acid, or iron

685
Q

Pt with hyperthyroidism and supressed TSH should undergo throig radioiodine scintigraphy to distinguish painless thyroiditis from graves disease

what will be seen with each?

A

Painless will not have increased uptake

graves will

686
Q

Pt found down, hypoxic and tachycardic with elevated pulmonary artery and right atrial pressures consistent with ??

A

PE

687
Q

Hypogonadism, impaired wound helaing, impaired tast and immune dysfunction. characteristic physical exam findings include alopecia as well as skin rash consisting of erythematous pustules around body orifices (mouth) and on extremities

all signs of what deficiency

A

zinc

688
Q

Nonspecific systemic symptoms (fever cough abdominal pain diarrhea night sweats weight loss) in presence of splenomegaly and elevated alk phos should raise suspicion for disseminated ??? in pt with HIV and CD4 <50

A

MAC

689
Q

A hazard ratio <1 or >1 indicated that an event is more likely to occur in the control or treatment group??

A

<1 control

> 1 treatment

690
Q

In regards to lower esophageal pressure, what differs between systemic sclerosis and achalasia

A

with achalasia there is incomplete relaxation and increased LES pressure

with SSc there is decreased LES pressure

691
Q

Pt with symptomatic sarcoid should be treated with what?

should rule out granulomatous disease and TB before prescribing.

A

glucoccorticoids

692
Q

scleroderma renal crisis presents with renal failure and malignant hypertension.

What will you see in urine and on peripheral smear

A

proteinuria and schistocytes (like MAHA)

693
Q

P2y12 receptor blockers are what kinds of drugs?

A

antiplatelet - clopidogrel ticagrelor pasurgrel

694
Q

MALT lymphoma is associated with environmental factors like cigarette smoking, nitro compounds and salt preserved foods but what previous infection hx is common in these patients>

A

H pylori

695
Q

medical name for Sensorineural hearing loss that occurs with aging (having a hard time hearing amongst background noise like busy restaurant)

A

prebycusis - normal with aging

696
Q

aging skin lesions in an HIV pt with CD4<100 (not kaposi)

A

Bacilliary angiomatosis (bartonella henslae - cat scratch disease)

697
Q

Afib is caused by ectopic foci where?

A

pulmonary veins

698
Q

all RA patients should be started on a DMARD to prevent progression of disease. What is first line?

A

methotrexate

699
Q

UPSTF recommends screening male active smokers aged ?? for AAA using which method?

A

65-75 with abdominal US

700
Q

CRAO is an opthalmologic emergency. a delay in treatment may result in permanent loss of vision. Immediate intervention includes??

A

Ocular massage which dislodges the embolus to a point further down the arterial circulation and improves retinal perfusion. Medical management and anterior chamber paracentesis to lower the intraocular pressure may be used, but ocular massage has the most rapid action. carbogen therapy (5% co2 and 95% o2) or hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) therapy have been shown to be beneficial if given early

701
Q

trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication sometimes used in treatment of what disease? generally in younger patients where tremor is the primary symptom

A

Parkinson’s

702
Q

Pt found on the streets with bilateral submandibular swelling (salivary gland swelling) - this is most likely related to what substance?

A

Alcohol

called sialadenosis

703
Q

Loop diuretics are frequently administered to cirrhotic patients with volume overload and ascites. Potential side effects include?

A

hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and prerenal kidney injury

704
Q

Diabetic autonomic neuropathy occurs in >50% of patients with longstanding type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus and can manifest as disorders of esophageal motility (dysphagia), gastric emptying (gastroparesis), or intestinal function (diarrhea, constipation, incontinence). Gastroparesis presents with symptoms of anorexia, nausea, vomiting, early satiety, or postprandial fullness. Hypoglycemic episodes can occur with insulin administration prior to meals in patients with impaired gastric emptying or delayed absorption

treatment?

A

small frequent meals

meds to increase kinetics gastric emptying such as metaclopramide

705
Q

True or False - you can observe dtr’s in brain death pt?

A

true - spinal cord may still be functioning

706
Q

The most common extraarticular manifestation of Ankylosing spondylitis and occurs in 25-40% of patients ???

A

anterior uveitis

707
Q

Hx of recent URI followed by sudden onset of cardiac failure in an otherwise healthy patient is suggestive of?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy (viral myocarditis)

708
Q

Polycythemia vera is a clonal myeloproliferative disorder characterized by erythrocytosis. Most cases are associated with a JAK2 mutation. Patients are often asymptomatic at diagnosis but may present with symptoms related to increased blood viscosity (transient visual disturbances, hypertension, thrombosis) and increased RBC turnover (gouty arthritis). Itching after warm showers (aquagenic pruritis) is common. Physical exam often shows facial plethora (ruddy cyanosis) and splenomegaly. Unlike other causes of eryhtrocytosis (chronic hypoxia, EPO-producing tumors), patients with PV usually have NORMAL oxygen saturations and LOW EPO levels. CBC often shows increase in all 3 cell lines

what is treatment??

A

Serial phlebotomy

709
Q

CRC screening with colonoscopy and mucosal sampling should be offered to patients with UC begning at age??

A

8 years post dx then every 1-2 years

710
Q

Pt with afib and symptoms of hyperthyroid what is first medication for treatment>

A

propanolol or beta blocker

711
Q

What would you order if suspicious for SVC syndrome?

A

CXR - look for underlying malignancy

712
Q

Most common cause of esophageal rupture

A

endoscopy followed by retching

713
Q

Which veins are the souce of 90% of acute PEs

A

Iliac femoral and popliteal

714
Q

Cutaneous KS develops most often on??

A

lower extremities, face, oral mucosa, and genitalia

715
Q

Folate and cobalamin deficiency both result in megaloblastic, macrocytic anemia. Why is it important to rule out b12 deficiency before giving folate?

A

giving folate can worsen symptoms and precipitate neuropathy in b12 deficiency

716
Q

FSGS and membranous nephropathy are the most common causes of nephrotic syndrome in adults. Which is more common in African american with obesity heroin and HIV?

A

FSGS

717
Q

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (HOA) is a condition where digital clubbing is accompanied by sudden-onset arthropathy, commonly affecting the wrist and hand joints. How would you evaluate for HOA?

A

CXR

718
Q

myalgias, proximal muscle weakness, and elevated serum CK. pt have additional features (fatigue, delayed reflexes)

these myalgias are present in 1.3 of people with this disease
usually women

A

hypothyroidism get TSH and T4

719
Q

Prolonged infusion of sodium nitroprusside at high rates can lead to what toxicity?

A

cyanide

720
Q

Initial therapy in pt with HTN and renal artery stenosis?

A

Lisinopril

721
Q

Patient with fatigue, prolonged bleeding, and easy bruising has pancytopenia, coagulopathy, and elevated LDH stongly suggests

A

AML

722
Q

salvage therapy is defined as treatment for a disease when

A

standard therapy fails,

example: pt has prostate cx, resencted and post op PSA undetectable. 3 mos later has elevated PSA and needs radiation therapy - this is salvage therapy

723
Q

Single greatest risk factor for C. dif-associated diarrhea is recent abx use which disrupts flora

other common risk factors include

A

recent hospitalization and PPI use

724
Q

The NPV is defined as?

what effects NPV?

A

The probability of being disease free with a negative test result

Pretest probability - high pretest probability with lower NPV - low pretest probability with higher NPV

725
Q

The patients urinalysis shows rectangular, envelope shaped calcium oxalate crystals, which are classically observed in patients with what poisoning?

A

Ethylene glycol

726
Q

NSAIDs are common cause of ??? anemia, often through chronic blood loss from GI tract

A

Iron deficiency anemia

727
Q

The main risk factors assocaited with AAA expansion and rupture include large diameter, rate of expansion, and current smoking

what about HTN?

A

HTN has week association with rupture of AAA

728
Q

8 am serum cortisol and plasma ACTH. In addition, an ACTH stim test (cosyntropin test) can identify pt with? and should be done at initial evaluation

A

primary adrenal indufficiency - Addisons disease (hyponatremic hyperkalemic due to low aldo)

729
Q

Health care worker exposed to blood from HBV patients (ocular, mucous membrane or skin) should receive post-exposure prophylaxis. Unvaccinated individuals should receive??

A

vaccine and immunoglobulin ASAP

730
Q

normocytic anemia, splenomegaly, reticulocytosis, juandice with elevated indirect bili, increased LDH and decreased serum haptoglobin

A

AIHA (warm) treat with high dose steroids

731
Q

HIV infected pt with AMS, EBV DNA in the CSF and solitary, weakly ring-enhacnig pervientricular mass on MRI

A

Primary CNS lymphoma

732
Q

laboratory results demonstrate a blood urea nitrogen/creatinine ratio >20:1 and an unremarkable urine sediment in an elderly pt

A

hypovolemic pre-renal AKI

733
Q

trigeminal neuralgia bilaterally

A

MS demyelination of trigeminal nuclie

734
Q

Smudge cells are pathopneumonic for?

A

CLL