UWorld Flashcards

1
Q

What 2 cell types are responsible for the proliferation of an atherosclerotic plaque?

A

Platelets and macrophages

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2
Q

What is the most common genetic combination for a complete molar pregnancy?

A

Empty egg + 1 sperm, then 1 sperm duplicates

90% 46, XX

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3
Q

By what mechanism does mutated huntingtin protein cause transcriptional repression?

A

Histone deacetylation

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4
Q

How is the uterine fundus normally formed embryologically?

A

Lateral fusion of paramesonephrine ducts

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5
Q

How do you differentiate between a septate and bicornuate uterus?

A

On MRI, septate has normal uterine contour whereas bicornuate does not.

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6
Q

What does the presence of HBsAg mean?

A

Active infection - acute or chronic

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7
Q

What does the presence of HbeAg mean?

A

High infectivity

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8
Q

What key intermediate regulates the balance between fatty acid synthesis and degradation?

A

Malonyl-CoA

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9
Q

What determines coronary dominance?

A

The coronary that supplies the PDA (which supplies the AV node) determines dominance, mostly right-dominant

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10
Q

In areas with chloroquine-resistant malaria, what are the treatments of choice?

A

Mefloquine or atovaquone + proguanil

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11
Q

What part of the brain is injured in hemiballimus?

A

Subthalamic nucleus

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12
Q

What is underlying etiology in a patient with blue-black spots on sclerae, connective tissue hyperpigmentation, and severe arthritis?

A

Alkaptonuria

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13
Q

What factors precipitate sickling in sickle cell anemia?

A

Low O2, high altitude, acidosis (deoxygenated)

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14
Q

What do RBCs rely on for ATP production?

A

Lactic acid fermentation

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15
Q

What is most of the ATP in RBCs used for?

A

Membrane maintenance and structural integrity

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16
Q

What is associated with caudal regression syndrome?

A

Maternal diabetes

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17
Q

What can cause paresthesias following massive blood transfusion?

A

Hypocalcemia (from citrate mixed into blood before storage)

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18
Q

What arteries supply the lesser curvature of the stomach?

A

Gastric arteries

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19
Q

What are the 3 most common cancers in women (other than skin cancers)?

A

Breast, lung, colon

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20
Q

What microbial component has the closest correlation with disease severity in meningococcus meningitis?

A

LOS protein

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21
Q

Biopsy of sinus mucosa reveals wide angle, non-septate hyphae in an immunocompromised individual. What is the organism?

A

Mucor or Rhizopus

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22
Q

Bartonella henselae is responsible for which 2 diseases?

A

Cat scratch disease and bacillary angiomatosis

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23
Q

Dx for young, obese woman with transient vision loss worsened with bending forward or lifting things and a persistent headache?

A

Pseudotumor cerebri

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24
Q

What is the etiology of S4?

A

HOCM

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25
What is the only antibody that crosses the placenta?
IgG
26
What biochemical marker is elevated in hydatidiform moles and what malignancy is it correlated with?
b-HCG, choriocarcinoma
27
What is the difference between somatic and gonadal mosaicism?
Somatic mosaicism cannot be passed on, gonadal mosaicism has family history and can be passed on
28
What is the treatment of choice for patients with acute MI and history of lung disease?
B1-specific blocker ??
29
What nerve can be damaged by lateral fibular damage?
Common peroneal nerve
30
How do osteocytes communicate with each other?
Through processes in canaliculi, via gap junctions
31
What is the pathophysiology of HSP?
IgA immune complex-mediated vasculitis (type III hypersensitivity)
32
What causes apple-peel deformity?
Vascular occlusion/ischemia
33
What enzyme is responsible for changing bilirubin to biliverdin?
Heme oxygenase
34
What organism is stained red by mucicarmine?
Cryptococcus neoformans
35
Nitrites are given to treat toxicity from what compound?
Cyanide - increases hemoglobin affinity for cyanide to keep it bound so it can't be toxic
36
What brain mass gives rise to papilledema and Parinaud syndrome?
Pinealoma - papilledema from obstructive hydrocephalus, Parinaud from compression of the tectum
37
What is Parinaud syndrome?
Compression of the tectum resulting in limited upward gaze, upper eyelid proptosis, pseudo-Argylle-Robertson pupils
38
What vein drains the head, neck, and upper extremity?
Brachiocephalic vein (IJ + EJ + SC)
39
How does potassium iodide prevent thyroid damage after exposure to iodine-131?
Competes with I-131 for uptake into thyroid so the more benign iodine there is, the less radioactive I-131 the thyroid takes in
40
Dx for patient with diplopia that worsens throughout the day?
Myasthenia gravis
41
In a patient with myasthenia gravis, what are the 2 causes for an acute crises?
Myasthenic crisis - undertreated, will improve with edrophonium Cholinergic crisis - overtreated, will not improve with edrophonium
42
Dx for patient with hx of asthma and recurrent, migratory lung infiltrates?
Aspergillosis - ABPA
43
What is the MOA of pioglitazone?
Binds PPARy (intracellular) --> alters transcription --> change lipid and glucose metabolism
44
What is the difference between 21-hydroxylase deficiency and 11b-hydroxylase deficiency?
No mineralocorticoid in 21-deficiency --> hypotension and increased renin Increased weak mineralocorticoid in 11-deficiency (11-DOC) --> hypertension and decreased renin
45
What is compliance?
change in volume/change in pressure
46
What movement is the supraspinatus responsible for?
Arm abduction
47
What is the effect of nitrites on hemoglobin?
Induces methemoglobinemia
48
What is the difference in the role of Ca2+ influx during contract between skeletal muscle and cardiac/smooth muscle?
Skeletal - mechanical coupling between L-type Ca2+ channels and RyR on SR (verapamil-resistance) Cardiac/smooth - Ca2+-dependent Ca2+ release from SR (verapamil works)
49
1 week after an ischemic brain injury, what do you expect to see histologically?
Microglia have phagocytosed myelin from dead nuclei, will stain red with lipid stain
50
Dx of pt with expressive aphasia and hemiplegia, CT hypodensity in brain 1 week after?
Stroke/ischemic disease of brain
51
What are the two exceptions the general scheme of the sympathetic nervous system?
General scheme: ACh from short preganglionic - nAChR, adrenergic from long postganglionic to target Exceptions: 1) adrenal medulla - AChR, direct release of NE/epi into blood 2) eccrine sweat glands - AChR, then ACh to mAChR on sweat glands
52
In areas with chloroquine-resistant malaria, what are the treatments of choice?
Mefloquine or atovaquone+proguanil
53
What are the risk factors for black gallstones?
Chronic hemolysis, increased enterohepatic cycling of bilirubin
54
What are the risk factors for brown and cholesterol gallstones?
Biliary tract infection - releases microbial b-glucuronidases
55
What does homogentisic acid dioxygenase deficiency cause?
Alkaptonuria
56
What effects do alpha-1 agonists have on PVR, blood pressure, pulse pressure, and heart rate?
Increases PVR Increases blood pressure Decreases pulse pressure Decreases heart rate (vagal reflex to vasoconstriction)
57
What part of the spleen is involved in removing damaged RBCs?
Red pulp
58
What causes urge incontinence?
Uninhibited bladder contractions (detrusor instability)
59
Where is PAH concentration the lowest in the kidney?
Bowman's space
60
What’s the difference between 21-hydroxylase and 11-hydroxylase deficiency?
21-hydroxylase: no mineralocorticoid produced = hypotension, decreased Na+, increased K+ 11-hydroxylase: weak mineralocorticoid produced = hypertension, increased Na+, decreased K+
61
Dx for patient with pruritis after showering?
Polycythemia vera
62
What is the treatment of choice for patients with acute MI and history of lung disease?
A-M beta blockers (metoprolol)
63
What are the 3 biggest risk factors for coronary heart disease?
Atherosclerosis, diabetes mellitus, CKD
64
Which are the only 2 insulins that are human recombinant without any amino acid modifications?
Regular insulin and NPH