UWorld Flashcards
1
Q
What is the difference between pre-septal and orbital cellulitis in clinical presentation?
A
orbital cellulitis has opthalmoplegia pain with EOM proptosis vision impairment
2
Q
what is the most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia? (CAH)
A
21-hydroxylase deficiency
3
Q
What is the clinical presentation of severe (classic) 21-hydroxylase deficiency?
A
presents in infancy
virilization
salt-losing crisis
4
Q
What medical treatment is used for urge incontinence?
A
antimuscarinic
5
Q
what medical treatment is used fro overflow incontinence?
A
cholinergic agonists
6
Q
What deposits are found in parkinson’s disease and where are they located?
A
alpha-synuclein
substantia nigra pars compacta
7
Q
What are the HACEK organisms?
A
Haemophilus arprophilus Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans Cardiobacterium hominis E corrodens Kingella kingae
8
Q
what is the biggest risk factor for developing stroke (ischemic or hemorrhagic)?
A
hypertension
9
Q
what is the treatment for postpartum endometritis?
A
clindamycin and gentamicin
10
Q
what is the treatment for lactational mastitis?
A
dicloxacillin
11
Q
what is the athletes triad?
A
amenorrhea
osteoprososis
eating disorder
12
Q
at what ages are VZV vaccines administered?
A
1 and 4
13
Q
What are potential masses in the anterior mediastinum?
A
Thymoma
retrosternal thyroid
teratoma
lymphoma
14
Q
What are potential masses in the middle mediastinum?
A
bronchogenic cyst tracheal tumors pericardial cysts lymphoma lymph node enlargement aortic aneurysms of the arch
15
Q
where are all neurogenic tumors located?
A
posterior mediastinum
16
Q
what are neurogenic tumors?
A
meningocele enteric cysts lymphoma diaphragmatic nerhina esophageal tumor aortic aneurysm
17
Q
what is the best treatment for cancer related cachexia?
A
progesterone analogues (megestrol acetate, medroxyprogresterone acetate)
18
Q
what is the best treatment for HIV related cachexia?
A
synthetic cannabinoids (dronabinol)
19
Q
what is the presentation of an erb-duchenne palsy? 5th and 6th cervical nerves
A
decreased moro and biceps reflexes
waiters tip (extended elbow, pronated arm, fixed wrist and fingers)
Intact grasp reflex
20
Q
What is the presentation of Klumpke palsy? C8 and T1
A
Claw hand (extended wrist, hyperextended MCP, flexed IP, absent grasp reflex)
Horner syndrome
Intact moro and biceps reflex
21
Q
what organisms predominates burn wounds in the first 5 days?
A
S. aureus
22
Q
What organisms predominates burn wound after 5 days?
A
GN
23
Q
What are the associated neoplasms with lynch syndrome
A
CRC
endometrial cancer
ovarian cancer
24
Q
What are the associated neoplasms with familial adenomatous polyposis?
A
CRC
Desmoids and osetomas
brain tumors
25
What are the associated neoplasms with von hippel-lindau syndrome?
hemangioblastomas
clear cell renal carcinoma
pheochromocytoma
26
What are the associated neoplasms with MEN 1
parathrydoid adenoma
pituitary adenoma
pancreatic adenoma
27
What are the associated neoplasms with MEN2
medullary thyroid cancer
pheochromocytoma
parathyroid hyperplasia (type 2A)
28
What are the associated neoplasms associated with BRCA1 and BRCA2?
breast cancer
| Ovarian cancer
29
Which histopathologicalfinding would require more intensive follow-up colonoscopic surveillance?
Villous adenoma is a bad polyp
| sessile is bad too
30
what deficiency is associated with carcinoid syndrome?
niacin
31
what antibodies are positive in SLE?
ANA
anti-dsDNA
Anti-smith
32
what ar cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies used to diagnose?
RA
33
What are anti-histone antibodies used to diagnose?
drug-induced lupus
34
What antibodies are used to diagnose scleroderma?
Anti-Scl-70 (anti-topoisomerase)
35
when are seizures most likely to occur from alcohol withdrawal?
12-48 hours
36
when does DT occur?
2-4 days after last drink
37
what is the clinical presentation of wernekes encephalopathy (thiamine deficiency)?
gait ataxia
oculomotor dysfunction (horizontal nystagmus)
encephalopathy
38
What is the hallmark of alcoholic cerebellar degeneration?
wide based gait with postural (truncal) instability (can't perform heel-shin or tandem gait)
limb coordination intact (FNF)
39
What is legg-Clave-Perthes disease?
idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral capital epiphysis
40
what medication is contraindicated in cocaine abuse chest pain?
beta blockers
41
at what week should pre-eclampsia without severe features be delivered?
>37 weeks
42
at what week should pre-eclampsia with severe features be delivered
>34 weeks
43
what is the hallmark of euthyroid sick syndrome?
Normal TSH and T4, decreased T3
| "Low T3 syndrome"
44
what is the gold standard test for diagnosis HIT?
serotonin release assay
45
what is the most common nephropathy associated with HIV?
Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
46
what is the treatment for Afib with RVR in a patient with WPW syndrome?
procainamide or ibutilide (AVOID AV nodal blockers)
47
what type of organisms are present with chronic granulomatous disease?
catalase positive pathogens (S. aureus, Serratia, Burkholderia, Aspergillus)
48
what are the tests for chronic granulomatous disease?
neutrophil function testing (dihydrohodamine 123 test, nitroblue tetrazolium test)
49
what opportunistic infections are most common with solid organ transplant?
PCP
| CMV
50
What is the triad of aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease? (AERD)
asthma
chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis
bronchospasm or nasal congestion
all following ingestion of aspirin or NSAIDS
51
what is the likely causative organism in neutropenic fever?
pseudomonas
52
what is the best initial treatment for neutropenic fever?
anti-pseudomonad beta-lactam agent
| cefepime, meropenem, pipperacillin-tazpobactam
53
what are the metabolic side effects of thiazide diuretics
hyperglycemia
increased LDL and triglycerides
hyperuricemia
54
What are the electrolyte abnormalities that can happen with thiazide diuretics?
hyponatremia
hypokalemia
hypomagnesemia
hyercalcemia
55
what are the classic findings of tricuspid atresia?
left axis deviation, decreased pulmonary markings on CXR, Minimal R waves, peaked p waves
56
what is the triad of congenital rubella disease?
cataracts, hearing loss, heart defect (PDA)
57
what is hyposthenuria and who is it most common in?
kidney damage leading to problems with concentrating urine
| Caused by sickling of cells in sickle cell anemia/trait
58
what is the treatment for histoplasmosis in patients who are immunocompromised?
amphotericin B, after 1-2 weeks of clinical improvement, transitioned to oral itraconazole for 1 year
59
what is the clinical presentation of sporothrix schenckii
papule at the site of inoculation followed by spreading proximally along the lymphatic chain, common in landscapers
60
what disease is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis?
ulcerative colitis
61
how do you diagnose primary biliary cholangitis?
anti-mitochondrial antibodies
62
if a patient is diagnosed with streptococcus gallolyticus (strep bovis) endocarditis what is the next best step?
colonoscopy to evaluate for CRC
63
what is the treatment for cyanide toxicity?
hydroxycobalamin or sodium thiosulfate
64
what is psuedocyesis?
somatization of pregnancy (you aren't really pregnant, but stress from not being able to get pregnant makes you misinterpret symptoms of pregnancy for pregnancy despite a negative pregnancy test)
65
what is the treatment of choice for children <8 and pregnant women diagnosed with lyme disease?
amoxicillin or cefuroxime (don't use doxycycline because it causes bone growth issues and tooth hypoplasia)
66
what is the difference between nightmare disorder and sleep terror disorder?
Nightmare disorder: Remember dream content, easily consolable, occur during REM, second half of night
Sleep terror disorder: Do not remember dream content, unresponsive to comfort, 1st third of night,non-REM sleep
67
what is the most common composition of kidney stones?
calcium oxalate
68
what are the causes of meningitis in children < 3 months old?
GBS
E. coli or GN
Listeria monocytogenes
HSV
69
What are the causes of meningitis in children 3 months to 10 years old?
Strep pneumo
| niesseria meningitidis
70
What causes meningitis in children >11 years old?
N meningitidis
71
What is the pentad of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)?
```
thrombocytopenia
microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (MAHA)
renal insufficiency
neurologic changes
fever
```
72
what causes TTP?
acquired autoantibody to ADAMTS13
73
What does ADAMTS13 do?
cleaves VwF from endothelial surface
74
what is the treatment for TTP?
plasma exchange
75
what is the beast pharmacological treatment for anal fissures?
topical anesthetics (lidocaine) and vasodilators (nifedipine, nitroglycerine)
76
when is the meningococcal vaccine administered?
age 11-12 with booster at age 16
77
when is the rotavirus vaccine administered?
2-8 months
78
what is the formula for corrected serum sodium?
measured serum sodium + 2 (for every 100 glucose above 100)
79
what metabolic derangement is present in addison's disease?
hyponatremic, hyperkalemic non-anion gap metabolic acidosis (lack of aldosterone leads to loss of sodium and retention of protons and k)
80
what is the formula for calculating sensitivity?
true positives/ (true positive + false negative)
81
what is the formula for calculating specificity?
TN/ (TN +FP)
82
what is the treatment for tine versicolor?
selenium sulfide
83
when should patients with placenta previa be delivered?
36-37 weeks via c-section
84
why do OCPs cause hypertension?
cause an increase in the production of angiotensinogen synthesis by estrogen during hepatic first-pass metabolism
85
what are the symptoms of anterior cord syndrome?
weakness below level of lesion
loss of pain and temp sensation 1-2 levels below lesion
retention of proprioception, vibration, and light touch
86
how do you differentiate between botulism and guillen-barre based on history?
botulism is descending flacid paralysis
| guillen-barre is ascending flaccid paralysis
87
what are the side effects of cyclophosphamide?
acute hemorrhagic cystitis
bladder cancer
sterility
myelosupression
88
what is the best way to prevent the bladder side effects of cyclophosphamide?
drink plenty of water
urinate frequently
take MESNA
89
what is the triad of McCune-Albright syndrome? (3 ps)
precocious puberty
pigmentation (cafe au lait spots)
polyostotic fibrous dysplasia (multiple bone defects)
90
what are the side effects associated with second-generation anti-psychotics?
```
metabolic syndrome (weight gain, dyslipidemia, hyperglycemia)
Olanzapine and clozapine most common
```
91
what blood tests need to be done for patients taking lithium?
kidney and thyroid function
92
what blood tests are needed when starting clozapine and why?
weekly blood counts to test for agranulocytosis for first 6 months of treatment
93
what is the most common brain tumor in children?
pilocytic astrocytoma
94
what is the formula for positive predictive value?
TP/TP + FP
95
What is the formula for negative predictive value?
TN/TN+FN
96
what must an HIV person's CD4 count be to be determined immunocompetent to receive a live attenuated vaccine?
>200
97
what do early decelerations indicate?
fetal head compression
98
what do variable decelerations indicate?
umbilical cord compression
99
what is the most common cause of isolated asymptomatic alkaline phosphatase elevation?
paget disease of bone
100
what is the formula for number needed to treat?
1/ARR
101
what is amaurosis fugax?
transient vision field defect progressing to monocular blindness
102
what are contraindications to selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERM)? Roloxifene and tamoxifen
current or prior VTE disorder
103
what are the lights criteria?
Exudative:
Pleural fluid protein/serum protein ratio >0.5
pleural fluid LDH/serum LDH ratio >0.6
Pleural fluid LDH >2/3 of the upper limit of normal for serum LDH
104
which thyroid disorder comes on after viral illness with a diffuse enlarged, tender, goiter?
subacute (dequervains) thyroitiditis
105
what is the most common cause of viral meningitis?
enterovirus (echovirus or coxsackie)
106
guillen-barre affects which portion of the nervous system?
peripheral nerves
107
vitamin B deficiency damages which structure of the spinal cord?
dorsal and lateral spinal columns
108
what is the alternate treatment for syphillus in non-pregnant patients allergic to penicillin? What about pregnant patients?
doxycycline = non-pregnant
| penicillin desensitization with administration = pregnant
109
what is fetal hydantoin syndrome and what are the common causes?
```
mid facial hypoplasia
microcephaly
cleft lip and palate
digital hypoplasia
hirsutism
developmental delay
(often caused by anti-convulsants such as phenytoin and carbamazepine)
```
110
what is the classic presentation of congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
concave abdomen and barrel shaped chest, bowel sounds in chest, decreased lung sound where bowel is. Need to intubate
111
what vitamin deficiency develops with chronic GI absorption problems (crohns, steatorrhea) and what electrolyte abnormalities occur because of that vitamin deficiency?
Vitamin D: leads to hypocalcemia, hypophosphatemia and subsequently secondary hyperparathyroidism
112
what is the first step in management of hyper osmotic hyperglycemic state and why?
fluid repletion because HHS causes a osmotic diuresis which can lead to 8-10 liters of fluid loss.
113
what is the classic organism for complement deficiency?
niesseria (encapsulated organisms)
114
how do you test for complement deficiency?
CH50 assay
115
what are pharmacotherapy options for calcium caused nephrolithiasis?
thiazide diuretic
urine alkalization (potassium citrate/sodium bicarb)
allopurinol (hyperurecemia caused stones)
116
what is a requirement for hospice?
prognosis of less than 6 months (do not have to have a DNR signed)
117
what blood pressure is considered hypertensive urgency and what distinguishes urgency from emergency?
>180/120
| Emergency has end organ dysfunction (retinal hemorrhages, papilledema)
118
how do you diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning?
carboxyhemoglobin levels
119
what is the classic finding for cyanide poisoning?
almond smelling breath
120
What differentiates methemoglobinemia vs carbon monoxide poisoning?
CO = pinkish-red skin hue
| methemoglobin: cyanosis and bluish discoloration
121
what are the most common causing organisms of acute bacterial sinusitis?
```
strep pneumo (30)
H influenza (30)
mortadella catarralis (10)
```
122
where does the aspiration go with a patient who is lying supine?
posterior superior aspect of lower lobe
| posterior inferior aspect of upper lobe
123
what is the order of tests that should be performed to evaluate primary adrenal insufficiency?
8 AM cortisol, plasma ACTH, cosyntropin test (ACTH stimulation test)
124
what are normal post void residual volumes?
Women: <150 ml
Men: <50 ml
125
What is the morphology of nocardia and what is the treatment?
gram positive, partially acid-fast filamentous branching rods
Tx: Bactrim
126
Since actinomyces and nocardia are both gram positive rods, how do you distinguish between the two?
actinomyces: anaerobic, not acid fast, sulfur granules
127
what is the treatment for akathisia caused by anti-psychotics?
decrease the dose of the medication
| add on beta blocker, benztorpine, or benzo
128
What is the timing of first trimester combined test?
9-13 weeks
129
What is the timing of cell free DNA test?
> or equal to 10 weeks
130
What is the timing for chorionic villus sampling?
10-13 weeks
131
when is the second trimester quadruple screen?
15-22 weeks
132
When can amniocentesis be performed?
15-20 weeks
133
When is the second trimester ultrasound for prenatal testing?
18-20 weeks
134
what does immunofluroscopy show in pemphigus vulgaris?
netlike or chicken wire patter of IgG and C3 deposits
135
What is the serology for pemphigus vulgaris?
anti desmoglein 1 and 3 antibodies
136
What is the immunofluorescence of bullous pemphigoid?
linear IgG deposits at basement membrane
137
Which disease has mucocutaneous blisters, bullous pemphigoid or pemphigus vulgaris?
pemphigus vulgaris
138
What is the triad of felty syndrome?
inflammatory arthritis
splenomegaly
neutropenia
139
what are the hallmark signs of riboflavin (B2) deficiency?
```
angular chelitis
stomatitis
glossitis
normocytic-normochronic anemia
seborrheic dermatitis
```
140
what is the initial test in hypercortisolism?
24 hour assay of urine free cortisol, late night salivary cortisol measurement, or low dose dexamethasone suppression test
141
what causes a "down and out" gaze?
CN III palsy
142
what are the features of CN III palsy/
down and out gaze
ptosis
preserved pupillary response
143
what is serum sickness-like sickness?
type III hypersensitivity reaction occurring 1-2 weeks after beta-lactams or bactrum
fever, urticaria, polyarthralgia w/o mucosal involvement
144
what is the definition of arrested second stage of labor?
no decent of fetus after 3 hours in nulliparous woman or more than 2 hours for multiparous woman
145
what are the classic findings for cystic teratoma?
hyper echoic nodules and calcification
146
what is the major pathogen in erysipelas?
group A strep (strep pyogenes)
147
what are the symptoms of a glucagonoma?
```
necrotizing migratory erythema (usually below the waist)
glossitis
stomatitis
mild DM
hyperglycemia with low amino acid levels
```
148
which infection of the vagina has an elevated pH?
bacterial vaginosis (grey discharge, fish smell)
149
what lung neoplasm is associated with SIADH?
Small cell carcinoma
150
what is the treatment of malignant hypertensive emergency?
IV labetolol, nitroprusside, or nicardipine
151
what neurological complication are patients with infective endocarditis and neurological changes at highest risk for?
brain abscess
152
what are the screening guidelines for persons with family history of adenomatous polyps or CRC?
40 years old of 10 years prior to diagnosis in relative, whichever comes first
repeat every 3-5 years
153
Colon cancer screening guidelines for persons with IBD?
begin 8 years after diagnosis
| repeat every 1-2 years with biopsies
154
Colon cancer screening guidelines for FAP
begin at age 10-12
| repeat every year
155
Colon cancer screening guidelines for hereditary nonpolyposis CRC (Lynch)
begin at 20-25 years
| repeat ever 1-2 years
156
where is blastomycosis usually found and what are the classic features?
Great lakes, mississippi and ohio river basins
| Skin and bone lesions with pulmonary manifestations
157
how does negative predictive value change with pre-test probability?
High pre-test probability = low NPV
| low pre-test probability = high NPV
158
what lineage of cells is CML from?
myelogenous cell = neutrophils (promyelocytes, myelocytes)
159
What are the characteristics of hairy cell leukemia?
splenomegaly
| pancytopenia (including leukopenia)
160
Does hodgkin lymphoma have a high, low, or normal leukocyte count?
normal
161
what are the classic characteristics on blood smear of chronic lymphocytic leukemia?
leukocytosis with mature lymphocytes
smudge cells
age 70 is average
162
what are the clinical features of interstitial cystitis?
bladder pain that is worse with filling and relieved with voiding
163
what condition commonly presents with a cape like distribution of sensory changes?
syringomyelia
164
what vaccinations should be given for a person with asplenia?
pneumococcal
meningococcal
HiB
given oral antibiotics in any febrile illness
165
what hormones should be checked when suspecting PCOS and how do these levels help differentiate between ovarian etiology and adrenal etiology?
Testosterone and DHEAS
elevated T with normal DHEAS suggest ovary
Elevated DHEAS suggests adrenal tumor
166
what is optic disc hyperemia associated with?
methanol poisoning
167
whats the best way to differentiate between methanol poisoning and ethylene glycol poisoning?
methanol affects the eyes
| ethylene glycol affects the kidneys
168
what is the metabolic derangement seen in normal pregnancy and why?
respiratory alkalosis secondary to progresterone stimulating increased tidal volume and minute ventilation
169
what is the most common immediate arrhythmia in MI and what causes it?
V fib
| re-entry is the most common in immediate MI
170
what is the treatment for bullous pemphigoid?
high potency topical glucocorticoids (clabetasol)
171
what is dermatitis herpetiformis associated with and what is the treatment?
gluten allergy
| tx with dapsone
172
where is squamous cell cancer of the vagina most commonly found?
the posterior aspect of the upper 1/3 of the vagina
173
where is clear cell carcinoma of the vagina most commonly found/
the anterior aspect of the upper 1/3 of the vagina
174
how long must symptoms of PTSD be present to be considered PTSD and if they are shorter than that what is it characterized as?
>1 month, if less it's acute distress syndrome
175
what is the best next step after positive beta-hCG with concern for ectopic pregnancy?
Transvaginal ultrasound
176
what medications are contraindicated in acute angle closure glaucoma?
atropine (because it will cause dilation of the pupil worsening the obstruction)
177
what is the treatment for acute dystonia?
benztropine or diphenhydramine
178
what is the distinguishing feature of CVID?
all IG down, normal B cell count
179
What is the distinguishing feature of x-linked agammaglobulinemia (bruton)
all IG down, B cell low
180
What is the distinguishing feature of SCID?
decreased T cell and B cell concentrations with development of life threatening infection in infancy
181
what are the lab findings associated with wilson's disease?
low ceruloplasmin levels
increased urinary output of copper
kale-flesher rings on ophthalmologic exam
182
what is the test name for checking for spherocytosis?
acidified glycerol test (osmotic fragility)
| or abnormal eosin-5-maleimide binding test
183
how do you diagnose paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
CH55 and CH59 testing
184
which type of autoimmune hemolytic anemia is associated with antibiotics, URI, HIV?
warm IgG mediated
| mycoplasma is cold IgM
185
how does non-classical congenital adrenal hyperplasia present?
late onset, gonadotropin independent precocious puberty with normal electrolytes
186
what is the best way to measure success in the treatment of DKA?
measure serum anion gap or direct assay of beta-hydroxybuterate
187
what is the treatment for a prolactinoma?
bromocriptine or cabergoline
188
what is the time frame for adjustment disorder?
symptoms starting after a specific inciting event occurring less than 3 months
189
what is the classic finding of pityriasis rosea?
round ovoid patches on the trunk and upper extremities, christmas tree pattern
self-resolving aka no treatment
190
what are the 4 Ps of lichen planus?
pruritic
polygonal
purple
flat-toppedpaules
191
at what age should patients get the shingles vaccine?
over age 60
192
what are the indications to start statin therapy?
secondary prevention for ASCVD
LDL >190
Diabetes ages 40-75 with LDL 70-189
Risk score of >7.5% ages 40-75
193
what cancers are associated with osteoblastic metastasis?
prostate
| breast
194
Which cancers are associated with osteoclastic metastasi?
lung
kidney
thyroid
multiple myeloma
195
what are the PFTs of COPD? (FEV1/FVC, FEV1, TLC)
FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.7
FEV1 decreased
TLC increased
196
What are PFTs in asthma? (FEV1/FVC, FEV1, TLC)
```
FEV1 decreased
FVC decreased
FEV1/FVC ratio decreased
FEV1 increase by 12% with albuterol
FEV1 decrease by 20% with methacholine or histamien
```
197
what is the criteria for persistent depressive disorder?
depressed mood with 2 of SIGECAPS for more than 2 years
198
what are the criteria for diagnosing depression?
5 of 9 SIGECAPS plus depressed mood
199
what is a distinguishing feature between methamphetamine intoxication and PCP intoxication?
there is nystagmus in PCP intox
200
What is the major side effect of anti-thyroid medications (methimazole and propylthiouracil)? What are the presenting symptoms?
agranulocytosis
| sore throat and fever
201
persons from mediterannian decent are most likely to have which blood problem?
beta-thalassemia
202
what clinical presentation distinguishes between beta thalassemia minor vs major?
major is associated with requirement of transfusions at an early age
203
at what gestational age should pre-mature delivering mothers receive magnesium sulfate?
<32 weeks
204
in a positively skewed distribution what is true about the mean compared to the median? negatively skewed?
mean > median = positively skewed
| mean < median = negatively skewed
205
what medication is associated with medication-induced psychosis?
glucocorticoids
206
what is a factorial design study?
patients are divided into different groups and within these groups they are further divided into different groups
207
What are the risk factors for C. diff?
recent abs use
hospitalization
PPI
208
what trisomy is rocker bottom feet associated with?
trisomy 18
209
how do you diagnose acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
> 25% lymphoblasts
periodic acid schiff positive
terminal deoxynueclotidyltransferase (TdT) positive
210
what is the microscopic finding of AML?
Auer rods
211
what is the step for secondary amenorrhea?
UPT followed by prolactin, TSH, and FSH levels
212
what is the triad and treatment of hereditary spherocytosis?
anemia, jaundice, elevated MCHC
| Tx is splenectomy
213
if there is a widened mediastinum after heart surgery what is the next step?
surgical exploration with debridement for suspected infection
214
what does a patient have when they have a grossly positive PPD with negative CXR findings and negative sputum samples?
latent TB
215
what electrolyte abnormality is associated with sarcoidosis?
hypercalcemia
216
what electrolyte derangements are found in chronic alcoholism and why?
hypomagnesmia leading to decreased PTH secretion leading to decreased calcium
217
what anatomic structure is responsible for acne?
pilosebaceous follicles
218
what is the best next step in evaluating a patient with aplastic crisis?
bone marrow biopsy or peripheral smear
219
what is the morphology of H influenza?
gram negative bacilli
220
what are the most common causes of post viral pneumonia?
H flu and S pneumo
221
what are the EMG findings of ALS?
fibrillation potentials in multiple muscles in multiple extremities
222
metastatic breast cancer to bones causes what electrolyte abnormality?
hypercalcemia
223
what are the classic features of wiskott-aldrich syndrome?
eczema
thrombocytopenia
immunodeficiency
easy bleeding (diarrhea, nose, pensi)
