UWorld Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathogenesis of mast cell and basophil degranulation in an allergic reaction?

A

IgE is bound to the high affinity IgE receptor (FceRI) on mast cells/basophils.

IgE molecules then crosslink due to an antigen–>

aggregation of the FceRI receptors on mast cells–>

activation of tyrosine kinases not assoc w/receptor–>

intracellular signaling–>degranulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is IgE present in the circulation?

A

It binds non-covalently (disulfide or peptide bonds instead) to the FceRI receptor on mast cells and basophils via its Fc region. Little is free in the serum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What vasoactive substances are released from the granules of mast cells and basophils in anaphylaxis?

A

Histamine and Tryptase (mainly mast cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the blood supply to the proximal ureter?

The distal ureter?

Middle ureter?

A

Branches of the renal artery

Superior vesical artery

Anastomotic and variable. Usually: Gonadal, common/internal.

In kidney xplant: distal ureter susceptible to ischemia due to loss of anastomoses with proximal ureter, iliac, aorta and uterine arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are treatments and preventative measures for calcium oxalate kidney stones?

A
  • Increasing fluid intake
  • Citrate (binds ionized Ca++)
  • Thiazides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Neurofibromas in NF1 are composed of what cell type?

A

Benign neoplasms of Schwann Cells (derived from neural crest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Vitamin D excess?

A

Hypercalcemia, hypercalciuria, stupor and loss of appetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Hypercalcemia?

A

Stones, bones, groans, thrones, moans

AKA Renal stones, bone pain, abdominal pain, urinary frequency, anxiety/altered mental status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the pathogenesis of the S/S in hypercalcemia?

A

High Ca++–>depolarization of neuromuscular membranes–>S/S (muscle weakness, constipation and mental status chgs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What serum abnormality can granulomas cause?

A

Granulomas are maintained by activated mphages. Activated mphages can produce 1-alpha hydroxylase–>1,25 vit D (calcitriol)–>Hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria. Similar process occurs in Hodgin’s and Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the onset and distribution of Thiopental

A

It first onsets rapidly in the brain.

Then it distributes to skeletal muscle and fat quickly. This causes loss of its activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the S/S of Type III Hypersensitivity reactions?

A

Vasculitis and systemic manifestations (Fever, arthralgias, skin rash)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity reaction can chimeric monoclonal antibodies cause?

A

Type III (They can cause Serum Sickness).

Serum Sickness S/S: Fever, skin rash, arthralgias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How are case control studies designed to decrease confounding bias?

A

Matching: putting similar pts (same age, race distribution) in experimental and control groups during selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where is Vitamin A primarily stored?

A

Liver in the stellate (Ito) cells. Stores last around 6 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What cell does Renal Cell Carcinoma arise from? What is its histology?

A

Proximal Convoluted Tubule

Appearance is polygonal or cuboidal clear cells in the clear cell variant (most common).

Most common renal neoplasm. Often yellowish grossly b/c of glycogen and lipids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What cancer arises from collecting duct cells from the renal tubules?

A

Oncocytoma.

Rare, well-differentiated with lots of mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What neoplasm arises from cells of the renal pelvis?

A

Transitional Cell CA of the kidney.

Forms papillary tumors composed of urothelium with a thin fibrovascular stalk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the proteins associated with MHC Class I and II, respectively?

A

Beta2-microglobulin and Invariant chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In what layer of the bowel wall are the Auerbach and Meissner plexuses located?

A

Muscularis and Submucosa, respectively.

Auerbach=myenteric plexus

Meissner=submucosal plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is seen on histology in Kaposi’s Sarcoma?

A

Spindle and epithelial cell prolif, RBC extravasation and inflammation.

Caused by HHV 8 in susceptible individuals. Infx begins in vascular and lymphatic endothelial cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the QRS complex correlate to in the Myocyte Action Potential?

A

Phase 0, depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What drugs inhibit dihydrofolate reductase–>dec reduction of folic acid to tetrahydrofolate?

A

Trimethoprim: for bacterial growth

Methotrexate: antimetabolite

Pyrazinamide: parasite (malaria and toxo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MoA of Ezetimibe

A

Dec intestinal cholesterol absorp via inhibition of NPC1L1 (Niemann Pick C1-like1),

which xports cholesterol from gut lumen into enterocytes–>

dec cholesterol in hepatocytes–>inc liver LDL receptor expression

–>dec blood cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is a drug related complication of advancing Parkinson Disease?

A

Levodopa’s therapeutic window narrows (maybe due to further nigrostriatal degen) so the length of time that the serum level=effective dose decreases–>inc motor issues.

In very advanced PD, motor instability becomes independent of meds–>complete unpredictability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Germ tubes at 37 deg C, think?

A

Candida albicans. Normal flora of skin, mouth, vagina, intestine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where does H. Pylori colonize?

A

Antrum of stomach in prepyloric area.

Colonization here–>inc H+ production–>dec pH in duodenum–>ulceration.

It is the dec pH that causes the duodenal ulcers, NOT direct infection of duodenum by H. pylori.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of gland are sebaceous glands? What is their MoA?

A

Holocrine

Mech: Cell lysis releases entire contents of cytoplasm and cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are examples of Merocrine glands?

A

Salivary glands

Eccrine sweat glands

Apocrine sweat glands.

MoA: cells secrete via exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Besides sebaceous glands, what is another type of holocrine gland?

A

Mebomian glands (in the eyelid near lashes, secrete oil to give tears staying power).

Holocrine MoA: cell lysis–>release of whole cytoplasm and cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of inflammatory acne

A
  1. Keratin plug forms–>blocks sebum release
  2. Sebaceous gland hypertrophy–>inc sebum prod
  3. Sebaceous gland colonized by Propionibacterium acnes
  4. P. acnes cleaves triglycerides in sebum–>inflammatory fatty acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the main subtypes of exocrine glands and their MoA?

A

Apocrine (vesicle release)

holocrine (cell lysis)

merocrine (watery via exocytosis, no loss of membrane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is required for new nucleotides to be added to replicating DNA?

A

a free 3’ hydroxyl group.

AZT is a thymidine analog with an azido group, not a 3’ hydroxyl–>chain termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does Zidovudine (AZT) target HIV?

A

AZT is a NRTI, so it is an analog of nucleotide, thymidine.

But, it has an azido group, not a 3’ hydroxyl group–>halt of chain elongation when AZT is incorporated into the growing DNA chain (no 3’-5’ phosphodiester bond is formed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the pathogenic basis of silicosis?

A

mphages intake silica–>impairment of mphage phagolysosomes–>extrusion of lysosomal enzymes and intracellular bacteria.

Lysosomal enzyme extrusion is thought to lead to alveolar and interstitial lung injury.

Also thought that mphages undergo apoptosis w/prolonged silica exposure.

The lysosomal impairment in mphages is the reason for inc mycobacterial susceptibility in silicosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Male homolog to the labia minora is? What does a defect in this homolog lead to?

A

Ventral shaft of the penis

Defect leads to hypospadias (ventral is the underside of penis)

Labia minora and ventral shaft of penis are derived from the urethral folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What embryologic structure becomes the penis/clitoris?

A

Genital Tubercle.

Epispadias is an opening on dorsal aspect of penis due to improper position of GT in 5th wk of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Epispadias is caused by what specific error in dvlpmt?

A

Improper plcmt of the genital tubercule during the fifth week of gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

High renin, high aldosterone, hypertension, hypokalemia, muscle weakness. Pt is young, shows no sign of renal or vascular risk factors for HTN. No diuretics. Dgs?

A

Reninoma, benign neoplastic growth of Juxtaglomerular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are some S/S of schizotypical personality disorder?

A

Eccentric Behavior

Odd Thoughts (especially magical thinking like clairvoyance)

Perceptual distortions

Social anxiety (no close relationships, as anxiety doesn’t dec w/familiarity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the first line therapy for acute delirium (agitation and psychosis symptoms especially)?

A

Haloperidol (High potency D2 blocker in CNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the antibody difference between diffuse and limited scleroderma (systemic sclerosis)?

A

Diffuse: anti-SCL-70 ab

Limited: anti-centromere ab

Limited is aka CREST syndrome and is more benign than diffuse scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is CREST Syndrome?

A

A limited type of systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) with a more benign course and specific features

C: Calcinosis (deposition of calcium in skin)

R: Raynaud’s

E: Esophageal dysmotility

S: Sclerodactyly

T: Telangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Define Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

A

Triad of Iron Deficiency anemia, esophageal webs and dysphagia.

Can have atrophic glossitis.

Inc risk for esophageal squamous cell CA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is locus heterogeneity?

A

One phenotype produced by mutations at disparate gene loci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What processes is biotin important for? (4)

A

Biotin (vitamin B7) is used in carboxylation rxns.

  • Pyruvate Carboxylase: Pyruvate>oxaloacetate
  • Acetyl-CoA carboxylase: acetyl-CoA>malonyl-CoA
  • Propionyl-CoA carboxylase: propionyl-CoA>methylmalonyl-CoA
  • Beta-methylcrotonyl CoA carboxylase: 3-methyl-crotonyl-CoA>3-methylglutaconyl-CoA (degradation of leucine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the S/S of Biotin deficiency?

A

Dermatitis

alopecia

enteritis.

Caused by abx and excess ingestion of raw egg whites (avidin binds biotin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)

A

Most often a shiga toxin from shigella or e. coli O157:H7–>dmg to endothelial cells–> platelet activation in the form of microthrombi.

Microthrombi then lodge and start cleaving RBCs forming schistocytes.

Dmg to endothelium in glomerulus happens about 1/2 of the time–>AKI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the lab findings in Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS)?

A

dec Platelet count

dec Hgb (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia)

inc bleeding time

inc lactate dehyrogenase

inc indirect bilirubin

inc BUN and Creatinine (Acute Renal Failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What processes of the Hep B virus–>Hepatocellular Carcinoma?

A

HBV infects the cell then integrates itself into the host DNA via reverse transcriptase.

This integration allows continued xscription of HBV proteins, like Hbx protein. Hbx is an oncogene and deactivates p53.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the two main types of SCID?

Presentation?

A

X-linked recessive (defect in IL-2R gamma chain)

Autosomal recessive (defect in adenosine deaminase)

Presents with FTThrive, chronic diarrhea, thrush, recurrent infx (viral, fungal, bacterial and protozoal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is deficient in chronic granulomatous disease? What is the hallmark test for CGD?

A

NADPH oxidase–>no respiratory burst.

Susceptible to catalase (+) organisms.

Nitroblue tetrazolium test (-) in CGD (no blue color).

Obsolete test, use dihydrorhodamine test now (will be abnormal–>dec green fluorescence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What proteins can bind DNA? (6)

A

Transcription Factors (c-MYC, n-MYC, L-MYC, CREB, Heat shock protein, etc)

Steroids

Thyroid Proteins

Vitamin D receptors

Retinoic Acid receptors

DNA transcription proteins/replication proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define Pleiotropy

A

Multiple, seeminly unrelated defects in various organ systems that arise from 1 genetic defect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the function of Club Cells (Clara Cells)

A

Protect the bronchiole lining

Secrete GAGs and surfactant like substance

Stem cell for bronchiolar epithelium

Detoxification of harmful substances -via cytochrome P450 enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the description of ring-enhancing lesions on MRI?

A

Mass that is a rim of contrast enhancement surrounding a dark center (central necrosis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the most common method of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii?

What is the Treatment?

A

Cysts in meat (especially undercooked lamb or pork)

Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine for Tx

Prevention via TMP-SMX when <100 CD4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What genetic mutations can lead to Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney disease?

A

Mutation in PKD1 on chromosome 16 (vast majority of cases). PKD1 codes for polycystin-1 (located in renal tubule epithelial cells)

Mutation in PKD2 on chromosome 4 (~15%), coding for polycystin-2 (located in renal tubules and other tissues).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What adult nervous structures derive from neural crest cells?

A

Schwann Cells

Dorsal Root Ganglia (pseudounipolar neurons)

Pia and arachnoid meninges

Chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What adult structures, seemingly mesodermally derived, are actually derived from neural crest? (6)

A

Endocardial Cushion

Aorticopulmonary septum

Odontoblasts

Pharyngeal arch cartilage

Melanocytes

Parafollicular (C) cells of Thyroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Where is Lipoprotein Lipase located?

A

Vascular endothelial cell membranes in the capillary beds of adipocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What does a decreased diffusing capacity of the lungs for CO indicate?

A

Decreased surface area for gas exchange or increased thickness of the interface. So emphysema or interstitial lung disease, respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the primary cytotoxic effector molecule made by H. pylori?

A

Ammonium, because of its urease activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Mutation in what gene leads to Autosomal Recessive Polycystic Kidney Disease?

A

PKHD1 encoding for fibrocystin, found on chromosome 6.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

A

An androgen precursor made from 17 ketosteroids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What zones of the adrenal glands does ACTH affect?

What products can high levels of ACTH lead to?

A

Reticularis and fasciculata of the cortex

High ACTH can cause inc:

Cortisol

DHEA

androstenedione–>estrone/estradiol or

testosterone–>DHT

17 ketosteroids

11-deoxycortisol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the mech of PCOS?

A

inc LH as compared to FSH (d/t too much GnRH or dysfnx of HPO axis b/c of high insulinemia)–>inc androgens from theca cells–>dec follicle maturation.

Follicles degenerate–>cysts and anovulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How do you treat community acquired pneumonia?

A

If outpt and healthy: macrolide or doxycycline

If outpt and comorbidity: fluoroquinolone or beta-lactam+macrolide

If inpt: fluoroquinolone or antipneumoccal beta-lactam+macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What types of organisms is ceftazidime good against?

A

Gram (-) infx resistant to other Beta lactams and pseudomonas. Poor gram (+) cocci coverage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is an important aspect of privacy and confidentiality

A

Patients have a right to privacy, even from family. Ask family to wait outside or ask permission to share news with them prior to bringing up anything about pt’s care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

MoA of colchicine

A

Binds and stabilizes tubulin–>inhibition of microtubule polymerization–>dec leukocyte migration and phagocytosis. This inhibition of leukocytes dec inflammation reducing symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the mesonephros?

The metanephros?

A

Embryonic kidney

Definitive Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What induces the formation of the metanephros?

A

The ureteric bud, portion of the mesonephric duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What kind of agent is trihexyphenidyl?

A

A muscarinic antagonist used for Parkinson Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the symptoms of Wallenberg Syndrome?

Where is the occlusion?

A

Nucleus ambiguus dysnfx specific: hoarseness and dysphagia.

Vomiting

Vertigo

Nystagmus

dec pain and temp from ipsilateral face and contralateral body

dec gag reflex

ipsilateral Horner syndrome

Limb Ataxia

PICA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Describe the genetics of familial hypercholesterolemia

A

Autosomal Dominant

Displays gene dosage. If patient inherits two mutated alleles instead of just one–>much more severe disease.

6x higher cholesterol and death in 20s/30s from MI/CVA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What does negative birefringence mean in regards to gout?

A

Under polarized light, the gout crystals are needle-shaped, and yellow when in parallel to the light and blue when perpendicular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the clinical S/S of an Atrial Septal Defect?

A

Pulm HTN–> Atrial Arrhythmias

Exercise Intolerance

SOB

FTThrive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the mechanism of the lactic acidosis and hyperuricemia seen in Hereditary Fructose Intolerance?

A

ATP is used up creating glucose via gluconeogenesis–>inc AMP levels. AMP is degraded to uric acid–>hyperuricemia

Uric acid and lactate use the same transporter in the kidney, so hyperuricemia–>dec lactate excretion–>inc serum lactate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Why does venous blood have higher hematocrit than arterial?

A

There is an increase in chloride w/in the RBCs. This draws water inside the RBC–>inc RBC volume, aka inc hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the features of von Hippel-Lindau disease? (3)

A
  • Mutation of VHL gene on chromosome 3p
  • hemangioblastomas (vascular tumors) of retina, cerebellum and/or medulla
  • bilateral renal cell carcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria?

A

Defect in Phosphatidylinositol glycan A gene (PIG-A)–>dec GPI anchor protein. GPI needed for CD55 (decay accelerating factor) and CD59 (c3 convertase inhibitor).

RBCs, WBCs, and platelets are then lysed by complement due to lack of CD55 and CD59.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What receptors are in the uterus smooth muscle?

A

alpha 1(inc contraction) and beta 2 (inhibit contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the gross endoscopy view of acute gastritis?

A

Erythematous mucosa with petechiae and/or ulceration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are causes of acute gastritis?

A
  • Uremia
  • NSAIDs
  • Alcohol
  • Steroids
  • Smoking
  • burns
  • shock
  • head trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the most common way that Herpes Simplex Virus is passed from mother to child?

A

Transvaginally during a current outbreak. So baby gets it as he/she is delivered.

Can also occur transplacentally but is less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is a very serious adverse effect of triptans?

A

Hypertensive emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What structure runs along the edge of the lesser omentum and what does it contain?

A

Hepatoduodenal ligament

The portal triad: Hepatic artery, portal vein, and common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What does a leukocyte esterase (+) and nitrite (-) urinalysis indicate?

Examples?

A

Gram (+) UTI. Two examples are enterococcus faecalis and staph saprophyticus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the mechanism of action of gemfibrozil?

A

Fibrate: activates peroxisome proliferator activated receptor-alpha–>inc of Lipoprotein Lipase expression and dec hepatic VLDL production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What drugs are fibrates?

A

Gemfibrozil

Fenofibrate

Clofibrate

Bezafibrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are side effects of fibrates?

A

Gallstones (inc cholesterol content of bile via inc of LPL)

Myopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the histologic findings on biopsy of the testicles in Klinefelter syndrome?

A

Sparse, completely hyalinized seminiferous tubules. Lack of germ cells and rare Sertoli cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are the predominant antibodies found in Type 1 DM?

A

Anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What does a positive capillary filtration pressure indicate?

A

That fluid is moving from intravascular to extravascular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When are drug-drug interactions checked during the process of prescribing?

A

Just prior to dispensing the medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Membranous nephropathy is defined by what kind of antibodies?

A

Phospholipase A2 receptor antibodies (PLA2R)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Besides Duchenne MD and BMD, what disease has a mutation in dystrophin?

A

X-linked familial dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Vaccines against which bacteria use a capsule conjugated to toxoids (like diphtheria and tetanus toxoid)?

A

S. Pneumo

N. meningitidis

H. Influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What class of medications inhibits fungal cell wall synthesis by blocking 1,3-beta-D-glucan synthesis?

A

Echinocandin antifungals (micafungin, caspofungin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Recurrent, hexagonal, flat kidney stones in a young person, think?

A

Cystinuria, an amino acid transport disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the mechanism of acute graft rejection?

A

Recipient T-cells activated against donor antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What muscle group plays the largest role in the Valsalva manuever?

A

Rectus abdominis.

Valsalva is exhaling forcibly against closed glottis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is a side effect of direct vasodilators? (hydralazine and minoxidil)

A

Sodium and water retention d/t RAAS activation–>tachycardia and peripheral edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What synapses do organophosphates act upon?

A

Muscarinic AND Nicotonic

This means that you get not only DUMBBELS but muscle paralysis, seizures and CNS depression too.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What type of bias is caused by loss of study participants due to dropout?

A

Attrition bias, a form of SELECTION bias.

Only occurs when there is a disproportionate dropout from one group over another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Where should you biopsy to definitively diagnose Celiac Disease?

A

Dudoenum or ileum

exposed to more gliadin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

In leprosy, a (+) PPD test indicates what?

A

Intact Th1 response. This means it is the Tuberculoid form, better prognosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What characteristics are common in Tuberculoid leprosy?

A

Strong Th1 response with + PPD and inc of certain cytokines: IL-2, IFN-y, IL-12

Activates mphages, dec extent of disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is characteristic of lepromatous leprosy?

A

Th2 response. No granulomas, (-) PPD.

Terrible prognosis, lots of skin damage and systemic disease with acid-fast bacilli in mphages.

Inc cytokines: IL-4 IL-5 IL-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Where does the fibular nerve divide?

What does it divide into?

A

It divides at the fibular neck

Deep peroneal n (inn anterior compartment)

Superficial peroneal n (inn sensory to dorsum of foot and lateral shin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the S/S of Mc-Cune Albright syndrome?

A

Cafe-au-lait spots

Endocrine issues (precocious puberty, hyperthyroid, etc)

Fibrous Dysplasia (i.e. osteolytic looking lesions of bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the pathogenesis of McCune-Albright Syndrome?

A

Mosaic somatic mutation in GNAS (encodes stim alpha subunit of G protein)

This causes continuous activation of adenylate cylcase–>overproduction of certain hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is Legg-Calve-Perthes disease?

A

Idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral head ossification center. Usually in young boys.

Presents with pain in knee or a limp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What two markers are elevated in neural tube defects on amniocentesis?

A

alpha fetoprotein and acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Birbeck granules are characteristic of what cell type?

A

Langerhans cells

These are the dendritic cells of the skin (antigen presenting cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How is Isoniazid metabolized?

A

Acetylated to N-acetyl-isoniazid in the liver by N-acetyl transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What antivirals are nucleotide analogs? (2)

A

Cidofovir

Tenofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What antivirals are nucleosides and therefore must be phosphorylated to function?

A

Acyclovir

Valacyclovir

Famciclovir

Ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

On a jugular venous pulse wave tracing, what do the a, c, and x waves represent?

A

a=Right atrial contraction

c=tricuspid valve bulging during RV contraction

x=right atrial relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

On a jugular venous pulse wave tracing, what do the v and y waves represent?

A

v=inflow of venous blood

y=passive emptying of RA into RV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

When obtaining a sexual history, how should you ask about their sexual orientation?

A

Ask what genders their partners have been, or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What is the most common secondary malignancy that occurs in familial retinoblastoma?

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

3-5 days of fever followed by truncal blanching maculopapular rash (maybe spreading to face and extremities) (+/- seizures), think?

A

Roseola infantum

Caused by HHV-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Paranasal fungal infections: bug and histology (3)

A

Aspergillus (NARROW angle, septate hyphae)

Mucor (broad, ribbon-shaped non-septate hyphae branching at wide angle)

Rhizopus (broad, ribbon-shaped non-septate hyphae branching at wide angles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is the function of atrial natriuretic peptide?

A

Peripheral vasodilation

Natriuresis

Diuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

If someone aspirates while supine, where will the aspirated fluid go?

A

To the POSTERIOR part of the lung.

This will usually be the posterior lower lobe, and posterior UPPER lobe.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Describe the natural process of insulin release

A

Glucose xported in vial GLUT2 Via metabolism, glucose–>ATP

inc ATP–>closure of ATP dependent K+ channel

Depolarization of membrane Influx of calcium–>insulin release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

How do you treat pinworm infx (enterobius vermicularis)?

A

Albendazole or pyrantel pamoate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What two types of anxiety disorders are differentiated by timeline?

A

Acute Stress disorder and Post-traumatic Stress Disorder (3 days to 1 month vs over 1 month)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What do HOX genes encode?

A

Transcription factors

These factors bind DNA, and alter gene expression–>segmental patterning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What metabolic enzyme needs N-acetylglutamate as an allosteric activator?

A

Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What molecule is needed as an allosteric activator of carbamoyl phosphate synethtase I?

A

N-acetylglutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What does Smith protein normally complex with?

A

small nuclear RNA (snRNA)–>small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs)

snRNPs help form spliceosomes–>intron splicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is the function of small nuclear ribonucleoproteins (snRNPs)?

A

Spliceosome formation–>intron splicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

List some differences b/t right and left sided frontal lobe lesions:

A

Left sided: apathy and depression

Right sided: disinhibited behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Where is proinsulin cleaved to give insulin and c-peptide?

A

Inside secretory granules by endopeptidases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

How to differentiate mastitis from inflammatory breast CA?

A

Mastitis will have systemic symptoms (fever) and longer duration.

Inflammatory breast CA may not have an underlying mass assoc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What are the Class III antiarrhythmics?

A

Sotalol

Amiodarone

Dofetilide

Ibutilide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What class of drug is Dofetilide?

A

Class III antiarrhythmic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides?

A

inhibit the 30s bacterial ribosome–>dec translation of mRNA into protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

During appendectomy, dmg to what nerve would lead to loss of sensation above the pubis?

A

Iliohypgastric n (L1), anterior branch.

Posterior branch inn gluteal region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is negative predictive value?

A

Probability of being disease free if test result is negative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What type of pattern is seen in the inheritance of autosomal recessive conditions?

A

Disease not present in consecutive generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What conditions have polygenic inheritance? (7)

A
  • Androgenetic alopecia
  • Epilepsy
  • Glaucoma
  • HTN
  • Ischemic Heart Disease
  • Schizophrenia
  • Type II Diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Give the defining microbiologic features of bacteroides

A

Gram Negative, anaerobic

Can produce Beta lactamase

Treat with penicillin plus beta lactamase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What antibiotics can be used for anaerobic bacteria?

A

Piperacillin w/tazobactam (extended spectrum penicillin)

Metronidazole (below the diaphragm)

Carbapenems

Clindamycin (most of the time, also for infx above diaphragm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What type of receptor controls the secretion of PTH?

A

Calcium-sensing receptors (CaSR) are a G-protein receptor.

Calcium binding to CaSR–| PTH release

Dec binding to CaSR–>inc PTH release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What signaling pathway does PTH use?

A

cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What is ornithine?

A

An amino acid that is produced during the last step of the urea cycle (arginine splits into urea and ornithine).

Then used as the first substrate to produce citrulline with carbamoyl phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Where is an anal fissure most likely to present, especially if chronic?

A

Posterior midline, distal to dentate line if painful.

D/t poor perfusion of the posterior anal canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What is Parinaud Syndrome (dorsal midbrain syndrome)?

A

Paralysis of upward gaze

Ptosis

Pupillary abnormalities

D/t direct compression of pretectal region of midbrain (pineal gland tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What does bradycardia in an MI indicate?

A

Damage to the sinus node, likely due to RCA involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What nerve innervates the tensor tympani?

A

V3 (mandibular branch of trigeminal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What causes angioedema?

A

Accumulation of bradykinin

Can take weeks or months if being caused by a medication (ACE-I)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Why is methadone effective in treating heroin addiction?

A

It has a very long half life.

Full mu-opiod receptor agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Besides gallstones and alcohol, what is another cause of acute pancreatitis?

A

Very high serum triglycerides can cause direct injury to pancreatic acinar cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What are the less common causes of acute pancreatitis? (7)

A

Recent ERCP

Drugs (azathioprine, furosemide, valproate, sulfasalazine)

Infx (mumps, Coxsackie, mycloplasma)

Hypertricglyceridemia

Anatomic prob of pancreatic duct or ampulla

Surgery

Hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What causes the DIC seen in meningococcal meningitis?

A

Direct action of lipooligosaccharide on Toll-like receptor 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is the mechanism of fibrates–>gallstones?

A

Fibrates inhibit rate limiting enzyme of bile synthesis, cholesterol 7-alpha-hydroxylase.

This leads to dec bile and inc cholesterol–>precipitation of cholesterol as stones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

What is the anti-tumor mech of IL-2?

A

IL-2 is a growth factor for T cells. After secretion by activated TH cell, it stim growth of ag-specific CD4 and CD8 T cells.

Also activates NK cells and monocytes and stim growth of B cells.

Anti-tumor activity is due to activation of NK and T cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is the most common fungal pulmonary infection in patients with neutropenic fever?

A

Aspergillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

In an MI, what is the sequence of healing leading to scar formation?

A

Inflammatory cells arrive and clean up debris.

Fibroblasts lay down type III collagen

2 weeks post infaction, type I collagen replaces type III.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

At what point in the PFT curve is the vascular resistance in alveolar and extra-alveolar vessels the least?

A

Functional Residual capacity, due to increased tension at extremely high and low lung volumes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is a good landmark for locating the appendix?

A

Convergence of the teniae coli muscles (this occurs at the appendix root)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

How does a ristocetin assay work?

A

Ristocetin activates GP1b on platelets, allowing vWF to bind.

If vWF is low, no/poor aggregation occurs.

Adding normal plasma causes aggregation in vWF Disease but not in Bernard-Soulier.

Leads to dgs of vWF deficiency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What molecule is the precursor to the target for SSRIs?

A

Tryptophan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What is the treatment for serotonin syndrome?

What is that med’s MoA?

A

Cyproheptadine

1st Gen antihistamine that also blocks 5HT1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What is DRESS Syndrome?

A

“Drug rash w/eosinophilia and systemic symptoms”

Fever

Generalized Lymphadenopathy

Facial Edema

Diffuse morbilliform skin rash

Also can affect organs: liver, kidney and lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What are the causes of DRESS Syndrome and what do labs show?

A

Caused 2-8 weeks after drug exposure:

Anticonvulsants (phenytoin, fosphenytoin)

Allopurinol

Sulfonamides

Antibiotics (minocycline, vanco)

Labs:

Eosinophilia

Atypical lymphocytosis

inc seurm ALT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What is an indication for statin therapy?

A

Post-MI, no matter what the lipid levels actually are

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Where is the DNA that encodes rRNA formed?

A

Nucleolus

So RNA Pol I is active at the nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is the other function of myelination, besides increasing conduction velocity?

A

Reducing charge dissipation–>inc distance impulse can travel

This increases membrane resistance–>inc length constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

How does myelination inc conduction velocity?

A

Dec membrane capacitance

This dec time constant–>more rapid membrane potential changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What fibers transmit pain and temperature sensation?

Where are they located in the spinal cord?

A

Spinothalamic tract fibers

1st order in DRG, then 2nd order through dorsal horn ,decussate at anterior white commissure and ascend in opposite lateral funiculus

3rd order bodies are in VPL nucleus of thalamus

4th order in parietal lobe somatosensory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is the Number Needed to harm?

A

Number treated before adverse event occurs

NNH=1/Attributable Risk

Attributable Risk=Event rate(tx)-Event rate(placebo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What is an Aschoff body?

What does it indicate?

A

Interstitial myocardial granulma, consisting of lymphocytes, mphages and giant cells

Indicates Acute Rheumatic Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What is a cutaneous complication of chronic lymphedema?

A

Stewart-Treves syndrome aka Cutaneous angiosarcoma

Histo: dermal infiltration w/abnormal vascular spaces resembling slits. Poor prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Why does Hep D need HBV?

A

HDAg must be coated with Hep B surface Ag to penetrate hepatocyte.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Where are dmged RBCs removed from circulation?

A

Red pulp of the spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

What layer does the superficial inguinal ring lie in?

A

External spermatic fascia (from external oblique)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

In what layer does the deep inguinal ring lie?

A

Transversalis fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

What lipid lowering medication is best at dec triglycerides?

A

Fibrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

What is the underlying physiologic mechanism for Niacin’s side effects of flushing, warmth and itching?

A

Inc PGD2 and PGE2 and other PGs. Pretreat with Aspirin to reduce these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

What teratogenic effects does Vitamin A have?

A

DiGeorge Syndrome like defects:

Craniofacial abnormalities

Posterior Fossa CNS defects

Auditory defects

Great vessel abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

What is a cause of caudal regression syndrome?

What is caudal regression syndrome?

A

Uncontrolled maternal diabetes

Agenesis of sacrum, +/-lumbar spine–>flaccid paralysis of legs, urinary incontinence, and dorsiflexed contractures of feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

How does Shigella primarily cause dysentary?

A

Invasion of the mucosa. It does produce a toxin on occasion but this isn’t necessary for virulence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

How to differentiate Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia and Leukemoid Reactions?

A

CML will have a low alk phos

Leukemoid will have normal or elevated alk phos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

How to interpret Weber and Rinne tests?

A

Rinne: If pt hears the sound better on the bone than in the air this is conductive hearing loss (a negative (-) Rinne Test)

Weber: If Rinne test is (-) then the sound should lateralize to the bad ear. If Rinne is normal, then the Weber lateralizes to the good ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

How can you tell the difference between phenotype mixing and reassortment in influenza viruses?

A

Phenotypic mixing will not have progeny with the new trait

Reassortment progeny will contain the new trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

How is an annular pancreas formed?

Pancreas divisum?

A

Annular pancreas occurs when the ventral pancreatic bud does not migrate properly

Divisum occurs due to a failure of fusion b/t ventral and dorsal buds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is the function of BRCA1?

A

DNA repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is the function of KRAS?

A

Proto-oncogene. Activation and overstim–>neoplasms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

How do osteocytes (mature osteoblasts) connect to each other?

A

Via gap junctions to allow communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

What enzymatic activities is Thiamine vital for?

A

Pyruvate dehydrogenase (pyruvate–>acetyl CoA)

alpha-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase (alpha-ketoglutarate–>succinyl-CoA)

Branched chain amino acid dehydrogenase (b/d of leucine, isoleucine, valine)

Transketolase (converts ribulose 5-P to G3P)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

In regards to a pregnant minor, what can they consent to if unemancipated?

A

Emergency Care

STI tx and dgs

Substance abuse (most states)

Prenatal Care (most states)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

How does Fabry Disease present?

A

In adolescence:

Neuropathic pain

Hypohydrosis (dec sweating)

(both d/t loss of small-fiver nerves in distal extremities)

Proceeds to:

Angiokeratomas (dark red, non-blanching macules in clusters over buttocks, groin and umbilicus)

Telangiectasias

Early/Mid Adulthood:

Cerebro and Cardio Vascular Disease

Buildup of the metabolite (globotriaosylceramide) leads to proteinuria and polyuria–>renal failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

What is the enzyme deficient in Fabry Disease?

What product builds up?

A

alpha-galactosidase A

Globotriaosylceramide (Gb3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What is the function of neuraminidase?

A

Release virion particles from infected cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

What is delayed diagnosis a type of?

A

Type of preventable medical error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

What can present with hemoperitoneum and left shoulder pain?

A

Splenic laceration/rupture (Kehr’s sign is the shoulder pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

What is characteristic of Fibroadenoma on histo?

A

Benign-appearing cellular/myxoid stroma around epithelial lined glandular and cystic spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

What are the TORCH infections

A

T:Toxo (protozoan)

O: Other-VZV (dsDNA virus), Parvo (ssDNA), Syphilis (spirochete)

R: Rubella (ssRNA)

C: CMV (dsDNA)

H: HSV (dsDNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What kind of congenital abnormality does Parvovirus cause? Why?

VZV?

A

Hydrops Fetalis, inhibits erythropoeisis–>anemia–>hydrops

VZV:

Limb hypoplasia

Cutaneous scarring

Cataracts

Chorioretinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

How does Parvovirus infection present in adults?

A

Symmetric arthralgias/arthritis with or w/o rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

How do we correct for the sample size when extrapolating the standard deviation to a population?

A

Divide the SD by sq root of N.

This gives the standard error, which is based on the population, not just sample size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What medications are indicated for muscle spasticity, secondary to brain and spinal cord disease?

A

Baclofen (GABA-B agonist)

Tizanidine (alpha 2 adrenergic agonist)

Good in MS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

How can IgA nephropathy present?

A

Acutely: just after a URI with painless hematuria

Chronic: every few months or after another URI get painless hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

What ultrasonographic findings are specific for acute cholecystitis?

A

Gallbladder wall thickening

Pericholecystic fluid

Positive sonographic murphy sign

Echogenic structures in gallbladder are NOT specific for acute cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Besides the preferred imaging (ultrasound), what is another test that can diagnose acute cholecystitis?

What would it show?

A

Radionuclide biliary scan (tracing dye injected IV, processed by liver)

The dye will be excreted into the common bile duct and the small bowel, but won’t be taken up by the gallbladder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

What are the viruses with segmented genomes?

A

BOAR

Bunyavirus

Orthomyxovirus

Arenavirus

Reovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Where is the aorta located anatomically in relation to the pulmonary artery?

A

Posterior and left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

What is RNA interference?

A

dsDNA given that causes mRNA degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

How does ion charge affect membrane potential?

A

Influx of (+) ions increases membrane potential, while an influx of (-) ions causes dec in potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Where are calmodulin and myosin light chain kinase located?

A

Smooth muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

In post partum hemorrhage, which artery would you ligate to save the uterus?

A

Internal Iliac artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

What is the most common position of the arm to cause an anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Externally rotated and abducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

What is the histology of polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Transmural inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What component of peptidoglycan is only found in gram (+) bacteria?

A

Teichoic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

How does HBV cause hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

Integrates into the host genome then produces mutations in proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

How does Beta thalassemia arise?

A

Defect in mRNA production of Beta globin chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

What is the difference between porphyrias and thalassemias?

A

Thalassemias=defects in globin chain synthesis

Porphyrias=defects in heme synthsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

How does SIADH cause hyponatremia?

A

inc ADH–>inc H2O reabsorp–>inc volume–>dec RAAS activation and

dec production of Natriuretic peptides–>inc Na+ excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

What effect would would an ACE-I have on a patient in reno-vascular HTN?

A

Causes Acute Renal Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

What maintains a PDA?

What are the S/S of a PDA?

A

PGE2

Tachycardia

Resp Difficulty

Widened pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

What causes the green color of pus?

A

Myeloperoxidase from PMNs (MPO is green pigmented)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Define Specificity?

A

True Neg/(True Neg + False Pos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Define Sensitivity

A

True Pos/(True Pos + False Neg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

How does Glucagon affect the heart in Beta blocker OD?

A

Externally paces the heart via Gs receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

How do statins and fibrates affect gallstone formation risk?

A

Statins dec cholesterol synth–>dec cholesterol conc in bile–>dec gallstone risk

Fibrates dec bile acid synth–>dec bile acid in bile–>inc gallstone risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

What cell type covers the true vocal cords?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Differentiate factitious disorder from malingering

A

Factitious gets no gain from faking illness while malingering gets some personal gain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

What is a cause of Ehlers-Danlos?

A

Defect in cross-linking collagen via defect in cleavage of terminal propeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

What type of vaccine is the Rabies vaccine?

A

Inactivated virus vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

What is a consequence of Strep Bovis (gallolyticus) endocarditis?

A

Can lead to colon cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

What is the most common complication of IV Drug Abuse?

A

S. Aureus Endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

How does Primary Adrenal Insufficiency (Addison’s Disease) present?

A

1st:

Weight Loss

Hyperpigmentation (ACTH inc greatly–>Melanin)

Later:

Sodium Wasting

Potassium retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

What are the S/S of Aortic Regurgitation?

A

Heart Palpitations

Head Bobbing

Head pounding on exertion

These due to a widened pulse pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Define Pulse Pressure

A

=Peak systolic-end diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

How does Zollinger-Ellison syndrome cause diarrhea?

A

dec pH from high Gastrin leads to deactivation of intestinal enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

What differentiates Phencyclidine (PCP) from Ketamine?

A

PCP is a NMDA antagonist

Ketamine is an NMDA agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

What is unique about Flecainide as an antiarrhythmic?

A

Shows use dependence (as Heart Rate inc, amount of Na+ blocking inc–>inc QRS duration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

What kind of necrosis occurs in the brain from ischemia? Why does this type of necrosis occur?

A

Liquefactive necrosis

As neurons die, lysosomes spill digestive enzymes–>liquefaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

When can aromatase inhibitors be used for Breast Cancer?

A

ER (+) Breast Cancer in POST menopausal women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

What is the urachus?

A

Connects the allantois (yolk sac) and the bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

What are the side effects of Methotrexate?

A

Primarily in places with rapid cell turnover:

Mucosa (GI upset)

Hair follices (hair loss)

Bone marrow (pancytopenia)

Hepatotoxic

Pulmonary Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

What are the S/S of Vitamin A toxicity?

A

N/V

Vertigo

Blurred Vision

Long Term:

Alopecia

Dry Skin

Hepatosplenomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

What causes paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration?

A

Immune response to tumor cells (anti-Yo, P/Q, Hu) cross reacts with Purkinje cells in cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

What are the S/S of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration?

A

Ataxia in limbs and trunk

Visual disturbances

Dizziness

Dysarthria

In setting of cancer patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

What causes Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency?

A

Def in LFA-1 (CD18) Integrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

What is Jervell and Lange-Nielsen Syndrome?

A

Congenital long QT interval with sensorineural deafness-AR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

What does the -cept ending on a med mean?

-nib?

A

Receptor molecule.

Kinase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

What is MoA of Etanercept?

A

Inhibits TNF alpha by being a decoy receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

How do we dampen loud sounds?

A

Stapedius muscle reduces stapes mvmt–>dampening of loud sounds.

Stapedius inn by CN VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

How do we dampen sound transmission?

A

Tensor tympani pulls malleus medially, tensing the tympanic membrane and dampening vibration (sound)

Tensor tympani inn by CN V3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

What is the MoA of bisphosphonates?

A

bind hydroxyapatite sites on bone surfaces–>uptake by osteoclasts.

Inside osteoclasts, inhibits them–>dec bone resportion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

How does the insulin receptor act?

A

Tyrosine kinase–>PI3K and Ras activation.

PI3K causes translocation of GLUT4.

Ras activates intracellular enzymes–>protein synthesis and anabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

How does TNF alpha interact with the insulin receptor?

What other molecules cause this same effect?

A

TNF alpha activates SERINE kinases–>inactivation of IR substrate 1 (intermediate b/t IR and PIK3/RAS).

Threonine residues

catecholamines

glucagon

glucocorticoids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

What causes the black color of the liver in Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A

Accumulation of epinephrine metabolites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

What are some metabolic consequences of amphotericin B?

A

Causes renal toxicity–>Acute Tubular Necrosis–>electrolyte disturbances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Fragile X?

A

Accumulation of CGG repeats–>hypermethylation of entire FMR1 gene–>inhibition of FMR1 gene–>Fragile X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

What causes Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglubinuria?

A

Mutation in PIGA gene–>no GPI anchor–>dec CD55(Decay accelerating factor) and CD59(MAC inhibitory protein)–>hemolysis by complement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

What is a potentially lethal SE of class III antiarrhythmics?

A

Prolong QT–>Torsades (less w/amio)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

What is the MoA of Adenosine?

A

A1 receptor activation–>inc K+ conductance–>further dec in membrane potential–>blocks depolarizations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

If you want the top 2 Std dev, how would you calculate this from a population?

A

2 SD is 2.5% above and below (so covers 95%).

But the top 2 SD would be just 2.5%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

What does a lower blood oxygen content mean?

A

less hemoglobin all else equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

What is the oxygen content of blood?

A

the CaO2, total oxygen in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

How is Calcium in myocytes removed?

A

By a Na+/Ca++ exchanger and a Ca++ ATPase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

What are consequences of thiamine deficiency?

A

Beriberi (dry or wet-high output CHF)

Peripheral Neuropathy

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Korsakoff syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

What is the most common association with an imperforate anus and no other abnormalities?

A

Urinary tract abnormalities

VACTERL association is much less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

What is the alveolar ventilation equation?

A

Alv ventilation=(tidal vol-dead space vol)xRR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

What are the physiologic parameter derangements in ARDS?

A

dec lung compliance

normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

What is positive predictive value?

A

True pos/(true pos + false pos)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

What is the equation for negative predictive value?

A

True Neg/(True Neg + False Neg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

What is a severe adverse effect of acyclovir?

A

Nephrotoxicity when given IV

Prevent with IV hydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

What are some cytokines that cause cachexia?

How does cachexia occur?

A

TNF alpha

IL-1B

IL-6

TNF alpha–>appetite suppression @ hypothalamus and inc metabolic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

What causes differentiation of myeloid cells?

A

IL-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Besides lactulose, what is another treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Rifaximin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

What are the MoA of Rifaximin for hepatic encephalopathy?

Lactulose?

A

Nonabsorbable Abx–>dec intraluminal ammonia produced by altered GI flora

Taken up by GI flora–>catabolized to short chain fatty acids–>dec lumen pH–>conversion of NH3 to NH4+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

What is Werdnig-Hoffman disease (spinal muscle atrophy type I)?

A

Failure of the gene that turns off apoptosis–>neuronal cell death postnatally.

Causes LMN S/S.

No cure, death by age 2 d/t resp failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

How can red man syndrome from Vanco be prevented?

A

Slow the infusion rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

What property of linezolid can cause serotonin syndrome?

A

It has MAO-I activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

What is ceterizine?

A

A 2nd gen antihistamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

How do negative sense, single stranded RNA viruses create their proteins?

A

Carry an RNA-dependent RNA polymerase in their nucleocapsid to create mRNA.

They then use the host cell’s ribosomes to translate this mRNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

What often accompanies serum acidosis, esp in DKA?

A

Hyperkalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

What could a lesion to the ventral rami of C5, C6 or C7 damage?

A

Long Thoracic nerve–>loss of inn to serratus anterior–>winging of the scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

In patients with overactive, urge incontinence, what medications are used?

A

Antimuscarinic agents:

Tolterodine

Solifenacin succinate

Darifenacin

Oxybutynin

Trospium

Fesoterodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

How can Sarcoidosis present?

A

Hilar adenopathy (asymptomatic)

erythema nodosum (tender red lesions)

Joint swelling

Also:

Uveitis

Hypercalcemia (mphages in granulomas make 1 alpha hydroxylase–>activated vit D)

inc ACE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Rhabdomyoma, think?

A

Tuberous Sclerosis

Characterized by benign tumors in multiple organs (brain, heart, skin, eyes, lung, kidney and liver).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

What is the classic triad of Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Skin Lesions: Ash-leaf spots (hypopigmented macules), Angiofibromas, Shagreen patches

Epilepsy

Cognitive deficits/learning disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Tuberous Sclerosis?

A

Usually, TSC1 encodes hamartin and TSC2 encodes tuberin.

Hamartin and tuberin form a complex that inhibits Rheb, by keeping it in GDP bound state.

With mutation in either TSC1 or TSC2, Rheb becomes active.

Rheb acts on mTOR making constitutively active–>uncontrolled cell growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

What does Zileuton do?

Zafirlukast/montelukast?

A

Inhibits 5-lipoxygenase–>dec leukotriene synth

Blocks LTD4 receptor. (kasts cast themselves onto the receptor to block it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

What are examples of sulfa drugs? (11 groups)

A

Zorro Destroys The Dons’ Bullshit Popular FACTTSSSS: Zonisamide (anticonvulsant)

Dofetilide

Topiramate

Dronedarone

Bosentan

Probenecid

Furosemide

Acetazolamide

Celecoxib

Thiazides

Tamsulosin

Sotalol

Sulfa antibiotics (TMP-SMX, sulfadiazine)

Sulfasalazine

Sulfonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

What is common in all MHC Class I containing cells?

A

A nucleus

Therefore, RBCs do not have MHC Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

What cell mediates cytotoxicity in malarial infections?

A

Natural Killer (NK) cells

RBCs do not have a nucleus, and no MHC Class I, therefore cytotoxic T cells cannot interact and kill infected RBCs.

NK cells identify their targets by lack of MHC Class I, so they can kill malaria infected RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

With persistent truncus arteriosus, what other cardiac defect MUST be present?

A

Ventricular Septal Defect.

Failure of the AP septum to form won’t allow the septum to close b/t LV and RV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

What causes the rising estrogen in the follicular phase of menstrual cycle?

A

Granulosa cell proliferation in the ovarian follicle that is maturing.

Aromatase converts testosterone to estrogen in the granulosa cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
298
Q

What is the Swiss Cheese Model of failure analysis?

How can it be applied?

A

Many small failures occurred, leading to the actual hazard.

Apply it to try to reduce both active and latent failures. Reduce the chance that a failure would occur in multiple layers to stop progression to a catastrophic failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
299
Q

Why is blockage of the middle cerebral artery so devestating?

A

No anastomosis as it isn’t part of Circle of Willis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
300
Q

How are complications of B. pertussis caused?

What are they? (4)

A

The AB Pertussis toxin ADP ribosylates Gi. This causes inc cAMP–>complications:

Hypoglycemia (inc insulin prod)

Lymphocytosis

Immune effector cell inhibition

Histamine sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
301
Q

How do blood levels of PO2, CO2 and pH compare to atmospheric levels?

A

PO2 is lower in blood

PCO2 is higher in blood

air doesn’t have pH, but exposure to ambient air of an arterial sample–>inc pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
302
Q

What is cholecalciferol?

A

Vitamin D3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
303
Q

What is the piriform cortex?

A

Primary olfactory cortex, aka uncus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
304
Q

What is the method of detecting cryptococcus?

A

Latex agglutination test

India Ink stain is outdated now

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
305
Q

Carboxylases, what vitamin cofactor?

Dehydrogenases and transketolases, what vitamin cofactor?

A

Biotin

Thiamine (via TPP)

(also dehydrogenases use CoA (pantothenate/B5), lipoic acid, FADH2 (riboflavin/B2), and NADH (niacin/B3))

TLC For Nobody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
306
Q

Bioavailability (F)=

A

(area under oral curve*IV dose)/(area under IV curve*oral dose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
307
Q

What is the cause of lymphogranuloma venerum?

A

Chlamydia serotypes L1-L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
308
Q

Hairy Cell Leukemia S/S:

A

Bone marrow failure (pancytopenia/dry tap)

Splenomegaly

Recurrent Infx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
309
Q

Systemic Mastocytosis S/S

A

Itching after a shower (compare to polycythemia vera)

Mast cell proliferation in the skin

Inc gastric acid secretion (excess mast cell activation–>histamine release–>inc H+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
310
Q

What med is best for restoring fertility in PCOS?

A

Clomiphene

MOA: Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) at hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
311
Q

Where is the piriform recess?

What is it’s function?

A

Just lateral to the epiglottis. Overlies the internal laryngeal nerve.

Afferent part of the cough reflex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
312
Q

Infx in burn patient. Think?

Medication to treat? (Big list)

A

Pseudomonas

Cefepime

Ceftazidime

Ticarcillin

Pipercillin

Amikacin

Gentamicin

Tobramycin

Cipro/levofloxacin

Aztreonam

Imipenem/Meropenem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
313
Q

What mood stabilizers good for bipolar disorder and seizures

A

Valproate

Carbamazepine

Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
314
Q

Underlying mechanism of gingival hyperplasia with Phenytoin use:

A

inc PDGF–>inc gingival fibroblast activation–>inc gingival density and cell population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
315
Q

What does normal cardiac aging entail?

A

dec LV volume

Sigmoid shaped septum

Lipofuscin deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
316
Q

What is kinesin’s function?

A

Moves vesicles along microtubules using ATP in a anterograde direction.

(it kicks the kan down the road)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
317
Q

What are the strictly ketogenic amino acids?

Which amino acids are glucogenic and ketogenic?

A

Leucine and Lysine

Phenylalanine, Isoleucine, and Tryptophan

All others are glucogenic only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
318
Q

What is unique about RBC metabolism?

A

Can only use glucose for energy. Not able to use ketones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
319
Q

How is metabolism of RBCs and liver cells similar?

A

Neither can use ketones. Liver cells lack thiophorase (aka succinyl CoA acetoacetate CoA transferase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
320
Q

What is a severe side effect of subarachnoid hemorrhage?

Treatment for this side effect?

A

Vasospasm

Give nimodipine, a cerebral selective calcium channel blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
321
Q

What is the mechanism of Toxic Shock syndrome?

What are the S/S of TSS?

A

TSST (toxic shock syndrome toxin) crosslinks mphages and THelper cells–>IL-2 prod from TH cells and IL-1 and TNF from mphages

This leads to the S/S of Toxic Shock Syndrome:

Fever

Rash

N/V

Desquamation

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
322
Q

How does the chromosomal abnormality in Klinefelter syndrome occur?

A

Meiotic Nondysjunction

Increasing number of X chromosomes=inc severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
323
Q

Where is rRNA synthesized?

A

Nucleolus

5.8s rRNA is exception: synth in nucleoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
324
Q

Clearance=

A

(0.7*Vd)/(t^1/2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
325
Q

What amino acids are abundant in keratin?

A

Alanine, glycine, cysteine

Inc strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
326
Q

What type of receptor is HER2/NEU?

What is its function?

Its molecular weight?

A

It is an epidermal growth factor receptor with a tyrosine kinase

Activation leads to cell proliferation.

Weight=185 kD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
327
Q

What is synaptophysin?

A

Transmembrane glycoprotein that indicates neuronal origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
328
Q

What cells stain GFAP positive?

A

Astrocytes

Oligodendrocytes

Ependymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
329
Q

What is the Fick principle?

A

Cardiac Output (CO)=O2 consumption/(art O2 content-venous O2 content)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
330
Q

MOA of acyclovir:

A

Converted by thymidine kinases in viruses to Acyclovir-monophosphate–>AcyclovirTP–>incorporates into DNA for GTP–>term of DNA synth

331
Q

What is the true GI diverticulum?

A

Meckel’s

332
Q

How do gallstones form?

A

Gallstones made up of cholesterol. They precipitate out of solution when bile is supersaturated with cholesterol.

This occurs w/ dec bile synth or inc cholesterol synth

333
Q

MOA of Tetrodotoxin and Saxitoxin (dinoflagellates in “red tide”)

MOA of Ciguatoxin (moray eey, exotic fish) and Batrachotoxin (South American frogs)

A

Bind Na+ channels, blocking influx–>no action potentials

Bind Na+ channels, keeping them open–>no APs

334
Q

What is the most likely lung pathology following aspiration of stomach contents?

A

Pneumonitis occurring within hours. Not pneumonia (PNA)

335
Q

Most likely etiology of vertebral osteomyelitis?

A

Post Staph infx

Also could be Potts disease from TB

336
Q

What is a Type II error

A

Beta error. Conclude no difference (accept null hypothesis) when there is a difference.

Often due to power of the study (directly correlates with the sample size)

337
Q

What is Berkson’s bias?

A

Selection bias due to using hospitalized patients as the control group.

338
Q

What is an atypical cause of an increased hematocrit?

A

Androgen abuse

339
Q

Causes of thoracic outlet syndrome?

A

Scalene issue

Extra cervical rib

Injury (overhead arm mvmt)

340
Q

What is an unusual positive effect of aspirin therapy?

A

Decreases risk of colonic adenocarcinoma.

COX-2 is assoc w/inc risk of colonic adenocarcinoma.

341
Q

Decribe the difference b/t central and peripheral chemoreceptors: How is this imp in COPD?

A

Central stim by inc PaCO2

Carotid bodies stim by dec PaO2.

Carotid bodies become more important in COPD, d/t inc PaCO2 chronically.

342
Q

What causes Crow’s Feet?

Mech of formation?

A

Dec collagen fibril production around eyes

UVA–>deep dmg via ROS–>inflamm cell surface receptors–>dec collagen fibril prod

343
Q

What is the cause of a Trendelenburg gait?

A

Injury to superior gluteal n or weakness of glut med/minimus

344
Q

Mgmt of panic attack:

A

Acute: Benzos

Chronic: SSRIs or SNRIs

345
Q

What is lead-time bias?

A

Discovery of disease earlier than normal d/t inc sensitivity, but this earlier discovery does NOT cause improved life expectancy or better prognosis.

Ex: Pt dies in 2025 of cancer. Old test would have discovered in 2018. New test discovers in 2016. But patient dies in 2025 either way. Did not prolong the actual survival of pt, just looks like you did.

346
Q

When do trisomies usually occur?

A

Meiosis II if identical chromosome is copied.

Meiosis I if you get different homologous chromosomes copied

347
Q

Loss of what leads to disseminated candidiasis?

A

loss of PMN activity, not Th cells

348
Q

What is the order of assembly of collagen?

A

3 alpha polypeptide chains created inside and outside cell–>self assemble to make fibrils–> crosslink to make fibers

349
Q

Pathogenesis of pigment gallstones with clonorchis sinesis:

A

Liver/biliary tract infx by clonorchis–>death of bacteria and hepatocytes–>release of beta-glucoronidase–>bilirubin hydrolysis–>inc of unconj bilirubin–>pigment gallstones

350
Q

What is another name for Lecithin?

Why is it important?

A

Phosphatidylcholine.

Lecithin:Sphingomyelin ratio over 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity.

351
Q

What is Chlorthalidone?

A

A Thiazide

352
Q

What vasoactive receptor is on endothelial cells?

A

M3. Activation can –>hypotension.

353
Q

What receptors do what on the bladder?

A

M3 activates detrusor m–>contraction

B2–>detrusor relaxation

354
Q

What reactions is vitamin B6 used for?

A

Transamination rxns

Decarboxylation of amino acids

355
Q

What is a potentially severe complication of DKA?

A

Respiratory Failure

D/t pulm edema or altered mental status

356
Q

Cataracts, frontal balding, gonadal atrophy, inability to release grip in young pt, think?

Inheritance?

A

Myotonic dystrophy

AD, CTG repeat–>anticipation

357
Q

What is the use and MOA of daptomycin?

A

MRSA (gram + coverage)

Depol cell membrane by making transmembrane channels

358
Q

What are adverse reactions to daptomycin?

When shouldn’t it be used?

A

Myopathy and inc CPK

Pneumonia, as it binds to surfactant

359
Q

What is the histology of chronic rejection?

A

Interstitial fibrosis and parenchymal atrophy

Vessels: wall thickening and luminal narrowing

360
Q

Brain bleed in a premature infant before 32 wks, think?

A

Intraventricular hemorrhage, from the germinal matrix

Germinal matrix is where neurons and glial cells migrate from. Highly cellular and vascular. Becomes less so by 32 weeks gestation.

361
Q

Common infectious agents in septic abortion?

A

S. Aureus

gram (-) bacilli (e. coli)

group B strep

362
Q

Which hypothalamic nuclei regulate hunger?

What does destruction lead to in each?

A

Ventromedial (represses hunger): hyperphagia

Lateral (stim hunger): Anorexia

363
Q

What molecules are good opsonins?

A

IgG and C3b

Also, C-reactive protein and mannose binding lecithin

IgM is NOT a good opsonin. It activates the alternative complement cascade, but does not itself act as an opsonin.

364
Q

Weakness of iliopsoas, dec knee jerk reflex, what nerve involved?

What sensory S/S?

A

Femoral n

Dec sensation over the anterior thigh, knee, medial leg

365
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for decreased bone density?

A

Genetics (up to 80%)

366
Q

What are the SGLT-2 inhibitors?

What are their side effects?

A

Canagliflozin

Dapagliflozin

MoA: inc urinary glucose loss by inhibiting SGLT-2 in PCT

UTI and genital infx

systematic hypotension (osmolar diuresis)

Avoid in dec renal fnx d/t drug’s MoA

367
Q

Why does drug induced lupus occur?

A

Pt who are genetically slow N-acetylators don’t process the SHIPP drugs as well (phase II acetylation in liver)

368
Q

What is the pathyphys of dactylitis?

A

The small bones of hand and feet in children w/Sickle cell still have bone marrow.

The sickled cells get trapped in the marrow and cause bone infarctions–>edema, tenderness and warmth

369
Q

What overabundances can overgrowth of the small bowel bateria cause?

A

Folate

Vitamin K

Bacteria can produce lots of both of these

370
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome, think?

A

Eczema

Thrombocytopenia

Recurrent infx

371
Q

Which has greater negative charge: HgC or HgS?

A

HgS

Hg C has a lysine residue, pos charge, instead of glutamate. HgS has valine, neutral charge.

The pos charge on HgC–>dec distance towards positive end of Hg electrophoresis

372
Q

Which part of the retina contributes more to the pupillary light reflex?

Mechanism?

A

Nasal portion

More from here goes to the pretectal nucleus, so a lesion of the optic tract can cause an abnormal swinging flashlight test on the side opposite the defect.

373
Q

What does a lesion to Meyer’s loop cause?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemiquadrantopia (upper)

374
Q

Why does macular sparing occur in a posterior cerebral artery infarct?

A

Macula receives collateral blood flow from the middle cerebral artery

375
Q

What is the cause of Tet spells in Tetralogy of Fallot?

How to help a tet spell?

A

dec SVR:PulmVascResistance causes deoxygenated blood from RV to go into LV and then into systemic circulation.

To help, need to inc SVR:PVR ratio. Can do this by squatting–>inc SVR forcing RV blood into pulm circulation

376
Q

What plasma proteins are cold soluble?

A

Factor VIII

fibrinogen

vonWillebrand factor

vitronectin

(these make up cyroprecipitate)

377
Q

What are transpeptidases in bacteria?

A

a type of penicillin binding protein

378
Q

What does a red organism with mucicarmine staining indicate?

A

cryptococcus neoformans, esp if from lung tissue/nervous tissue

379
Q

What are the various staining methods used for cryptococcus?

A

Methenamine silver stain for yeast form

Mucicarmine or India ink for the polysaccharide capsule

380
Q

What is the mucicarmine stain actually staining?

A

polysaccaride capsules

381
Q

What is the study type called when studying a characteristic and how it relates to a given outcome?

A

An ecological study. Studies populations.

Good for making hypotheses, but not for determining anything d/t logical fallacies

382
Q

What two structures form the adult kidney?

A

Metanephric mesoderm (blastema)

Ureteric bud

383
Q

What structures of the adult kidney are formed by the ureteric bud?

A

The collecting system, from calyces to the ureters

384
Q

What structures of the kidney are formed by the metanephric mesoderm (blastema)?

A

The functional kidney structres, glomeruli to the distal convoluted tubules

385
Q

What is the MoA of heparin?

A

Binds antithrombin to block activation of Xa, but must also bind thrombin to have activity against Xa.

So it is effective against both Xa and thrombin

386
Q

What are Call-Exner bodies?

What do they indicate?

A

rosettes of cuboidal cells around a pink, eosinophilic center with coffee bean nuclei

Granulosa cell tumor of ovary (Granulosa cells are cuboidal in sheets)

387
Q

What is a side effect of ethambutol?

A

optic neuropathy

388
Q

What is the function of Neuropeptide Y?

Neurokinin 1?

A

Appetite and pain perception

NK1 receptor releases substance P–>nausea/emesis

389
Q

What are possible side effects of lithium use?

A

Hypothyroidism (dry skin, weight gain, hair loss)

Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus

Tremor

Dizziness

Weakness

Ebstein Anomaly

390
Q

Where are the mamillary bodies located?

A

On the inferior aspect of the hypothalamus

391
Q

How can you differentiate an ulcer from an erosion?

A

Ulcer will involve submucosa while erosion will only affect the mucosal layer, including but not through the muscularis mucosae

392
Q

What part of the pancreas derives from the ventral pancreatic bud?

A

The proximal part of main pancreatic duct

Inferior/posterior portion of the head

Uncinate process

393
Q

What type of Ig is administered in the RhoGam shot?

A

IgG

394
Q

How does H. flu type B evade host immune response?

A

Polysaccharide capsule of polyribosylribitol phosphate binds factor H of host serum. Factor H is an anti-opsonin, protecting from C3b.

Immunization to HiB includes PRP conj to toxoid–>ab to PRP–>imp opsonization and dec virulence

395
Q

What is trehalose dimycolate?

A

AKA Cord factor

Part of M Tuberculosis cell wall that activates granuloma formation

396
Q

What is the underlying pathophys behind intermittent claudication?

A

Narrowing of the lumen due to an atheroma

397
Q

In what compartment are Cl- ions typically found?

A

extracellular (they do not flow out of the cell, rather they flow in)

398
Q

What mutation can cause MODY, esp the type assoc w/pregnancy?

A

Heterozygous glucokinase mutations

Homozygous result in fetal growth retardation and hypoglycemia at birth

399
Q

Describe the LV chgs in aortic stenosis:

A

LV concentric hypertrophy

dependence on preload to maintain CO, esp atrial kick

400
Q

What are possible complications of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Respiratory (limited chest wall expansion)

Cardio (ascending aortitis–>aortic insufficiency)

Anterior uveitis

peripheral arthritis

401
Q

What is the indole test?

What does it distinguish?

A

ability to convert tryptophan to indole

Distinguishes E coli (indole pos) from enterobacter (negative)

402
Q

What immune response prevents reinfection with influenza?

A

anti-hemagluttinin antibodies

Blocks binding to host cells

403
Q

What is the full pathogenesis of atheromas?

A

endothelial cell injury–>inc VCAM–>infiltration of mphages and lymphocytes into intima.

mphages/lymphocytes release cytokines (PDGF, FGF, endothelin 1, IL-1)–>vasc smooth muscle cell migration and prolif

VSMCs stim to produce ECM proteins (collagen, elastin, proteoglycans)–>fibrous cap

404
Q

what branches off splenic artery are most vulnerable to ischemia?

Why?

A

short gastric art

No anastomoses (left gastroepiploic anastamoses with the right gastroepiploic)

405
Q

What type of colon cancer morphology can cause secretory diarrhea?

A

villous adenoma

406
Q

What does a swelling of the axonal body and mvmt of nucleus/Nissl substance to the periphery indicate?

A

Axonal reaction to a nerve injury

407
Q

What is the mech by which PPIs can–>osteoporosis?

A

Ca++ needs an acidic env for absorp. PPIs dec H+–>dec Ca++ absorp

408
Q

How are eosinophils involved in the immune response to helminths?

A

Helminths are coated by IgG and IgE. Eosinophils bind Fc portion and degranulate–>release of major basic protein and ROS–>Ab dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity

Can phagocytose parasitic ag and present on MHC II

Late-phase Type I Hypersensitivity Rxns (not really part of helminthic response)

409
Q

What is the histological appearance of hepatitis B in hepatocytes?

A

Finely granular, homogenous, dull eosinophilic inclusions

410
Q

What is the histology of a AAA?

A

Transmural inflammation of the aortic wall

Collagen cross-linking and remodeling

Loss of elastin

Loss of smooth muscle cells

411
Q

What is the difference histologically b/t the thoracic aorta and abdominal aorta?

A

Abdominal aorta lacks vaso vasorum

412
Q

When does ADPolycysticKD manifest?

A

Later in life, takes 10-20 years after onset of symptoms for renal failure to occur (mean age 70 for CRF)

Microscopic cysts are present at birth, however

413
Q

What is cystic dysplastic kidney?

A

Congenital multicystic disease of the kidney–>absence of the normal pelvus and calyces

414
Q

What is the histology of VZV and HSV, esp on Tzanck smear?

A

multinucleated giant cells

intranuclear inclusions in keratinocytes

415
Q

How does a patent foramen ovale form?

A

The septum primum and secundum fail to fuse following birth. Functionally it is usually closed d/t inc Left Atrial pressure as compared to RA. Inc RA pressure or dec LA can open the PFO.

416
Q

What are the 3 Ds of botulism poisoning?

A

Diplopia

Dysphagia

Dysphonia

417
Q

What are anti-Jo-1 antibodies targeting?

What disease?

A

anti-histidyl-tRNA-synthetase

Polymyositis/dermatomyositis

418
Q

What do anti-smooth muscle antibodies indicate?

A

autoimmune hepatitis

419
Q

What is the MoA of TZDs?

What does that do?

A

reduce insulin resistance via binding peroxisome proliferator-activated recepter gamma (PPAR-gamma)

Increases GLUT4 on muscle and adipose

Inc adiponectin secretion–>inc insulin responsive adipocytes, inc fatty acid oxidation

420
Q

What is the MoA of metformin?

A

noncompetetive inhibition of mitochondrial glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase–>dec hepatic glucose prod

421
Q

Describe the gonadal vasculature

A

Gonadal arteries arise off abdominal aorta bilaterally

Left gonadal veins drain into Left renal vein

Right gonadal veins drain into IVC

(also remember water under the bridge: ureter under gonadal arteries)

422
Q

What is a VERY common side effect of ACE inhibitors?

What is the pathophys?

A

Nonproductive cough

Inhibition of ACE is thought to inc bradykinin and Substance P levels or maybe even PGs (ACE degrades these, very nonspecific enzyme)

423
Q

Where is Serotonin produced in the brain?

Where are these located?

A

Raphe nuclei

Midbrain

Pons

Medulla

424
Q

Where is Norepi made in the brain?

Where is this located?

A

Locus Ceruleus

Dorsal Pons

425
Q

What occurs in the nucleus basalis of Meynert?

What disease process is affected by this and how?

A

Cell bodies of cholinergic neurons–>Ach prod

In Alzheimer’s, Ach prod in nucleus basalis of Meynert is dec

426
Q

What are the various immune responses to HBV infection?

A

Type IV HSTVY is main cause of hepatocyte death (CD8 T kill infected hepatocytes)

Type III HSTVY leads to Polyarteritis Nodosa, arthralgias, glomerulonephritis, etc

Type II HSTVY is anti-HBsAg Ab preventing infx of hepatocytes by HBV

427
Q

How does EBV infect a host?

A

its surface gp350 binds CD21 on B cells and nasopharyngeal epithelial cells

CD21 is the C3d receptor

428
Q

How does parvovirus B19 infect cells?

What cells?

A

binds erythrocyte precursors at the Group P ag (globoside)

Mature RBCs

Erythrocyte progenitor cells

Megakaryocytes

Placenta

Fetal liver/heart

429
Q

What effect does surfactant have on small vs large alveoli?

A

P=2T/r (P-distending pressure, T-surface tension, r-radius)

Surfactant dec surface tension. A smaller alveolus will have higher surface tension for the same pressure.

Surfactant dec this tension so that the smaller alveolus doesn’t collapse on expiration

430
Q

What class of drugs does repaglinide belong to?

A

Meglitinides

inc endogenous insulin secretion by inhibiting ATP dependent K+ channels in the Beta cells

431
Q

What is the mechanism of senile calcifications of the cardiac valves?

A

dystrophic calcification

In aging valves, endothelial and fibroblast cells die and necrose secondary to chronic hemodynamic stress

Necrosis–>dystrophic calcification

432
Q

What is the underlying defect in hyperimmuglobulin M syndrome?

A

lack or defective CD40 ligand on CD4 T cells–>defective Ig class switching from B cells

CD40 def on B cells is theoretically possible but super rare

433
Q

What is exposure therapy an example of?

A

Behavioral therapy

Effective in treating phobias

434
Q

What is the most common mutation involved in cystic fibrosis?

What does it lead to?

A

deletion of 3 base pairs coding for Phe at position 508

This causes abnormal posttranslational folding and processing–>targeting to proteasome for degradation

435
Q

Describe how methotrexate works

A

Analog for folic acid–>inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

Gets polyglutamated inside the cell–>retention in cell for further action.

Get accumulation of the precursors for dihydrofolate reductase in the cell via polyglutamation:

DHF polyglutamate

Folic acid polyglutamate

436
Q

What are dicarboxylic acids in the urine indicative of?

A

Long/Medium chain fatty acid deydrogenase deficiency

Medium chain gets seizures. Tx by no fasting

Long chain gets hypoketotic hypoglycemia. Tx w/ med chain fatty acids

437
Q

What do LTB4, C4, D4 and E4 do?

A

B4 is for neutrophil chemotaxis

C4, D4, E4 mediat bronchoconstriction (think asthma)

438
Q

What is pseudofolliculitis barbae?

A

Razor burn

happens frequently in african americans. Get hyperpigmented or red papules along the jaw and beard distribution. Itchy and painful.

439
Q

In PCOS, what is the treatment of choice for inc fertility?

Why?

A

Clomiphene

it is a Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator at the hypothalamus so it prevents normal feedback inhibition–>inc LH and FSH–>ovulation

440
Q

What are the age cutoffs for precocious puberty?

A

Boys: pubertal chgs before 9

Girls: pubertal chgs before 8

Normal menstruation is between 11 and 14

441
Q

What is the physiologic defintion of a shunt?

A

airway obstruction

V/Q approaches 0 as there is no ventilation

100% O2 doesn’t improve PaO2.

442
Q

What is the physiologic definition of dead space?

A

blood flow obstruction

V/Q approaches infinity because no blood flow

100% O2 improves PaO2 if blood flow is not totally gone

443
Q

Patient with Gout. What are the most common exacerbators?

A

Alcohol (if someone distills own alcohol, they drink A LOT)

Large Meals

Diuretics (thiazides and loops mostly)

Long term diseases or tx for them (tumor lysis syndrome, Lesch-Nyhan, etc)

444
Q

What causes hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Reversible inc in blood AMMONIA (NH3) levels

caused by dec liver fnx

445
Q

What is an unusual complication of a GI bleed?

Mechanism?

A

Hepatic Encephalopathy

Hgb from bleed digested by bactera–>inc NH3 in lumen absorbed into blood.

446
Q

Besides inc NH3 in blood, what is another test that can help narrow down hepatic enecephalopathy?

A

dec BUN

Urea made by liver from the NH3

447
Q

What molecules inhibit iodine uptake?

A

Perchlorate

Pertechnetate

448
Q

What is a common serum finding in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis?

A

Abs to thyroid peroxidase

449
Q

What is the underlying cause of a Tetraolgy to form?

A

abnormal migration of the neural crest cells of the infundibular septum–>anterior and cephalad deviation of the septum

This causes the VSD (a malaligned VSD vs endocardial cushion which is a lack of septal formation) and overriding aorta

450
Q

When calculating filtration fraction, what is important to remember?

A

That the FF=GFR/RPF

RPF=/=Renal blood flow.

To get RPF from RBF, take 1-hematocrit multiplied by the RBF.

451
Q

What are the two biochemical effects of CO poisoning?

A

CO binds Heme and Cytochrome Oxidase

Heme binding leads to an inc oxygen affinity by remaining heme groups–>left shift of dissociation curve–>dec O2 delivery to tissues

Cytochrome Oxidase binding–>dec oxidative phosphorylation

452
Q

Gram (+) cocci in chains, think?

Clusters?

A

Strep species

Staph

453
Q

What does the catalase test indicate?

Examples:

A

Catalase (+) means you can turn hydrogen peroxide into water and CO2

Nocardia

Pseudomonas

Listeria

Aspergillus

Candida

E. Coli

Staph

Serratia

H. Pylori

454
Q

Pt with cor pulmonale, why doesn’t he have peripheral edema?

A

The inc interstitial pressure is initially offset by inc lymphatic drainage.

Remember that the secondary polycythemia doesn’t affect plasma oncotic pressure.

455
Q

What does the gene mutation in Frederich Ataxia result in?

A

degeneration of spinal tracts:

spinocerebellar (gait ataxia)

lateral corticospinal (spastic paralysis)

dorsal columns (loss of position/vibration sense)

DRGs (loss of position/vibration sense)

456
Q

What can occur up to one month post vasectomy?

A

can still have viable sperm in ejaculate (actually up to 3 months or ~20 ejaculations)

any sperm that are distal to the ligation of the vas deferens are unaffected and viable.

457
Q

What is the histology of Medullary Thyroid Cancer?

A

Nests or sheets of polygonal cells with extracellular amyloid deposits (pos Congo-red birefringence)

The amyloid deposits are derived from calcitonin from the neoplastic C cells

458
Q

What is the pathology assoc w/Lupus involving Smith proteins?

Mechanism?

A

failure to make mature mRNA

anti-Smith ab–>dec complexing of Smith protein with snRNA–>inactive snRNPs–>dec spliceosome formation–>dec splicing and less mature mRNA

459
Q

What nerves carry the pain fibers from the outer wall of the thorax?

A

Phrenic n carries pain from diaphragmatic and mediastinal pleura

Rest of pleura and wall inn by intercostal nn

460
Q

What is characteristic of depersonalization/derealization disorder?

A

Being an outside observer of yourself

461
Q

What are the teratogenic effects of Primary CMV infx?

A

Chorioretinitis

Sensorineural deafness

Seizures

Hepatosplenomegaly

Jaundice

Microcephaly

462
Q

Definition of effect modification

A

effect of an exposure is modified by another variable

463
Q

How to differentiate effect modification from confounding?

A

Stratify the groups

One group has different risk after stratification–>effect modification

If the association disappears with stratification–>confounding

464
Q

What does cryptococcus look like under light microscopy?

A

yeast form only

round/oval encapsulated cells w/narrow-based budding

465
Q

What are the skin manifestations of syphilis at each stage of the disease?

A

Primary: painless chancre

Secondary: diffuse macular rash (can involve palms and soles)

condyloma lata (gray wart-like growths in anogenital region)

Tertiary: Gummas (indurated granulomas that can become white and rubbery, even ulcerate.)

All of these can be found on the genitals, penis/vulva/scrotum etc

466
Q

What substrates can be used by hexokinase?

Why is this important?

A

Glucose

Fructose

In fructokinase deficiency (the benign fructosuria), hexokinase mostly takes over for fructokinase–>benign symptoms and some metabolism of fructose

467
Q

What processes are affected by carnitine def?

A

degradation of long chain fatty acids (beta-oxidation)

This also dec ketone synth

468
Q

What cell makes estradiol?

A

Remember EFG:

Estradiol

FSH

Granulosa cell

469
Q

What is the underlying mech of keloid formation?

A

TGF-beta production becomes unregulated

TGF-beta–>fibroblasts dfferentiate to myofibroblasts–>wound contraction.

If overproduced, get fibroblast prolif after wound repair is done and get overgrowth of scar outside of wound

470
Q

What is a good treatment for Multiple Myeloma?

What is its MoA?

A

Bortezomib, a boronic acid containing dipeptide

It inhibits the proteasome–>apoptosis of plasma cells

MM has plasma cells that are out of control. Proteasomes are necessary to degrade the misfolded proteins (IgG/IgM here).

Proteasome also balances proapoptotic and antiapoptotic proteins. Inhibition causes buildup of toxic, misfolded proteins and proapoptotic proteins–>apoptosis

471
Q

Big purple (basophilic) cells on blood smear, pt has bleeding gums, fever and sore throat, think?

A

AML

Those purple cells are myeloblasts.

Often have Auer rods in them-myeloperoxidase aggregates. They will stain (+) for peroxidase.

472
Q

Pt in renal failure, is bleeding and we can’t stop it. Why?

A

Uremic toxins impair platelet function

Platelets can’t adhere or aggregate properly, leading to a QUALITATIVE platelet d/o: Platelet count, PT, aPTT normal, but inc bleeding time

Tx is dialysis to remove uremic toxins

473
Q

Pt has new onset DM, GI distress, normochromic normocytic anemia, and coalescing skin lesions described as:

red and blistering at the edges, itchy, bronze colored center found mainly on the face, groin and extremities.

Diagnosis?

Tests to order?

A

Glucagonoma

Order serum glucagon levels

The skin lesions are called necrolytic migratory erythema

The anemia resembles anemia of chronic disease and is present in majority of pts.

474
Q

What is an important predictor of future insulin resistance?

A

Visceral obesity (>40in Men, >35in women)

Measure with waist circumference

475
Q

Why does DM type II present more often with hyperosmolar nonketotic coma than DKA?

A

Insulin resistance–>high insulin levels

High insulin–>dec ketone synthesis

476
Q

What does porcelain gallbladder place a pt at greatest risk for?

A

adenocarcinoma of the gallbladder

477
Q

Where is the lowest urine pH in the nephron?

A

distal and collecting tubules

478
Q

Where would uric acid precipitate in the urine?

A

collecting tubule due to the low urine pH

479
Q

How does osteoporosis most commonly present?

What do labs show?

A

Fragility fx, MC is vertebral

Serum PTH and Ca++ levels are normal

480
Q

What are the number 1 and 2 causes of death (CoD) in Marfan Syndrome?

A

MC is Aortic dissection

2nd is cardiac failure d/t mitral prolapse/aortic regurg

481
Q

Pt w/encephalitis (diff from meningitis by confusion), rash, and flaccid paralysis in summertime, what bug?

How is it transmitted?

A

West Nile Virus

(+) ssRNA Flavivirus

via the Culex mosquito

482
Q

How do you determine prognosis for colon cancer?

A

Stage is best correlation

(depth of invasion and spread)

483
Q

Where does hematogenous spread osteomyelitis affect the long bones?

Why?

A

Metaphysis

Bony metaphysis has sinusoidal vessels that are slow moving

484
Q

Where does Ewing sarcoma arise?

A

Diaphysis

485
Q

What do oxalate crystals in the urine indicate?

A

Ethylene glycol poisoning

486
Q

What is indicative of Acute Tubular Necrosis on histology?

A

Proximal tubule ballooning

Vacuolar degeneration

Also will have Acute Renal Failure

487
Q

When to use Buproprion?

MoA?

When not to use?

A

1st line for Major Depressive D/O, esp if sexual dysfnx SE are problematic

5HT/D2 reuptake inhibitor

In eating d/o and seizure d/o (lowers seizure threshold)

488
Q

If rotator cuff is involved and pt can’t abduct arm, what is problem?

A

supraspinatus m or tendon

489
Q

How to test supraspinatus m/tendon?

A

empty can test

490
Q

How can segmented viruses exchange DNA?

Non-segmented?

A

Reassortment (can lead to genetic shift)

Recombination

491
Q

Where is the last place neural crest cells migrate?

A

rectum

492
Q

What is the best medicine for c diff infx?

A

Fidaxomicin (a macrocyclic/macrolide-like antibiotic)

It is better than vanco as it is absorbed less and has a better cure rate.

At the doses used for c diff, vanco is bacteriostatic

493
Q

How could a cancer become resistant to chemotherapy? (one method in particular)

A

p-glycoprotein, an ATP-dependent efflux pump encoded on MDR1 gene.

Very effective mutation against hydrophobic agents (anthracyclines)

Verapamil, diltiazem and ketoconazole dec action of the pump

494
Q

How is digoxin removed from the body?

A

excreted by the kidney completely unchanged

495
Q

What are the MC locations for atherosclerotic buildup?

A

lower abdominal aorta

coronary arteries

(mainly tortuous vessels)

496
Q

What airway function test will be INC in restrictive lung diseases?

A

inc expiratory flow rate

the airways widen due to outward traction from the interstitial fibrosis which causes the inc expiratory rate

497
Q

What does the Sudan III stain test for?

What is it good for?

A

fat in stool

malabsorption d/o

498
Q

Where do B cells proliferate?

A

the germinal centers within the follicles of the lymph node cortex

499
Q

What receptors/ligands are necessary for Ig isotype switching?

A

CD40 on B cells and CD40-Ligand on T cells

appropriate cytokines

500
Q

How do mphages and PMNs contribute to emphysema?

A

release proteases like elastin

501
Q

What is the best anti-insomnia agent for the elderly?

A

Ramelteon

502
Q

What is quetiapine?

A

2nd generation antipsychotic

503
Q

What is the MC cause of tubal factor infertility?

A

PID

Suboptimal levels of Abx can still lead to infertility, even if the entire course is taken

504
Q

What is the best indicator of severity in mitral stenosis?

Physiology underlying this finding?

A

time between A2 to opening snap is best indicator

as MS gets worse–>inc LAtrial pressure–>dec time from opening of Mitral Valve to opening snap.

A dec time b/t A2 and snap is worse MS

505
Q

What is the fnx of Beta-galactosidase?

What builds up if it isn’t functional?

A

b/d GAGs

keratan sulfate in lysosomes

506
Q

What is the MC genetic mutation in melanoma?

What does that protein do?

A

BRAF mutation

Kinase in the melanocyte stimulation pathway

A V600E mutation (valine–>glutamic acid) tx is vemurafenib

507
Q

What is the fastest monosaccharide to be metabolized?

A

Fructose

Fructose-1-P bypasses phosphofructokinase (rate limiting in glycolysis), making it fastest

508
Q

What is the femoral ring?

What imp structure does not pass through this?

A

opening of the femoral sheath

femoral n (not found in sheath)

509
Q

What is the most important consideration when dealing with a drug seeking pt?

A

Obtaining confirmation of pt’s medication history

510
Q

What nerve root does an L3-L4 disc herniation affect?

A

L4

The disk bulges out, but the nerves are all coming off the cauda equina here. So they actually pass alongside the vertebral body and out the foramen at their level.

The bulging disk, then, cannot push on the nerve at its level, but impinges the one below.

511
Q

What is coronary steal syndrome?

What are some drugs that can exacerbate/cause it?

A

In chronic CAD, collaterals develop.

Ischemia–>dilation of collaterals–>inc perfusion of ischemic tissue

Steal syndrome is vasodilation of non-ischemic areas–>dec perfusion of ischemic tissue

Adenosine and dipyridamole are vasodilators and can precipitate this

512
Q

What are two unusual causes of inc MCV anemia?

A

Sickle Cell disease (w/high retic count)

Orotic aciduria

513
Q

What does UV light do to DNA?

What is this repaired?

A

thymidine dimers (remember these are pyrimadines)

Nucleotide excision repair

514
Q

pt on opioids gets upper rt quadrant abd pain. Why?

A

mu opiod agonists can cause contraction of sphincter of Oddi–>spasm–>biliary colic

515
Q

Describe the structure of telomerase

A

It is an RNA-dependent-DNA polymerase

TERC subunit: RNA template

TERT: reverse transcriptase

516
Q

What energy source is not stored in neurons?

A

glycogen

517
Q

What parts of the brain are most susceptible to hypoxia?

A

Pyramidal cells of hippocampus

Purkinje cells of cerebellum (both equally sensitive)

Watershed zones (less than the other two)

518
Q

Besides asbestos, what other exposure can occur in construction work?

A

Lead poisoning

519
Q

What peripheral blood abnormality is seen in lead poisoning?

Pathogenesis?

A

Basophilic stippling

Lead inhibits 5’ nucleotidase

5’ nucleotidase is needed for ribisome degradation, inhibition–>ribosome aggregation–>stippling

520
Q

Describe the physiologic and histologic consequences of LVH caused by aortic regurgitation

A

AR–>inc LV stroke vol–>direct inc of CO

LVH in AR is eccentric, not concentric

521
Q

What enzyme in the TCA cycle uses FAD directly?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase

522
Q

What is the mechanism underlying intestinal atresia in an infant?

A

Lack of vascular supply to that intestine

523
Q

What is the preferred method of preventing wrong side surgeries?

A

Independent verification of surgical site by two different people

524
Q

What is the mutation in hereditary pulmonary hypertension?

A

AD mutation in BMPR2 (variable penetrance)

525
Q

Hereditary pulmonary hypertension, mechanism?

A

Dysfnx in endothelial and smooth muscle prolif AND a 2nd insult

–>inc endothelin, dec PGI2, dec NO–>PAHtn

526
Q

What is seen on biopsy in CMV esophagitis?

A

Owl’s eye inclusions

multinucleated giant cells

527
Q

What is heteroplasmy?

A

different mitochondrial genes in the same cell

528
Q

How does heteroplasmy affect mitochondrial diseases?

A

severity correlates w/ratio of abnormal:normal mitochondrial in the cell

529
Q

What is penetrance?

A

the probability that a pt w/the gene will have the phenotype

530
Q

What do loop diuretics cause release of which affects their potency?

A

Prostaglandins

531
Q

What is Alzheimer disease a result of?

A

Dec in choline acetyltransferase activity in hippocampus and nucleus basalis of Meynert

532
Q

What is the MoA of Danazol?

What kind of drug is it?

A

Partial agonist at androgen receptors. Also binds Sex Binding globulin–>inc testosterone levels

It is an androgen

533
Q

SERMs can have what beneficial effect in prostate cancer therapy?

A

dec gynecomastia

534
Q

What part of the neck does CN XI pass through?

A

posterior cervical triangle

535
Q

What is the most oxygen poor blood in the body?

A

coronary venous blood

Myocardial oxygen consumption is 60-75%, higher than anywhere else in the body

536
Q

What causes the endothelium to release nitric oxide? (5)

A

Ach

Shear stress

bradykinin

serotonin

substance P

537
Q

What is needed to make nitric oxide?

A

Nitric Oxide Synthase

Arginine

NADPH

O2

Generates NO and citrulline

538
Q

What level does CN V come off the brainstem?

A

at the level of the middle cerebellar peduncles in the mid pons

539
Q

If reactive arthritis is assoc w/STD, what is usual cause?

A

Chlamydia

540
Q

What is the triad of reactive arthritis?

What are some other sequelae?

A

Conjuncitivits, urethritis, arthritis

Oral ulcers

keratoderma blennorrhagicum (pustules on palms/soles)

sacroilitis (and other axial skeletal involvement)

assoc w/HLA B27

541
Q

What receptors is Mifepristone active at?

A

Progesterone antagonist

Glucocorticoid antagonist

542
Q

What is Torsades ALWAYS assoc w/?

A

A long QT interval

543
Q

What are the S/S of disseminated Histoplasma?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly

ulcerated tongue lesions

pneumonia

544
Q

What is mitochondrial vacuolization indicative of?

A

Irreversible cell injury

545
Q

CT shows inc ventricular volume, but LP shows no inc in intracranial pressure. What is going on?

A

Hydrocephalus ex vacuo

Brain atrophy inc size of ventricles, but ICP NOT inc.

546
Q

What is Lissencephaly?

What is assoc w/it?

A

Lack of gyri (congenital)

Severe MR

547
Q

What is the optochin sensitivity test result for S Pyo?

A

It isn’t used w/strep pyo

548
Q

What is the new test for diff s. pyo from s. agalactiae (GBS)?

Which of these is pos?

A

pyrrlidomyl arylamidase (PYR) test (instead of bacitracin)

S. Pyogenes is PYR (+)

549
Q

What are the two primary causes of diverticula (besides congenital)?

Definition?

A

Traction (something in the way that pulls out wall)

Pulsion (inc intraluminal pressure during strained BM)

550
Q

What is diverticulitis?

A

Diverticula w/inflamm signs:

Pain

Fever

Diarrhea

NOT HEMATOCHEZIA!! Hematochezia is indicative of diverticulosis

551
Q

What is the MoA of colchicine?

A

inhibit microtubule polymerization (dec PMN chemotaxis)

dec formation of LTB4

552
Q

How can the SVC be located on a CT?

A

Right of heart, posterolateral to the ascending aorta

553
Q

What does the SVC derive from?

A

the common cardinal veins

554
Q

What do the umbilical, vitelline, and cardinal veins form in the adult?

A

umbilical: degenerate
vitelline: portal system
cardinal: systemic circulation (Esp SVC)

555
Q

What are good formulas to remember for Filtration Fraction?

A

FF=GFR/RPF

FF=CLcr/CLpah

556
Q

CYP 450 Inducers

A

Chronic alcoholics Steal Phen-Phen and Never Refuse Greasy Carbs

Chronic alcohol use

St. John’s Wort

Phenytoin

Phenobarbital

Nevirapine

Rifampin

Griseofulvin

Carbamazepine

557
Q

CYP 450 Inhibitors

A

AAA RACKS IN GQ Magazine

Acute Alcohol Abuse

Ritonavir

Amiodarone

Cimetidine

Ketoconazole

Sulfonamides

INH

Grapefruit juice

Quinidine

Macrolides

Others: Verapamil, Ciprofloxacin

558
Q

CYP 450 substrates

A

Anti-epileptics

Theophylline

Warfarin

OCPs

559
Q

When do we use a t test?

ANOVA?

A

compare diff b/t 2 groups

compare diff b/t more than 2 groups (ANOVA=analysis of variance)

560
Q

How do TLC and RV change in COPD?

A

Both inc, but TLC is due to the inc in RV.

So TLC/RV ratio would dec, but RV/TLC would inc

561
Q

What is characteristic of bulimia nervosa?

A

COMPENSATION for binging. Doesn’t have to be purging.

Can include restriction, purging, laxatives, etc

562
Q

When is it appropriate to seek court intervention against the parents in treating a child?

A

When there is a significant risk of harm to the child.

563
Q

What are the neurological manifestations of Von Hippel Lindau?

What are other organ manifestations?

A

capillary hemangioblastomas

Cysts or neoplasms in kidney, liver, pancreas

Bilateral Renal cell carcinoma is common

564
Q

What are the enzymes assoc w/mnemonic TLC For Nobody?

A

branched chain alpha ketoacid dehydrogenase (maple syrup urine disease)

pyruvate dehydrogenase

alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

565
Q

What are the best indicators of prognosis in liver cirrhosis?

A

Serum albumin levels

bilirubin levels

prothrombin time

566
Q

Where is dietary fat primarily absorbed by the GI tract?

A

Jejunum

Ileum does bile acids and B12, NOT dietary fat

567
Q

Five most common catalase (+) organisms?

A

S. aureus

Burkholderia cepacia

Serratia

Nocardia

Aspergillus

568
Q

What is a bluish neoplasm under the fingernail?

A

glomangioma (glomus tumor)

subungual melanoma

569
Q

What is a glomangioma?

A

Tumor of smooth muscle cells of glomus body

Glomus bodies are neurovascular organs of the nailbed, pads of fingers and toes, and ears

The smoot muscle cells are arranged around an efferent arteriole, so they have a role in thermoregulation

570
Q

What is the purpose of IgA proteases?

A

facilitate bacterial adherence to mucosa

571
Q

What does a type IV HSTVY contact dermatitis look like grossly?

Microscopically?

A

Erythematous, papulovesicular, weeping lesions

Spongiosis: accum of edema fluid in the intercellular spaces of epidermis

572
Q

What pathways is tetrahydrobiopterin a cofactor for?

A

Phe/Tyr degradation/synth of catecholamines (Phe>Tyr via Phe hydroxylase and Tyr>DOPA via Tyr hydroxlase)

Tryptophan to 5-hydroxytryptophan via Trypt hydroxylase

(eventually leads to Serotonin)

Def to BH4 usually due to dihydropteridine reductase dec

573
Q

Can excretion show a maximal value? Why or why not?

A

No, not if the substance is freely filtered

Excretion includes filtration which cannot have a maximum.

574
Q

What molecule metabolizes toxins and carcinogens?

How can it lead to disease?

A

cytochrome p450 monooxygenase, in hepatic microsomes and ER of other tissues

Normally detoxifies chemicals, but also converts pro-carcinogens into carcinogens–>inc cancer risk if overactive

575
Q

How are the mean, median and mode related in a positive skewed curve?

Negative skew?

A

Mean>median>mode (mean is more POS in positive skew)

Negative is the opposite, so just remember positive skewed and the other one is the other one.

576
Q

What causes the tears in Mallory-Weiss syndrome?

A

inc intraabdominal pressure, like in retching when you create significant pressure.

577
Q

What medication should be used for absence seizures and tonic-clonic seizures?

A

Valproate

578
Q

What is the positive predictive value?

A

Proportion of people w/positive test results w/disease.

Partly determined by prevalence

579
Q

What do eosinophils contain?

What does it do?

A

Major basic protein

Anti-helminthic

580
Q

What is the treatment for CN- toxicity?

A

Na+ nitrite

Na+ thiosulfate

Hydroxycobalamin

This forms cyanocobalamin–>excretion in the urine

581
Q

What is characteristic of colorectal malignancy in ulcerative colitis?

A

Multifocal

Affect younger pts

Progress from flat and non-polypoid dysplasia

appear mucinous (signet ring cell)

early p53 and late APC mutations

Proximal colon location

582
Q

What causes release of babinski sign?

A

UMN lesions

demyelination of corticospinal tracts

583
Q

What is buspirone not good for?

What is it’s MoA?

A

Not effective in panic disorder. Also has a slow onset of action

5HT partial agonist

584
Q

What do matric metalloproteinases activate?

A

myofibroblasts–>wound contracture

585
Q

What does primary biliary cirrhosis look like on histology?

A

mphages

lymphocytes

plasma cells

eosinophils

See granulomatous destruction

586
Q

Fatigue and inc ALP in man with UC, think?

Histo?

A

Primary sclerosing colangitis

Periductal concentric fibrosis (onion skinning)

587
Q

What chromosome is assoc w/ Neurofibromatosis?

A

NF-1 is AD on c17

NF-2 is AD on c22

588
Q

How to distinguish EHEC from other E Coli?

A

No sorbitol fermentation

No glucoronidase production

589
Q

What is the MoA of Class Ia antiarrhythmics?

A

Blocks Na+ channels–>dec Na+ conductance–>reduced phase 0 slope

Also affects K+–>prolonged action potential

590
Q

What bacteria are most common causes of Sepsis and osteo in sickle cell?

A

Sepsis: 1. S. Pneumo, 2. H. Flu

Osteo: 1. Salmonella, 2. S. Aureus, 3. E. Coli

Gram (+) organisms can cause sepsis too

591
Q

Given two drugs with the same efficacy, which is more potent?

A

The one that has the lower dose to achieve the effect is more potent

592
Q

How does Meniere’s disease present?

What is the mech?

A

Vertigo

Tinnitus

Hearing loss (unilateral)

Other S/S: ear fullness/pain

inc endolymph in inner ear (Na+ inc?)–>dmg to vestibular and cochlea of inner ear

593
Q

What are some medication causes of aplastic anemia?

Mech?

A

Chloramphenicol

Carbamazepine

Sulfonamides

def of CD34+ cells

594
Q

Where do hydroceles typically occur?

A

Tunica vaginalis

595
Q

How does power relate to error?

A

Power is related to Type II (Beta) error

Power = 1 - Beta

596
Q

What is the definition of power?

A

ability of study to detect a difference when that difference truly exists

597
Q

What is Type II (Beta) error?

A

Prob of concluding no difference when one exists

598
Q

What is Type I (alpha) error?

A

Prob of seeing diff when one doesn’t exist (due to chance alone)

599
Q

Within in the true pelvis, what is the ureter’s course?

A

Crosses directly anterior to internal iliac artery

Directly posterior to uterine artery

600
Q

Where is thoracentesis performed?

Risks at various levels?

A

Midclavicular between ribs 6-8

Midaxillary between ribs 8-10

Paravertebral between 10-12

Higher level can have lung injury

Lower can hit abdominal structures

601
Q

Important defense against Vibrio Cholera?

What does it grow on?

A

stomach acid (acid labile)

Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt-sucrose agar

aka TCBS agar

602
Q

When is vibrio vulnificus really bad?

A

More virulent in those w/liver disease

603
Q

What is the MoA of terbinafine?

A

inhibition of squalene epoxidase–>dec syth of ergosterol

604
Q

What is MoA of polyene antifungals (ampho and nystatin)

A

Bind ergosterol–>synth of ergosterol

605
Q

MoA of echinocandins?

A

block synth of Beta (1, 3) D glucan

This is main component of candida and aspergillus cell walls

606
Q

MoA of griseofulvin?

A

Bind microtubules–>disruption of mitotic spindle–>dec mitosis by fungi

607
Q

MoA of flucytosine?

A

antimetabolite antifungal

Becomes 5-FU–>dec protein synth d/t incorporation into mRNA

608
Q

MoA of Gabapentin?

A

dec activation of voltage gated Ca++ channels–>dec Ca++ release–>dec excitability of neuron

609
Q

What is the latent period in an exposure?

A

Time elapsed from exposure to clinical disease

If there is a high p-value and time since exposure is involved, think of latency as the cause of high p value

610
Q

What is the path of sympathetic neurons to eye?

A

Originate in hypothalamus–>2nd order in C8-T2 (ciliospinal center of Budge) then 3rd order are in superior cervical ganglion–>follow along carotids to eye

611
Q

How is base deamination repaired?

A

Cytosine to Uracil deamination

glycosylase cleaves altered base leaving apurinic site–>endonuclease cleaves 5’ end–>lyase cleaves 3’ end

DNA pol fills in the base–>ligase seals

612
Q

How is DHT involved in dvlpt?

What happens if it is deficient?

A

imp for External Male Genitalia

No 5 alpha reductase–>male pseudohermaphrodism

S/S: ambiguous genitalia or small phallus w/hypospadius

613
Q

HIV Esophagitis:

Linear ulcers, think?

Punched out ulcers, think?

Grey/white pseudomembranes, think?

A

CMV

HSV-1 (can also have vesicles)

Candida

614
Q

What are the Primary HSV-1 infx S/S?

A

Gingivostomatitis: painful ulcers on tongue/gingiva

Pain–>dehydration and possible hospitalization

615
Q

What is the cause of obstructive sleep apnea?

A

loss of pharyngeal muscle tone

So stim of CN XII (hypoglossal n) can dec airway resistance

616
Q

What is the main blood supply to the femoral head?

A

medial circumflex artery

617
Q

What is the blood supply to the growth plate of the femoral head?

A

Ligamentum teres supplies blood there, and it is supplied by obturator artery

618
Q

What cell type is important for brain infarctions?

A

Microglia phagocytose neurons

This fills them up with lipids from myelin

619
Q

What cell type is involved in gliosis?

What is gliosis?

A

Astrocytes

Glial tissue repair by scarring

620
Q

How does N. meningitidis infect the pt?

A

Respiratory droplets via nasopharynx

Meningitis then via hematogenous spread

621
Q

What are the S/S and pathogenesis of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria?

A

S/S: Hemolytic anemia

hypercoagulability

pancytopenia

PIGA gene mutation–>dec GPI protein which anchors CD55 and CD59

functional dec of CD55 and CD59 on RBCs–>complement lysis of RBCs and other cell lines

622
Q

What is the function of APC protein?

What disease does mutation lead to?

A

APC maintains low levels of Beta Catenin (an oncogenic protein). So it is an oncogene inhibitor protein.

Mutation leads to Familial Adenomatous Polyposis

APC is found on c5 q

623
Q

What is the preparation stage of change?

A

Taking steps to get ready for change

624
Q

In what disease are antidepressants contraindicated?

Why?

A

Bipolar pts

Can induce mania

625
Q

What cytokine immune response is activated by viral infx?

A

inc Type I IFN (alpha and Beta IFN)

inc Type I IFN–> NO protein synthesis.

Enzymes are transcribed that are active only in presence of dsRNA–>selective inhibition

626
Q

What does IFN gamma do?

A

inc MHC Class II on antigen presenting cells

Promotes TH1 differentiation

inc mphage ability to kill intracellularly

627
Q

What is the Kozak consensus sequence?

Why is it important?

A

(gcc)gccRccAUGg

R is A or G

Initiates translation at Met start codon

628
Q

What is the clinical significance of Sorbitol?

A

Sorbitol usually degraded into Fructose via sorbitol dehydrogenase in most tissues

Exceptions: Retina, Renal Papilla, Schwann cells

These tissues have less sorbitol dehydrogenase, which can cause issues in diabetes

629
Q

What enzyme is slightly different in the lens of the eye?

A

It has sorbitol dehydrogenase, but w/too high affinity for sorbitol and so a low Km. So sorbitol can accum here too

630
Q

What causes the dmg in temporal arteritis?

A

Cell mediated immunity

IL-6, CD4+ T cells and mphages cause dmg

(granulomatous disease)

631
Q

What differentiates HSV-1 reactivation from Primary infx?

A

Much milder presentation

Usually involving lips only

632
Q

What is Rheumatoid Factor?

How does it lead to dmg in RA?

A

IgM antibody specific to Fc region of self IgG

RF-IgG complex deposits on synovium and cartilage–>

complement activation–>chronic inflamm

633
Q

Antimitochondrial Ab, think?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

634
Q

ANA, think?

A

Autoimmune disease.

Very nonspecific as found in tons of connective tissue d/o

635
Q

Anti-centromere abs, think?

A

CREST syndrome

636
Q

What is the physiology of the carotid baroreceptor reflex?

What nerve is involved?

A

Carotid massage–> INC baroreceptor firing–>

inc Vagal/(P-ANS) tone–>inc AV node refractory period–>

dec HR

CN IX (glossopharyngeal) is afferent arc

CN X (vagus) is the effector (efferent) arc

637
Q

What is Omalizumab?

A

Humanized IgG1 monoclonal ab to IgE

dec allergic response

638
Q

What is bortezomib?

A

proteasome inhibitor used for Multiple Myeloma and Waldenstrom’s

639
Q

What are infliximab and golimumab?

A

anti-TNF alpha abs

Infliximab is chimeric

Golimumab is human

640
Q

What is etanercept?

A

a fusion protein of recombinant DNA

the IgG1 Fc region is fused to the TNF receptor 2

It acts as a decoy receptor for TNF alpha

641
Q

Describe the process of Renin release?

A

Macula densa (tall, narrow cells in distal tubule that monitor Na+ content and tubule flow rate) sense chgs in GFR–>relay to JG cells in afferent arteriole–>release

642
Q

What are JG cells?

A

JG cells are modified smooth mm w/renin as a zymogen in granules

643
Q

What is adenomyosis?

S/S?

PE?

A

Endometrial gland tissue in myometrium

PAINFUL, heavy menstruation

Physical: large uterus, d/t hormonal stim of endometrial tissue

644
Q

What is histology and S/S in endometrial hyperplasia?

A

inc gland prolif

Irregular, but NOT painful, menses

645
Q

What are endometrial polyps?

A

Benign projections from uterine lining from hyperplastic growth of glands and stroma

646
Q

What is the pathogenesis of infective endocarditis in Rheumatic Fever?

A

RF–>chronic inflamm and scarring of Mitral valve–>

fibrin and platelet deposition–>sterile fibrin-platelet nidus

–>infx by organisms

647
Q

What can occur in advanced Rheumatic Fever lesions?

A

PMN infiltration or liquefacive necrosis of the lesions

648
Q

What is characteristic of mitral valve prolapse on histology?

A

Myxomatous degeneration (accum of ground substance, specifically dermatan sulfate)

649
Q

What is a koilocyte?

What does it look like on histo?

A

epithelial cell infected by HPV

Looks like a clue cell on Pap

Immature squamous cell w/dense irregularly staining cytoplasm w/perinuclear clearing (halo).

Enlarged pyknotic nucleus–>raisinoid appearance

650
Q

How to tell a koilocyte from a clue cell?

A

Clue cells are covered w/rods that obscure epithelial margins

651
Q

How does EtOH cause pancreatitis?

A

inc protein/dec fluid content in pancreatic secretions–>

viscous fluid

inc spasms in sphincter of Oddi

652
Q

What type of equation is used in case control studies?

A

Exposure odds ratio

Odds of exposure w/disease (cases)/odds of exposure w/o disease (controls)

653
Q

What is used by the relative risk or relative rate ratios?

A

incidence

This means that these are used in prospective not retrospective studies

654
Q

What is MoA of TZDs (pioglitazone)?

A

bind PPAR gamma–>PPAR gamma/TZD complexes w/RXR (retinoid X receptor)–>transcription of adiponectin–>

enhanced insulin sensitivity and fat oxidization

655
Q

What is the MoA of metformin?

A

inhibits mitochondrial glycerophosphate dehydrogenase

–>dec hepatic gluconeogenesis

656
Q

Think what with Patau syndrome?

A

MIDLINE DEFECTS!

Examples:

Cleft lip/palate

holoprosencephaly

microcephaly

microphthalmia

omphalocele

Others:

Cutis aplasia

Polydactyly

MR

Seizures

657
Q

What is the specific dysfnx in Patau syndrome?

A

Trisomy 13–>defects in prechordal mesoderm

658
Q

What is a common side effect of L-DOPA/carbidopa therapy?

Why does it happen?

A

N/V

Emesis center in brainstem is outside of blood brain barrier

659
Q

What side effects are assoc with HIV Protease Inhibitors?

A

Metabolic issues:

Lipodystrophy

Dyslipidemia

Insulin Resistance

Also inhibit CYP 450

660
Q

What is MoA of HIV Protease Inhibitors?

A

Cleavage of polypeptide precursors into mature viral proteins

661
Q

Pt has TB reactivation, also on HIV Protease inhibitors. Problem?

A

Yes

Rifampin can inc CYP 450 activity–>dec efficacy of Protease Inhibitors

Use Rifabutin instead

662
Q

Resistant CMV infx, use what?

Side effects?

A

Foscarnet, direct DNA pol inhibitor

Nephrotoxicity

Electrolyte anomalies:

dec Ca++

dec Mg++

dec K+

663
Q

Side effects of TMP-SMX?

A

megaloblastic anemia

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

664
Q

How best to manage work of breathing in Restrictive Lung Disease?

Obstructive disease?

A

inc Respiratory Rate

inc Tidal Volume and dec Respiratory Rate

665
Q

What does Prussian Blue stain for?

A

IRON deposition

666
Q

Female w/hemochromatosis has delayed onset of symptoms. Why?

A

premenopausal bleeding protects due to dec Iron levels in body

667
Q

How much Iron is needed in body for Hemachromatosis to present?

A

20 g in liver

668
Q

Body surface is breached, think?

What is a type of breach that may not be thought of immediately?

A

Infx!

Endotracheal tube. Bypasses normal body defenses.

669
Q

What is an odd potential consequence of ET tube therapy in a pt?

A

Parotitis w/Staph Aureus

670
Q

What laboratory tests are inc in osteomyelitis?

A

inc ESR and CRP

ALP is NOT elevated

ESR and CRP are nonspecific

671
Q

What complication does a UTI cause?

A

inc risk of UTI from typical AND opportunistic organisms

672
Q

How to diff enterobacter from other species?

A

Catalase negative

Does ferment lactose

Not oxidase positive

673
Q

What is passive immunization?

A

Administration of preformed antibodies

674
Q

What is the treatment order for C. diphtheria? (in order)

A

Diphtheria antitoxin

Penicillin/erythromycin

DPT vaccine

675
Q

What is another name for hypocretin?

how does this relate to narcolepsy?

A

Hypocretin 1=orexin A

Hypocretin 2=orexin B

Hyporcretin 1/orexin A is undetectable in the CSF w/narcolepsy

676
Q

Where does the ACL attach to femur?

PCL?

How to remember this?

A

ACL attaches to lateral condyle of femur

PCL attaches to medial condyle of femur

P and M are close together in the alphabet

677
Q

What is a good test for CKJ disease (Creutzfeldt-Jakob)?

A

inc 14-3-3 protein

678
Q

What is an important part of the MAP-kinase receptor?

A

Has intrinsic kinase activity, autophosphorylates itself.

Ex: EGF, FGF, PDGF, insulin

679
Q

What diff MAP kinase from JAK/STAT receptors?

A

JAK/STAT DO NOT have enzyme activity w/in JAK.

They are tyrosine kinase associated, not intrinsic tyrosine kinase

Ex: GH, PRL, IL-2, Colony stim factors

680
Q

What is a learning disorder?

If it is a specific disorder, what is unique about this?

A

dysfnx in learning key academic skills (reading, writing or math)

Demonstrate below avg performance in these areas, and will have distress when doing these areas, but not others.

If specific, will have normal intellectual fnx, besides issues w/area of weakness

681
Q

What does histology of mesothelioma show?

A

Nodular/smooth pleural thickening on gross exam

Long slender microvilli

Tonofilaments

Hemorrhagic pleural effusions are often seen as well

682
Q

When working up metabolic alkalosis, what is the best test to order after ABGs?

Why?

A

urine Cl-

Helps differentiate the etiologies of alkalosis:

Loss of H+ (vomiting/gastric suction)

Diuretic use

Hyperaldosteronism (not fluid responsive)

Bartter and Gitelman syndromes (not fluid responsive)

683
Q

You test pt’s reflex. A nodule forms quickly where your hammer struck. What is this called?

What does it indicate?

A

myoedema (focal mounding of muscle following percussion)

Indicates hypothyroidism

Myoedema occurs b/c Ca++ reabsorbed slowly into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

684
Q

What anastomoses exist b/t the IMA and SMA?

A

Marginal artery of Drummond

arc of Riolan (mesenteric meandering art)

685
Q

What medication should be given in pt w/peripheral artery disease?

What is its MoA?

A

Cilostazol

it inhibits intracellular platelet phosphodiesterase–>

inc cAMP in platets.

cAMP activates protein kinase A which dec aggregation

It is also a direct arterial vasodilator

686
Q

What medication preferentially binds rapidly depolarizing and ischemic myocardium?

Why?

A

Lidocaine

It preferentially binds Na+ channels in the inactivated state, which frequently occurs in ischemic myocardium as the resting potential is increased–>delay in reactivation of Na+ channels

687
Q

What is the pathogenesis of proptosis in Graves’?

How is it treated?

A

Inflammatory TH1 cells infiltrate behind eye and stimulate fibroblasts to produce excessive GAGs.

High dose glucocorticoids to reduce inflammation

(PTU and methimazole have no effect on the proptosis)

688
Q

What is the precise mech of diphtheria toxin?

A

diphtheria AB exotoxin:

The A (active) subunit transfers a ribose residue from NAD to a histidine on elongation factor 2

EF2 is necessary for peptide chain translocation on the ribosome. This ribosylation inactivates EF-2

689
Q

What is the usual cause of complete lung collapse?

What is seen on CXR?

A

mainstem bronchus obstruction

See complete unilateral pulmonary opacification on one side as the alveoli have filled with fluid

Also will see the trachea deviating towards side of collapse d/t the severe atelectasis and negative pressure from the collapse

690
Q

What structures arise from the neural crest?

A

MOTEL PASS

Melanocytes

Odontoblasts

Tracheal cartilage

Enterochromaffin cells

Laryngeal cartilage

Parafollicular cells of the thyroid

Adrenal medulla and All ganglia

Schwann cells

Spiral membrane (Aorticopulmonary septum)

691
Q

What is characteristic of schizoaffective disorder?

A

Psychotic features in the ABSENCE of a mood disorder, but mood disorder is also present for majority of illness.

Mood disorders include both major depression AND BIPOLAR!

692
Q

What functions does thyroid peroxidase serve?

A

Organification of Iodine and coupling of iodotyrosines

So, PTU and methimazole impair these processes.

PTU also impairs peripheral conversion of T4–>T3

693
Q

What cell type is associated with Primary CNS Lymphoma in AIDS?

A

B lymphocytes via EBV

694
Q

What is a potentially serious complication of an ASD, besides paradoxical embolus?

A

Pulmonary hypertesion, possibly leading to Eisenmenger’s syndrome

695
Q

MC common cause of microcytic anemia in postmenopausal women and older men?

A

GI malignancy

696
Q

What is phosphatidylcholine’s role in bile?

A

helps emulsify cholesterol, along with bile salts

697
Q

How does Fanconi anemia present clinically?

A

short stature

absent thumbs

inc risk of malignancy

aplastic anemia

698
Q

Where in the TCA cycle is inhibited in an alcoholic w/Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Thiamine dependent enzymes (thiamine is def in alcoholics, and NADH is overproduced, the overprod inhibits entire cycle. So thiamine is more specific in Wernicke’s):

pyruvate dehydrogenase

alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

699
Q

What enzyme is inducible by IL-1 that is undetectable in surrounding tissue and present in inflammatory cells?

A

COX-2

COX-1 is found in gastric tissue and other places

700
Q

What enzyme important for catecholamine synthesis is affected by a steroid hormone whose synth is affected by the pituitary?

What is this steroid hormone?

A

Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (makes Epi from NE)

Cortisol stim PMNT

(ACTH from ant pituitary inc cortisol synth)

701
Q

What methods of transmission are possible w/Campylobacter?

A

Domestic animals: cattle, sheep, DOGS, chickens

Contaminated food: poultry and unpastuerized milk

702
Q

What is the best indicator of severity in Mitral Regurg?

A

presence of audible S3

703
Q

How to diff Kartagener from Cystic Fibrosis?

A

Vas deferens is absent in CF but is present in Kartagener

704
Q

What is the primary mechanism of nitrites providing symptomatic relief in acute CHF exacerbations?

A

inc peripheral venous capacitance–>dec preload and dec LV end diastolic pressure

705
Q

What lab findings are specific to antiphospholipid ab syndrome?

What abs are specific for it?

A

Lupus anticoagulant leads to paradoxical inc aPTT prolongation

Anticardiolipin ab

Anti-beta2-glycoprotein-1 ab

706
Q

In lung transplantation, what is characteristic of Acute rejection?

A

Acute causes vascular dmg (pulm and bronchial vessels) via CD8+ T cells

Microscopy shows lymphocytic infiltrates around vasc and bronchioles

707
Q

What is characteristic of chronic rejection in lung transplantation?

A

Inflamm and fibrosis of small bronchioles (bronchiolitis obliterans)

CD4+ T cells respond to donor peptides on APCs, leading to mixed humoral and cellular immune response.

Lung differs from kidney in that lung isn’t vessels in chronic rejection

708
Q

Which pouch does the thymus derive from?

What other structure derives from the same pouch?

A

The third pharyngeal pouch

INFERIOR parathyroid glands

709
Q

What is the MC cause of nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis (marantic sterile vegetations)?

A

Advanced malignancy (pancreatic adenocarcinoma in particular)

Other major cause is Libman-Sacks endocarditis caused by SLE/antiphosphlipid ab syndrome

Sepsis can also cause it, but much less common

710
Q

What sequence is needed to perform PCR?

A

the DNA flanking the area of interest so primers can bind

711
Q

What is a characteristic of personality disorders that is useful in distinguishing them from other disorders?

A

Pervasiveness across multiple settings.

712
Q

How can tetanus toxin be detected in the serum?

A

It cannot be. There is no test for it.

713
Q

What virulence factor of E. Coli causes meningitis in infants?

A

K1 capsular ag

714
Q

What is the MC type of benign liver tumor?

What is its histology?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

Cavernous spaces lined by single epithelial layer and filled with blood

715
Q

What Benzos to use in hepatic failure/issures?

A

LOT:

Lorazepam

Oxazepam

Temazepam

716
Q

What is the preferred imaging study for toxic megacolon?

A

Plain film abdominal x ray

717
Q

What are potential metabolic complications of thiazide diuretics?

A

Hyperglycemia

Hypercholesterolemia

(dec insulin secretion and insulin resistance)q

718
Q

What joint is most affected in gout?

Pseudogout?

A

1st proximal metatarsal jt in the big toe

Knee

719
Q

What is the function of Golgi Tendon Organs?

A

Monitor Muscle Tension

720
Q

What is the appearance of the internal capsule?

What is its function?

A

White area b/t the thalamus (flanks the 3rd ventricle) and Globus pallidus/putamen

Carries fibers to and from cerebral cortex, large portion is made up of Corticospinal Tract (so does lots of motor)

721
Q

How quickly will the mixed met acidosis/resp alk begin w/salicylate toxicity?

A

The acidosis begins shortly (4-5 hrs) after ingestion

722
Q

What is the most serious toxicity of anthracycline (doxo/daunorubicin, epirubicin, idarubicin) use?

How to prevent?

Mech of prevention?

A

DILATED cardiomyopathy

Dexrazoxane

Iron-chelating agent that dec formation of free ROS

723
Q

What error in development leads to a ectopic thyroid tissue (i.e. a lingual thyroid)?

A

Failure of proper migration of the thyroid tissue

724
Q

How can the false positive rate be calculated?

A

(1-specificity)*Actual number WITHOUT disease

725
Q

What is characteristic of the lining of a pancreatic pseudocyst?

A

fibrosis and granulation tissue

since it isn’t a true cyst it won’t have epithelial tissue

726
Q

What are common complications of superficial venous stasis (such as varicose veins)? (5)

A

Ulcers

Stasis dermatitis

painful thromboses (highly unlikely to embolize)

poor wound healing

superficial infx

727
Q

How is RBF calculated?

A

Find RPF ((PAH in urine*urine flow)/plasma PAH)

RBF=RPF/(1-hematocrit)

DON’T NEED FILTRATION FRACTION!!!

728
Q

What is pica?

Who is it more common in?

What substances are common?

What is it assoc w/?

A

Eating of non-food and/or non-staple food source for over 1 month

Schoolchildren and pregnant women

Ice is MC

Also soil/earth substances and raw starch substances

Assoc w/nutritional def, like zinc or iron

Anemia

729
Q

What do amatoxins bind to?

What does it cause?

A

RNA pol II

dec mRNA synth

730
Q

What are cholesteatomas made of?

Mech?

A

Squamous cell debris

Primary: chronic neg pressure–>retraction pockets in TM

–>cyst formation–>squamous cell debris accum–>

cholesteatoma

Secondary: Squamous tissue in the middle ear (wrong place)

DO NOT CONTAIN CHOLESTEROL OR LIPID!!

731
Q

What is the screening test of choice for diabetes?

What are other options?

A

Fasting blood glucose>126mg/dL

Hemoglobin A1c>6.5%

Random glucose over 200 mg/dL

For CF or gestation oral glucose tolerance is used, but too expensive for normal use

732
Q

What are ways to differentiate Measles and Rubella in a child?

A

Rubella will have tender cervical lymphadenopathy

Rash in rubella also spreads more rapidly and won’t coalesce or darken

733
Q

What are the PE findings in congenital hypothyroidism?

A

umbilical hernia

large tongue

large anterior fontanelle

lethargy

inc constipation

hypotonia

734
Q

How does the appearance of eczema change with age?

A

infants: red, weeping/crusted lesions on face, scalp, extensor surfaces

older children: lichenification of flexor surfaces

INTENSELY PRURITIC in all ages

735
Q

Spontaneous angina at rest or night, think?

How can it be exacerbated?

A

Prinzmetal angina

Dihydroergotamines

Triptans

Cigarette smoking

Cocaine/amphetamines

736
Q

When to use the 2-sample t test vs Chi square test?

A

2-sample t test when means are used

Use chi-square when categorical variables are used and need to compare 2 groups

737
Q

What are the Class II HLA proteins?

Class I?

A

DR, DQ, DP

A, B, C

738
Q

What are the symptoms of a VIPoma?

A

Achlorhydria (VIP inhibits gastric acid secretion)

watery diarrhea

hypokalemia

739
Q

What are the symptoms of atypical depression?

What meds work well for it?

A

Inc appetite and sleep (reversed vegetative signs)

leaden paralysis (arms and legs feel heavy)

rejection sensitivity

MAO-Is work well

740
Q

What are features of Rett Syndrome?

A

Mainly in girls (assoc w/de novo X linked MECP2 mutation)

Slowing of dvlpt b/t 5-18 months

sterotypical hand mvmts

loss of motor/language skills

Deceleration of head growth

741
Q

What sensory innervation is provided by the musculocutaneous nerve?

A

lateral forearm

742
Q

What factors contribute directly to insulin resistance?

A

inc free fatty acids in serum (inhibit insulin dependent glucose uptake in liver and muscle–>inc gluconeo)

obesity

sedentary lifestyle

743
Q

what is the MoA of Atrial Natriuretic peptides (ANP and BNP)?

What other substance acts in a similar manner?

A

bind ANP receptors linked to guanylyl cyclase–>

convert GTP–>cGMP–>activates cGMP dependent kinase

–>relaxation of smooth muscle and vasodilation

Nitric Oxide binds cytosolic guanylyl cyclase activating the same system

744
Q

What is the presentation of acute viral myocarditis?

A

Usually acute onset CHF

cardiogenic shock is also possible

pulsus paradoxus is NOT seen

745
Q

What is the MC causes of mortality in CF patients? (3)

A

Pneumonia

Cor pulmonale

Bronchiectasis

746
Q

What is JAK2?

A

A cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase, esp assoc w/STAT and the EPO receptor

It phosphorylates receptors w/no intrinsic kinase activity

Activating mutation (like in PVera) lead to continuous phosphorylation and downstream signaling–>cancer

747
Q

What is the structure of elastin?

What gives it its ability to allow compliance?

A

Tropoelastin secreted into extracellular space

Binds fibrillin (scaffold for elastin)

Lysyl oxidase then deaminates lysine–>desmosine crosslinks b/t adjacent elastin polypeptides

The crosslinks give elastin its rubber like properties

748
Q

What are apolipoproteins ApoE4 and ApoE3 needed for?

A

uptake of chylomicrons and VLDL by the liver

749
Q

What is the mech of antipyretics in reducing fever?

A

dec levels of PGE2, which leads to a dec in the hypothalamic temperature setpoint

750
Q

What divides the anterior 2/3 of the tongue from posterior 1/3?

A

terminal sulcus and foramen cecum

anything posterior to these are posterior

751
Q

What is the most likely cause of unilateral hydronephrosis in a fetus?

A

narrowing (due to failure of recanalization) or kinking of the proximal ureter at the ureteropelvic junction

752
Q

In what cancer subtype are KRAS mutations seen?

A

non small cell lung cancer

753
Q

How can the symptoms of mitral regurg be improved?

A

dec afterload

this dec the resistance to flow and reduces the regurg

754
Q

What is a major difference between DNA pol 1 and DNA pol III?

A

Pol I is the only DNA pol w/ 5’-3’ exonuclease activity

755
Q

What vitamin deficiency is associated w/inc risk of adverse events in measles (rubeola) infection?

What is the Mech?

A

Vitamin A

Measles depletes vitamin A stores–>keratitis and corneal ulceration

756
Q

What is reaction formation?

A

Defense mechanism when you take unacceptable feelings and transform them into their opposite

757
Q

How can ecthyma gangrenosum be identified?

What organism is it assoc w/?

A

ulcerating and necrotic skin lesions (dark areas)

Pseudomonas

758
Q

What virulence factors in Pseudomonas lead to disease?

How?

A

Exotoxin A (protein synth inhibition)

Elastase (degrades elastin-destroys blood vessels)

Phospholipase C (degrades cell membranes)

pyocyanin (generates ROS)

759
Q

What is the pathogenesis of ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Pseudomonas invades vessels then releases exotoxins

Exotoxins destroy tissue–>destroy vasculature and insufficient blood flow

This leads to edema and subsequent necrosis

760
Q

What is the pathophysiologic consequences of an arteriovenous fistula?

How would you identify with physical exam findings?

A

Causes a dec in peripheral resistance–>inc cardiac output

This can also cause an inc in preload

normal systolic blood pressure w/dec diastolic blood pressure–>widened pulse pressure

761
Q

What is the most commonly used inhaled anesthetic worldwide?

Potential adverse effects?

A

Halothane

fulminant liver necrosis–>inc ALT and dec clotting factors

762
Q

What is the gram staining of lactobacilli?

A

gram positive

763
Q

What insulins are best for pre meal insulin control?

A

lispro

aspart

glulisine

764
Q

Is the bladder part of the abdominal cavity?

What does this mean for suprapubic cystoscopy?

A

No!

So peritoneal membranes are not at risk with a suprapubic approach for a cystoscopy.

Lower risk of peritonitis and sepsis b/c of this

765
Q

What is the purpose of dextran formation by certain bacteria?

A

allows adherence to fibrin

766
Q

What is a mechanism of resistance to INH?

A

lack or reduction of catalase peroxidase

767
Q

What does an accentuated 2nd heart sound indicate?

A

pulmonary artery hypertension

768
Q

What is needed for synergism to apply in regards to pharmacology?

A

Both agents need to have a similar effect

769
Q

What is cortisol’s role in the stress response?

A

It increases the sensitivity to stress reaction hormones

This causes a permissive effect, allowing these hormones to have their maximal effect, and absence causes a decreased ability for them to perform their action

770
Q

What does hypersensitivity to intradermally injected tobacco indicate?

A

heavy smoker who has developed immune hypersensitivity to tobacco

Often indicates thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger’s dx)

771
Q

Where are very long chain fatty acids processed?

What other metabolic products are processed here?

A

Peroxisomes

fatty acids with branch chains at odd numbered carbons

772
Q

How is heme degraded?

A

Heme oxygenase degrades to biliverdin

Biliverdin then degraded to unconj bilirubin by biliverdin reductase and xported to liver

773
Q

Give CCK, slow gallbladder emptying, What does this mean?

What does it predispose for? Mech?

A

gallbladder hypomotility

Gallstones

delayed emptying causes bile concentration (gallbladder fnx is to reabsorb water from bile) leading to sludging.

Sludging allows cholesterol accum and bile precipitation

–>gallstones

774
Q

What quad screen marker is dec in fetal growth restriction?

A

estradiol

775
Q

What is the MoA of flutamide?

A

competetive testosterone receptor antagonist

776
Q

What abdominal region does the external iliac artery pass through?

A

retroperitoneal

777
Q

What is the mech of opioids as local anesthetics?

A

Mu receptors are G protein coupled.

So opioids like morphine and fentanyl cause G protein coupled inc K+ efflux from the neurons

778
Q

What is the most common morbidity/mortality in theophylline OD?

A

seizures

tachyarrhythmias are the other major concern, but usually don’t cause QT prolongation

779
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Reye syndrome?

A

caused by aspirin admin in young child w/febrile viral illness

Leads to:

  1. Hepatic dysfnx w/ inc ALT/AST, bilirubin, ammonia, PT/PTT. Histo shows microvesicular steatosis
  2. Encephalopathy d/t hepatic dysfnx–>hyperammonemia

–>cerebral edema

780
Q

What is the pathogenesis of amenorrhea in anorexics?

A

dec adipose tissue–>dec leptin

dec leptin –| GnRH secretion from hypothalamus

–>dec FSH and LH–>dec estrogen–>amenorrhea

781
Q

What side of the brainstem is damaged with INO?

A

ipsilateral side, mainly in the region of the abducens nucleus.

782
Q

Hemiballismus, lesion location?

A

contralateral subthalamic nucleus

783
Q

What is the pathogenesis of hemochromatosis?

A

HFE mutation leading to dec activity.

HFE binds to transferrin receptor on liver and enterocytes helping uptake transferrin/iron complex.

Lack of HFE–>dec levels of iron in hepato/enterocytes

–>changes in levels of certain proteins–>Iron accum:

Hepatocytes: dec hepcidin–>inc ferroportin expression on basolateral surface of enterocytes–> inc Fe secretion into circulation

Enterocytes: inc expression of divalent metal transporter 1 (DMT1) on luminal membrane–>inc iron absorption from lumen

784
Q

What are some medical causes of carpal tunnel syndrome and how do they cause CTS?

A

Dialysis assoc Beta2 microglobuin deposition in tunnel (dialysis assoc amyloidosis)

Diabetes mellitus (conn tissue thickening)

hypothyroidism (GAG accum)

rheumatoid arthritis (tendon inflamm)

pregnancy (fluid accum)

785
Q

What is the most important immune factor for defending against Giardia infx?

A

secretory IgA and CD4+ T cells

786
Q

What is the bias called when a study participant knows that they are being observed and changes their behavior accordingly?

A

Hawthorne effect

787
Q

What are the S/S of cauda equina syndrome?

What nerve roots are affected?

A

Perineal (saddle) anesthesia (S2-S4)

Loss of anocutaneous reflex (anal wink) (S2-S4)

bowel/bladder dysfnx (S3-S5)

loss of ankle jerk reflex (S1-S2)

Low back pain radiating down legs (S1-S2)

788
Q

What is necessary for cystitis to cause pyelonephritis?

A

vesicoureteral reflex

789
Q

Where is the AV node located anatomically w/in the heart?

A

endocardial surface of the right atrium, between the opening of the coronary sinus and the septal leaflet of the tricuspid valve

790
Q

What is the pathogenesis of pure red blood cell aplasia?

Some causes?

A

auto IgG ab against erythrocyte precursors or cytotoxic T cell destruction of them

Parvovirus B19 infx (destroys proerythroblasts)

thymoma

lympocytic leukemias

791
Q

What medications are good for postop urinary retention?

A

muscarinic agonists (like bethanachol)

792
Q

How is the TPR of vessels in series calculated?

A

1/TPR=1/R1+1/R2+1/R3…

Remember that 1/TPR must then be solved for TPR to give the actual value.

793
Q

What does mutated huntingtin protein do?

A

deacetylates histones–>repressed transcription of genes necessary for neuronal survival

794
Q

What is PYR equivalent to?

A

PYR pos=bacitracin sensitive

795
Q

Where are tumors that cause SVC syndrome usually found? (2)

How to differentiate b/t them?

A

Mediatinum (far more common than a pancoast tumor)

Apex (pancoast tumor)

Pancoast usually will have shoulder pain and/or Horner Syndrome in addition to SVC syndrome

796
Q

Which part of the CV system is most affected by nitroglycerin?

A

large veins

797
Q

What is the arteriovenous gradient?

How can we use it to interpret properties of inhaled anesthetics?

A

the difference in gas concentration b/t arterial and venous blood

Large AV gradient=absorption in tissues–>less in brain.

So this is slower to onset in the brain b/c more is needed to get CSF concentration to optimal level

798
Q

Why does the pain in appendicitis move from periumbilical to lower right quadrant?

A

appendix is at first irritating the colon which refers to umbilicus

as the appendix becomes more inflamed, it starts irritating the parietal peritoneum, causing more severe and localized pain.

799
Q

What are consequences of Ataxia Telangiectasia?

A

ATAXIA!!! This is from degen of cerebellar vermis

Telangiectasias

Immunodeficiency (esp recurrent sinopulmonary infx)

Cancer

800
Q

What are some topical treatments for psoriasis?

Mech of action of one of newest one?

A

Calcioptriene (vitamin D analogs, newest class), calcitriol, tacalcitol (best in combo w/steroids)

Topical steroids (mainstay tx)

Tar (old tx w/unknown mech)

Tazarotene (topical retinoid)

UV light

Vit D analogs: bind vit D receptor and inhibit prolif and stim differentiation of keratinocytes

801
Q

What is Somatomedin C?

A

Insulin like Growth Factor

802
Q

What pituitary hormone is structurally similar to opioids?

How?

What does this suggest about these two systems?

A

ACTH

POMC is precursor for ACTH and endogenous opioid peptides like enkephalins, endorphins, and dynorphins

Stress axis (cortisol) and endorphin (opioid) system may be closely related

803
Q

What is capitation, in reference to health insurance?

A

a payor pays a fixed, predetermined fee to cover all medical services required by the patient

Underlies HMOs

804
Q

What medication is good to reduce alcohol cravings?

A

Naltrexone

Blocks mu opioid receptors long term and is shown to dec alcohol craving

805
Q

What does safrenin O stain?

A

Stains collagen, mast cell granules, and mucin red

806
Q

What gene mutations lead to osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

COL1A1 and COL1A2

807
Q

What is the difference b/t transformation and transduction in bacterial mutations?

A

Transformation is when the DNA from other bacteria is taken up directly

Transduction is when the mutation is put in place by bacteriophages

808
Q

Pt w/ high anion gap metabolic acidosis, hematuria, think?

A

Ethylene glycol poisoning

809
Q

What is the most common structural reason for infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

Rheumatic Fever is not as common as MVP

810
Q

What is the pathogenesis of HIV associated dementia?

A

inflammatory activation of microglial/monocyte cells in the CNS–> multinucleated giant cells/groups of microglial cells (microglial nodules) around areas of necrosis

Dmg results from cytokine release from these cells and HIV protein toxic effects

811
Q

What does the Nf-kB pathway do?

A

inc cytokine production as a proiflammatory transcription factor

812
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Chron disease?

A

mutation in the NOD2 gene–>

dec activation of Nf-kB in response to microbial invasion

–>dec cytokine prod and impairment of intestinal immunity

–>exaggerated immune response to microbes

–>chronic inflamm d/t microbial invasion

813
Q

What are the NNRTIs?

How to remember them?

A

Evafirenz

Nevirapine

-vir w/in the name

814
Q

What is the treatment for arsenic poisoning?

A

Dimercaprol

DMSA

815
Q

What often persists following cortical infarcts of white matter, sometimes for years?

Why?

What process does this inhibit?

A

myelin debris

mphages/microglia are inhibited by blood brain barrier, and oligodendroglia don’t help w/phagocytosis

Regeneration is inhibited d/t presence of myelin assoc inhibitory factors and inhibitory molecules from prolif astrocytes

816
Q

What is the mech of crackles in CHF?

A

inc hydrostatic pressure in capillaries–>

fluid transudation into interstitium–>

dec lung compliance and traction on the airways

817
Q

What are some characteristics of Silica exposure in the lung?

A

Calcification of the rim of hilar nodules (eggshell calcification)

Birefringent silica particles on LM

818
Q

Where is a junctional nevus in the layers of skin?

A

solely w/in epidermis, in the basal layer and above

819
Q

Where is a compound nevus in the layers of the skin?

A

both dermis and epidermis

820
Q

What does a palpable but nontender gallbladder indicate?

A

Couvoisier’s sign

Indicative of adenocarcinoma of the head of the pancreas

821
Q

What is the treatment for restless leg syndrome?

A

Dopamine agonists (pramipexole)

822
Q

What does a lakelike cavity in the brain indicate?

A

a lacunar stroke.

This means it is ISCHEMIC!!!

Charcot-bouchard are hemorrhagic, but affect the same vessels

823
Q

What is the mech of hyperparathyroidism in kidney disease?

A

dec calcium levels and inc phosphate levels–>

inc PTH secretion.

824
Q

What hormone is assoc w/calcitriol prod and phosphate handling by the kidney?

A

FGF-23

Combined w/high phosphate levels, dec calcitriol prod

Also is responsible for dec phosphate reabsorp by the PCT