uworld Flashcards

1
Q

What preceeds development of Acute Rheumatic Fever?

A

untreated bacterial infection (group A streptococcal pharyngeal inf)

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2
Q

What histology is pathognomonic for ARF?

A

interstitial myocardial granuloma/Aschoff body

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3
Q

What histology is seen in a viral myocarditis?

A

lymphocytic interstitial infiltrate with focal necrosis of myocytes. No Aschoff bodies

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4
Q

Anterograde axonal transport mediated by what protein?

A

kinesin

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5
Q

Imaging, labs and pathology for Sarcoidosis?

A

Bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary reticular infiltrates. Labs: hyperCa, elevated ACE (granulomas prod 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol and ACE). Bx shows noncaseating granulomas stain neg for fungi and acid fast bacili.

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6
Q

Predomimant lymphocyte in sarcoid granulomas?

A

CD4+

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7
Q

Midsystolic click followed by a mid to late systolic murmur at cardiac apex that disappears with squating?

A

mitral valve prolapse with mitral regurgitation. Click due to tensing of chordae tendinae as pulled by ballooning valve leaflets. Murmur due to malalignment of valve margins udring systole. Squatting increases venous return and LV volume, helping to bring valve leaflets into more normal anatomic arrangement.

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8
Q

Altered gene and chromosome in renal cell carcinoma?

A

VHL gene, chr 3p (seen in both sporadic and hereditary – von hippel lindau dz)

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9
Q

What amino acid is not formed in homocystinuria?

A

inability to form cysteine from homocysteine

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10
Q

What are the clinical features of homocystinuria?

A

Prothrombotic state (premature acute coronary syn), ectopia lentis, intellectual disability.

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11
Q

In LV P-V loop, what would show a rightward widening of the loop?

A

increase in circulating volume increases preload.

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12
Q

Triad of ataxia telangiectasia?

A

Cerebellar ataxia, telangiectasias (superficial blanching nests of distended capillaries), increased risk of sinopulmonary infections.

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13
Q

Signs of PKU?

A

Intellectual disability, gait/posture abnormality, eczema, musty body odor in toddler.

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14
Q

What passes through the jugular foramen?

A

CN IX, X, XI

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15
Q

Drugs that reduce size of prostate in bph?

A

5-alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride, dutasteride) block conversion of T to DHT in prostate thus reducing volume of prostate in BPH.

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16
Q

Most significant risk factor for catheter associated UTI?

A

duration of catheterization. Prevent by avoiding unecessary catheterization, using sterile technique when inserting and removing promptly when no longer needed.

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17
Q

What is cord factor?

A

Is a mycoside and it’s presence correlates with virulence of mycobacteria (if not present, can’t cause disease). Inactivates neutrophils, damages mito, induces release of TNF.

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18
Q

What is the virulence factor of Haemophilus influenzae type b?

A

Its polysaccharide capsule, which is composed of the polymer polyribosylribitol phosphate. PRP capsul protects the bacterium from phagocytosis and complement mediated lysis by binding factor H which prevents complement deposition on host cells.

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19
Q

How do you dx Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Saline microscopy (wet mount) of discharge to identify trichomonads.

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20
Q

Sx of HepB?

A

Systemic, skin (pruritic urticarial vasculitis rash) and joit sx; hepatomegaly; elevated transaminase levels – often 10x norm.

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21
Q

Mutated Hb with lowered 2,3-BPG binding affinity?

A

mutations that result in loss of 2,3-BPG binding pocket’s pos charge cause Hb A to resemble fetal Hb which binds oxygen with higher affinity due to inability to interact w/ 2,3-BPG.

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22
Q

How to use Absolute risk?

A

AR (of tx) = AR (of control) - {RRR x AR control}

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23
Q

How to treat severe hypoglycemia?

A

severe hypoglycemia (unconsciousness) requires parenteral tx - emergency glucagon kits in nonmedical setting, IV glucose in medical setting.

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24
Q

What is a cohort study?

A

Organized by selecting group of individuals (cohort), determining their exposure status, then following over time for development of dz of interest.

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25
Q

Indwelling bladder catheters increases risk of UTI by what orgs?

A

Typical (E. coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Staph saphrophyticus, Proteus mirabilis) and opportunistic (Pseudomonas, Enterococcus, other Staphylococci, fungal) orgs.

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26
Q

What org is non-lactose fermenting, oxidase pos, gram negative rod?

A

Pseudomonas

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27
Q

Insulin binding to R activates what cascade?

A

R has intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity –> phosphorylation of insulin R substrate 1 –> activates MAP kinase pathway (dna syn, cell growth), activates PI3K pathway (translocation of GLUT 4 to cell memb, glycogen syn via activation of protein phosphatase which dephosphorylates thus activates glycogen synthase, fat syn)

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28
Q

Cytokines involved in formation/maintence of granulomas in TB?

A

IFN gamma, IL12, TNF alpha

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29
Q

Hormones that bind G protein coupled R on memb, activate adenylyl cyclase, converts ATP to cAMP, activates PKA?

A

PTH, ACTH, TSH, ADH (V2 R)

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30
Q

Hormones that bind G protein couple Rs that activate phospholipase C, hydrolyzes phosphatidylinositol bisphosphate to IP3 and DAG, IP3 mobilizes Ca from ER, DAG directly activates PKC?

A

GnRH, TRH, Ang II, ADH (V1 R)

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31
Q

MOA of Nevirapine?

A

Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor. Does not req activation via intracellular phosphorylation. Prevent syn of viral dna from rna template.

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32
Q

Location of Great Saphenous vein?

A

Accessed at medial leg, or near point of termination in femoral triangle of upper thigh a few cm inferolateral to pubic triangle (superiorly infuinal ligament, laterally sartorious muscle, medially adductor longus muscle).

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33
Q

Drainage of ovarian veins?

A

L ovarian vein drains into L renal vein. R ovarian vein drains directly into IVC

34
Q

Hormone responsible for gallbladder contraction?

A

CCK

35
Q

Screening test for H. pylori presence?

A

Detect presence of urease activity by ingesting 13C labeled urea and blowing into tube. If degraded into CO2and ammonia then H. pylori is present. H. Pylori causes duodenal ulcers.

36
Q

Sx of von wilebrand dz?

A

Labs - microcytic anemia w/ low ferritin level = IDA. Hx heavy menstrual periods, frequent nosebleeds. Bleeding from skin and mucosal sites (gingivae, nasal mucosa, GI tract, endometrium)

37
Q

Roles of von Willebrand factor in hemostasis?

A

1 - promotes platelet adhesion at sites of vasc inj by binding to and crosslinking platelet glycoproteins w/ exposed collagen underneath damaged enothelium. 2 - carrier protein for factor VIII that increases its plasma T1/2.

38
Q

What are the sx and labs for poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Follows a recent skin inf w/ group A beta hemolytic strep (impetigo). Manifests as nephritic syn – sx of periorbital edema, cola colored urine, oliguric renal failure, high BP, red cell casts, mild proteinuria. Labs – decreased C3, elevated titers of streptococcal Abs (anti-DNAse B, anti-hyaluronidase, antistreptolysin O). Light microscopy – starry sky, granular deposits of IgG, IgM, C3 in glomerular BM.

39
Q

Clinical findings and dx of Aut Rec PCKD?

A

Clinical - renal insufficiency, nephromegaly, HTN* if survive birth develops in later months, oligohydramnios. Dx - bilateral enlarged, echogenic kidneys on u/s.

40
Q

What receptor controls detrusor contraction?

A

M3

41
Q

What does a case control study design test for?

A

People w/ dz of interest (cases) and people w/o dz (controls) asked about previous exposur to variable being studied. Main measure is exposure odds ratio.

42
Q

What drug should be used post subarachnoid hemorrhage to decrease morbidity and mortality of a cerebral vasospasm?

A

Calcium channel blocker (Nimodipine) used as preventitive agent against cerebral vasospasm following subarachnoid hemorrhage.

43
Q

Chemotactic agents of neutrophils?

A

IL8 (prod my macrophages), n-formylated peptides, LTB4, 5-HETE (leukotriene precursor), C5a

44
Q

Tx of life threatening bleeding due to warfarin tx? Why not usecryoprecipitate?

A

Rapid reversal using fresh frozen plasma. Vit K would take time for clotting factor re-synthesis. Cryoprecipitate contains only cold soluble proteins (factor VIII, fibrinogen, vW factor, vitronectin)

45
Q

Tx used for heparin reversal?

A

Protamine – binds and chemically inactivates heparin

46
Q

What is erythroblastosis fetalis? Cause?

A

hemolytic dz of newborn. Results from destruction of fetal rbcs by maternal Abs directed against fetal erythrocyte Ags. Maternal IgG Abs (only ones that can cross placenta). Most commonly caused by Rh incompatibility, specifically D antigen. Seen in subsequent pregnancies.

47
Q

Clinical presentation of erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

Pos direct coombs test (indicating autoimmune hemolysis), anemia, jaundice, generalized edema. Severe anemia stim release of imature, nucleated erythrocytes –> persistent extramedullary hematopoiesis.

48
Q

Effects of adrenergic stimulation of eye and uterus?

A

Stim alpha1 R on eye –> dilation of pupil. Stim beta2 on uterus –> uterine relaxation.

49
Q

What drug can be used in Bulimia nervosa?

A

SSRI Fluoxetine

50
Q

Epiglottitis in children most commonly caused by what org?

A

Haemophilus influenze b (now part of routine vaccination schedule.

51
Q

When is an S3 heard? What makes it louder?

A

During diastole, shortly after S2. Can be normal finding in healthy kids and young adults. In pts > 40 it suggests ventricular enlargement. Caused by sudden limitation of ventricular movement during rapid passive ventricular filling. Loudest in L lateral decubitus position at end espiration (decreasing lung volume and bring heart closer to wall)

52
Q

2 eqns used to calculate CO?

A

CO = SV x HR; CO = rate of O2 consumption / arteriovenous O2 content difference

53
Q

Osteonecrosis of femoral head due to what injury? What artery is implicated?

A

Femoral neck fracture. Medial circumflex artery is main blood supply to femoral head.

54
Q

Internal vs External hemorrhoids, nerves supplying? Sensation? Location to dentate line?

A

Internal hemorrhoids above dentate line, autonomic innervation from inf hypogastric plexus and only sensitive to stretch and not pain/temp/touch. External hemorrhoids below dentate line, cutaneous (somatic) nervous innervation from inferior rectal nerve a branch of Pudendal n, very sens to touch, temp, pain.

55
Q

Branches of the pudendal nerve supply?

A

Perineum and external genitalia.

56
Q

Gastric Arterial supply. Common Hepatic A perfuses? Gastroduodenal artery? Splenic Artery?

A

Common hepatic – liver, gallbladder, pylorus, duodenum, pancreas. Gastroduodenal – pylorus, prox portion of duodenum. R gastroepiploic a – distal greater curvature of stomach.

57
Q

Where do gastric ulcers most commonly occur? What artery would this affect?

A

Lesser curvature of stomach. L and R gastric arteries.

58
Q

PPARgamma acts at what R?

A

Intracellular nuclear R that acts as transcriptional regulator of many genes involved in glucose and lipid metabolism.

59
Q

Actinomyces infection, cause? Where colonize in body? Clinical result?

A

Caused by gram pos anaerobic bacteria. Colonize mouth, colon, vagina, found in dental caries. Frequently results in formation of cervicofacial abscesses; rarely pulmonary development due to aspiration – lower lobe consolidation w/ air bronchograms. Pts w/ alcoholism at increased risk. Characteristic sulfer granules.

60
Q

Presentation of lung adenocarcinoma? Affects who most commonly?

A

Frequently affects smokers. Presents - cough, hemoptysis, pulmonary consolidation w/ air bronchograms. Histo - hyperchromatic cells w/ pleomorphism, prominent nucleoli, intracellular mucin.

61
Q

Mucormycosis found where? Affects who? Micro exam?

A

Fungus in soil and decaying material. Often in pts w/ diabetic ketoacidosis. Micro exam - broad, ribbon like nonseptate hyphae w/ R angle branching.

62
Q

Chlorhexidine MOA and use?

A

Destabilizes cell membs and coagulating intracellular constituents. Antiseptic for surgical and percutaneous procedures.

63
Q

Formaldehyde MOA and use?

A

Alkylate and cross link dna and proteins. Used for sterilization of hospital instuments that cannot withstand autoclave temps.

64
Q

Iodine MOA and use?

A

Halogenation of proteins and dna. Antisepsis in surgical and percutaneous procedures.

65
Q

Beck triad of cardiac tamponade?

A

hypotension, elevated JVP, muffled heart sounds.

66
Q

Physical exam finding of pericardial effusion w/ cardiac tamponade?

A

pulsus paradoxus (exaggerated drop in systolic BP during inspiration)

67
Q

when would a pulsus alternans be seen?

A

(beat to beat variation in pulse amplitude due to change in systolic BP) in pts w/ severe LV dysfx

68
Q

Mechanism of Acute Rheumatic Fever?

A

Follows untx group A strep inf – Abs agains GAS cross react w/ host tissues due to molecular mimicry btwn GAS Ags and cardiac and cns Ags.

69
Q

Most common cause of DMTI? Contributing factor?

A

Autoimmune insulitis w/ progressive beta cell loss most comon cause of type I. Islet leukocytic infiltration.

70
Q

Medical conditions w/ polygenic inheritance?

A

Androgenetic alopecia (male pattern baldness), epilepsy, glaucoma, HTN, ischemic heart dz, Schizophrenia, DMII. Thus depends on both hormonal (circulating androgens) and genetic factors.

71
Q

MOA of drug that binds to gp41?

A

inhibits HIV fusion w/ target cell membrane by binding to HIV gp41. (Enfuvirtide)

72
Q

Hep B or Hep C has higher risk of Hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV inf increased due to persistence of virus dna in host genome. Allowing continued transcription of oncogenic viral proteins which disrupt cell cycle control by activating multiple growth promoting genes and inactivating p53 tumor suppressor protein. HCV is RNA virus that lacks reverse transcriptase and thus doesn’t integrate into host genome.

73
Q

Extracellular part of collagen synthesis?

A

Cleavage of N-terminal propeptides from procollagen in extracellular space.

74
Q

Pernicious anemia cause and result?

A

Autoimmune dz via CD4 cell mediated destruction of parietal cells. Decreased parietal cells –> decreased HCl, thus increased intraluminal pH that leads to upreg of gastric secretion. Decreased B12 due to decreased IF.

75
Q

MOA of Gardos channel blockers? Use?

A

Hinder efflux of K and water from cell preventing dehydration of erythrocytes and reducing polymerization of HbS. Sickle cell

76
Q

Specificity?

A

Ability to correctly identify individuals w/o dz. TN/(TN+FP)

77
Q

Most enzyme deficiency conditions follow what inheritance pattern? Diseases due to defective noncatyltic proteins?

A

Autosomal recessive. Autosomal dominant.

78
Q

Micro examination of VZV?

A

Light microscopy – intranuclear inclusions in keratinocytes and multinucleated giant cells (po tzanck smear. Skin bx – acantholysis (loss of intercellular connections) of keratinocytes and intraepidermal vesicles.

79
Q

Molluscum contagiosum infection exam?

A

Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions in infected cells and dome shaped, umbilicated papules on exam

80
Q

HPV micro examination?

A

Light microscopy – cytoplasmic vacuoles in keratinocytes (koilocytosis) and hyperplasia of epidermis.

81
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis micro exam?

A

light microscopy – laccumulations of neutrophils on tips of dermal papillae (microabscesses