Uworld Flashcards

1
Q

Bronchiectasis is associated with:

A

Bronchial obstruction, poor ciliary motility (smoking, kartagener syndrome), cystic fibrosis and aspergillosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Heteroplasmy?

A

Different mitochondrial genomes within a single cell. Ex: ragged skeletal muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Fragile X syndrome?

A

most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, the defect is an unstable expansion of trinucleotide repeats CGG in the FMR1 gene, located on the long arm of the X chromosome. Classic physical features include macrocephaly, long narrow face, prominent forehead, jaw, chin and ears.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?

A

Sudden onset palpitations and rapid regular tachycardia Vagal maneuvers such as carotid sinus massage, valsalva and cold water immersion can be used to acutely terminate PSVT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Carotid sinus massage effect:

A

increases vagal parasympathetic tone, this slows conduction through the AV node and prolongs the AV node refractory period, helping to terminate the reentrant tachycardia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cholesteatoma?

A

collections of squamous cell debris that form a round, pearly mass behind the tympanic membrane in the middle ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hepatitis A histologically?

A

spotty necrosis with balloting degeneration (hepatocyte swelling with wispy/clear cytoplasm), councilman bodies (eosinophilic apoptotic hepatocytes) and mononuclear cell infiltrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Warfarin prolongs…

A

PT time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ACE inhibitors stimulates…

A

Bradykinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acyclovir S.E.

A

Nephrotoxicity, give enough hydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Heparin increases the effect of….

A

antithrombin III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Carbamazepine SE:

A

Bone marrow suppression, which may lead to anemia, agranulocytosis and thrombocytopenia, and SIDH, leading to hyponatremia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Valproate use:

A

Anticonvulsant used to treat bipolar disorder with manic episodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dopamine effects at low and high doses:

A

At lower doses, stimulates D1 receptors in the renal vasculature and tubules, inducing an increase in renal blood flow, glomerular filtration rate amd sodium excretion. As the dosage increases, dopamine begins to stimulates B1 adrenergic receptors in the heart, increasing cardiac contractility, heart rate and systolic blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Influenza infection can alters the risk of…

A

secondary bacterial pneumonia, which the leading pathogen are: S. pneumonia, S.aureus and H. influenza.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mosaicism classification…

A

the presence of multiple different cell lines within the body. It can be divided in somatic and germline. Somatic produce disease manifestation, whereas germline does not, but can be pass to the offsprint.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Complete monosomy X disease:

A

Turner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Histology of MS:

A

perivenular inflammatory infiltrates made up primarily of auto reactive T lymphocytes and macrophages directed against myelin components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Varenicline MA:

A

Partial stimulation of receptor, reduces nicotine withdrawal, prevents nicotine from binding and inducing reward response. Is a partial agonist that compites with nicotine and prevents it from binding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Middle cerebral artery stroke symptoms:

A

contralateral paralysis and sensory loss, face and upper limb. Aphasia if in dominant hemisphere. Hemineglect if lesion affects non dominant side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Anterior cerebral artery stroke symptoms:

A

contralateral paralysis and sensory loss of lower limbs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lenticulo-striate artery stroke symptoms:

A

contralateral paralysis and sensory loss of face and body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Anterior spinal artery stroke symptoms:

A

contralateral paralysis of upper and lower limbs, decreased contralateral proprioception and ipsilateral hypoglossal dysfunction (tongue deviates ipsilaterally).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery stroke symptoms:

A

vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus, decreased pain and temperature sensation from ipsilateral face and contralateral body, dysphagia, hoarseness, decreased gag reflex, ipsilateral horner syndrome, ataxia and dysmetria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery stroke symptoms:

A

vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus, paralysis of the face, decreased lacrimation, salivation, decreased taste, ipsilateral pain and temperature of the face, contralateral of the body. Ataxia and dysmetria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Basilar artery stroke symptoms:

A

vertical eye movement, blinking, quadriplegia, loss of voluntary facial, mouth and tongue movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Posterior cerebral artery stroke symptoms:

A

contralateral hemianopia with macular sparing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Huntington disease PF:

A

Atrophy of the caudate nucleus, which is caracterized by the insidious onset of chorea, dementia and behavioral abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Atrophy of the lentiform nucleus…

A

Wilson disease (hepatolenticular degenerarion) which is caracterized by liver (hepatitis, cirrhosis), psychiatric (depression, personality changes), and neurologic (dysarthria, movement disorder) abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Degenerarion of the substancia nigra occurs in…

A

Parkinson disease, which is characterized by bradykinesia, rigidity and resting tremos.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Damage to the subthalamic nucleus…

A

Can decrease excitation of the globus pallidus, thereby reducing inhibition of the thalamus. This may result in contralateral hemiballism, a movement disorder characterized by wild, involuntary, large-amplitude, flinging movements involving the proximal limbs on one side of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Theophylline…

A

Asthma drug that inhibits phosphodiesterase, increasing cAMP by inhibiting cAMP hydrolysis. Usage is limited because of narrow therapeutic index (cardiotoxicity, neurotoxicity), metabolized by cytochrome p450. Blocks action of adenosine and can cause tachyarrhythmias and seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Necrotizing pancreatitis by pancreatic inflammation and autodigestion…

A

Trypsinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Kinesin function…

A

Carries vesicles amd organelles away from the cell body and toward the nerve terminal. Is a microtubule associated motor protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Influenza immunity is given by…

A

Antibodies against hemagglutinin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Friedreich ataxia…

A
AR 
Gait ataxia
Pes cavus
Kyphoscoliosis 
Diabetes mellitus
Complicarions from cardiomyopathy: cardiac arrhytmias, congestive heart failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tamoxifen

A

A selective esteogen receptor modulator that acts as an estrogen antagonisy in the breast, can reduce the risk of gynecomastia in these patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Major receptors involved in stimulating the vomiting reflex in the area postrema and adjacent vomiting center nuclei are:

A

M1, D2, H1, 5-HT3, NK1 (neurokinin-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is most commonly caused by:

A

Deletions resulting in frameshift mutations or nonsense mutations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Dermatomyositis is a…

A

systemic autoimmune disease characterized by proximal weakness resembling polymyositis, but with additional inflammatory features involving the skin. May occur along or as a paraneoplastic syndrome of an underlying malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Gilbert syndrome pathophysiology:

A

Mildly decreased UDP-glucuronosyltransferase conjugation and impaired bilirubin uptake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Crigler-Najjar syndrome pathophysiology:

A

Absent UDP-glucuronosyltransferase. Presents early in life; patients die within a few years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Dubin-Johnson syndrome pathophysiology:

A

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to defective liver excretion. Grossly black liver. Benign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Rotor syndrome pathophysiology:

A

Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to defective liver excretion, but milder in presentation without black liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Reumatoid factors

A

Antibody specific for the Fc component of IgG, anti-CCP antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

5-alpha-reductase function:

A

conversion of testosterone to DHT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ayer Martin Agar media contents:

A

Selectively favor growth of Neisseria by inhibiting growth of gram + organisms with Vancomycin, gram - organism except Neisseria with Trimethoprim and Colistin, and fungi with Nystatin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Triad of WPW:

A

shortened PR intervals, widening of the QRS interval and slurred and broad initial upstroke of the QRS complex, referred to as delta waves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Las of 3’-5’ exonuclease activity

A

Hep C virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Propranolol effects in the thyroid synthesis:

A

Inhibits the conversion of T4 to T3 in the periphery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Transthyretin gene mutation manifestation:

A

Cardiac amyloidosis seen in age-related (senile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

beta-myosin heavy chain gene mutation manifestation:

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Mononucleosis-like syndrome manifestation:

A

Fever, fatigue, splenomegaly, atypical lymphocytosis

Causes: CMV,HHV-6, HIV and toxoplasmosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Serotonin Syndrome tx:

A

Cyproheptadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Cefuroxime use and MA:

A

Second gen. cephalosporins that inhibit cell wall synthesis… HENS PEcK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Second generation antihistamine:

A

Loratadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

First generation anti-histamine side effects:

A

cholinergic (urinary retention, blurred vision, constipation, glaucoma and delirium), alpha-adrenergic (dizziness and fall) and serotonergic (weight gain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Methotrexate SE:

A

Pulmonary fibrosis, restrictive lung disease (honey combs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

LMN symptoms:

A

muscle weakness, fasciculations and atrophy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

UMN symptoms:

A

spasticity, hyperreflexia, and pathologic reflexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Mutation seen in ALS:

A

mutation of the gene that codes for cooper-zinc superoxide dismutase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Tx for ALS:

A

Riluzole which decrease glutamate release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Poliomyelitis PF:

A

IS AN ENTEROVIRAL INFECTION THAT DAMAGES MOTOR NEURONS OF THE ANTERIOR HORNS. iT IS A PURE LOWER MOTOR NEURON DISEASE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Huntington disease PF:

A

AD disease, that leads to atrophy of the caudate nucleus and putamen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Friedrich ataxia is associated with:

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, kyphoscoliosis, foot abnormalities and diabetes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

terminating codon encodes for

A

releasing factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Parasites that can cause disease in RBC’s include:

A

Plasmodium (malaria) and Babesia (babesiosis, transmitted by a Ixodes tick).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Parvovirus B19 presentation:

A

SS DNA virus, that can be acquired respiratory, congenital or hematogenous. In child erythema infectious, in adults acute symmetric arthropathy, chronic hemolytic anemia, transient aplastic crisis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Cheyne-Stokes Breathing?

A

It is seen in CHF, is a combination of episodes of apnea and low and high tidal volumes (hyper and hypoventilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Kussmaul breathing

A

deep and labored breathing, seen in DKa patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Neurofibromatosis type 1 manifestations

A

Café-au-lait spot= hyperpigmented macules over the trunk soon after birth and are at increased risk of developing CNS neoplasms.

Cutaneous neurofibromas= manifest during early adolescence as multiple, raised, fleshy tumors. These are benign nerve sheath neoplasms predominantly comprised os Schwann cells, derived from neural crest cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Hypocalcemia after transfussion is due to…

A

Chelating agents in transfused blood, like citrate anticoagulant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Linkage disequilibrium

A

Gamete posibilities varies in frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Penetrance

A

Proportion of people with a given genotype who express its associated phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Pleiotropy

A

Is the occurrence of multiple phenotypic manifestations, often in different organ systems, which result from a mutation in a single gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

PPV depends on…

A

Sensitivity, specificity, and prevalence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Donepezil

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor used in AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Age-related macular degeneration (AMD)

A

Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF): Ranibizumab, bevacizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Transmembrane domains composed of alpha helices with hydrophobic amino acids residues helps…

A

Help anchor the protein to the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Common medical conditions with polygenic inheritance

A
Androgenetic alopecia
Epilepsy
Glaucoma
Hypertension
Ischemic heart disease
Schizophrenia
Type II diabetes mellitus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Polygenic traits

A

Exhibit incomplete dominance so the phenotype displayed in offspring is a mixture of the phenotypes displayed in the parents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Sedating antidepressant associated with priapism:

A

Trazodone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Trazodone MA:

A

Serotonin modulator (antagonizes postsynaptic serotonin receptors and inhibits serotonin reuptake)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Aspergillus fumigatus

A

Can cause lung disease in immunocompromised patients. In tissue samole it is seen as septate hyphae that at 45-degree angles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Candida albicans

A

Small oval yeast with narrow-based budding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Coccidioides immitis

A

Dimorphic fungus seen as spherules (round encapsulated structures containing many endospores).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Forma yeast with variable sizes and narrow-based buds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Multiple myeloma Tx:

A

Bortezomib, a proteasome inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

CML translocation

A

(9:22) BCR-ABL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

RT-PCR

A

detects mRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Shiga-like toxin may cause

A

Kidney damage, HUS, hemolytic anemia, increased increased indirect bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Prolonged and untreated obstructive sleep apnea can cause:

A

pulmonary hypertension and right heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Pancreas divisum occurs when…

A

ventral and dorsal pancreatic buds fail to fuse. The ventral bud gives rise to posterior portion of the head and the major pancreatic bud.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Clinical features of amniotic fluid embolism:

A

Cardiogenic shock, hypoxemic respiratory failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation and seizures or coma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Anaerobic bacterias from the mouth that can cause aspiration pneumonia…

A

Peptostreptococcus, prevotella, bacteroides and fusobacterium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Presence of erythroid precursor cells in the liver indicates…

A

extra medullary hematopoyesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Myosin light chain dephosphorilation causes…

A

relaxation of vessels…. (nitrates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Leuprolide mechanism of action…

A

it is an agonist of GnRH when given in a pulsatile manner causing a transient rise of LH. Continuos stimulation of GnRH suppressed the pituitary LH release, and subsequent production of testosterone from Leydig cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Small cell lung carcinoma express…

A

neuron-specific enolase, chromogranin, synaptophysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Sarcoidosis mode of presentation…

A

fever, malaise, macules or erythema nodosum, non-caseating granuloma, hilar lymphadenopathy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Vitamin A helps…

A

differentiation of epithelial cell into specialized cells (pancreatic cells, mucus-secreating cells).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Cleft palate PF:

A

failure of fusion of the maxillary prominence and intermaxillary segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Filtration factor division:

A

GFR/RPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

PPAR’S effect:

A

Increase fatty acid uptake
adiponectin production
increase insulin sensitivity
decrease leptin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Can occur after an administration of monoclonal antibodies:

A

Serum sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Serum sickness symptoms:

A

fever, pruritic rash and arthralgia, vessel vasculitis, fibrinoid necrosis and neutrophil infiltration. Type III H.S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

SSRI’s side effects:

A

sexual dysfunction: decreased libido, decreased arousal, anorgasmia in woman and increased ejaculationlatency in men.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

PTSD requires symptoms for how long:

A

1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

familial erythrocytosis

A

mutation in the b-globin resulting in a reduced binding to 2-3bpg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Benzodiazepine mechanism of action:

A

binds allosterically GABA receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Innulin and Manitol are (in the kidney)…

A

freely filtered and excreted, no reabsorption or secretion occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

PAH is (in the kidney)….

A

filtered and also excreted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Giant cell arteritis…

A

visual and muscular symptoms, headaches, enlarged temporal artery, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, associated with poly myalgia rheumatica. The production of IL-6 appears to correlate with the severity of the disease. Tx: monoclonal antibody against IL-6 (tocilizumab)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Clozapine tx:

A

treatment-resistant schizophrenia and schizophrenia associated with suicidality. Adverse effects includes: agranulocytosis, seizures, myocarditis and metabolic syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Anaphylaxis reaction produce:

A

mast cell and basophil degranulation and histamine and tryptase release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

5-hydroxyindoleic acid

A

metabolite of serotonin, measured in serotonin syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Scurvy manifestations:

A

Petechiae, hemarthrosis, swollen gums, poor wound healing, hemorrhages and myalgia. Due to a Bit C deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Dystrophin is:

A

a structural component of skeletal muscle fibers that provides mechanical stability to the sarcolemma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Neurophysins are…

A

are carrier proteins of oxytocin and vasopressin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

MCC of osteomyelitis in children with Sickle cell disease:

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Turner syndrome PF:

A

lack of the paternal chromosome (45,X). Presents with streak ovaries, webbed neck, coarctation of the aorta, bicuspid aortic valve, horseshoe kidney, short stature, widely separated nipples, low hairline and high arched palate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Cryptoccocus neoformans stain:

A

Stains red with mucicarmine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

paraneoplastic cachexia mediators…

A

IL-1, IL-6 and TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Aqueous humor is produced by:

A

Ciliary bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Glioblastoma arises from:

A

astrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

brain metastases typically appears as:

A

multiple, well-circumscribed masses at the junction of the white and gray matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Meningiomas are:

A

benign adult brain tumors that arise from arachnoid cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

complications of hereditary spherocytosis:

A

aplastic crisis from Parvovirus B19 infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Entacapone effects:

A

COMT inhibitor; lowers the degradation of levodopa at peripheral level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Influenza virus can infect different species via:

A

genetic reassortment. IV is a orthomyxovirus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Milrinone mechanism of action:

A

Inhibits de degradation of cAMP to AMP, thus promotes vasodilation and heart muscle contractility, by Gs receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Intraductal papilloma PF:

A

papillary cells in a duct or cyst wall with a fibrovascular core.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

fibrocystic changes of the breast

A

premenstrual breast pain with lumps, often multifocal and bilaterally. Non proliferative lesions include simple cyst, papillary apocrine change, stromal fibrosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

age-related macular degeneration

A

causes central scotomas, the tx is ranibizumab. Can be dry (deposition of yellowish material or wet (neovascularization).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

In pernicious anemia we will see…

A

increased gastrin levels, increased pH and decreased parietal cells.
B12 deficiency do to decreased intrinsic factor production by the parietal cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Hyper-IgM syndrome:

A

defective or absent CD40Ligand, causes severe infections (cryptosporidium) and increased IgM. It is a combines B and T cell disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Hernias more prone to incarceration and strangulation:

A

femoral hernias because the femoral canal is small, and they can not be reduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Sideroblastic anemia results of:

A

ALA synthase deficiency, B6 deficiency, Isoniazid, alcohol, myelodysplastic syndrome and cooper deficiency. It forms ringed sideroblast. Tx is B6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Lead poisoning results from:

A

ALA dehydratase and ferrochelate inhibition by lead. Presents with foot drop, encephalopathy, lead lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Homocystinuria results from:

A

Cystathionine synthase deficiency or B6 deficiency, which catalyzes the conversion of cystathionine to homocysteine. It presents with marfanoid habits and hyper coagulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Sumatriptan for the tx of:

A

cluster headache and migraine. It is a serotonin agonist. Inhibit trigeminal nerve activation, prevents vasoactive peptide release and induce vasoconstriction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

DNA polymerase I

A

removes RNA primers and replace them with DNA. Is the only DNA polymerase with 5 to 3 exonuclease activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Tests used to diagnose Chronic granulomatous disease:

A

NBT testing (can reduce NBT from yellow to dark blue) and DHR flow cytometry which measure the conversion of DHR to rhodamine, a fluorescent green compound that can be detected by flow cytometry. Both detects properly functioning neutrophils.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae vaccine creates:

A

IgI against circulating proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Perchlorate and pertechnetate MA:

A

competitive inhibitor of the sodium-iodide symporter. Iodine uptake is regulated by TSH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Manifestations of Graves ophthalmopathy usually responds to:

A

glucocorticoid therapy.

They are immune mediated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Neurofibromatosis manifestations:

A

cafe au last spot, gliomas, cutaneous neurofibromas, bone abnormalities and lisch nodules and pheochromocytoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Fidaxomicin use and mechanism of action:

A

to treat C.difficile. It inhibits the sigma subunits of RNA polymerase leading to protein synthesis impairment and cell death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

decreased number of functional t-tubules leads to:

A

uncoordinated muscle contraction of myofibrils which manifest as muscle weakness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

PAH is:

A

freely filtered and secreted by a carrier protein-mediated process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The red cell index most specific for spherocytosis is:

A

an elevation in mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Primary site for ribosome synthesis and assembly:

A

nucleolus; except the 5S rRNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Torsades de pointes can be precipitated by:

A

antiarrhythmics class I and III(sotalol, quinidine), antipsychotics (haloperidol) and antibiotics(macrolides and fluoroquinolone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Warfarin induced skin necrosis is due to:

A

Protein C or Protein S deficiency. The tx include stop treatment with Warfarin and nice fresh frozen plasma or Protein C concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Accessory nipples are due to:

A

failure of involution of the mammary ridge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Insulin-dependent Glucose transporter:

A

GLUT-4 (skeletal muscle and adipocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

GLUT-1,2,3,4,5:

A

GLUT-1 brain and adipocytes
GLUT-2 hepatocytes, pancreatic b-cells, renal tubules and small intestinal mucosa.
GLUT-3 placental and neuronal glucose transport
GLUT-4 skeletal muscle and adipocytes
GLUT-5 fructose transporter found in spermatocytes and GI tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

MHC Class II is presented on

A

antigen presenting cells to present bacterias to TH cells and activate the humoral and cell mediated inmune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

MHC Class I consist of:

A

one heavy chain and a beta2 microglobin and is present in all nucleated cells to induce apoptosis of viruses, tumor proteins,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Thyroid dermopathy

A

caused by stimulation of fibroblast by TRAb and activated T-cells, leading to excess production of glycosaminoglycans and adipogenesis, this lead to induration and thickening of the skin over the shins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Glucocorticoids effect on calcium:

A

glucocorticoids decrease the G.I. absorption of calcium, inhibit collagen synthesis by osteoblasts, decrease GnRH (leading to hypogonadism) and increase urinary calcium loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Turner syndrome findings:

A

cystic hygroma, lymphedema (bilateral extremity swelling) and coarctation of the aorta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

A

results from a deficit in testosterone receptors. The typical presentation is a 46,XY adolescent who appears phenotypically female but has primary amenorrhea due to the absence of an internal female reproductive tract and the presence of cryptorchid testes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Gap junctions protein

A

connexins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

tight junction protein

A

claudine, occludin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Adherens junction protein

A

cadherins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

desmosomes protein

A

cadherins (desmoglzins,desmoplakin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

hemidesmosomes protein

A

integrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

McArdle disease enzyme deficient

A

glycogen phosphorylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Pompe disease enzyme deficient

A

acid alpha-glucosidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Cori disease enzyme deficient

A

debranching enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

von Gierke disease enzyme deficient

A

glucose 6-phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Bulimia nervosa Tx:

A

fluoxetine (SSRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Anorexia nervosa Tx:

A

Olanzapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Homocystinuria

A

defect in cystathionine synthase, resulting in an inability to form cysteine from homocysteine. Homocysteine buildup leads to elevated methionine. Homocysteine is prothrombotic, resulting in premature thromboembolic events (atherosclerosis, acute coronary syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Polymialgias antibodies

A

antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-histidyl synthetase (anti-Jo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Serotonergic neurons are primarily found in

A

Raphe nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Norepinephrine-secreting neurons are found in

A

The locus ceruleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Cholinergic neuron nucleus

A

The nucleus basalis of Meynert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Red nucleus participates in

A

motor coordination of the upper extremities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Substantia nigra contains

A

dopaminergic neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by:

A

stiffness and fusion of axial joint, enthesitis, uveitis, aortic deficiency and respiratory expansion problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Narcolepsy criteria:

A

Recurrent passes into sleep or naps more than 3 times a week for 3 months, cataplexy, low cerebrospinal fluid levels of hypocretin-1 and shortened REM sleep latency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Sarcoidosis manifestations:

A

hilar adenopathy, pulmonary infiltrates and non-caseating granulomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

TH1 type CD4+ helper T cell is a….

A

cell mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

TH2 type CD4+ helper T cell is a

A

humoral immune response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Niemann-Pick disease

A

AR
SPHINGOMYELINASE DEFICIENCY
lipid-laden foam cells,hepatosplenomegaly, hypotonia, neurologic degeneration and cherry-red macular spot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

arylsulfatase A deficiency

central and peripheral demyelination leads to peripheral neuropathy and ataxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Krabbe disease

A

galactocerebrosidase deficiency

developmental delay, regression, hypotonia, optic neuropathy and seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Fabry disease

A

alpha-galactosidase deficiency

neuropathic pain and dermatologic pathology (telangiectasis, angiokeratomas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Gaucher disease

A

beta-glucocerebrosidase deficiency

hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia and skeletal problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

alpha1-antitrypsin function:

A

inhibits neutrophil elastase and prevents hydrolization of elastin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

congenital hypothyroidism clinical manifestations:

A

lethargy, enlarged fontanelle, protruding tongue, umbilical hernia, poor feeding, constipation, dry skin, jaundice. Diagnosis: high TSH and low free T4. Tx: levothyroxine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Viral-dependent nucleosides are

A

all nucleoside analogues that require both herpes viral and cellular kinase for conversion to their active nucleoside triphosphate form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Viral-dependent nucleoside drugs:

A

Acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir and ganciclovir.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Efficacy does not depend on the presence of a virally encoded kinase…

A

Cidofovir (Nucleotide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Cell-dependent nucleoside:

A

zidovudine and lamivudine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Features of drug-induced lupus erythematous:

A
new onset lupus symptoms, ANA and anti-histone antibodies present. 
Implicated drugs (hydrazine, procainamide, isoniazid, minocycline, quinidine).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Q fever

A

zoonosis caused by Coxiella burnetii, from air contaminated by animal waste. Usually in farm workers exposed to waste from cattle and sheep. Common symptoms includes: headaches, fever, myalgia, fatigue and Pneumonia. Classic laboratories includes: thrombocytopenia and increased liver enzymes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, how to increase and decrease murmur intensity:

A

Increased murmur preload can be obtained by: sudden standing, valsalva or nitroglycerin. Decreased murmur intensity can be obtained by squatting, sustained hang grip or passive leg raise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Topiramate

A

blocks Na channels and increase GABA action, anti epileptic also used for migraine prevention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Zolpidem, zaleplon and Eszopiclone

A

nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics, act via BZ1 subtype of the GABA receptor. Used for insomnia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Raloxifene

A

selective estrogen receptor modulator, which have agonist activity on bone, which decreases bone resorption and improves bone density, has estrogen antagonist effect on breast tissue and can decrease the risk of breast cancer, it also acts as an estrogen antagonist in the uterus and does not increase the risk of endometrial cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Small intestinal bacteria overgrowth is characterized by overproduction of:

A

Vitamin K and folate, associated with nausea, bloating, abdominal discomfort and malabsorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Fabry disease

A

alpha-galactosidase A deficiency (X-linked recessive), which can present with cataracts, neurological findings like numbness, tingling, burning pain and angiokeratomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Tay-Sachs disease

A

hexosaminidase A deficiency, affected infants have retinal cherry-red spots and loss of motor skills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

TCA’s side effects

A

inhibit fast sodium channel conduction, slowing down myocardial depolarization and leading to cardiac arrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

live attenuated vaccines:

A

rotavirus, varicella and measles-mumps-rubella vaccinations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Notochord becomes the ______ in adults

A

Nucleus pulpous of the intervertebral disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

JAK2 inhibitor fot tx of primary myelofibrosis

A

Ruxolitinib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

JAK2 (nonreceotir cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase)

A

Activates de STAT pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Conversion disorder

A

is characterized by neurological symptoms that are incompatible with a neurological disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Parvovirus

A

slapped cheek(fifth disease), arthalgias, and hydros fetalis(can lead to interruption of erythropoyesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Xeroderma pigmentosum

A

a condition characterized by severe photosensitivity and the development of skin cancer at young age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Pyramidine dimers

A

abnormal covalent bonds between adjacent thymine or cytosine residues do to ultraviolet rays.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Nucleotide excision repair

A

a specific process where an endonuclease complex detects abnormalities in the DNA structure caused by the formation of DNA photoproducts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Early and late-onset Alzheimer disease is associated with_______mutation:

A

Early: APP in Cr 21, presenilin 1 and presenilin 2; Late:is associated with apolipoprotein E4 genotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

anti-centromere

A

CREST syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Hirschsprung disease

A

arrest of migration of neural crest cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Squatting in Tetralogy of Fallot:

A

increases systemic vascular resistance and decrease right-to-left shunting, thereby increasing pulmonary blood flow and improving oxygenation status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Gerstmann syndrome

A

results from damage to the angular gyrus of the dominant parietal lobe and is characterized by agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia and left-right disorientation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Hypospadias

A

abnormal opening of penile urethra on ventral surface of penis due to failure of urethral folds to fuse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Epispadias

A

abnormal opening of penile urethra on dorsal surface of penis due to faulty positioning of genital tubercle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Becomes the penis in males and the clitoris in female

A

genital tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Thiazides

A

hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Hypokalemia

A

muscle weakness, cramps and possible rhabdomyolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Extrinsic apoptosis is induced by

A

tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and Fas ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Caspases are activated by

A

cytochrome C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Caspases are

A

proteolytic enzymes that destroy cell components, they contain cysteine and are able to cleave aspartic acid residues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Metalloproteinases are

A

zinc-containing enzymes that degrade the components of the extracellular matrix, they are essential for proper tissue remodeling during wound healing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Phenylalanine byproducts

A

tyrosine, thyroxine, melanin, dopamine, NE, Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Tryptophan byproducts

A

NAD+/NADP+ and melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Histidine byproducts

A

histamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

Glycine byproduct

A

Heme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Glutamate byproducts

A

GABA, glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Arginine byproducts

A

creatine, urea, nitric oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Park At Venture Avenue

A

Conduction in cardiac impulses:

Purkinje, Atrial muscle, Ventricular muscle and AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Desmopressin effect on central diabetes insidious and nocturnal enuresis

A

binds to V2 receptors in renal tubular cells, leading to increased aquaporin channels, increased water reabsorption and decreased urine output.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

Effect of desmopressin in hemophilia A and vWf disease

A

Increases circulating factor VIII and endothelial secretion of vWF to stop bleeding, endothelial produced!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

Hemochromatosis side effects

A

skin pigmentation, hepatomegaly, impaired glucose homeostasis, cardiac dysfunction, atypical arthritis, hypogonadism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Enveloped virus are sensitive to

A

ether

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Naloxone

A

pure opioid receptor antagonist, used in the setting of acute opioid intoxication or overdose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Sodium bicarbonate is used to threat:

A

the overdose of tricyclic antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

Neonatal abstinence syndrome(opioids) presents with

A

irritability, hypertonia, jittery movements, seizures, diarrhea, vomiting, feeding intolerance, sweating, sneezing, pupillary dilation. Tx:opioid therapy (morphine, methadone).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Causes of fibrinoid necrosis

A

malignant hypertension and vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Heme is converted to biliverdin(green color) by:

A

heme oxygenate, then to unconjugated bilirubin by biliverdin reductase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Congenital rubella triad:

A

congenital cataracts (white pupils), sensory-neural deafness and patent ductus arteriosus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Rubella vaccine type

A

live-attenuated vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Killed vaccines examples

A

hepatitis A and rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Live vaccines examples

A

Measles, mumps and rubella vaccines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D effects

A

Bone (increased mineralization)
Small intestine (increase calcium and phosphate absorption-major effect)
Kidney (increase calcium and phosphate reabsorption)
Parathyroid glands(decrease PTH secretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

TCA antidepressant overdose symptoms

A

mental status changes, seizures, respiratory depression, tachycardia, hypotension, prolonged PR, QRS,QT intervals, arrhythmia and anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, blurred vision, dilated pupils, urinary retention, flushing and hyperthermia. Tx with sodium bicarbonate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Opioids overdose symptoms:

A

miosis and respiratory overdose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

NMYC

A

oncogene seen in neuroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Methotrexate mechanism of action

A

competitive inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Minocycline

A

tetracycline antibiotic with photosensitivity dermatitis side effect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

Hyaluronidase

A

enzyme used by bacterias (S. aureus, S. progenies and C perfringens) to digest extracellular ground substance and enhance their ability to spread.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Drug-induced Parkinsonism occurs in the

A

nigrostriatal pathway, by dopamine D2 receptor blockade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome Tx

A

dantrolene (skeletal muscle relaxant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Galactose intolerance (galactosemia)

A

patients are predispose to E. Coli sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

The marginal artery of Drummond

A

colateral circulation of the descending colon between the SMA and the IMA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Mu opioids analgesics produces:

A

histamine release leading to vasodilation, constipation, decreased parietal cell acid secretion and contraction of the smooth muscle cells at the sphincter of Oddi.

264
Q

Vasovagal syncope

A

after stimulation of his posterior external auditory canal by an otoscope speculum. In this form of syncope, parasympathetic outflow via the vagus nerve leads to decreased heart rate and blood pressure.

265
Q

Penile erection is initiated by

A

release of acetylcholine and nitric oxide from parasympathetic fibers, leading to a rise in intracellular cGMP and vasodilation of the arteries supplying the corpus cavernosum.

266
Q

Sildenafil mechanism of action

A

is a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor that decrease degradation of cGMP

267
Q

Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides

A

polypeptides hormone that exert their effect by binding ANP receptors, these transmembrane receptors are linked to a guanylyl cyclase that converts guanosine 5-triphosphate to cyclic guanosine 3,5-monophosphate cGMP.

268
Q

Monoclonal antibodies against PD-1

A

prevent the binding of PD-1 to PD-1L, this blocks cell inhibition, restoring the cytotoxic response and promoting apoptosis of tumor cells. It it used in advanced melanoma and lung cancer.

269
Q

Chemokine coreceptor 5 (CCR5)

A

serves as a coreceptor used by HIV to bind to CD4+ T cells.

270
Q

Homeobox genes encode for:

A

DNA-binding transcription factors that play an important role in the segmental organization of the embryo along the cranio-caudal axis.

271
Q

Strep pneumo

A

optochin sensitive and bile-soluble.

272
Q

Neprilysin mechanism of action

A

is a metalloprotease that metabolizes brain natriuretic peptides and inactivates glucagon, oxytocin and bradykinin.

273
Q

Temporal arteritis comorbilities

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica, fatigue, fever, weight loss and monocular vision loss.

274
Q

Bile-acids resins

A

binds bile acids in the GI tract, inhibiting enterohepatic circulation, leading to hepatic cholesterol synthesis of new bile acids, and triglycerides.

275
Q

Ezetimibe

A

selectively inhibits the intestinal absorption of cholesterol and lowers LDL levels.

276
Q

Fibrates (gemfibrozil, fenofibrates)

A

inhibit hepatic production of triglycerides and are first-line tx for hypertriglyceridemia.

277
Q

INF-gamma is produced by ___________ and serves to______________.

A

is produced by activated T cells and serves to recruit leukocytes and activate phagocytosis.

278
Q

Systemic inflammatory response is induced by

A

TNF-alpha, IL-1 and IL-6.

279
Q

Prevalence equals

A

Incidence X duration of disease

A factor that prolongs disease duration (improved quality of care) will increase disease prevalence.

280
Q

HbC and HbS type of mutation

A

Missense mutation in which a single base substitution results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid.

281
Q

Phases of Paget disease of the bone

A

osteolytic (osteoclast-dominant)phase: increased numbers of osteoclasts that appear abnormally large with an excessive number of nuclei. Increased resorption activity is prominent.

MIXED: defined by a rapid increase in osteoblastic bone formation with persistent osteoclastic activity. The newly made bone is abnormal, with interspersed areas of disorganized lamellar and woven bone.

Osteosclerotic phase: characterized by continued osteoblastic bone formation and remodeling that results in a dense, hypo vascular, mosaic pattern of lamellar bone with irregular, haphazardly oriented sections separated by prominent cement lines.

The end result is a thickened, deformed bone that is weaker than normal and prone to fracture.

282
Q

Paget disease of the bone pathophysiology

A

Environmental factors and gene mutations (RANK, osteoprotegerin) that results in excessive RANK and NF-kB activation, that results in accelerated bone remodeling with eventual bony overgrowth.

283
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria pathophysiology

A

AD, characterized by porphobilinogen (PBG) deaminase deficiency. Management includes infusion of hemming, which down regulates aminolevunate (ALA) synthase. Symptoms includes: nausea, constipation, severe and poorly localized abdominal pain, anxiety, difficulty concentrating, poor sleep and tingling of the limbs.

284
Q

Radiologically features of hyper parathyrodism

A

subperiosteal erosions in phalanges of the hand, a granular “salt-and pepper”skull and osteolytic cyst in the long bones (osteitis fibrosa cystica).

285
Q

Paget of the bone histology

A

disorganized lamellar bone structure in a mosaic pattern

286
Q

vit D deficiency histology

A

osteoid matrix accumulation around trabeculae

287
Q

Osteopetrosis (marble bone disease)

A

persistence of the primary spongiosa in the medullary cavity with no mature trabeculae (marble bone disease)

288
Q

Osteoporosis pathology

A

trabecular thinning with fewer interconnections

289
Q

Low volume of distribution can be obtained by:

A

high molecular weight, high plasma protein binding, high charge and hydrophilicity, which tends to trap the drug in the plasma compartment.

290
Q

Cross-sectional study evaluates

A

prevalence

291
Q

Cohort study evaluates

A

incidence

292
Q

Cystic fibrosis is most commonly due to

A

a 3-base pair deletion on the CF transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene at amino acid position 508. This mutation impairs post-translational processing of CFTR, resulting in shunting of CFTR toward the proteasome, with complete absence of the protein on the cell surface.

293
Q

During inspiration, MR, TR and VSD murmur tends to

A

TR tends to increase do to decreased intrathoracic pressure, increasing venous return. In MR and VSD murmur decreases due to decreased left ventricular venous return from pulmonary vein due to increased pulmonary vessel capacity.

294
Q

Transamination reactions cofactor

A

B6 (pyridoxine)

295
Q

Transformation

A

allows bacterias to take up exogenous DNA fragments and express encoded proteins.

296
Q

Transduction

A

a bacteriophage transfers DNA from one bacterial cell to another.

297
Q

Etanercept mechanism of action

A

inhibition of TNF-alpha. Check for TUBERCULIN SKIN TEST

298
Q

Vasopressin and desmopressin effect on V2 receptors

A

Cause a V2 receptor-mediated increase in water and urea permeability at the inner medullary collecting duct, resulting in urea reabsorption, enhanced osmotic gradient, allowing the production of maximally concentrated urine.

299
Q

Beta-blockers work by

A

inhibiting the neurotransmitter-receptor interaction in adrenergic synapses.

300
Q

ARPKD is caused by

A

a mutation in PKHD1, the gene for fibrocystin founded in the epithelial cells of both the renal tubule and the bile ducts.

301
Q

Digoxin use and side effects:

A

CHF
S.E.: arrhythmias, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, confusion, weakness and color vision alterations.

302
Q

Side effects of Levo-dopa

A

anxiety and agitation

303
Q

RPF

A
RPF= RBF x (1-Hematocrit)  
FF= GFR/RPF
304
Q

Absolute Risk Reduction

A

event rate in the control group - event rate in the treatment group.

Event rate= #of events in the group/# of subjects in the group.

305
Q

Congenital Toxoplasmosis classic triad

A

hydrocephalus (macrocephaly and enlargement of the ventricles), intracranial calcifications and chorioretinitis (white-yellow chorioretinal lesions).

306
Q

Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents side effects

A

hypertension and thromboembolic events.

307
Q

Atrial septal defect

A

cause left to right shunts that can facilitate paradoxical embolism due to periods of transient shunt reversal. It cause a wide and fixed splitting of S2 and can facilitate paradoxical embolism.

308
Q

Kartagener syndrome triad

A

situs inversus, chronic sinusitis and bronchiectasis.

309
Q

Acute stress disorder

A

after exposure to prior trauma, lasting from 3 days to 1 month, if it last more than 1 month is PTSD

310
Q

Granuloma formation

A

Activated TH1 CD4+ cells secrete interferon gamma, which activates macrophages. Macrophages in response secretes TNF-alpha, which result in further macrophage maturation and formation of the granuloma.

311
Q

Most abundant amino acid in collagen

A

glycine

312
Q

Vitamin E deficiency

A

neurologic symptoms closely mimic Friedrich ataxia and include ataxia (due to degeneration of spinocerebellar tracts), loss of position and vibration sense and loss of deep tendon reflexes.

313
Q

Why does calcium channel blockers do not affect skeletal muscle contractility?

A

because skeletal muscle is not dependent on extracellular calcium influx.

314
Q

Troponin

A

is responsible for contraction of both cardiac and skeletal muscle. Unlike skeletal, cardiac muscle is affected by verapamil due to its dependence on extracellular calcium to induce calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum.

315
Q

A drug with low volume of distribution tends to be

A

hydrophilic, protein bounded, renal excreted,

316
Q

Genetic transition

A

a point mutation that results in replacement of a purine nucleotide for another purine or a pyrimidine for another pyrimidine.

317
Q

Genetic transversion

A

a point mutation that results in the replacement of a purine nucleotide for a pyrimidine or a pyrimidine for a purine.

318
Q

Wobble hypothesis

A

states that the first 2 nucleotide positions on the mRNA codon require traditional (Watson-Crick) base pairing, whereas the third wobble nucleotide position may undergo less stringent base pairing.

319
Q

Neprilysin inhibitors

A

prevents degradation of ANP, enhancing its beneficial hemodynamic effects in heart failure patients (dilates afferent arterioles in the kidney increasing filtration, restricts aldosterone secretion and relaxes vascular smooth muscle in arterioles and venues producing vasodilation)

320
Q

Phenytoin side effects

A

gingival hyperplasia, coarsening facial features and hirsutism. Can cause megaloblastic anemia.

321
Q

Alendronate

A

bisphosphonate that inhibits osteoclast function

322
Q

Cinacalcet

A

calcimimetic that allosterically activates the calcium-sensing receptor in the parathyroid gland, decreasing parathyroid hormone release, used for secondary hyperparathyroidism.

323
Q

Sickle cell trait or disease can produce:

A

renal papillary necrosis

324
Q

Renal papillary necrosis can be produced by

A

NSAID’s, sickle cell trait or disease, acute pyelonephritis and diabetes mellitus.

325
Q

Cerebellar hemisphere affection results in

A

dysdiadochokinesia and tremor

326
Q

Cerebellar vermis affection results in

A

ataxia, nystagmus and vertigo.

327
Q

Patellar injury results in

A

inability to extend the knee against gravity,

328
Q

Anterior cruciate ligament can be injured during________ and results in ______.

A

Sudden acceleration and deceleration, laxity of forward movement of the tibia against a fixed femur.

329
Q

Posterior cruciate ligament protects against

A

excessive posterior knee movement and is the least injured knee ligament.

330
Q

Medial collateral ligament

A

protects against values stress on the knee and excessive external tibial rotation. Injury occurs after a lateral blow to the knee or indirect stress from excessive lower leg rotation or abduction.

331
Q

Osteoarthritis involves

A

DIP and PIP, with osteophyte formation, in contrast of RA, which involves PIP and synovitis.

332
Q

Nigrostriatal degeneration in Parkinson disease results in

A

excessive excitation of the globes pallid us interns by the sub thalamic nucleus, which in turn causes excessive inhibition of the thalamus. Reduced activity of the thalamus and its projections to the cortex consequently result in rigidity and bradykinesia.

333
Q

Pneumocystic pneumonia is an ________ seen primarily in those with ______________.

A

atypical fungal infection seen primarily in those with impaired cell-mediated immunity. The cystic organism can be visualized using silver stain of respiratory secretions.

334
Q

Inactivated version of the influenza vaccine function mainly by

A

inducing neutralizing antibodies against the hemagglutinin antigen in selected viral strains. These antibodies inhibit binding of hemagglutinin to sialylated receptors on the host cell membrane. This prevents thee live virus from entering cells via endocytosis.

335
Q

Extended-spectrum beta-lactamases can be produced by_________ making _____ inactive. These genes can be transmitted between organisms through _________.

A

Gram-negative bacteria, cephalosporins and other beta-lactam antibiotics, plasmid conjugation.

336
Q

Porphiria cutanea tarda

A

deficiency in the uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. Photosensitivity presents as vesicle and blister formation on sun-exposed areas, as well as edema, pruritus, pain and erythema.

337
Q

Pseudomonas type of infections

A

pneumonia in cystic fibrosis and ventilated patients,infections in burned patients, otitis externa, hot tub folliculitis and ecthyma gangrenous.

338
Q

Antimalarials

A

chloroquine and mefloquine

339
Q

Halogenated anesthetics side effects

A

they are metabolized by the hepatic cytochrome P450 system by which they are converted to reactive intermediates that can directly injure the liver or lead to immune-mediated hepatocellular damage.

It can show centrilobular hepatic necrosis that is distinguishable from viral hepatitis.

340
Q

MCAD deficiency manifestation

A

lethargy, seizures and hypoketotic hypoglycemia following a period of fasting.

341
Q

Insulin inhibits _______ production, in unborn child of a diabetic mother

A

surfactant production, due to high levels of insulin because of high levels of sugar in blood from the mother

342
Q

Complications of Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome

A

patent ductus arteriosus due to low oxygen levels and necrotizing enterocolitis. Supplemental oxygen can lead to blindness and bronchopulmonary dysplasia.

343
Q

Primary pulmonary hypertension is due to

A

inactivating mutations of BMPR2, leading to proliferation of vascular smooth muscle.

344
Q

Bronchial hamartoma

A

benign tumor composed of lung tissue and cartilage often calcified on imaging.

345
Q

Tumor on lung can compress

A

sympathetic chain, which leads to Horner syndrome characterized by ptosis, mitosis and anhidrosis; usually due to an apical Pancoast tumor.

346
Q

Unique site for distant metastasis of the lung is the

A

adrenal gland

347
Q

Lung cancers that arises from neuroendocrine cells

A

small cell carcinoma and carcinoid tumor.

348
Q

Aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease is due to

A

Parvovirus B19

349
Q

Neurocysticercosis is due to ________ and can cause _____________.

A

Taenia solium (pork tapeworm) ingestion and can cause multiple brain lesions.

350
Q

Daptomycin mechanism of action and uses

A

MRSA S. aureus// depolarizes cellular membrane by creating transmembrane channels.

351
Q

Daptomycin side effects

A

myopathy and CPK elevation

352
Q

Baclofen is an______

A

agonist at the GABA-B receptor, effectively mono therapy for the treatment of spasticity secondary to both brain and spinal cord disease.

353
Q

Melanoma mutation

A

BRAF, a protein kinase for melanocyte proliferation.

354
Q

Gliosis

A

proliferation of astrocytes in an area of neuron degeneration, it leads to the formation of a glial scar which compensates for the volume loss that occurs after neuronal death.

355
Q

Mumps is an infection with the bump virus that can result in

A

bilateral inflamed parotid glands, orchitis (in teenagers with high risk of sterility) and pancreatitis.

356
Q

Pleomorphic adenoma

A

MC tumor of the salivary glands, benign tumor composed of stroll and epithelial cell

357
Q

Warthin tumor

A

benign cystic tumor with abundant lymphocytes and germinal centers

358
Q

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

A

malignant tumor composed of mucinous and squamous cells; usually involves the facial nerve.

359
Q

Boerhaave syndrome risk

A

subcutaneous emphysema

360
Q

Metaplasia of the esophagus results in

A

stratified squamous epithelium to nonciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells.

361
Q

Primary mediators in COPD

A

neutrophils, macrophages and CD8+ T lymphocytes

362
Q

Theophilline is a

A

adenosine receptor antagonist and a phosphodiesterase inhibitor. It increases cAMP levels. P450 metabolized.

363
Q

P450 Substrates

A

Theophilline, Warfarine, OCP’s and anti-epileptics drugs.

364
Q

P450 Inhibitors (crackamigos)

A

Sodium valproate, isoniazid, cimetidine, ketoconazole, fluconazole, acute alcohol abuse, chloramphenicol, erythromycin(macrolides), sulfonamides, ciprofloxacin, omeprazole, metronidazole.

365
Q

Silicosis

A

assoc. with sandblasting and mines. Macrophages respond to silica and release fibrogenic factors, leading to fibrosis. It is thought that silica may disrupt phagolysosomes and impair macrophages, increasing susceptibility to Tb.

366
Q

Eosinophilic parasitic defense

A

eosinophil proliferation is stimulated by IL-5 produced by TH2 and mast cells. Then it is coated by IgG and IgE. This triggers eosinophil degranulation and release of cytotoxic proteins. This mechanism is an example of antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

367
Q

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum function

A

synthesis of steroids hormones.

368
Q

Rough endoplasmic reticulum function

A

peptide hormones production

369
Q

Dobutamine is a _________ and causes an increase in ________.

A

beta adrenergic agonist and causes an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility, leading to an increase in myocardial oxygen consumption.

370
Q

Arsenic poisoning Tx:

A

Dimercaprol

371
Q

Pulmonary actinomycosis develops

A

following aspiration and can be confused with lung abscess, malignancy or Tb. Microscopic findings include filamentous, branching, gram positive bacteria and sulfur granules.

372
Q

Mucor is a

A

ubiquitous fungus naturally found in soil and decaying material. Usually results in mucormycosis in DKa patients. Microscopic examination shows broad, ribbon-like, nonseptate hyphae with right-angle branching.

373
Q

Sickle cell disease are more prone to

A

folic acid deficiency and megaloblastic anemia due to increased folic acid requirements and erythrocytes turnover.

374
Q

Chromogranin A and synaptophysin are

A

markers used for neuroendocrine tumors like Small cell lung carcinoma and carcinoid tumor.

375
Q

Vimentin is an intermediate filament present in

A

mesenchymal tissue and can be used to detect sarcomas.

376
Q

Clathrin is an intracellular protein that helps form

A

rounded vesicles in the cytoplasm, it help mediate intracellular trafficking and endocytosis.

377
Q

Prinzmetal angina can be precipitated by

A

tobacco, coccaine, amphetamines and dihydroergotamine/triptans.

378
Q

Adenosine effect in cardiac pacemaker

A

prolongs phase 4, reducing the rate of spontaneous depolarization in cardiac pacemaker cells

379
Q

The locus ceruleus is located in

A

the posterior rostral pons near the lateral floor of the fourth ventricle

380
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau disease is characterized by

A

the presence of capillary hemangioblastoma in the retina or cerebellum as well as congenital cyst or neoplasms in the kidney, liver and pancreas.

381
Q

Sturge Weber syndrome

A

is a rare congenital neurocutaneous disorder characterized by the presence of cutaneous facial angiomas as well as leptomeningeal angiomas.

382
Q

Tuberous sclerosis presents with

A

cortical and subependymal hamartomas, cutaneous angiofibromas, visceral cyst, renal angiomyolipomas and cardiac rhabdomyomas.

383
Q

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome

A

congenital telangiectasias (may cause epistaxis, gastrointestinal bleeding or hematuria).

384
Q

Ionizing radiation induces

A

DNA damage through DNA double strand fractures and the formation of oxygen free radicals.

385
Q

Ethylene glycol ingestion leads to:

A

toxic, acute tubular necrosis with vacuolar degeneration and ballooning of the proximal tubular cells. Typical clinical findings include high anion gap metabolic acidosis, increased osmolar gap and calcium oxalate crystals in the urine.

386
Q

Roseola infantum

A

caused by HHV-6
Primary symptoms include high fever for 305 days followed by an erythematous maculopapular rash that usually starts on the trunk and spreads to face and extremities.

387
Q

Coxsackievirus A16

A

common cause of hand-foot-mouth disease in children

388
Q

Parvovirus B19 causes

A

erythema infectious or fifth disease, which can present as a flulike illness followed by a characteristic slapped cheek rash and truncal reticular rash.

389
Q

Fenoldopam is a

A

selective peripheral dopamine-1 receptor agonist, given to lower pressure in hypertensive emergency, especially in patients with renal insufficiency. Causes arteriolar dilation, increases renal perfusion and promotes diuresis and natriuresis.

390
Q

Centricinar emphysema associated with heavy smocking involves the release of

A

proteinases (elastase) from infiltrating neutrophils and alveolar macrophages.

391
Q

Oseltamivir is a ______ and is given in _______

A

is a neuraminidase inhibitor useful in the tx of influenza. Neuraminidase is required for the release of virus from infected cells and for the spread of virus within the respiratory tract. Neuraminidase inhibitors cause the newly synthesized virions to adhere to the host cell surface and form viral aggregates, thereby reducing the spread of virus to other host cells.

Tamiflu

392
Q

I-cell disease manifestations

A

lysosomal storage disorder, due to defects in protein targeting. A phosphotransferase enzyme catalyzes the phosphorylation of mannose residues on lysosome-bound proteins, allowing them to traverse the Golgi network and ultimately be transported to the lysosome, where they serve as catalysts for degradation of cellular components. A defective phosphotransferase enzyme causes extracellular secretion of these proteins and accumulation of cellular debris in the lysosome forming inclusion bodies.

393
Q

Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) converts

A

plasminogen to plasmin, plasmin functions to break down fibrin, resulting in thrombolysis.

394
Q

Down syndrome quadruple screen will show

A

elevated inhibin A and beta-hCG, low AFP and unconjugated estriol

395
Q

5’-3’ exonuclease activity

A

removes RNA primers as well as damaged DNA segments

396
Q

3’-5’ exonuclease activity

A

performs a proofreading function that removes and replaces mismatched nucleotides on the newly formed daughter strands.

397
Q

lactose intolerance presents with

A

increased breath hydrogen content, reduced stool pH and elevated stool osmolality.

398
Q

CCl4 produces

A

free radicals that start a vicious cycle of hepatic injury.

399
Q

Succinylcholine can cause

A

significant potassium release and life-threatening arrhythmias

400
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

occurs after administration of inhalation anesthetics and/or succinylcholine to genetically susceptible individuals. It is treated with dantrolene that blocks ryanodine receptors and prevents release of Calcium into the cytoplasm of skeletal muscle fibers.

401
Q

Tinnitus and unilateral hearing loss are common presenting features of

A

vestibular schwannoma

402
Q

Neurofibromatosis 1 codes for _____ protein

A

Neurofibromin

403
Q

Neurofibromatosis 2 codes for _______ protein

A

Merlin

404
Q

One of the side effects of ACE inhibitors is that they can produce________ due to the lack if inhibition of__________-

A

angioedema/bradykinin

405
Q

Pseudogout

A

synovial fluid showing rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals with positive birefringent

406
Q

Efficacy refers to

A

the ability of a drug to elicit an effect

407
Q

Potency refers to

A

the dose of drug that is required to produce a given effect.It is primarily affected by the affinity of the drug for its receptor and the amount of drug that is able to reach the target tissues.

408
Q

Alternative splicing

A

process by which a single gene can code for various unique proteins by selectively including or excluding different DNA coding regions into mature mRNA.

409
Q

Vessels involved in atherosclerotic plaques

A

Aorta,coronary arteries, popliteal arteries, internal carotid arteries and the circle of willis.

410
Q

microglia

A

move to the area of ischemic infarct apron 3-5 days after the onset of ischemia and phagocytize the fragments of neurons, myelin and necrotic debris, a cystic space replace the necrosis and Astrocytes then form a glial scar along the periphery

411
Q

Fail in the omphalomesenteric obliteration leads to

A

meckel’s diverticulum, persistent vitelline duct, vitelline sinus and vitelline duct cyst.

412
Q

Iron accumulation mechanisms

A

enterocytes increase apical expression of divalent metal transporter, increasing intestinal iron absorption from the lumen and hepatocytes decrease hepcidin synthesis, which increases ferroportin expression on the basolateral surface of enterocytes and promotes iron secretion into the circulation.

413
Q

Myasthenia graves causes a decrease in

A

the number of ACh receptors, this reduces the number of postsynaptic cation channels that can open in response to Each, which reduces the amplitude of motor end plate potential and prevents muscle fiber depolarization.

414
Q

Glycopyrrolate use

A

cholinesterase inhibitors may cause adverse effects related to muscarinic overstimulation, which can be ameliorated by the use of an antimuscarinic agent such as glycopyrrolate, hyoscyamine or propantheline.

415
Q

Reye syndrome histology

A

micro vesicular steatosis of hepatocytes without inflammation, and cerebral edema.

416
Q

Viridians can

A

adhere to fibrin-platelet aggregates and establish infection that leads to endocarditis.

417
Q

Locus heterogeneity

A

refers to the ability of one disease or trait to be caused by mutations in multiple different genes.

418
Q

Lithium can induce

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

419
Q

Urachus

A

Remnant of the allantois that connecta the yolk sack with the bladder

420
Q

Sebrr pharyngitis with exudates and cervical lymphadenopathy in a group of people with unknown vaccination status should raise suspicion for

A

Diphtheria infection

421
Q

Hepatic steatosis is characterized by _______ in the hepatocellular cytoplasm

A

Triglyceride accumulation

422
Q

Pathogenesis of alcohol-induced hepatic steatosis

A

A decrease in free acid oxidation secondary to excess NADH production by the two major alcohol metabolism enzymes.

423
Q

The alteration of the hepatic NAD/NADH ratio in alcoholics induces fatty liver through inhibition of

A

Gluconeogenesis and fatty acid oxidation.

424
Q

MESNA is given to prevent

A

Hemorragic cystitis produced by cyclophosphamide metabolite acrolein, which is toxic to uroepithelial cells and cause cell death and necrosis if allowed to be in contact with this cells for a prolonged period.

425
Q

Down syndrome can increase risk of

A

ALL

426
Q

In Status Epilepticus you should give

A

Phenytoin and lorazepam

427
Q

The structures of the mesonephros persist in the male as:_____________ and in the woman as:_____________.

A

It persist in the male as the Wolffian Duct which laters form the ductus deferens and epididymis. In females it regress and convert in the vestigial Gartner’s duct.

428
Q

The ureteric bud give raise to

A

The collecting system of the kydney, renal calyses, renal pelvis and ureters.

429
Q

The metanephric mesoderm gives raise to (Blastema)

A

bowmanns space, glomeruli, proximal tubules, loop of henle and convulated tubules.

430
Q

Asbestosis characteristics

A

associated with shipbuilding, plumbing, affects lower lobes. Asbestos bodies are golden-brown fusiform rods resembling dumbbells. Can be visualized with prussian blue stain.

431
Q

Berrylliosis characteristics

A

asoc. with aerospace and manufacturing industries, affects lower lobes.

432
Q

Coal workers pneumoconiosis characteristics

A

prolonged coal dust exposure, macrophages laden with carbon, affect upper lobes.

Anthracosis (asymptomatic condition found in many urban dwellers exposed to sooty air.

433
Q

Silicosis characteristics

A

Asoc with sandblasting. May disrupt phagolysosomes and impair macrophages, increasing susceptibility to TB. Affects upper lobes and eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes.

434
Q

Only cranial nerve not covered with schwann cells:

A

CN II, which is covered with oligodendrocytes

435
Q

Most common site for intracranial schannomas is

A

cerebellopontine angle at craneal nerve VIII (acoustic neuromas)

436
Q

Fibrates mechanism of action

A

inhibits cholesterol 7-alpha hydroxyls, rate-limiting enzyme in the bile salt production, leading to gallstones.

437
Q

S3 sound is caused by

A

sudden limitation of ventricular movement during rapid passive ventricular filling and suggest ventricular volume overload or enlargement (aortic/mitral regurgitation, dilated or ischemic cardiomyopathy). Listening at end of expiration make it more audible by decreasing lung volume and brings the heart closer to the chest wall.

438
Q

HAART for HIV (NRTI’s) can produce

A

body fat redistribution

439
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease test characteristic

A

failure of neutrophils to turn blue on nitroblue tetrazolium testing.

440
Q

Methylphenidate and amphetamines side effects

A

decreased appetite, weight loss and insomnia.

441
Q

Opioids side effects:

A

can stimulate the mu receptor in the GI tract, causing decreased secretions and gastric motility (constipation), can produce significant euphoria by dopaminergic pathways in the nucleus accumbens, nausea, respiratory depression, sedation and urinary retention.

442
Q

Who stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion?

A

histamine, acetylcholine and gastrin increase acid secretion but prostaglandins, secretin and somatostatin inhibits it.

443
Q

Gastrin not only stimulates HCl secretion, but it also has

A

trophic effect on parietal cells.

444
Q

carotid sinus afferent and efferent limbs

A

afferent limb that arises from the baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and travels to the vagal nucleus via the glossopharyngeal nerve; the efferent limb carries parasympathetic impulses via the vagus nerve.

445
Q

Ezetimibe mechanism of action

A

reduces the intestinal absorption of cholesterol

446
Q

Bile acids sequestrants (colesevelam) mechanism of action

A

binds bile salts in the intestine, decreasing their absorption

447
Q

Fibrates mechanism of action

A

activates PPAR’s which leads to stimulation of lipoprotein lipase activity and a decrease in TG levels.

448
Q

Epistacis is when

A

A allele from one gene interferes with the phenotipic expression of another gene

449
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis can not be visualized on gran stain because of

A

High lipid content, mycolic acid

450
Q

Valsalva maneuver increase the ______ using the ____________ muscle.

A

Increase the vagal tonenin paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia using the rectus abdominis.

451
Q

Statins mechanism of action

A

Inhibits HMG CoA reductase and stimulates the LDL receptor recycling.

452
Q

Vasa vasorum endarteritis

A

Mechanism by which syphilis cause thoracic aorta dilation

453
Q

Aorta aneurism lead to

A

Transmural aortic inflammation

454
Q

Drug metabolism phases

A

Phase I (RHO) slightly polar molecules; and phase II (SMAG) very polar molecules

455
Q

Geriatric patients tend to lose phase ___ first

A

ONE; they have more phase II

456
Q

Patients who are low acetylators have higher side effects because of lower rate of metabolism like for example

A

drug induced SLE (SPECIALLY HYDRALAZINE)

457
Q

Zero-order elimination

A

a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time, they have no fixed half life. Rate of elimination is independent of plasma concentration.
Examples: phenytoin, ethanol and salicylates.

458
Q

First order elimination

A

a constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time, rate of elimination is directly dependent of plasma concentration.

459
Q

Steady state is reached when

A

rate in=rate out

460
Q

Fragile X syndrome increased number of CGG leads to

A

hypermethylation and inactivation of FMR1, preventing transcription and production of fragile X mental retardation protein.

461
Q

Tx for psoriasis

A

calcipotriene (calcipotriol, calcitriol, tacalcitol), binds the vit D receptor (a nuclear transcription factor that cause inhibition of keratinocyte proliferation).

462
Q

Hallmark histologic findings of acute viral hepatitis include

A

Hepatocyte necrosis and apoptosis with mononuclear infiltration. Hepatocyte becrosis is characterized by cellular swelling and cytoplasmic emptying (ballooning degeneration).

463
Q

Fibrinoid necrosis is characterized by

A

The deposition of amorphous material in the wall of blood vessels affected by immune vasculitis or malignant hypertension.

464
Q

Liquefactive necrosis occurs due to

A

Enzymatic degradation of tissue in the central nervous system

465
Q

Part of the spleen involved in removal of damaged RBC’s

A

red pulp

466
Q

Candidiasis local defense: (systemic and local)

A

local defense against candida is performed by t cells, whereas systemic infection is prevented by neutrophils.

467
Q

Indole positivity

A

ability to convert tryptophan to indole, a characteristic of E. Coli.

468
Q

Holosystolic murmur

A

Mitral valve prolapse

469
Q

Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur

A

Aortic or pulmonary stenosis

470
Q

Diastolic murmur

A

Aortic valve regurg

471
Q

How a deug can bypass the portal circulation

A

Intravenous, sublingual and rectal

472
Q

Chronic stimulation of the fetal beta cells leads to

A

Beta cells hyperplasia and hyperinsulinism, which contribute to increased fat deposition and enhanced fetal growth, resulting in macrosomia.

473
Q

Serum tumor markers for HCC, GI, pancreatic, ovarian, germ cell and prostate.

A
HCC: aFP
Pancreatic: CA 19-9
Ovarian: CA 125
GI: CEA
Choriocarcinoma: bHCG
Germ cells: aFP and bHCG
Prostate: PSA
474
Q

Haptoglobin function:

A

is a serum protein that binds free hemoglobin and promotes its uptake by the reticuloendothelial system. Haptoglobin levels decrease when significant quantities of hemoglobin are released into the circulation as occurs with intravascular hemolysis.

475
Q

Gs is present in which receptors

A

glucagon, TSH and PTH, activating adenylate cyclase, and therefore protein kinase.

476
Q

cGMP mediates which intracellular effects:

A

smooth muscle relaxation, platelets activation and sperm metabolism.

477
Q

Ubiquitin proteasome pathway function:

A

for breakdown of intracellular proteins, both native and foreign, helps recycle the into amino acid building blocks. Ubiquitin functions as a tag that is attached to proteins to mark them for destruction. It is coupled to MHC I.

478
Q

Light microscopy of histoplasma capsulatum:

A

macrophages with intracellular ovoid or round yeast

479
Q

Light microscopy of crypto coccus neoformans:

A

budding yeast with a THICK POLYSACCHARIDE CAPSULE

480
Q

Peruses should be considered in

A

any adult who has not had updated vaccination boosters. The clinical presentation is a paroxysmal cough lasting more than 2 weeks that is associated with post-tussive emesis or inspiratory whoop after a severe coughing episode.

481
Q
Cutaneous receptors:
Merkel
Pacinian
Meissner
Krause
Ruffini
A
Merkel: position and static touch (textures)
Pacinian: vibration and deep pressure
Meissner: position and light touch
Krause: temperature 
Ruffini: pressure and skin stretch
482
Q

Nerve roots reflexes:

A

Ankle (S1-2)
Patellar (L3-4)
Biceps (C5-6)
Triceps (C7-8)

483
Q

Plasma renin activity PRA is a:

A

measure of the amount of angiotensin I generated per unit of time. It provides a useful assessment of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis. Factors that increase PRA include low sodium intake and antihypertensive medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers.

484
Q

Triad of aplastic anemia:

A

low hemoglobin, thrombocytopenia and absent hematopoietic cells in the bone marrow.

Compensatory reaction is an elevation of erythropoietin levels in patients with normal renal function.

485
Q

MCC of self-limited childhood diarrhea in unvaccinated individuals:

A

Rotavirus, it infects villous enterocytes in the duodenum and proximal jejunum and results in villous blunting, proliferation of secretory crypt cells and a loss of brush border enzymes.

486
Q

brown pigment gallstones due to increase of

A

beta-glucuronidase release by injured hepatocytes.

487
Q

Blocks binding of RANK-L to RANK and reduces formation of mature osteoclasts:

A

osteoprotegerin

488
Q

decreases osteoprotegerin production, increasing RANK-L production and increasing RANK expression in osteoclast precursor:

A

estrogen

489
Q

can cause cutaneous flushing:

A

niacin, which is mediated by prostaglandins and can be diminished by pretreatment with aspirin.

490
Q

GERD is caused primarily by

A

gastroesophageal junction incompetence and can be associated with extra esophageal symptoms (nocturnal cough) in the absence of heartburn.

Histologic findings include: basal zone hyperplasia, elongation of the lamina propia papillae and scattered eosinophils.

491
Q

Ohrenic nerve lesion symptoms:

A

hiccups, diaphragmatic paralysis and dyspnea. The phrenic nerve arises from C3-C5.

492
Q

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome symptoms:

A

telangiectasia in the skin, mucus membrane (lips, oronasopharynx, respiratory tract, GI and urinary tract. Rupture may cause epistaxis,GI bleeding or hematuria.

493
Q

Hemosiderin-laden macrophages are:

A

located in the lungs, and are usually the result of chronic passive lung congestion in the setting of heart failure.

494
Q

Fomepizole MOA and uses:

A

a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase and is used for the treatment of acute poisoning.

495
Q

Lumbar puncture site

A

L3-L4,L4-L5, below the spinal cord L1. The L4 vertebral body lies on a line drawn between the highest points of the iliac crests.

496
Q

Vibrio vulnificus is a:

A

curved, gram-negative, free-living bacterium that grows in marine environments. Manifestations are often mild, but individuals with liver disease or iron overload are at high risk of severe, fulminant infection (sepsis and necrotizing fasciitis)

497
Q

Pseudomonas infections are common in

A

patients who are neutropenic, hospitalized, have burns or have indwelling catheters.

498
Q

Mucromycosis is:

A

an opportunistic infection caused by Rhizopus, Mucor and Absidia species. The clinical picture is paranasal sinus involvement in a immunosuppressed patient. The fungi form broad nonseptate hyphae that branch at right angles.

499
Q

BNP diagnostic utility in patients with shortness of breath of unknown cause:

A

for patients in whom the serum BNP level is not elevated, shortness of breath is unlikely to be due to heart failure

500
Q

stress-induced (takotsubo) is characterized by:

A

hypokinesis of the mid and apical segments and hyperkinesis of the basal segments of the left ventricle, resulting in systolic dysfunction. The condition is likely caused by a surge of catecholamines in the setting of physical or emotional stress. Catecholamines may cause microvascular spasm leading to ischemia and myocardial stunning or they may cause direct myocardial dysfunction. It usually affects postmenopausal women and resolves on its own within several weeks.

501
Q

Pityriasis versicolor is caused by

A

Malassezia species (spaghetti and meatballs histologic appearance on KOH preparation light microscopy).

502
Q

Prevents the action of chemotherapeutic agents

A

the human multi drug resistance (MDR1) gene codes por P-glycoprotein, a transmembrane ATP- dependent efflux pump protein.

503
Q

hot tube folliculitis is a

A

superficial and self-limited Pseudomonas eruginosa infection of the hair follicles, that tends to occur in minor outbreaks following exposure to a pool or spa, characterized by pruritic, papulopustular rash.

504
Q

Can insert the genome into host chromosome

A

HBV

505
Q

CREST syndrome

A

Calcinosis, Raynaud phenomenon, esophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia. It affects primarily the face, forearms and fingers. The pathogenesis of systemic sclerosis involves chronic autoimmune inflammation, vascular endothelial injury resulting in chronic ischemic tissue damage (fingertip ulcers) and excessive activation of fibroblasts leading to progressive tissue fibrosis (this increases the risk of Barrett’s esophagus and fibrous stricture formation).

506
Q

DNA polymerase I special function in prokaryotes

A

5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity which function to remove the RNA primer created by RNA primase and repair damaged DNA sequences.

E Coli for ex.

507
Q

TGF-B function

A

fibroblast migration, proliferation and connective tissue synthesis. Increased TGF-B activity is responsible for the hypertrophic/keloid scarring and fibrosis of the lung, liver, and kidney in chronic inflammation.

508
Q

Sturge Weber Syndrome

A

developmental anomaly of neural crest derivatives that affects small vessels of: the face (port-wine stain in the face, leptomeningeal angiomas, seizures, epilepsy) and intellectual disabilities, glaucoma). GNAQ gene

509
Q

Tuberous Sclerosis:

A

HAMARTOMAS in CNS and skin, mitral valve regurg, ash-leaf spot, rhabdomyoma, renal angiomyolipoma, mental retard.

510
Q

Isoniazid MOA and MOR:

A

MOA: inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis by M tuberculosis.
MOR: non-expression of the catalase-peroxidase enzyme

511
Q

Ethambutol MOA and MOR:

A

MOA: inhibits the synthesis of the mycobacterial cell wall.
MOR: when the mycobacteria increase the production of arabinosyl transferase.

512
Q

Asherman syndrome is:

A

obstruction and scarring of the uterine cavity, this is a sequela of uterine infection or procedures.

513
Q

Kallmann syndrome is:

A

impaired synthesis of GnRH by the hypothalamus, and presents with primary amenorrhea, absent secondary sexual characteristics and an olfactory sensory defect.

514
Q

V2 passes throw:

A

Foramen rotundum

515
Q

V3 passes throw:

A

Foramen ovale

516
Q

Asthma and COPD exacerbations are controlled by

A

beta-adrenergic agonist, causing bronchial smooth muscle relaxation via increased intracellular cAMP.

517
Q

Angiodema can occur by two ways:

A
  1. Hereditary AD
  2. Acquired, associated with ACE inhibitors tx.
    In Hereditary Angioedema there’s low C1 esterase inhibitor. ACE inhibitors lead to accumulation of bradykinin, because ACE converts bradykinin into inactive metabolites, if we inhibit it, it will build up.
518
Q

Digoxin MOA:

A

inhibits Na/K ATPase pump in myocardial cells, leading o a decrease in sodium efflux and an increase in intracellular sodium levels. This reduces the forward activity of the sodium-calcium exchanger, causing increased intracellular calcium concentration and improved myocyte contractility.

519
Q

How to differentiate pericarditis from angina?

A

Pericarditis is sharp and pleuritic and may be exacerbated by swallowing or coughing.

520
Q

Hashimoto histology:

A

intense lymphocytic infiltrate with germinal centers

521
Q

Estrogen effect on T4?

A

An increase in estrogen (OCP, pregnancy, hormone replacement treatment) increases the TBG, decreasing the free T4 and T3 levels.

522
Q

pulmonary hypertension clues:

A

loud S2, and an impulse palpated at the left upper sternal border

523
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis histology

A

is characterized by synovial hyperplasia with inflammatory infiltrates. The accelerated metabolic rate of the inflamed synovium causes local hypoxia, which leads to synovial angiogenesis.

524
Q

Activated macrophages in sarcoidosis and other granulomatous diseases express 1-alpha-hydroxylase leading to

A

excess production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D and hypercalcemia.

525
Q

X-linked recessive inheritance

A

Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy, hemophilia and G6PD deficiency. All males who inherited the X chromosome will display the phenotype whereas only homozygous females will display the phenotype.

526
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

is a combined B and T lymphocyte disorder, with findings characteristics of eczema, recurrent infections, and thrombocytopenia. Patients are at increased risk of pyogenic infections specially organisms with a polysaccharide capsule.

527
Q

Ataxia-telangiectasia syndrome is defined by

A

the presence of a progressive ataxia together with telangiectasia and an immunodeficiency due to a combined defect of both B and T-lymphocytes.

528
Q

Polycythemia (erythrocytosis) levels in women and men

A

Men >52% and women > 48%.

*Measurement of red blood cell mass is necessary to distinguish absolute from relative erythrocytosis.

529
Q

Opioids MOA:

A

presynaptic mu receptor activation that leads to closure of voltage-gated calcium channels; postsynaptic binding to mu receptor causes opening of potassium channels and membrane hyper polarization.

530
Q

In malabsorption we test for

A

fat in stool with Sudan III stain

531
Q

C difficile infection can be detected with

A

NAAT by PCR

532
Q

Polyethylene glycol is a

A

osmotic laxative

533
Q

Hydrocephalus ex-vacuo is related with

A

neurodegenerative diseases like AIDS dementia, due to significant cortical atrophy, which allows the ventricles to expand while maintaining normal pressure.

534
Q

Pseudodemetia can be seen in:

A

diabetes, hypothyroidism, b12 deficiency, depression, neurosyphilis, normal pressure hydrocephalus

535
Q

Alcohol intoxication

A

slurred speech, AST over ALT 2:1,

536
Q

Opioid intoxication

A

CNS depression, pupillary constriction (pinpoint pupils, decreased gag reflex.
tx: naloxone, naltrexone

537
Q

Barbiturates intoxication

A

marked respiratory depression

538
Q

Benzodiazepines intoxication

A

minor respiratory depression, ataxia

tx: flumazenil

539
Q

Amphetamines intoxication

A

pupillary dilation, tachycardia, anorexia, paranoia, hypertension, wakefulness and attention
tx: benzodiazepines

540
Q

Cocaine intoxication

A

impaired judgment, pupillary dilation (mydriasis), hallucinations, angina

541
Q

Caffeine intoxication

A

increased diuresis, muscle twitching

542
Q

Phencyclidine intoxication

A

violence, impulsivity, psychomotor agitation, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, analgesia, psychosis, delirium
tx: benzodiazepines/ antipsychotics

543
Q

LSD intoxication

A

Perceptual distortion (visual, auditory), depersonalization, paranoia, psychosis

544
Q

Marijuana intoxication

A

euphoria, anxiety, paranoid delusions, perception of slowed time, impaired judgment, social withdrawal, increased appetite, dry mouth, conjunctival injection, hallucinations

545
Q

MDMA intoxication

A

disinhibition, hyperactivity, hypertension, tachycardia, serotonin syndrome, hyponatremia, hyperthermia

546
Q

Heroin intoxication

A

euphoria, mitosis, respiratory depression.

547
Q

Antipsychotics endocrine side effect:

A

hyperprolactinemia, galactorrhea, oligomenorrhea, gynecomastia,

548
Q

Antipsychotics cardiac side effect:

A

can prolong QT, Torsades de point,

549
Q

Antipsychotics MOA:

A

blocks D2 receptors, increasing cAMP.

550
Q

Extrapiramidal system side effects:

A

Hours to days: acute dystonia (muscle spasm)
Days to months: akathisia (restlessness) and Parkisonism (bradikinesia)
Months to years: Tardive dyskinesia (orofacial chorea)

551
Q

Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome presentation:

A

rigidity, myoglobinuria, autonomic instability, hyperpyrexia, fever, encephalopathy, visual unstable.
tx:dantrolene, bromocriptine

552
Q

Clozapine side effects

A

Agranulocytosis

Only for treatment resistant patient.

553
Q

Side effect of olanzapine

A

metabolic syndrome (hypercholesterolemia)

554
Q

Risperidone side effects

A

hyperprolactinemia

555
Q

General side effect of atypical antipsychotics

A

QT prolongation

556
Q

Lithium side effects:

A

hypothyroidism, polyuria (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus), Ebstein anomaly.

557
Q

Lithium toxicity can be obtained by:

A

combination with thiazides

558
Q

Buspirone MOA

A

stimulates serotonin receptors

tx: generalized anxiety disorder, does not cause sedation, addiction, or tolerance. Does not interacts with alcohol.

559
Q

SSRI’s

A

Citalopram, and -ine.

inhibits serotonin reuptake

560
Q

SSRI’s side effects

A

SIADH, GI upset, sexual dysfunction, anorgasmia, decreased libido, anorexia, bruxism,

561
Q

SNRI’s side effect

A

hypertension

562
Q

TCA’s antidepressants

A

amitriptyline, imipramine, doxepin

563
Q

TCA’s MOA

A

Blocks serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake

564
Q

TCA’s side effects

A

sedation, postural hypotension, anticholinergic side effects, can prolong QT interval, convulsions, coma, cardio toxicity (arrhythmia due to NA channel inhibition).

use bicarbonate in toxicity.

565
Q

MAO inhibitors

A

tranylcypromine, phenelzine, isocarboxazid, selegiline

566
Q

MAO inhibitors clinical use

A

atypical depression

567
Q

MAO inhibitors side effects

A

hypertensive crisis, CNS stimulation.

Wait 2 weeks after stopping MAO inhibitors before starting serotonergic drugs or stopping dietary restrictions.

568
Q

Bupropion

A

tx: smoking cessation

569
Q

Trazodone use

A

insomnia

can cause priapism and painful erections

570
Q

Varenicline

A

nicotinic ACh receptor partial agonist. used for smoking cessation.

571
Q

Sarcoidosis laboratory findings

A

hypercalcemia
hypercalciuria
Elevated ACE levels

572
Q

G6PD deficiency anemia precipitators are:

A

infections, drugs (dapsone, antimalarials, sulfonamide antibiotics, DKA, favism (ingestion of lava beans)

573
Q

G6PD defiance anemia is characterized by:

A

bite cells and heinz body, reticulocytosis, jaundice and dark urine.

574
Q

Whipple disease is a

A

systemic illness that involves the small intestine, joints and CNS, caused by the gram positive tropheryma whippelii. Classic histologic findings include small intestine mucosa containing enlarged, foamy macrophages packed with both rod-shaped bacilli and PAS-positive, diastase resistant granules.

575
Q

Lecithinase is a

A

Toxin A, produced by Clostridium perfringens, inducing cell lysis and the development of gas gangrene.

576
Q

Polyribosylribitol phosphate is a

A

capsule component and major virulence factor of H. influenzae type b.

577
Q

Trehalose dimycolate is a

A

cell wall component and major virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It protects it from being killed by macrophages and stimulates granuloma formation.

578
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria is a

A

AD condition caused by porphobilinogen deaminase deficiency. Symptoms includes: abdominal pain, vomiting, peripheral neuropathy, reddish-brown urine.
TX: IV glucose, heme preparations, which down regulate ALA synthase

579
Q

Haptoglobin in sickle cell disease

A

decreased

580
Q

Pronephros, mesonephros and metanephros

A

pronephros degenerates, mesonephros function as interim kidney then contributes to male genitalia system; metanephros is permanent.

581
Q

Ureteric bud is derived from

A

mesonephric duct; and gives rise to ureter, pelvises, calyces, collecting ducts.

582
Q

Glomerulus differentiation is induces by

A

ureteric bud and metanephric mesenchyme

583
Q

Potter sequence is associated with

A

oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, extremity defects, renal failure, flatted nose.

584
Q

Causes os potter syndrome

A

ARPKD, bilateral renal agenesis, chronic placental insufficiency

585
Q

Horseshoe kidney is associated with

A

Turner syndrome

586
Q

Extracellular volume can be measured by

A

inulin or mannitol, because they can not pass to the intracellular compartment

587
Q

Plasma volume can be measure by

A

radio labeling albumin

588
Q

Cx and GFR relation

A

if
cx>gfr= secretion
cx

589
Q

Inulin clearance can be used to calculate GFR because

A

it is freely filtered and is neither reabsorbed or secreted

590
Q

Renal plasma flow can be measured by

A

PAH, because it is filtered and also secreted

591
Q

Eritroproyectin is produced by

A

phagocytes and interstitial cells

592
Q

Fanconi syndrome

A

generalized reabsorption defect in PCT, leading to metabolic acidosis, increased excretion of glucose, phosphate, aminoacids. Causes include hereditary defects.

593
Q

Bartter syndrome

A

reabsorption defect in thick ascending loop of hence, affects NA/K/2CL cotransporter, presents similar to chronic loop diuretic use, presents with hypokalemia, hypercalciuria, and metabolic alkalosis.

594
Q

Gitelman syndrome

A

reabsorption defect of NaCl in DCT, similar to using lifelong thiazides, results in hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and decreased aldosterone. tx:amiloride

595
Q

Prostaglandin and NSAID’s effect in the kidney

A

prostaglandins vasodilator afferent arterioles and NSAID’s constricts afferent arterioles.

596
Q

PTH hormone action

A

increased calcium and phosphate absorption at the level of the gut, calcium absorption and phosphate excretion at the level of the kidney and 1,25-(OH)2D3 production.

597
Q

Acidemia levels

A

HCO2 <20mEq/L and CO2>44mmHg

598
Q

Respiratory acidosis causes:

A

airways obstruction, lung disease, opioids, sedatives, weakening of lung muscles.

599
Q

Metabolic acidosis causes:

A
Check anion gap!
High Anion Gap: MUDPILES
methanol
uremia
DKA
Propylene glycol
iron tablets or INH
Lactic acidosis
Ethylen glycol
salicilates (aspirin) (late)
Normal Gap: HARDASS
Hyperalimentation
addison disease
renal tubular acidosis
diarrhea
acetazolamide
spironolactone
saline infusion
600
Q

Alkalemia levels:

A

CO2<36 OR HCO3 >28

601
Q

Respiratory alkalosis causes:

A
hysteria
hypoxemia (high altitude)
salicylates 
tumor
pulmonary embolism
602
Q

Metabolic alkalosis causes:

A

loop diuretics
vomiting
antacid use
hyperaldosteronism

603
Q

Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)

A

caused by parvovirus B19 and presents with a nonspecific prodrome, followed by a classic “slapped-cheek” facial rash and a lacy, reticular body rash. Is highly tropic for erythroid precursor cells.

604
Q

Laboratory findings in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

creatine kinase elevation due to rhabdomyolysis

605
Q

Dantrolene MOA

A

Antagonizes ryanodine receptors and inhibits calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

606
Q

NMS symptoms:

A

diffuse muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, altered sensorium.

607
Q

Ewing sarcoma is

A

the second most common malignant bone tumor of childhood, it commonly involves the lower extremity and pelvis and often metastasizes to the lungs.

608
Q

vitamin A deficiency causes

A

blindness and hyperkeratosis, can be developed in patients with biliary disorders, exocrine pancreatic insufficiency or intestinal malabsorption.

609
Q

Essential tremor is

A

the most common movement disorder, patients experience a slowly progressive, symmetric postural or kinetic tremor that most commonly affects the upper extremities. It is often inherited in a autosomal dominant fashion and first line treatment is propranolol.

610
Q

Henoch-Schonlein purpura is a

A

small vessel vasculitis in children, preceded by an upper respiratory infection, (IgA mediated), causes abdominal pain, joint pain, lower extremities palpable purpura and hematuria.

611
Q

Acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis findings

A

low C3 levels
IgG and IgM deposition
type III HS

612
Q

Rapidly progress glomerulonephritis findings

A

crescents consist of fibrin and plasma protein

613
Q

Goodpasture syndrome findings

A

type II H.S.
antibodies against GBM (IgG to IgE)
Linear IF
HEMOPTISIS AND HEMATURIA

614
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener) findings

A

necrotizing granuloma in upper and lower respiratory system
c-ANCA
Also presents with sinusitis

615
Q

Microscopic polyangiitis findings

A

p-ANCA
upper respiratory tract only
no granulomas

616
Q

Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis findings

A

due to SLE

wire looping of capillaries

617
Q

IgA nephropathy (Berger) findings

A

IgA deposition in mesangium

occurs concurrently with respiratory or GI tract infection

618
Q

Alport syndrome findings

A

mutation in type IV collagen
thinning and splitting of glomerular basement membrane
eye problems, sensorineural deafness

619
Q

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis findings

A

tram-track appearance on PAS stain

cop resents with nephrotic syndrome

620
Q

Minimal change disease findings

A

most common in children

recent infection, lymphoma

621
Q

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis findings

A
segmental sclerosis with hyalinosis
effacement of foot processes
most common in african american
can be due to heroin use, HIV, sickle cell,
may progress to chronic renal disease
622
Q

Membranous nephropathy findings

A

diffuse capillary and GBM thickening
nephrotic presentation of SLE
spike and dome appearance
antibodies to phospholipase A2 receptors

623
Q

Amyloidosis findings

A

congo red stain shows apple green birefringence

in mesangium

624
Q

Diabetic glomerulonephropathy

A

eosinophilic nodular glomerulosclerosis
kimmelstiel-wilson lesions
nonezymatic glycosylation of GBM=increase permeability and thickening
non enzymatic glycosylation of efferent arterioles=increase GFR and mesangial expansion
Most common cause of end-stage renal disease in US

625
Q

Struvite stones

A

magnesium, ammonium and phosphate
precipitates with high pH
caused by infection with urease positive organisms (proteus, stap saprophyticus, klebsiella) that hydrolyze urea to ammonia which lead to urine alkalization. Commonly form stag horn calculi

626
Q

Renal papillary necrosis is associated with:

A

diabetes, sickle cell disease, NSAID’s, acute pyelonephritis

627
Q

ADPKD chromosomes

A

PKD1 (Cr16) and PKD2 (Cr4)

628
Q

ADPKD is associated with

A

berry aneurism, mitral valve prolaps, benign hepatic cyst

629
Q

ARPKD is associated with

A

Potter sequence and liver fibrosis

630
Q

Adverse effect of loop diuretics

A

gout, ototoxicity, allergy

631
Q

Thiazide diuretics side effects

A

Hyper glycemic, lipidemia, uricemia and calcemia.

632
Q

Prevents unfavorable heart remodeling

A

ACEI

633
Q

DIRECT RENIN INHIBITOR

A

Aliskiren

634
Q

Direct arteriolar vasodilators

A

hydralazine, minoxidil

635
Q

Fluorescence in situ hybridization can be used to

A

identify specific chromosomal translocation, duplications or deletions. `

636
Q

Hallmark of asbestos exposure

A

pleural plaques

637
Q

D-xylose is a

A

monosaccharide whose absorption is not affected by exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and can be used to differentiate between pancreatic versus mucosal causes of malabsorption

638
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation organisms

A

rhinovirus, influenza, H. influenzae, M catarrali, S. pneumoniae

639
Q

Congenital toxoplasmosis is characterized by

A

retinal lesions, hydrocephalus, jaundice and hepatosplenomegaly

640
Q

Congenital rubella infection

A

growth restriction, hearing loss, cloudy cornea and meningoencephalitis

641
Q

Pregnant woman should avoid unpasteurized milk to prevent

A

Listeria monocytogenes infection

642
Q

Foregut, midgut and hindgut

A

foregut=pharynx and 3/4 duodenum
midgut=duodenum to 2/3 of transverse colon
hindgut= distal 1/3 of transverse colon to anal canal

643
Q

Ventran pancreatic duct gives raise to

A

pancreatic duct

644
Q

Dorsal pancreatic duct gives raise to

A

body, tail, isthmus and accessory pancreatic duct

645
Q

The head of the pancreas came from

A

ventral and dorsal pancreatic duct

646
Q

SADPUCKER

A
suprarenal glands
aorta/ivc
duodenum
pancreas
ureters
colon
kidney
esophagus
rectum
647
Q

Hepatoduodenal ligament contains

A

portal triad: proper hepatic artery, portal vein, common bile duct

648
Q

Celiac trunk branches

A

common hepatic, splenic and left gastric

649
Q

Site of varices anastomosis

A

esophageal varices=left gastric with azygos
caput medusae= para umbilical with small epigastric veins of the wall
anorectal varices= superior rectal with middle and inferior rectal

650
Q

Ito cells functions

A

storage of vitamin A, matrix production, collagen type II in cell injury

651
Q

Hepatic zone I

A

periportal zone, affected first by viral hepatitis

652
Q

Hepatic zone III

A

pericentral vein, affected first by ischemia, contains cytochrome p-450, site of alcoholic hepatitis.

653
Q

Sliding hiatal hernias are:

A

gastroesophageal junction is displaced upward; hourglass stomach

654
Q

Paraesophageal hernias are:

A

gastroesophageal junction is usually normal, fungus protrudes into the thorax.

655
Q

Hernia Covered by the 3 layers if spermatic fascia

A

indirect hernia/ most common in young men or child

656
Q

Hernia Covered by the external spermatic fascia only

A

direct hernia/ most common in older men

657
Q

Complication of hernia repair

A

can compromise the vas deferens