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Uworld Boards > Uworld > Flashcards

Uworld Flashcards

1
Q

Supratherapeutic INR management

A

9 hold and give 2.5-5 mg PO vitamin K

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2
Q

Before diagnosis of basilar migraine can be given, what imaging needs to be done?

A

MRI and MRA as need to exclude vascular lesions

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3
Q

Screening u/s for hepatocellular carcinoma interval in active hep B?

A

6 months even in the absences of cirrhosis. Hep C needs to have progressed to cirrhosis

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4
Q

Treatments for traveler’s diarrhea?

A

quinolones or azithromycin (good for SE Asia)

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5
Q

Molluscum contagiousm associated illness?

A

Most common in children. It is also more prevelant in those who are immunosuppresed, so get HIV testing

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6
Q

IBD releated rectovaginal fisutla

A

Mild treat with abx, if moderate then treat with more potent immunomodulators and if that fails then surgery

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7
Q

Which pathogens causing catheter related infection necessitate removal?

A

Staph, Pseudomonas, fungi and myobacteria

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8
Q

CCB induced peripheral edema?

A

ACEi can reduce the incidence, diuretics are not helpful

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9
Q

Porpheria is associated with?

A

Hep C infection

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10
Q

Cardiac complications of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Can have aortic valve disease

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11
Q

Side effects of linezolid?

A

Bone marrow suppression, peripheral neuropathy, and optic neuropathy

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12
Q

Timing of pre-eclampsia

A

Usually after 20 weeks but can occur up to 4 weeks after delivery

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13
Q

Headache with ADPKD?

A

Do not forget about their increased risk of intracranial aneurysms

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14
Q

Non-motor symptoms of early parkinson disease?

A
  • sleep issues (REM sleep behavior disorder), daytime sleepiness
  • mood disturbances
  • anosmia
  • constipation
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15
Q

Varicoceles and further workup?

A
  • R sided obtain CT abdomen and pelvis

- L and does not improve when supine consider CT

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16
Q

Rare colchincine side effect?

A

Can result in neuromyopathy, not just a simple myopathy like a statin. Think about in CKD patients on it.

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17
Q

When to use calcitonin?

A

Ca>14

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18
Q

Sensitivity =

A

TP/(TP+FN)

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19
Q

Specificity =

A

TN/(TN+FP)

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20
Q

PPV =

A

TP/(TP+FP)

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21
Q

NPV =

A

TN/(TN+FN)

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22
Q

Steroid induced osteoporosis?

A

Start bisphosphonate if >7.5 mg/day, man >50 or postmenopasual
T score between -1.0 and -2.5

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23
Q

Location of lung adenocarinoma?

A

Periphery

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24
Q

Dermatomyocytisis GI complications?

A

esophageal dysmotility, increased risk of aspiration PNA

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25
Q

Arthritis in sarcoid?

A

NO

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26
Q

Pelvic actinomyses, presents as?

A

Smouldering infection with multiple cystic pelvic masses

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27
Q

Iron on bone marrow biopsy in anemia of chronic disease?

A

Will be present in macrophages but absent in RBC precusors

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28
Q

Presentation of calciflyaxis?

A

PAINFUL subQ nodules that can progress to ulcers

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29
Q

Necrobiosis lipodica?

A

Asymptomatic indurated yellow plaques

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30
Q

Vitamin D causing hypercalcemia?

A

If taking >4000 units a day

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31
Q

Age cut off for relative with CRC to make high risk?

A

If it develops before the age of 60

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32
Q

Cause of gastric fundal varcies without esophageal?

A

Splenic vein thrombosis

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33
Q

Antihypertensives and DM2 risk?

A

Carvediolol does NOT, other BB do

thiazides, esp cholorthalidone does INCREASE risk

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34
Q

If think there is a DVT but u/s negative?

A

Repeat in 5-7 days

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35
Q

Unvaccinated contacts of person with active hep A infection?

A

If non-immunosupressed give hep A vaccine within 14 days

immunosuppressed give hep IvIG

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36
Q

ICU BG goal?

A

140-180

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37
Q

Screening need with new diagnosis of primary sclerosing cholangitis?

A

colonoscopy

also at higher risk for GB and cholangiocarinoma

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38
Q

Cat bite abx treatment?

A

Augmentin

if allergic doxy and metronidazole

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39
Q

Moderate aortic stenosis defined as?

A

Mean gradient of 25-40 mmHg, valve area of 1-1.5 cm

Get echo every 1-2 years

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40
Q

Causes of spherocytes on peripheral smear?

A

Autoimmune hemolysis

Heriditary spherocytosis

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41
Q

Causes of bite cells?

A

D/t macrophages removing denatured hemoglobin, see in alpha thalassemia and G6PD def

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42
Q

Treatment of MAC?

A

macrolide (clarithromycin/azithro) + ethambutol + rifampin

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43
Q

Testing in suspected multiple myeloma?

A

Need to get serum light chain or urine immunofixation in addition to serum protein electrophoresis as this will not get light chain variant MM

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44
Q

Metformin and vitamin def?

A

Reduces absorption of B12

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45
Q

Imaging for suspected pancreatic malignancy?

A

Start with CT scan before EUS

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46
Q

Causes of falsely low FeNa

A

Rhabdo

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47
Q

CXR in chronic eosinophilic pneumonia?

A

“photonegative” pulmonary edema

Fever, nightsweats, and wt loss

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48
Q

CXR in pulmonary alveolar proteinosis?

A

Central infiltrates

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49
Q

Cause of cortical hemorrhage?

A

cerebral amyloid angiopathy

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50
Q

Hemorrhage in thalamus, pons, cerebellum?

A

HTN

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51
Q

Anti-coagulate with mitral stenosis if?

A

Afib (does not matter the CHADS score), LA >5.5 cm

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52
Q

Disease associated with pseudogout?

A

Hemochromatosis and hyperparaythyroidism

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53
Q

HSV PCR?

A

If clinical suspicion is high enough even if negative would repeat and continue to treat

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54
Q

CKD and prolactin?

A

CKD can result in elevations of prolactin

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55
Q

Testing with new dx of medullary thyroid cancer?

A

RET testing to look for MEN

56
Q

Follicular thyroid cancer tumor marker?

A

thyroglobulin

57
Q

Treatment of toenail fungus?

A

Only after confirming with scraping and then use terbinafine

58
Q

Lab findings with rheumatoid pleural effusion?

A

very low pH and glucose
very high LDH
cell count

59
Q

When is surgery indicated for hyperparathyroidism?

A

Ca >1 above normal

GFR

60
Q

Treatment of latent syphilis of unknown duration?

A

B penicllin weekly x3 weeks

61
Q

Complications of unrepaired PDA?

A

pHTN and increased risk of endocarditis

62
Q

Sjogren and renal involvement?

A

chronic interstitial nephritis

tubular dysfunction with hypokalemia, RTA or diabetes incipidus

63
Q

Size cut off for parapneumonic effusion on decubitus film?

A

> 10 mm needs chest tube

64
Q

CSF VRDL sensitivity?

A

Not great, can be negative!

65
Q

Lichen planus is associated with what infection?

A

Hep C

66
Q

CK in PMR?

A

NORMAL

67
Q

Stool osm

A

stool osm - 2 (Na+K)

125 osmotic

68
Q

Atypical antipsychotics with lowest rate of EPS?

A

Quetiapine and clozapine

69
Q

Bacteria that cause struvite stones?

A

Klebsellia as well as proteus

70
Q

DLCO in pHTN?

A

Can be pretty reduced, 50-60% of normal

71
Q

COPD and oxygen for flying?

A

If SpO2 is >95% on RA do not need to test

72
Q

Management of small corneal abrasion?

A

Topical abx

73
Q

Treatment of psoriatic arthritis?

A

MTX is 1st line
TNF can be used
sulfasalazine is 3rd line

74
Q

Early presentation of cataracts?

A

Trouble with distance vision before clouding

75
Q

Appearance of toxo?

A

MULTIPLE ring enhancing lesions

76
Q

Brain abscess versus met on MRI?

A

Abscess causes an area of restricted diffusion, met will NOT

77
Q

Guttate psorasis?

A

Wide spread and frequently appears 2-3 weeks after strep infection

78
Q

Characterization of ascities by total protein?

A

Total protein >2.5 (CHF, carcinomatosis, Tb, fungal)

Total protein

79
Q

Characterization of ascities by SAAG?

A

> 1.1 cardiac or cirrhosis

80
Q

Reactive arthritis occurs after?

A

Gi infection with salmonella, shigella or camplobacter
Chlamydia infection
NOT gonorrhea which is actually a disseminated infection if have arthritis

81
Q

Treatment of alopecia areta?

A

Intralesional steroid injection

82
Q

Cyclosporin renal toxicity findings?

A 
hyperkalemia
low PO4
high uric acid
low mag 
Oblierative arteriopathy and global and focal segmental glomerusclerosis
83
Q

High risk ulcer?

A 
Adherent clot
Arterial
non-bleeding visible vessel
oozing
Watch for 3 days!
84
Q

Treatment of bipolar depression?

A

Can use quetapine

85
Q

Dx Paget disease?

A

Bone scan

86
Q

Isopropyl alcohol metabolic effect?

A

NO elevation in AG

87
Q

NPPV after extubation?

A

Only if for COPD and do it right away, if intubated for other causes and failing again re-intubate

88
Q

GBS and findings on LP?

A

NO WBC

89
Q

IgG4 related disease?

A

Autoimmune pancreatitis, but also lymphadenopathy, salivary gland involvement

90
Q

Treatment of hypertriglyceridemia causing acute pancreatitis?

A

If patient is hemodynamically stable can do plasmapharesis, if NOT can do insulin and glucose

91
Q

Other symptoms with secondary syphilis

A

Can have generalized lyphadenopathy and patchy alopecia

92
Q

Management of acute bone met pain?

A

Need IV bisphosphonates or denosumab.

CANNOT use PO bisphosphonates as onset is too slow

93
Q

Exposed to Tb and negative skin test?

A

Repeat in 8-12 weeks

94
Q

DM1 antibodies?

A

islet cells or glutamic acid decarboxylase

95
Q

Testing in PCOS?

A

Cortisol, prolactin, TSH, IGF-1, DHEAS and 17-hydroxyprogesterone to r/o other causes

96
Q

Asbestosis effusion characteristics?

A

High in eosinophils

97
Q

Myasthenia exacerbation and respiratory monitoring?

A

Vital capacity (

98
Q

Statins with lowest potential for myopathy?

A

Rosuvastatin, pravastatin and fluvastatin

99
Q

Last line agent in osteoprosis?

A

Teriparatide (recombinant PTH)

100
Q

Appearance of calcium oxalate crystals?

A

Envelope shaped

101
Q

Appearance of uric acid crystals?

A

rhomboid

102
Q

Appearance of cystine crystals?

A

Hexagonal

103
Q

c-ANCA is?

A

PR3

104
Q

p-ANCA is?

A

MPO

105
Q

Cancer and acromegaly?

A

increased risk of colon cancer

106
Q

+LR =

A

sensitivity/ (1-specificity)

107
Q

-LR =

A

1-sensitivity/specificity

108
Q

Cell counts for peritonitis on PD?

A

only need WBC>100 or >50% neutrophils and treat with IP vanco and cephalsporin

109
Q

Antibody in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

anti-mitochondrial antibody

110
Q

Antibody in systemic sclerosis?

A

anti-DNA topoisomerase 1 (SCL-70)

111
Q

Cut off for LV wall thickness in atheletes heart?

A

> 15 mm then it is likely HOCM

112
Q

BP goals in ischemic stroke if NOT getting TPA?

A

Systolic

113
Q

Causes of malignancy induced hypercalcemia?

A

PTHrP 80%

20% d/t bone mets

114
Q

Cluster headache prophylaxis?

A

Verapamil

115
Q

Unusual cause of elevated LFTs?

A

Do not forget to screen for celiac disease

116
Q

Management of asplenic patients with fever?

A

Should be given abx prophylaxis and seek urgent evaluation

117
Q

Treatment of charcot joint?

A

Casting with non-wt bearing

118
Q

Blasto can cause?

A

Skin ulcers/plaques
Bone lesions
and GU involvement as well

119
Q

Histo can cause?

A

hilar lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia and adrenal insuffiency

120
Q

Coccido can cause?

A

skin (including erythema nodosum), lymph node enlargement and osteoarticular involvement

121
Q

LVEDP and RVEDP are equal

A

constrictive pericarditis

122
Q

Methylglobinemia

A

Suspect with clinical cyanosis but normal arterial Po2, pulse ox reading of 85%
Dapsone, nitrates, topical local anesthetics

123
Q

Colon cancer screening for patient with ulcerative colitis?

A

Start annually 8-10 years after diagnosis

124
Q

In acute HIV infection wait for resistance tests?

A

No need, tailor therapy later

125
Q

Pitutary mass and visual fields?

A

If >10 mm check them and look for hypofunction

126
Q

Pharmacologic treatment of anorexia?

A

Olanzapine

127
Q

Cervical cancer screening?

A

21-29 cytology every 3

30-65 cytology every 3 OR cytology + HPV every 5

128
Q

For PTH to cause epo resistance?

A

Must be >150

129
Q

Most common cause of epo resistance?

A

Iron def

130
Q

Measure of dialysis adequacy?

A

Calc by machine Kt/V >1.3

131
Q

Treatment of paroxysmal hemicrania?

A

Indomethicin

132
Q

Pitutary the cause of prolactin elevation?

A

> 200

133
Q

Folic acid def?

A

Besides anemia causes stomatitis, must replace when on MTX

134
Q

Speed healing of venous stasis ulcers?

A

ASA and compression

135
Q

Gram + rods on blood culture?

A

Listeria, corynbacterim, clostridium and nocardia

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