UWorld Flashcards

1
Q

IFN-gamma

A

released by T cells

use it to test for latent TB (how much IFN-gamma is released by T cells when exposed to TB antigens?)

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2
Q

Enteric bacteremia = most likely to be caused by

A

E coli, Salmonella typhi, Klebsiella, proteus (shigella is rarely phagocytosed and destroyed when it enters bloodstream, so no bacteremia)

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3
Q

DSM5 personality disorders

A

Paranoid = suspicious, distrustful, hypervigilant

Schizoid = loner, detached, unemotional

Schizotypal = eccentric; odd thoughts, perceptions and behavior

Antisocial = disregard and violation of rights of others

Borderline = chaotic relationships, labile mood, inner emptiness, self harm etc

Histrionic = dramatic, superficial, attention seeking

Narcissistic = grandiose, lack empathy

avoidant = avoid b/c of fears of criticism and rejection

Dependent = submissive, clingy

Obsessive-compulsive = rigid, controlling, perfectionistic

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4
Q

To locate appendix intra-op?

A

follow tenia coli band of muscle to where it attaches to cecum

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5
Q

Stimulation of pancreatic bicarb release?

Enzyme release?

A

Bicarb = from secretin (secreted by S-cels in response to increasing H+ conc)

Enzymes = from CCK and cholinergic stim

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6
Q

Wiskoff-Aldrich

A

eczema, recurrent infxns, thrombocytopenia

mut on X chrom (males) - combo B and T lymphocyte disorder

tx = hla-matched bone marrow transplant

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7
Q

HUS

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, acute renal failure

usually caused by enteroinvasive infxn –> toxin binds renal endothelium –> damage –> thrombosis and inactivation of ADAMTS13 (as in TTP) –> growing thrombi –> RBC lysis (schistocytes) and AKI (uremia)

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8
Q

causes of aplastic anemia

A

chloramphenicol use

infection of SCD pts with parvo

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9
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

A

albinism, peripheral neuropathy, immunodeficiency

phagocyte dysfxn

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10
Q

ataxia-telangectasia syndrome

A

B/T cell defect –> ataxia and telangectasia

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11
Q

3’–> 5’ exonuclease vs 5’ –> 3’ exonuclease

A

Prokaryotes have 3 DNA polymerases and all have 5’-to-3’ polymerase and 3’ to 5’ proofreading exonuclease activity, but DNA pol 1 also has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity

5’–>3’ allows DNA pol1 to do nick translation (DNA repair and removal of RNA primers)

3’–>5’ is the usual virus-encoded proofreader; absent in HCV so it makes lots of replication errors –> lots of subspecies of HCV

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12
Q

Lithium effects on kidney

A

induces DI by antagonizing vasopressin/ADH (–> polydipsia, polyuria, inappropriately dilute urine after water restriction)

in addition to kidney damage, can cause hypothyroidism (monitor BUN, Cr, and thyroid fxn)

*lithium toxicity enhanced by anything that decreases GFR –> increased PT lithium reabs (lithium follows Na) –> increased lithium floating around in the body, and it has a really narrow therapeutic window

**ACEi, NSAIDs and nondihydropyridine CCBs can also increase lithium conc and toxicity

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13
Q

Abciximab is used for…

A

GPIIb/IIIa antag, used for unstable angina and ACS

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14
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitors are used in

A

argatroban (HIT), dabigatran (afib, venous thromboembolism)

so anticoag

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15
Q

clopidogrel vs abciximab

A

clopidogrel blocks ADP receptors on plts

abciximab blocks GPIIb/IIIa

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16
Q

Symptoms of Patau syndrome

A

holoprosencephaly (ranging from cleft lip to cyclops), microceph, microphthalmia, ID

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17
Q

Markedly elevated AFP levels associated with ___

A

open neural tube and ventral wall defects (eg opmhalocele, gastroschisis)

vs low AFP associated with Down syndrome

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18
Q

Parinaud syndrome

A

dorsal midbrain problem (paralysis of upward gasze, kptosis and pupillary abnormalities) due to compression of pretectal region of midbrain, eg from pineal gland mass

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19
Q

most common pineal gland mass?

A

germinoma (from embryonic germ cells); most common in young boys

also seen in suprasellar region (less common) –> endocrine problems

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20
Q

Ventral vs dorsal pancreatic buds

A

dorsal forms majority of pancreatic tissue, + accessory duct (which usually fuses with ventral duct and rest of it usually degenerates, except in pancreas divisum, when the buds fail to fuse, so there are two ducts into duod; usu asymptomatic but can –> recurrent pancreatitis)

ventral = major duct + inferior/posterior portion of head and uncinate process

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21
Q

Myotonia

A

abnormally slow relaxation of muscles

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22
Q

Sx: difficulty loosening one’s grip, cataracts, frontal balding, gonadal atrophy

A

myotonic muscular dystrophy (second most common inherited muscle disorder, aut dom trinucleotide repeat expansion of gene for myotonia protein kinase)

type 1 fibers = esp atrophied

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23
Q

Inflammatory myopathies

A

Dermatomyositis, polymyositis

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24
Q

Ion channel myopathies

A

sx: myotonia (abnormally slow relaxation of mm) + episodes of hypotonoic paralysis, esp with exercise; no muscle atrophy

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25
Q

mitochondrial myopathies

A

aka oxidative phosphorylation disease

sx: myopathy, lactic acid buildup, CNS disease

ragged red fibers

mitochondrial inheritance

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26
Q

Inheritance pattern of achondroplasia

A

autosomal dominant (homozygous form = lethal)

usu starts as sporadic mutation due to advanced paternal age

mech: GOF mutation in FGFR3 gene

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27
Q

Patients with deficiencies in complement factors that form MAC get …

A

recurrent Neisseria infxns

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28
Q

Effect of pCO2 on cerebral blood flow

A

Increased pCO2 increases CBF via cerebral vasodil (vs pO2 has less effect on CBF)

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29
Q

cystocele

A

prolapse of anterior vaginal wall, may occur with pelvic floor injury (levator ani muscle injury)

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30
Q

Kegels

A

squeeze and release levator ani muscles to strengthen pelvic floor

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31
Q

Causes of incontinence (urinary)

A

stress urinary incontinence (with increased abd pressure) - pelvic floor (levator ani) injury, external urethral sphincter injury (eg prolonged labor)

urge incontinence (detrusor overactivity)

overflow incontinence (detrusor underactivity)

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32
Q

Control of urination

A

To urinate: Parasympathetics contract detrusor, relax internal urethral sphincter; somatic: pudendal relaxes external urethral sphincter

To not urinate: Sympathetics relax detrusor, contract internal urethral sphincter; pudendal contracts external urethral sphincter

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33
Q

STD ulcers - initial pain vs no pain

A

pain: chancroid, genital herpes (HSV1 and 2 - more common; lesions heal within 10 days)

no pain: Klebsiella, syphilis (lesion self resolves within weeks), lymphogranuloma venereum

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34
Q

Large, painful inguinal lymph nodes in which STD?

A

lymphogranuloma venereum (chlamydia)

also painless initial ulcer, ulcers = small and shallow

OBLIGATE INTRACELLULAR

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35
Q

characteristic feature sof granuloma inguinale (Klebsiella)

A

extensive and progressive ulcerative lesions, nonpainful, with granulation tissue at base

NO LAD (Distinguishes it from chlamydia buboes)

deeply staining gram neg intracytoplasmic cysts (Donovan bodies)

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36
Q

What do chancroid ulcers look like?

A

multiple, deep, painfull, with gray/yellow exudate at base

histo: organisms = clumped in parallel strands (schools of fish)

vs syphilis = single, indurated, well circ, painless ulcer with clean base and thin, corkscrew organismss on darkfield mic

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37
Q

Cowdry bodies

A

pink/purple intranuclear (not cytoplasmic) inclusions seen in HSV

also histo: multinucleated gina cells

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38
Q

HbH vs Hb Barts

A

HbH is in alpha-thal 3 allele deletion, when have very little alpha and get excess beta in tetramers

Hb Barts (lethal) = no alpha globin (4 allele deletion), so get gamma tetramers

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39
Q

HbA vs HbA2

A

HbA = 2 alpha, 2 beta

HbA2 = 2 alpha, 2 delta (increased in beta thal minor)

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40
Q

Drug of choice for paroxysmal SVT

A

adenosine (blocks AV node), fast acting with short t1/2

side effects = flushing, chest burning (bronchospasm), hypotension, and AV block

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41
Q

antiarrhythmic used for ventricular arrythmias

A

lidocaine (class IB)

tox = neuro sx

preferentially affects ischemic tissue, so often preferred post-MI

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42
Q

Anti-serotonin drugs

A

Cyrpoheptadine (oral 5-ht1a and 2a antag used to treat ser syndrome)

Ondansetron (5-ht3 antag to treat nausea/vomiting)

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43
Q

Nitrite positive urine = what kind of organism causing the UTI?

A

gram negative

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44
Q

arteriovenous nicking

A

funduscopic finding in patients with chronic htn (early manifestation of retinopathy due to exudative vascular changes from endothelial damage)

looks like arteriole overlying squished vein

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45
Q

end-organ damage in pre-eclampsia = due to ?

A

endothelial damage secondary to release of inflamm factors from abnormal placentation

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46
Q

difference b/w clotting factor deficiency-induced bleeding and VWD bleeding

A

clotting factor def (eg hemophilia) = deep tissue bleeding

vs VWD = skin and mucosal bleeding (gingivae, nasal mucosa, GI tract, endometrium)

ITP bleeding also = mucocutaneous

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47
Q

Cheyne-Stokes breathing

A

cyclic breathing pattern in which apnea is follwed by gradually increasing then decreasing tidal volumes until the next apneic period

seen in CHF (chronic hypervent with ypocapnia induces apnea during sleep –> buildup of CO2 –> ventilation overshoots)

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48
Q

Erythematous childhood rashes

A

Chickenpox (pruritic vesicles in different stages of dev)

Erythemia infectiosum (parvo; malar rash) - worry about aplastic anemia as sequela in IC or SCD pts

Rubella (occipital and postauricular lad; rash starts on head and moves down)

Rubeola (measles) - rash from head down, cough, coryza, conjunc, koplik spots; can –> bronchopna, encephalitis

roseola (HHV) - fever –> rash, self-lim; rash starts on trunk

scarlet fever (strep pyogenes) - sandpaper like rash starts on neck and then generalizes; may –> RF, glomerulonephritis

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49
Q

P450 inducers

A

barbs, rifampin, carbamazepine, griseofulvin, chronic alcohol

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50
Q

p450 inhibitors

A

isoniazid, cimetidine/omeprazole, macrolides, azoles, grapefruit juice

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51
Q

phenytoin toxicity

A

it’s a p450 inducer, and will be metabolized faster in liver if administered with other p450 inducers

it’s breakdown is dose-dependent so if give higher doses and saturate the enzyme, can quickly get tox

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52
Q

Cherry red spot

A

on macula with diffuse retinal ischemia of central retinal artery occlusion

usually with acute monocular vision loss

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53
Q

Hiatal hernia - two types?

A

para-esophageal (GE jxn stays attached at level of diaph, but part of stomach passes or bulges into chest)

sliding (GE jxn protrudes into chest –> dysphagia, GERD but normal manometry)

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54
Q

Phenotypic mixing in viruses

A

host cell is coinfected with 2 viral strains and progeny virions contain genome from one strain and nucleocapsid or envelope proteins from other

BUT their offspring will go back to original traits, since genome is unchanged

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55
Q

Reassortment vs recombination vs transformation in viruses

A

Reassortment requires segmented genomes, exchange whole genome segments (eg flu) - mechanism of genetic shift in flu

Recombination = nonsegmented, dsDNA genomes (exchange genes between 2 chromosomes via crossing over of homologous regions); can result in traits in progeny that weren’t present in either progeny strain

Transformation = uptake of naked DNA by prokaryotic or eukaryotic host cell (doesn’t change virus genome) - eg bacteria uptaking DNA from its environment, or host cell incorporating viral DNA into its own genome

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56
Q

mold vs. yeast

A

mold = branching (eg germ tubes of candida in the body)

yeast = spore-like (unicellular, can assemble into strings, aka “pseudohyphae”) - most infxs fungi = “yeast in the heat” (aka in the human body), except candida

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57
Q

ecological study

A

unit of analysis = populations, not individuals

if try to make conclusions about individuals within the populations, that’s the “ecological fallacy”

vs. eg cross sectional study (exposures and outcomes in INDIVIDUALS at given pt in time)

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58
Q

lab test for fat in stool

A

sudan III stain (stool should normally contain no measurable fat)

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59
Q

Adverse effects of anthracyclines and prevention of that a/e

A

chemo drugs

main a/e = cardiotoxicity due to generation of free radicals –> DCM (swelling of SR and loss of cardiomyocytes –> CHF sx)

tx: dexrazoxane (Fe chelation)

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60
Q

Mutation in SCD vs HbC defect

A

SCD: glutamic acid to valine in beta chain

HbC: glutamic acid to lysine in beta chain

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61
Q

Mechanism of action of most N. meng vaccines

A

target the polysaccharide capsule to facilitate bacterial opsonization, phagocytosis, and clearance of organism from blood to prevent hematogenous dissemination

what would be even better is targeting pilus (mechanism of invading nasopharyngeal epithelium to get access to blood in first place)

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62
Q

Diphenoxylate

A

opioid mu receptor agonist used in low doses to slow GI motility and decrease diarrhea symptoms in uncomplicated diarrhea

often combined with atropine to lead to a/es if taken in high doses (discourage abuse)

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63
Q

Three areas of portosystemic shunt in portal htn and veins involved

A

caput medusae: paraumbilical veins (portal) –> superficial and inferior epigastric veins (systemic)

hemorrhoids: superior rectal vv (portal) –> middle and inferior rectal vv (systemic)

esophageal varices: left gastric (portal) –> esophageal (systemic)

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64
Q

Rare mu opioid a/e that causes abd pain

A

contraction of smooth muscle cells in sphincter of oddi –> spasm and increase in common bile duct pressure, may –> biliary colic in pressure in gallbladder increases

d/c

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65
Q

isolated atrial amyloidosis is due to ___

A

deposition of abnormally folded ANP-derived proteins (increased incidence with age)

can also happen in pancreas with DM, in pituitary with prolactin-derived proteins, in thyroid with calcitonin-derived proteins in medullary thyroid cancer etc

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66
Q

Urine is diluted in the ____

concentrated in the ____

A

diluted in ascending loop of henle (electrolytes, but not water, are reabs) - concentrated on way down LoH, diluted on way back up

concentrated in collecting duct (via ADH –> aquaporin translocation and water reabs driven by high osm of medullary interstitium)

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67
Q

porphyria

A

deficiencies in heme synthesis enzymes

urinary porphobilingoen may = elevated

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68
Q

HIT

A

IgG against heparin-platelet factor 4 –> Fc of IgG binds and activates plts –> clotting and depletion of plts

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69
Q

hot tub folliculitis

A

pseudomonas

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70
Q

Campylobacter can be acquired from…

A

domestic animals or contaminated food

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71
Q

DRESS syndrome

A

drug rxn with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms

rare, can be life-threatening, 2-8 weeks after start antiseizure, allopurinol, sulfonamides, abx (eg minocycline, vanc)

prob causes herpesvirus reactivation –> clonal expansion of T cells that cross react with drug

sx: fever, LAD, facial edema, skin rash
tx: d/c drug

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72
Q

drugs most commonly linked to anca-associated vasculitis

A

hyperthyroidism drugs and hydralazine

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73
Q

mixed cryoglobulinemia

A

small- to medium-vessel vasculitis caused by circulating Ig-complement complexes

often assoc with chronic inflamm state

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74
Q

glucogenic amino acids vs ketogenic AAs

A

both: phenylalanine, isoleucine, tryptophan
ketogenic: leucine, lysine
glucogenic: alanine, serine, asparagine, aspartate

glucogenic = producing intermiediates of TCA cycle or pyruvate

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75
Q

2nd gen antipsychotics with greatest risk of…

metabolic syndrome/weight gain?

QT prolongation

agranulocytosis?

prolactin elevation?

A

onazapine and clozapine

ziprasidone (QT)

clozapine (agran)

risperidone (prolactin)

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76
Q

cervicofacial actinomycosis

A

slow growing mass that –> chronic face and neck abscesses complicated by cutaneous sinus tracts due to actinomyces infxn (often after dental work etc)

tx: parenteral pcn and surgical debridement

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77
Q

diuretics that can –> hypercalcemia and hyperuricemia

A

thiazides

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78
Q

infliximab

A

anti-tnf-alpha used for RA, AS, Crohn’s

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79
Q

IL-2 as treatment

A

activates T cells to aid in tumor cell destruction, used in RCCA and melanoma

T cells then secrete more IL-2

also promotes growth of B cells and activation of NK cells and monocytes

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80
Q

aldosterone escape

A

high aldo levels –> increased intravasc volume –> increased RBF and increased ANP –> compensatory increase in Na excretion from kidneys, so net sodium in body doesn’t increase much, and pt doesn’t get too volume overloaded

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81
Q

RPF vs RBF

A

RPF = RBF*(1-Hct)

need RPF to calculate FF (=GFR/RPF)

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82
Q

Alemtuzumab

A

anti-CD52 used to treat CLL (binds CD52 and initiates direct cytotoxic killing through complement and Ig-dependent, CMI)

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83
Q

IFN-gamma

A

increases expression of MHC I and II –> improved antigen presentation

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84
Q

symptoms of serotonin syndrome

A

abnormal mental status, autonomic hyperactivity, muscular rigidity with hyperreflexia

seen with SSRIs

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85
Q

Epistasis

A

allele of one gene affects phenotypic expression of alleles in another gene

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86
Q

congenital torticollis

A

due to birth trauma (eg breech) or malposition of head in utero –> SCM injjury and fibrosis (may come with other MS anomalies, like hip dysplasia, clubfoot etc)

clinical diag: noticed around 2-4 weeks, head = tilted toward affected side with chin pointed away and soft tissue mass over affected SCM

tx = stretching exercises

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87
Q

maternal htn can cause?

A

asymmetric IUGR (normal or almost-normal head size with reduced abdominal circumference)

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88
Q

Pneumoconioses vs. hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

Asbestosis - ferruginous bodies, pleural plaques, interstitial infiltrate in lower lobes (CXR)

Berylliosis - ill-definednodular opacities on CXR; histo: noncaseating epithelioid granulomas (looks like sarcoid)

Coal - nodualr interstitial opacities; histo: coal dust-laden macrophages

Silica - eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes; histo: birefringent silica particles surrounded by fibrosis

hypersensitivity pneumonitis - diffuse interstitial infiltrates on CXR; histo: noncaseating granulomas

can all present with DOE

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89
Q

E Coli feature that allows some strains to colonize and ascend urinary tract?

A

fimbriae (adhesive proteins) –> pyelo, bacteremia/sepsis

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90
Q

PNH

A

sx: hemolytic anemia, pancytopenia, hypercoagulability
pathophys: due to acquired mutation of PIGA gene within clonal population of multippotent hematopopietic stem cells, so can’t make GPI anchor, and thus can’t attach CD55 (DAF) and CD59 (MAC inhibitory protein) – diag based on flow –, so can’t inactivate complement, which will cause MAC to form on normal cells –» comp-mediated hemolysis

thrombotic complications (eg budd chiari) due to release of free hgb and oother prothrombotic factors from lysed RBCs and plts

fundamentally a stem cell disorder, which is why you get pancytopenia

tx: eculizumab (complement inhibitor)

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91
Q

consequence of cardiac rupture and timing post-MI

A

usually 5-14 days, when coag necrosis, PMN/macrophage infiltration, and enzymatic lysis of CT is going on

consequence: severe hypotension and shock –> pulseless electrical activity and death (due to tamponade and hemopericardium in free wall rupture - most common site of rupture)

vs true aneurysm = late complication (>1month) - rarely rupture b/c surrounded by tough epicardium

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92
Q

pre-op treatment of carcinoid

A

octreotide (decrease diarrhea since it inhibits GI hormones)

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93
Q

cabergoline

A

DA agonist (used to treat GH-secreting or PRL-secreting tumors)

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94
Q

only DNA pol ___ has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease

A

1, used to remove RNA primer

all three DNA pols have 3’ to 5’ exonuclease for proofreading

these = in prokaryotes

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95
Q

if see bloody diarrhea with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal insufficiency?

A

think HUS, usually due to E Coli O157:H7

usually undercooked ground beef, person-to-person contact, raw unpasteurized milk, sewage-contam water

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96
Q

lysogenization

A

bacteriophage infects host bacterium and integrates its genome into host bacterium genome

ex: Shiga-like toxin, botulinum toxin, cholera toxin, diphtheria toxin, erythrogenic toxin of Strep pyogenes (scarlet fever)

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97
Q

Transformation

A

abitility to take up naked dna from environment

eg Strep pneumo acquires its capsule machinery that way (thus becoming pathogenic)

also H flu, Neisseria

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98
Q

patients with inherited terminal complement defects (can’t form MAC) have increased susc to ____

A

Neisseria

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99
Q

patients with decreased CMI have increased susc to ___

A

intracellular bacteria (Salmonella, shigella, M TB, listeria), viruses, fungi

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100
Q

Mallory Weiss vs. Boerhaave syndrome

A

Mallory-weiss = upper GI mucosal tear

Boerhaave = esophageal transmural tear –> vomiting, chest/upper abd pain, and rapid fever, dyspnea and septic shock

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101
Q

Three causes of nausea/vomiting with different antiemetcs

A

GI-related (eg traveler’s diarrhea) - use serotonin antagonist (GI irritation –> ser release) - eg ondansetron

Central nausea (eg migraines) = da induced, so can use DA antag (eg metoclopramide, promethazine)

Vestibular nausea (eg motion sickness) - use first-gen (cross BBB) H1 receptor antag (eg diphenhydramine, meclizine) or mAChR antagonists (eg scopolamine)

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102
Q

When would you use atropine in MI?

A

inferior MI (right coronary artery blockage –> decreased perfusion to SA and AV node), so give atropine to decrease vagal influence on AV and SA nodes and thus increase HR

but comes with usual atropine a/es (eg angle closure glaucoma due to mydriasis)

also used to treat other causes of bradycardia (eg heart block)

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103
Q

Increased optic cup:disc ratio

A

sign of open angle glaucoma (pale disc, big cup)

progressiv eloss of ganglion cell axons causes the change, causing progressive loss of peripheral visual fields

tx: decrease aqueous production (eg CA inhibitors, alpha agonistis [eg brimonidine - vasocon in ciliary body], beta blockers [eg timolol]) or increase outflow (eg with prostaglandins)

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104
Q

Drugs to decrease aqueous humor production

A

CA inhibitors (decrease formation of bicarb in ciliary body)

alpha agonists (eg brimonidine) - vasocon of ciliary body

beta antag (eg timolol)

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105
Q

Drugs to increase aq humor drainage

A

topical prostaglandins (eg latanoprost) - ?mech

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106
Q

HPV has predilection for _____ type of epithelium, so mostly found as warts on _____

A

stratified sq epithelium - anal canal, vagina, cervix, and true vocal cords (only part of resp tract with strat sq epith to protect from constant friction of speech)

may see these vocal cord warts in babies born to infected moms

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107
Q

Positive likelihood ratio

A

prob of diseased person testing positive (sensitivity) / prob of nondiseased person testing positive (1-specificity)

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108
Q

Negative likelihood ratio

A

likelihood of having the disease given a negative result

prob of diseased person testing negative (1-sensitivity) / prob of nondiseased person testing negative (specificity)

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109
Q

Fragile X

A

physical sx: macroorchidism, dysmorphic (long) facies

neuropsych: ID, dev delay, ASD, ADHD
cause: mutation of FMR1 gene on X chrom (expanded trinucleotide repeat) –> gene hypermethylation (so gene is inactivated)

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110
Q

Rheumatoid factor

A

IgM antibody specific for Fc component of self IgG

binds IgG and forms ICs that circulate in serum and deposit in synovium and cartilage –> complement activation and chronic inflamm

produced when CD4 cells are activated by collagen proteins and stimulate B cells to make RF

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111
Q

anti-centromere vs anti-dsDNA

A

centromere = CREST

dsDNA = SLE

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112
Q

Effect of IFN-alpha and beta on virally infected cells

A

synthesized in most cells in response to viral infection, but antiviral enzymes that are made when they bind their receptors are only activated in presence of dsRNA (virally infected cells) –> prevent protein synth and thus viral replication

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113
Q

IFN alpha, beta, gamma

A

alpha and beta are made by all cells in response to viral infection –> antiviral enzymes that are activated only in presence of dsRNA (viral) and decrease protein synth to stop viral replication

  • alpha and beta also induce MHC I expression –> more NK and cytotoxic T cells –> more apop of infected cells
  • gamma is produced by NK and T cells –> Th1 differentiation, increased MHC2 expression, and improved intracellular killing ability of macrophages
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114
Q

anterolateral humeral fracture injures the ____

A

radial nerve (pushes humerus anterior and laterally, where radial runs, eg falling on outstretched hand/hyperextension)

sx: wrist drop

vs if injure the radial as it passes through supinator canal (eg due to repetitive pronation/supination, trauma, dislocation of radius), then get weakness on finger and thumb extension, but triceps and wrist extensor = OK (branches come off before the deep branch of the radial nerve passes around lateral epicondyle of humerus and into forearm through the canal)

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115
Q

anteromedial humeral fracture - caused by what and injures what?

A

caused by hyperextension (eg falling on outstretched hand) that pushes humerus medially and forward

injures brachial artery and median nerve

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116
Q

hyperflexion injures what nerve?

A

ulnar (runs posterior to medial epicondyle, so when humerus is displaced posteriorly, it gets injured)

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117
Q

biceps tendon injury happens how, usually?

A

older people who are lifting something (so biceps is flexed) and then rapidly extend

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118
Q

hemorrhagic cystisis is side effect of what chemo?

A

Cyclophosphamide/ifosfamide

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119
Q

chemo that can cause CHF?

A

doxorubicin (anthracycline + chemo)

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120
Q

pulmonary toxicity induced by which chemo drug?

A

bleomycin (progressive pulm fibrosis)

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121
Q

Cholestasis and hepatitis associated with which chemo drug?

A

mercaptopurine

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122
Q

ToF is primarily a ____ defect

A

abnormal neural crest cell migration –> deviation of infundibular septum (so get malaligned VSD and overriding aorta)

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123
Q

Endocardial cushion defect results in ___

A

ASD or VSD with left-to-right shunting; eventually reverses (Eisenmenger) and get late-presentation cyanosis

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124
Q

Somatomedin C

A

insulin-like growth factor (released in response to GH a nd stimulates growth)

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125
Q

POMC = precursor to ____

A

beta-endorphin, ACTH, MSH

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126
Q

Spread of H. flu vs N. meng to brain

A

H. Flu: pharynx –> lymphatics –> meninges

N. meng: pharynx –> blood via mucosal epithelium –> choroid plexus –> meninges

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127
Q

Musculocutaneous innervates

A

biceps and brachialis (elbow flexion)

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128
Q

Suprascapular n innervates

A

supraspinatus and infraspinatus (shoulder abduction and lateral rotation)

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129
Q

grabbing from above –>

A

lower brachial plexus (ulnar and median) injury

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130
Q

fall on outstretched hand

A

usually injures radial (anterolateral fracture; also with middle humerus fracture)

anteromedial fracture can injure median nerve/brachial artery

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131
Q

Zolpidem

A

short-acting hypnotic, used for insomnia b/c less addiction/tol potential, no anticonvulsant properties or muscle relaxing effects

otherwise similar to benzos (and sometimes long-acting benzos like furazepam are used for insomnia, but increased risk of dependence)

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132
Q

How does epi make glucose available?

A
  • adipose: increased breakdwon of TGs –> gluconeo
  • liver: increased glycogenolysis and gluconeo
  • skel muscle: decreased glucose uptake and increased alanine release (source for gluconeo)

with starvation, renal gluconeo starts (epi stimulates it more than glucagon)

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133
Q

Side effects of TB drugs

A

Rifampin - red/orange fluids, GI, cytopenias

Isoniazid - B6 deficiency, hepatotox

Pyrazinamide - hepatotox, hyperuricemia

Ethambutol - optic neuropathy (central scotoma, decreased acuity, color blindness)

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134
Q

Viruses that acquire envelope by budding through host cell nuclear membrane (most bud through plasma membrane of host)

A

herpesviruses

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135
Q

CD21

A

receptor for C3d on B cells (so CD21 b cells are infected with EBV and proliferate, though not as much as activated CD8 T cells)

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136
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome

A

compression of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus and/or subclavian vein and/or subclavian artery as it passes through scalene triangle (between scalene mm and first rib) –> UE nubmness, tingling, weakness +/- swelling (vein compression) +/- exertional pain (artery compression)

may be caused by anomalous cervical rib, scalene muscle abnormalities, or injury (eg repetitive overhead arm mvmts)

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137
Q

methylmalonic acidemia

A

aut rec deficiency in methylmalonyl-CoA mutase

so threonine, methionine, valine, isoleucine, and odd-chain FAs are converted to propionyl CoA, which is converted to methylmalonyl CoA, but no enzyme to convert that to Succinyl CoA to run TCA –> buiild up of propionic and methylmalonic acid

acidemia –> inhibits urea cycle and gluconeo

also overall increased metabolic rate -> decreased glucose, increased FFA metabolism and ketone production

overall: anion gap metabolic acidosis, hypoglycemia, ketosis, and hyperammonemia

confirm diag with elevatred urine MMA and propionic acid

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138
Q

Causes of sma syndrome

A

transverse duodenum gets stuck between aorta and SMA if angle between them decreases

eg due to sudden weight loss, severe burns or othe rinducers of catabolism, prolonged bedrest, lordosis etc (all diminish fat between aorta and sma)

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139
Q

Intrapartum infections

A

HSV, Chlaymydia, Neisseria, viruses (all can cause ophthalmia neonaturm/conjunctivitis), GBS sepsis

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140
Q

Most common presentation of post-procedure atheroembolism?

A

acute kidney injury (chol-containing debris from deposits in bigger arteries is dislodged and lands in kidney vasculature)

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141
Q

tumor like pheo but that’s outside adrenal medulla?

A

paraganglioma

Rule of 10’s: 10% of pheos are:

bilateral
extra-adrenal (paragang)
malignant

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142
Q

acute, painless loss of vision is due to ___

A

central retinal artery occlusion

findings: pale retina, cherry-red macula (fovea gets own blood supply from choroid, which you can see underneath)

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143
Q

amaurosis fugax

A

painless, transiet (few sec), monocular vision loss due to small embolus to ephthalmic artery

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144
Q

activation of glycogen phosphorylase in liver vs. muscle

A

to be activated, needs to be phosphorylated by phosphorylase kinase

in liver, that happesn when epi and glucagon increase cAMP via Gs

in skel muscle, no glucagon receptors, so epi –> increased cAMP but more potently, ACh with skeletal muscle contraction –> CICR from SR –> glycogen breakdown (synchronizing muscle contraction and glycogen breakdown so mm have adequate energy to contract)

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145
Q

C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency causes _____?

c/i drug?

A

hereditary angioedema

ACEi are contraindicated (further increase bradykinin)

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146
Q

Central regulator of Fe homeostasis and wher eis it made?

A

hepcidin, made in liver

hepicidin (released with high Fe and inflamm) –> less ferroporptin –> decreased intestinal iron abs and less Fe released from macrophages

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147
Q

Metyrapone stimulation test

A

indicator of HPA axis integrity

give metyrapone, which prevents conversion of deoxycortisol to cortisol, so decreased cortisol should –> increased CRH and ACTH –> increased 11-deoxycortisol (trying to make cortisol)

11-deoxycortisol builds up in blood and is excreted in urine as 17-hydroxycorticosteroid, so measure these to make sure they increase; sign that axis works

if they don’t increase, either pituitary isn’t releasing ACTH or adrenal isn’t responding to it (2ary or 1ary adrenal insufficiency; distinguish by whether or not there’s ACTH - if yes, then it’s primary)

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148
Q

Adenoma carcinoma mutation sequence in CRC

A

APC mut -> polyp –> KRAS mut (unregulated cell cycle prolif) –> bigger adenoma –> p53 and DCC/other tumor suppressor mutation –> carcinoma

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149
Q

Three features that determine malig potential of adenomatous polyps

A

size, villous histo, dyplasia

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150
Q

Nitrogen dioxide poisoning

A

toxic product of combustion (eg firefighters = at risk)

sx: similar to asthma or COPD, imaging may reveal pulm edema

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151
Q

Elderly pt with hip fracture - worry about osteonecrosis b/c of which vessel?

A

blood supply to femoral neck is mainly medial circumflex artery - esp vulnerable to damage from fractures

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152
Q

____ forms from fusion of 2 medial nasal prominences; failure –> ______

the product of that fusion then fuses with the ______ to form the upper lip and primary palate; failure –> cleft lip

cleft palate results from ____

A

intermaxillary segment from fusion of 2 medial nasal prominences; failure –> severe midline defects (eg holoprosencephaly)

intermax segment then fuses with left and right maxillary prominences to form upper lip and primary palate

cleft palate if maxillarty promeinences –> palatine shelves, and the shelves don’t fuse

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153
Q

Pierre-Robin sequence

A

Severe micrognathia from hypoplasia of mandibular prominence –> posterior displacement of tongue and no fusion of secondary palate (so cleft palate)

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154
Q

“Ragged red fibers”

A

mitochondrial myopathies (can’t run ox phos so present with myopathy, lactic acidosis, NS dysfxn)

heteroplasmy

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155
Q

IL-12 receptor deficiency - consequences and tx?

A

consequences: can’t stimulate helper T to differentiate into Th1, so no IFN-gamma –> activated macrophages and thus can’t defend against intracellular bugs (eg mycobacteria)

tx = IFN-gamma

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156
Q

How does TNF-alpha (and also catecholamines, glucocorticoids, and glucagon) induce insulin resistance?

A

active serine kinases –> phophorylation of serines on insulin receptor and its substrate –> inhibit downstream signaling upon insulin binding

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157
Q

Vessels with lowest O2 content in the body?

A

Coronary sinus (coronary venous blood - myocardial O2 extraction is very high, so by the time it’s done, O2 content is lower than in vena cavae)

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158
Q

Sturge Weber syndrome

A

Enc phalotrigeminal angiomatosis

Cut facial and leptomeningeal angiomas, ID, seizures, hemiplegic, skull radioopacities

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159
Q

Tuberous sclerosis

A

CNS Hamartomas, cutaneous angiofibromas, visceral cysts, renal angiomyolipoma S, cardiac Rhabdomyomas, seizures

Aut dom

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160
Q

Bortezomib

A

proteasome inhibitor used to treat MM

b/c B cells are pumping out lots of Ig (protein), so especially susc to proteasome inhib (–> accum of toxic proteins that can’t be broken down + pro-apoptotic factors –> apop)

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161
Q

____ inhibit macrophage elastase in the lungs

____ inhibit PMN elastase

A

TIMPs inhibit macrophages

alpha1-antitrypsin inhibits PMNs

when both PMNs and macrophages are releasing their elastases, can degrade each others’ inhibitors and get excess protease activity –> emphysema

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162
Q

Club cells

A

nonciliated cells mostly in terminal bronchioles; secrete protein that protects against airway inflamm and oxidative stress and surfactant components that prevent bronchiolar collapse

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163
Q

Ras overexpression

A

Ras protein is part of MAP-kinase pathway; overexpression –> cells = more senstiive to mitogenic stimuli

see mutations in pancreatic, gallbladder, colon, endometrial, thyroid, and lung cancer

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164
Q

Prolactin is inhibited by ____

A

progesterone

so lactation is suppressed during pregnancy b/c of high progesterone levels inhibiting anterior pituitary; at delivery, progesterone suddenly drops –> PRL stimulates lactation

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165
Q

restless leg syndrome - tx and drugs that worsen sx?

A

tx: DA agonists (eg ropinirole, pramipexole)

drugs that worsen: steroids, SSRIs, lithium

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166
Q

Nutcracker effect

A

compression of left renal vein between aorta and SMA

may elevate pressure in left renal vein –> left renal vein entrapment syndrome (elevated pressure, flank/abd pain, hematuria)

can –> blood backup and varicocele

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167
Q

Most common ankle sprain

A

anterolateral ligament (anterior talofibular ligament) - medial ligaments (“tibio-“) = stronger and less commonly injured

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168
Q

Terbutaline, ritodrine

A

beta 2 selective agonists

relax the uterus (tocolysis)

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169
Q

alpha 1 selective agonists

A

phenylephrine, methoxamine, mitodrine (used to dilate pupil during opthalm exam)

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170
Q

Leucovorin

A

folinic acid

given to reverse myelosupp from methotrexate or with sulfadiazine (antifolate abx)

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171
Q

How to diagnose primary CNS lymphoma?

A

EBV PCR in CSF; definitive diag requires brain bx

2nd most common cause of ring-enhancing lesions with mass effect in HIV (after toxo)

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172
Q

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

proliferative disorders of dendritic cells (APCs/macrophages of skin and mucosa) and macrophages

cells contain tennis-racket shaped Birbeck granules

sx: lytic bone lesions, skin rash, recurrent otitis media with mastoid mass (kids), defective antigen presentation

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173
Q

Bohr vs. haldane effects

A

Bohr: in periphery, increased CO2 + H2) –> H+ and bicarb, and H+ –> O2 unloading

Haldane (in lungs): increased O2 –> H+ pops off Hgb, combines with bicarb –> CO2 that’s exhaled

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174
Q

Treatment for beta blocker overdose

A

Glucagon –> G protein coupled receptor activation on cardiac myocytes –> act AC –> increased cAMP –> increased [Ca]i and contraction independent of adrenergic receptors

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175
Q

Glaucoma - drugs that decrease aq humor secretion or increase outflow

A

decrease secretion: CA inhibitors (eg acetazolamide), beta blockers (eg timolol)

increase outflow: prostaglandins, cholinomimetics (eg pilocarpine, carbachol)

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176
Q

Ramelteon

A

melatonin agonist used for insomnia in elderly (very safe)

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177
Q

Quetiapine

A

second-gen antipsychotic

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178
Q

2 most common risk fx for ARDS

A

sepsis and pulmonary infections

with sepsis (eg due to UTI) –> cytokines that circulate and activate pulmonary epithelium –> inflamm –> capillary damage and exudate in alveolar space –> hypoxia and respiratory failure

usu presents fast

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179
Q

achondroplasia

A

constitutive activation of FGFR3 –> too much inhibition of chondrocytes, so endochondral ossification is screwed up

vs intramembranous ossification (skull, ribs, pelvis) = ok, since no cartilage precursor to bone

autosomal dominant

vs. GH deficiency –> proportional short stature (both long and flat bones = affected)

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180
Q

CD7

A

T cell marker

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181
Q

CD14

A

surface marker of monocyte-macrophage cell lineage

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182
Q

Reaction formation

A

responding in a manner opposite to one’s actual feelings (eg going to church when have sexual impulses)

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183
Q

projection vs displacement

A

projection = coming up with outside cause for one’s feelings (eg want to have an affair and so believe that partner is cheating on you, justifying your own desire)

displacement = transferring feeling or idea to unrelated person (mom yells at kid because she’s angry at dad)

both immature defense mech

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184
Q

sublimation

A

channeling impulses into socially acceptable behavior (action is similar to desire, but acceptable given personal values - eg feel aggressive toward parent, but channel that aggression into sports)

vs. reaction formation is doing opposite of desire

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185
Q

suppression vs. repression

A

suppression = conscious effort, temporary

repression = involuntarily ignoring idea or feeling

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186
Q

Why don’t we mount effective immune response to Hep C?

A

b/c no proofreading 3’–>5’ exonuclease, so infected with one genotype but high mutation rate –> many different “quasispecies” within given infected individual, esp in hypervariable genomic regions, eg those that code for envelope glycoproteins

lots of new envelope proteins means host can’t mount effective immuen response (just as kill off one quasispecies, new one appears)

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187
Q

t(14; 18)

t(8;14)

A

14;18 = follicular lymphoma (BCL2 act)

8;14 = Burkitt lymphoma (c-myc activation)

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188
Q

Familial conditions that increase risk of ALL

A

Down syndrome, ataxia-telangectasia, NF1

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189
Q

17 alpha hydroxylase deficiency

A

lots of aldo (high BP), ambig sexual char

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190
Q

21-hydroxylase deficiency

A

lots of sex hormones, aldo and cortisol are down

salt wasting, precocious puberty, virilization in girls

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191
Q

Mutations in transthyretin gene cause ?

A

hereditary form of cardiac amyloidosis –> cardiomyopathy, progressive dyspnea, peripheral edema , ascites

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192
Q

Quellung reaction

A

abs bind capsule of encapsulated bacterial organisms, and positive rxn turns capsule opaque and swollen

allows bugs to be visualized under microscope

used to diagnose strep pneumo

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193
Q

Treatment of choice for strep pneumo in pt with pcn allergy

A

macrolides

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194
Q

Most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia (90%)

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency –> buildup of 17-OH progesterone (can test serum levels) shunted to androgens

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195
Q

Long-chain FA degradation - how does it work and congenital defect?

A

carnitine shuttle gets Fatty acyl-CoA into mitochondria

there, oxidation into acyl CoA –> ketone bodies or TCA cycle, if odd chain

systemic primary carnitine deficiency –> can’t get long-chain FAs into mitochondria, so get toxic accum of FAs –> weakness, hypotonia, hypoketotic hypoglycemia

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196
Q

Sarcoid granulomas produce ____

A

ACE and 1,25-vitD (–> hypercalcemia)

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197
Q

BAL results for sarcoidosis vs hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

sarcoidosis: accum of CD4+ T cells and increased CD4:CD8 ratio
hypersensitivity: accum of CD8+ T cells

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198
Q

Chiari I vs. Chiari II

A

Chiari I = ectopic CBL that extends below foramen magnum into verebral canal; presents late with parox occipital headaches and CBL dysfxn

vs. Chiari II = way worse - CBL and medulla herniate through foramen magnum –> aqueductal stenosis and hydrocephalus + sx from compression of medulla; may present neonatatlly with lumbar myelomeningocele that causes LE paralysis

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199
Q

Lesion most commonly underlying stable angina (resolves within 5 min after exertion)

A

fixed atheromatous obstruction of coronary artery(ies) occluding >=75% of lumen

vs ulcerated plaque or thrombus would –> unstable angina (single episode of prolonged pain)

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200
Q

Factors that shift O2-hg dissociation curve to the left

A

Decreased H+ (increased pH)

Decreased temperature (stabilizes bonds and thus increases O2 affinity)

Decreased 2,3 DPG (vs at high altitude, RBCs make more 2,3 DPG –> O2 dumping)

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201
Q

Where is H pylori colonization density the highest?

A

antrum of stomach

(H pylori can only colonize gastric-like areas; may get gastric metaplasia in the duodenum due to increased acid production stimulated by H pylori, in which case bug can colonize that part of duod, but otherwise, not much bug in duod despite common ulcers there from increased acid)

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202
Q

achrocordon

A

skin tag (often seen in areas of friction)

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203
Q

beta blockers - mech of action in thyrotoxicosis

A
  • decrease adrenergic excitation (excess thyroid hormones upregualate beta receptor expression, so block receptor activation with beta blockers)
  • decrease peripheral conversion of T4 to more potent T3
    vs. propylthiouracil and methimazole decrease thyroid hormone SYNTHESIS
    vs. iodide can prevent I uptake and thyroid hormone release
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204
Q

Ghon focus vs. Ghon complex

A

focus = initial infection (focal lesion in mid-to-lower lungs)

complex = when TB spreads to hilar ln + lesion gets walled off and calcified (dormant infxn in lungs)

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205
Q

Rhanke complex

A

benign, calcified complex that forms from resolution of Ghon complex

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206
Q

bronchus more prone to aspiration?

A

R > L

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207
Q

DNAase is produced by which bug

A

Strep pyogenes (GAS)

degrades DNA in pus to facilitate spread of the organism

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208
Q

serum tryptase

A

released from mast cells, so increased in anaphylaxis

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209
Q

QRS vs QT effects in class 1A, 1B, and 1C anti-arrhythmics

A

1A (procainamide): prolong QRS and QT (block Na and some K)

1B (lidocaine): no effect on QRS or QT (block Na but very transiently)

1C (flecainide, propafenone): prolong QRS, no effect on QT (block Na; not K)

vs class 3 (sotalol, amiodarone) specifically block K channels and thus work by prolonging QT

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210
Q

use dependence vs. reverse use-dependence

A

use dependence - class I anti-arrhythmics (more effect with increased heart rate, esp class IC (flecainide, propafenone), which has slow dissociation, so with increased hr it’s all still attached to receptors and having effect - so more prolonged QRS/depolarization time with increased HR)

reverse use dependence - class III antiarrhythmics (K blockers) - the slower the heart rate, the more the QT prolongation

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211
Q

Th1 vs Th2 CD4+ cells

A

Th1 –> cell mediated immunity (eg granulomas of sarcoidosis; driven by IL2 and IFN-gamma (–> macrophage activation))

Th2 –> humoral immunity (IgE [IL4] and IgA [IL5])

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212
Q

polyarteritis nodosa mostly affects ___ and spares ____

A

affects medium-small vessels; generally spares pulmonary vasculature

it’s a segmental, necrotizing, transmural inflamm of arteries anywhere except lungs, but esp in heart, kidneys, liver, and GI tract with common cutaneous sx (eg livedo reticularis)

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213
Q

Tocolytic drugs (to stop preterm labor)

A

nifedipine (CCB) and indomethacin (COX inhibitor so decreases PGs that –> cervical softening and uterine contractions)

also terbutaline (beta ag –> increased cAMP, which inhibits MLCK and keeps myosin in inactive form)

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214
Q

Partial opioid agonist that can provoke opioid withdrawal if taken with full opioids on board

A

buprenorphine (low efficacy, but high affinity/potency, so kicks out any full opioid and can bring person down from high with a crash)

given with naloxone to treat heroin addiction - if taken orally, still get partial agonist effects (“half a high”), but if crush and inject, naloxone becomes bioavailable (opioid antagonist –> no effect/crash)

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215
Q

Best drug to inhibit Xa vs thrombin?

A

Xa - LMWH (eg enoxaparin)

thrombin - unfractionated heparin (long enough to bind both thrombin and antithrombin)

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216
Q

enoxaparin

A

LMWH

also dalteparin (“-parin”)

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217
Q

fondaparinux

A

direct factor Xa inhibitor (also apixaban, rivaroxaban)

these don’t inactivate thrombin, just inhibit Xa

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218
Q

Calcipotriene

A

topical Vitamin D analog used to treat psoriasis

others: calcitriol, tacalcitol

bind to and activate vit D receptor –> inhibition of keratinocyte proliferation, stimulation of keratinocyte differentiation; also inhibits T cell proliferation and inflamm

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219
Q

Ustekinumab

A

monoclonal antibody that targets IL-12 and IL-23, inhibiting differentiation and activation of CD4+ Th1 and Th17 cells

tx of psoriasis

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220
Q

Calcipotriene

A

topical Vitamin D analog used to treat psoriasis

others: calcitriol, tacalcitol

bind to and activate vit D receptor –> inhibition of keratinocyte proliferation, stimulation of keratinocyte differentiation; also inhibits T cell proliferation and inflamm

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221
Q

Ustekinumab

A

monoclonal antibody that targets IL-12 and IL-23, inhibiting differentiation and activation of CD4+ Th1 and Th17 cells

tx of psoriasis

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222
Q

Kallmann syndrome

A

decreased synth of GnRH in HT + anosmia

hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (rare in females - primary amenorrhea, no 2ary sexual char, olfaction deficit)

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223
Q

embyronic vs fetal hgb

A

embryonic/Gower: 2 zeta, 2 epsilon

fetal: 2 alpha, 2 gamma

so fetal can make up for beta thal in late gestation and early postnatal life, when have lots of HbF; only when gamma chain production starts to wane does infant become symptomatic

vs. HbA2 = 2 alpha, 2 delta (very low levels)

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224
Q

Hypoglycemia with high insulin, low C-peptide

Hypoglycemia with high insulin and C-peptide

A

high insulin, low C-peptide = exogenous insulin abuse

both high = excess endogenous insulin due to sulfonylurea use or insulinoma

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225
Q

somatostatin

A

inhibits release of insulin, gastrin, secretin, HCl in stomach, CCK (stimulates gastric motility)

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226
Q

Before starting TNFalpha inhibitor, test for ____

A

TB

TNF-alpha is necessary for CMI, especially for sequestration of mycobacteria in granulomas, so treating with inhibitor can –> reactivation (and increased susceptibility tofungi and other mycobacteria)

TNFalpha inhibitors: infliximab, adalimumab [antibodies to TNF-alpha], etanercept (decoy receptor for TNF-alpha)

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227
Q

Baseline and f/u:

opthalmologic exams with ____

echo with ____

PFTs with ____

FOBT with ____

A

eye: hydroxychloroquine (retinal damage can occur with long-term use)
heart: anthracyclines (eg doxorubicin)
lung: amiodarone, methotrexate (lung + liver)

GI bleed: NSAIDs

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228
Q

Recurrent hemarthroses =

Petechiae and ecchymoses =

DVT, cerebral vein thrombosis, and recurrent pregnancy loss =

A

hemarthroses = hemophilia

petechiae/bruising = plt problem

DVT and other thrombotic stuff = FActor V leiden

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229
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica vs fibromyalgia

A

PR: pain and stiffness in shoulders and hips, often with fever, malaise, weight loss; age >=50yo; evidence of inflamm (increased ESR, CRP)

Fibromyalgia: chronic, widespread stiffness, paresthesias, fatigue; often associated with neuropsych disturbances; no evidence of inflamm

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230
Q

Coronary artery that supplies AV node

A

AV nodal branch off of PDA (usually arises from right coronary artery, except in left dominant people - 10% of pop)

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231
Q

Supplies lateral/posterior walls of LV and anterolateral papillary muscle

vs. posterior interventricular septum, posterior ventricles, posteromedial papillary muscle, AV node

A

left circumflex coronary artery = lateral/posterior LV

PDA = posterior interventricular septum + posterior ventricles and AV node

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232
Q

coronary artery that supplies anterior interventricular septum, anterolateral papillary muscle, anterior surface of LV

A

LAD - most commonly occluded in CAD

aka the anterior interventricular artery

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233
Q

coronary artery that supplies the SA node branches off the ?

A

right coronary (atrial branch)

vs marginal branch supplies RV

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234
Q

B12 CNS/PNS degeneration sites

A

dorsal columns

lateral corticospinal tracts (so get UMN signs)

axonal degeneration of peripheral nn (numbness/paresthesias)

subacute COMBINED neurodegen

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235
Q

Polio primarily affects the ___ of the spinal cord

A

anterior horns

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236
Q

ovary torsion around ____ cuts off its blood supply

A

ovarian artery, vein, and nerve pleus run in infundibulopelvic ligament (aka suspensory ligament of the ovary)

connects ovaries to lateral pelvic wall

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237
Q

___ ligament connects the uterus to the pelvic walls bilaterally

A

broad ligament (peritoneal tissue

mesosalpinx = part of it that connects fallopian tubes to pelvic wall

mesometrium = part that connects uterus to pelvic walls

mesovarium = part that connects ovary to lateral pelvic wall

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238
Q

connects ovary to uterus

A

ovarian ligament

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239
Q

ligament that maintains uterine anteflexion

A

round ligament (runs from lower uterus through inguinal ring to labia majora)

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240
Q

lichen sclerosus

A

patchy, whitish thinning of the skin

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241
Q

Serotonin is made in the _____

ACh is made in the ______

NE is made in the _______

DA is made in the _______

A

serotonin = raphe (midbrain, pons, medulla)

ACh = nucleus basalis of meynert

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242
Q

fast-acting insulins

A

aspart, glulisine, lispro

used for postprandial glucose control, given subQ an dpeak within 45-75min

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243
Q

give ____ insulin via IV in DKA

A

regular insulin (don’t want to do subQ b/c pts are dehydrated, and IV regular insulin onsets as quickly as IV aspart, glulisine, and lispro, all of which are more expensive)

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244
Q

Central vs. peripheral chemreceptors

A

Central = in medulla and sense increased PCO2 (not H+, which can’t cross BBB); O2 has relatively small effect if PaO2 >70 (so only contributes significantly to resp drive in COPD pts with decreased sensitivity to PaCO2 and way decreased PaO2)

Peripheral (aortic and carotid bodies) sense decreased O2, increased CO2, and increased H+

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245
Q

Sx of beta blocker overdose

A

hypoglycemia (if nonspecific), bronchospasm, bradycardia

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246
Q

sx of digoxin overdose

A

screwed up color vision, hyperkalemia (though hypokalemia increases risk of toxicity by facilitating Na/K blocking effects of digoxin), arrhythmia, n/v, abdominal pain, confusion etc

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247
Q

Where does alanine come from and what does it do?

A

main fxn = transport nitrogen to liver for disposal

  1. glutamine utilization in tissues –> alanine –> circulation
  2. cahill cycle: skeletal muscle protein breakdown puts excess nitrogen in alanine, so that it can be transported to liver; N is added to pyruvate, making alanine (and that N comes off of glutamate, turning it into alpha ketoglutarate) - this is reversed in the liver, so alanine gives its N to alpha-ketoglutarate, forming glutamate; NH3 pulled off glutamate, regenerating alpha-keto and that NH3 enters the urea cycle in teh liver –> urea that can be excreted in the urine
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248
Q

most common source of nosebleed (esp in kids)

A

anterior - most in anterior vascular watershed area of nasal septum known as kiesselbach’s plexus (septum is highly vascular and that plexus has 3 anastamoses)

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249
Q

immediate effect of ACEi that subsequently resolves?

A

GFR decreases b/c efferent arteriole can’t constrict

normalizes with time, and Cr will come back down; benefits outweigh risks unless Cr rises by >30%

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250
Q

anterior 2/3 of posterior limb of IC is mostly ___ fibers

posterior 1/3 of posterior limb is mostly ____ fibers

A

anterior = motor (from corticospinal, corticobulbar, corticopontine)

posterior = sensory (from thalamocortical)

so most IC lesions = pure motor or mixed

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251
Q

lacunes

A

small cavitary infarcts in the BG, posterior limb of the IC, pons, and CBL from occlusion of small penetrating arteries (lenticulostriate), usu with chronic htn or DM

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252
Q

primary cause of lacunary infarcts?

A

lipohyalinosis - plasma proteins leak through endothelium damaged by htn etc –> sclerosis, hyaline thickening of wall from collagen deposn, and accum of foamy macrophages

microatheromas - accum of lipid-laden macrophages in intima of vessel where it branches off parent vessel

together –> small vessel occlusion

vs. embolisms usually cause cortical infarcts

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253
Q

PCWP is an indirect measure of…

A

LA pressure

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254
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta - defect and mode of inheritance?

A

defect in type I collagen - bones have no flexibility, prone to fracture

usually autosomal dominant

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255
Q

mechanism of action of fibrates vs niacin

A

fibrates activate ppar-alpha, which activates LPL (breaking down TGs) and decreases VLDL production

NB - fish oil supplements with lots of omega 3’s also lower TGs by decreasing production of VLDLs and Apolipoprotein B (on VLDLs)

Niacin - decreased hormone-sensitive lipase –> less free FA pulled off circulating chylomicrons –> less VLDL made; also decreases ApoA1 clearance –> increased HDL

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256
Q

most common sites of nonocclusive ischemia in the colon

A

splenic flexure and rectosigmoid junction (esp in hypotensive state, eg during surgery, or with underlying arterial insufficiency)

complications of ischemia = acidosis, sepsis, gangrene, perf; see pale mucosa and petechial hemorrhages on colonoscopy

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257
Q

Three types of groin hernias

A
  1. indirect inguinal - male infants, goes through deep inguinal ring, lateral to inferior epigastric vessels
  2. direct inguinal - older men, goes through hesselbach’s triantle, medial to inferior epigastric vessels
  3. femoral - women, through femoral ring, inferior to inguinal ligament (medial to femoral artery and vein); prone to incarceration
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258
Q

Coffee ground emesis

A

blood in vomit where heme iron is oxidized b/c it’s exposed to gastric acid - sign of peptic ulcer

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259
Q

Differences in presentation between PSGN and IgA nephropathy

A

PSGN: no recurrence, 1-3 weeks after strep pharyngitis

IgA: also after mucosal infection (esp URI); hematuria for several days starting within 5 days of infxn, frequent recurrence every few months or with next infxn

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260
Q

stain that gives dense black reaction?

A

osmium tetroxide - stains fat

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261
Q

Humoral vs Cellular mediated acute rejection - histo

A

humoral: neutrophil infiltrate, necrotizing vasculitis, complement activation
cellular: lymphocytic infiltrate, endothelitis

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262
Q

“salt and pepper” chromatin

A

carcinoid tumors

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263
Q

Treatment of peripheral artery disease

A

sx management: cilostazol/dipyridamole (PDE inhibitor to increase cAMP –> vasodil and decreased plt aggregation to relieve claudication sx)

antiplt agent (aspirin, clopidogrel etc) to prevent coronary heart dz and stroke

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264
Q

central line is placed where?

A

venous system and advanced into SVC for rapid infusion of fluids

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265
Q

Treatment of pregnancy-related VTE

A

LMWH (best balance of risks and benefits to mom and fetus - easily reversed at delivery, good F, doesn’t cross placenta)

eg dalteparin, enoxaparin

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266
Q

Treatment of pregnancy-related VTE

A

LMWH (best balance of risks and benefits to mom and fetus - easily reversed at delivery, good F, doesn’t cross placenta)

eg dalteparin, enoxaparin

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267
Q

pralidoxime

A

“regenerates” AChE, so reverses effects of mACh and nACh overstimulation (eg with organophosphate poisoning)

vs. atropine etc is a mAChR blocker, so only reverses effect of poisoning at mACh receptors

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268
Q

SD vs SEM

A

SD = spread of individual values in given population; indication of how far the individual mean is from the sample mean

SEM = SD/(n^1/2) to estimate true mean of underlying, whole population; indication of how far the sample mean is from the population mean

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269
Q

Treacher-Collins syndrome

A

abnormal development of first and second pharyngeal arches –>craniofacial abnormalities (mandibular, maxillary, zygomatic bone hypoplasia that can –> airway compromise and feeding difficulty), absent/abnormal ossicles (conductive hearing loss)

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270
Q

scrofula

A

cervical lymphadenitis in kids caused by mycobacterium scrofulaceum in/around environmental water sources

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271
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency

A

defieciency of B and T cells –> hypogammaglobulinemia

  • many causes, usually becomes symptomatic in older kids/adults

CMI isn’t as affected as in SCID, don’t see thymic aplasia

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272
Q

Bupropion is contraindicated in ___-

A

pts with seizure disorders or eating disorders (lowers seizure threshold, esp bad if already have some kind of electrolyte imbalance)

but pts like it because less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfxn than other depression treatments (eg SSRIs)

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273
Q

most common cause of spontaneous lobar/cortical hemorrhage in the elderly?

A

cerebral amyloid angiopathy

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274
Q

Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm rupture?

A

chronic htn = cause –> hemorrhagic cortical stroke of deep brain structures

CT: hyperdense focus

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275
Q

neprilysin

A

MMP that inactivates endogenous peptides (BNP, ANP, glucagon, oxytocin, bradykinin etc)

inhibit it to increase levels of endogenous natriuretic peptides to treat HF

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276
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

overuse injury of secondary ossification center of tibial tubercle, usually in adolescent after growth spurt and repetitive contraction of quads –> patellar tendon separates from tibial tubercle –> healing causes patella to become elevated and prominent

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277
Q

pes anserinus bursitis

A

common injury in runners, causes anteromedial knee pain

pes anserinus = where sartorius inserts on anteromedial tibia shaft

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278
Q

Iron absorption occurs in _____

A

duodenum and proximal jejunum

also B12 and folate

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279
Q

vitamin C is abosrbed in the _____

A

distal small bowel (ileum) via active transport

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280
Q

B6 absorption occurs in the ____-

A

jejunum and ileum

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281
Q

B5 and B7 absorption occurs in the _____

A

small and large intestine via sodium-dependent multivitamin transporter, so deficiency with resection is rare

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282
Q

Stomach ulcer vs erosion

A

erosion is confined to mucosa (doesn’t go through muscularis mucosa) - usually due to acute, severe mucosal injury (eg burn, surgery, NSAIDs, smoking, alcohol) - can still cause upper GI hemorrhage and melena; usually pain, n/v that subside after withdrawing offending agent

ulcer goes through mucosa into submucosa

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283
Q

urticaria vs. angioedema - location of inflamm/edema

A

urticaria = superficial dermis edema and inflamm (with normal epidermis)

angioedema = deep dermis edema and inflamm

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284
Q

acantholysis

A

loss of cohesion between keratinocytes in the epidermis

found in pemphigus

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285
Q

nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis is most commonly associated with _____

A

advanced malignancy, chronic inflamm disorders (eg APLS, SLE), and DIC

usually asymptomatic, but thrombi = easier to dislodge than in IE –> infarction

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286
Q

Most laryngeal muscles are innervated by the ____

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve (mm = cricoarytenoids, arytenoids, tyroarytenoids)

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287
Q

Nerve at risk of injury during thyroidectomy?

A

external branch of superior laryngeal - runs with superior thyroid artery and vein, and innervates the cricothyroid muscle, so injuring it can –> hoarseness

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288
Q

Barbiturates vs benzos - mechanism?

A

Barbiturates prolong Cl channel opening in response to GABA; at high conc, act as GABA receptor agonists

Benzos –> increased frequency of Cl channel opening

so both bind allosterically to GABA receptor and modulate effect of GABA on it

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289
Q

GABA-A vs GABA-B receptors and drugs that modify each?

A

A = Cl- channels, modulated by benzos and barbs

B = GPCRs on skeletal muscle, modulated by baclofen (muscle relaxant)

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290
Q

theophylline - mech and use?

A

mech: adenosine antagonist and indirect adrenergic agent

used for bronchodilation (increases intracellular cAMP), anti-inflamm, in asthma and COPD

affected by P450 inhibitors and inducers

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291
Q

treatment of drug-induced parkinsonism

A

centrally-acting antimuscarinic agent (eg benztropine, trihyxyphenidyl)

levodopa, but not in psychosis! can induce psychosis

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292
Q

Treatment for extrapyramidal symptoms of antipsychotics

A

dystonia from DA-cholinergic balance, so use M1 antagonists (eg benztropine or diphenhydramine)

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293
Q

most common site of blunt aortic trauma (traumatic rupture)

A

aortic isthmus (where ligamentum arteriosum connects the aorta and the pulmonary trunk, making the aort relatively fixed and immobile there)

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294
Q

route of spermatic cord

A

goes through deep inguinal ring (opening in transveralis fascia, which thus becomes internal spermatic fascia) –> through inguinal canal –> through suyperficial inguinal ring (formed by opening in external oblique muscel aponeurosis, which thus forms the external spermatic fascia)

**cremasteric muscle (between internal spermatic fascia and external spermatic fascia) arises from internal oblique muscle

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295
Q

Benzos should not be used with what other drugs?

Indications for long-acting benzos?

A

Indications: GAD, insomnia, anticonvulsant in SE, muscle relaxant with UMN lesion

Don’t use with other drugs that can cause CNS depression/sedation: alcohol, barbs, neuroleptics, 1st gen antihistamines

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296
Q

Promethazine, hydroxyzine, chlorpheniramine - drug type?

A

first-gen antihistamines

often used to prevent/treat allergic rxns, motion sickness, anti-emetics despite sedation ae

vs. loratadine = second-gen antihistamine (H1) - no CNS effects b/c doesn’t cross BBB

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297
Q

Live vaccines?

Toxoid-based vaccines?

A

Live = zoster, varicella, yellow fever, BCG, typhoid

Toxoids = Tdap (useful for dzs where toxin is the main cause of dz morbidity and mortality)

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298
Q

Docosanol

A

topical agent that prevents viral entry and is used in herpes labialis (usually type 1)

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299
Q

why is acyclovir only effective against viral (not host) cells?

A
  • uptake into host cells is poor
  • has to be phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase
  • host cell DNA pol has lower affinity for acyclovir than viral DNA pol
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300
Q

bugs that can cause cellulitis related to freshwater or seawater exposure?

A

Vibrio vulnificans, Aeromonas (both bacteria)

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301
Q

Vitamin E deficiency sx

A

hemolytic anemia and neuro abnormalities (eg ataxia)

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302
Q

Parasites capable of autoinfxn?

A

strongyloides

stool: rhab. larvae (noninfxs form)
intestine: eggs + adults
lungs: filariform (infxs)

autoinfxn –> hyperinfxn, esp in those with compromised Th2 immunity –> multiorgan dysfxn and septic shock

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303
Q

Detection of parasite eggs in stool is used to diag ___?

A

schistosoma

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304
Q

Detect proglottids in the stool with ____?

A

intestinal tapeworms (eg taenia, diphyllobothrium)

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305
Q

trophozoites and cysts in stool = used to diagnose ___?

A

intestinal protozoal infxns (giardia, entamoeba)

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306
Q

C3 vs C4 in PSGN

A

Decreased C3 (alternative pathway activation); normal (or slightly decreased) C4 (classical pathway)

IC deposition –> alternative pathway activation (not ag-Ig-mediated)

vs in SLE, both C3 and C4 are down (activation of both classical and alternative pathways)

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307
Q

Deficiency in aldolase B causes…

vs. aldose reductase fxn?

A

fructose intolerance

aldose reductase converts galactose to galactitol

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308
Q

enzymes involved in galactose metabolism

A

galactokinase (deficiency = mild)

then galactose 1phosphate uridyl transferase (GALT - causes classic galactosemia; very severe); get similar sx with much rarer deficiency in udp galactose-4-epimerase, which converts udp galactose to udp glucose, thus allowing galactose-1-p to be converted to glucose-1-p and enter glycolysis

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309
Q

beta-2 microglobulin

A

little protein associated with MHC1 (non-transmembrane component)

vs. invariant chain is associated with MHC2 and is lost when MHC2 finds antigen in phagolysosome, allowing complex to move to cell membrane

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310
Q

germ tube test

A

candida test - grow out candida albicans on serum at body temp and it forms true hyphae from yeast (germ tubes)

look like circles with long bits coming off them

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311
Q

major basic protein

A

found in eosinophil granules, defends against parasites

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312
Q

tartrate resistant acid phosphatase

A

hairy cell leukemia cell marker (B lymphocyte precursors)

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313
Q

Auer rods stain positively for ___ and are found in ____

A

stain for myeloperoxidase

indicate myeloid differentiation, seen in AML

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314
Q

Fidaxomicin

A

related to macrolides

oral drug, bacteriocidal, minimal systemic abs, and narrow spectrum so doesn’t wipe out normal colonic flora as much as vanc or metronidazole, making it good for RECURRENT C DIFF (decreases recurrence rates than with vanc)

vs use metronidazole for initial treatment of c diff or first recurrence

and use oral vanc for severe initial or recurrent c diff

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315
Q

skeletal system mets get there how?

A

hematogenous spread

vertebral venous plexus is connected to lots of local venous plexuses and runs stragiht into venous supply of the brain

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316
Q

neuroleptic malignant syndrome vs. serotonin syndrome

A

both: mental status changes, hyperthermia, autonomic instability

NMS: diffuse rigidity and bradyreflexia; tx = direct muscle relaxant (dantrolene)

serotonin synd: neuromusc hyperactivity (hyperreflxia, clonus), n/v/d; tx = serotonin antag (cyproheptadine)

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317
Q

treatment of delirium

A

primary: treat underlying cause

for acute treatment of agitation and psychosis associated with delirium: high-potency first-gen antipsychotics (eg haloperidos)

DON’T USE BENZOS! can worsen confusion

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318
Q

Fast acetylators of isoniazid also acetylate ____ quickly

A

dapsone, hydralazine, and procainamide –> need higher doses

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319
Q

fever + tinnitus + tachypnea

A

suspect aspirin intoxication

mixed resp alk + metabolic acidosis

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320
Q

sequence of reproductive system development

A
  1. gonadal (testes vs ovaries)
  2. genital duct
  3. external genitalia
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321
Q

Infarct types from small vs. large PEs

A

small: go into peripheral branches of pulm artery and produce wedge-shaped infarct
big: wedge in pulmonary artery bifurcation (saddle emboli)

dual blood supply to lungs –> hemorrhagic infarcts (red) - bronchial blood hemorhagges into area infarcted by pulmonary arteries

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322
Q

22q11 deletion - two syndromes

A

Di George - thymus, parathyroid (and hypoCa), and cardiac defects (ToF, interrupted aortic arch etc)

Velocardiofacial syndrome - cleft palate, cardiac anomalies, dysmorphic facies (orbital hypertelorism, short palpebral fissures and philtrum, cleft palate, bifid uvula)

mut = chromosomal microdeletion (see it with FISH)

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323
Q

Liver synthetic fxn abnormal in acute hepatic failure

A

coagulation (b/c factor 7 has short t1/2, vs albumin has long t1/2)

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324
Q

Effect of PPIs on serum Ca

A

decrease Ca and Mg abs –> increased risk of osteoporosis

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325
Q

escitalopram

A

SSRI

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326
Q

Factitious vs malingering vs conversion disorders

A

Factitious = intentional falsification or inducement of sx with goal of assuming SICK ROLE; no conscious awareness of why they’re doing it

malingering = falsification or exaggeration of sx to obtain EXTERNAL INCENTIVES

conversion disorder = neuro sx incompatible with any known neuro dz; often onset with acute stress (genuine sx, no effort to deceive)

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327
Q

Chronic renal vs pulm rejection

A

kidney: vascular damage
lung: bronchiole damage - bronchiolitis obliterans, (vs acute rejection = CD8 T cell-mediated damage of vessels)

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328
Q

marker for OB activity? OC activity?

A

OB: alk phos (distinguish from liver alk phos by electrophoresis, specific monoclonal Ig, and heat denaturation)

OCs: urinary deoxypyridinoline (released into circ when collagen cross links are broken) and hydroxyproline (also collagen breakdown product, but not as specific b/c found in lots of meat products)

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329
Q

chronic mesenteric ischemia

A

similar to exertional angina - atherosclerotic decrease in bloodflow to GI tract only presents as problem within an hour after meals when more blood is needed for digestion/absorption

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330
Q

Medicare covers ?

A

pts > 65yo who are US citizens, residents, and have paid into system (taxes)

also younger pts with disabilities, ESRD, and ALS

vs. pregnant women and babies = covered by medicaid

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331
Q

First line tx of essential htn and AEs

A

thiazide diuretics

AEs: elevation of glucose, uric acid, and calcium, so don’t use in DIABETICS, GOUT, OR HYPERCA

332
Q

cricothyrotomy goes through:

A

skin, superficial cervical fascia (subQ fat and platysma), investing and pretracheal layers of deep cervical fascia, and cricothyroid membrane

333
Q

Most common cause of viral gastroenteritis?

A

norovirus

vs adenovirus is less common; more commonly causes pharyngoconjunctivitis and coryza

vs. rotavirus was more common, esp in kids, but has decreased due to childhood vax

334
Q

Blunt trauma to the eye is most likely to cause herniation where?

A

through medial (ethmoid and lacrimal bones) and inferior (orbital floor) walls of orbit (weakest) into the MAXILLARY SINUS

these = ORBITAL BLOWOUT FRACTURES

if go through orbital floor, likely to damage infraorbital nerve (part of maxillary nerve that innervates upper cheek, upper lip, and upper gums –> lack of sensation there), may also entrap inferior rectus (can’t look up) and get enophthalmos

335
Q

Mitral regurg is best heard at the _____

Tricuspid regurg is best heard at the _____

Aortic stenosis is best heard at the ______

A

MR = apex, radiates to axilla; best heard in LLD and decreases with insp

TR = left 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces, increases with insp

AS = right 2nd interspace, radiates to carotids

336
Q

disorganized lamellar bone in mosaic pattern

A

Paget disease

normal serum Ca, P, and PTH

337
Q

osteoid matrix accumulation around trabeculae

A

vitamin D deficiency (excess unmineralized osteoid)

338
Q

spongiosa filling medullary canals with no mature trabeculae

A

osteopetrosis (marble bone disease) - decreased OC bone resorption so accum of woven bone and skeletal thickening

339
Q

trabecular thinning with fewer interconnections

A

osteoporosis

340
Q

subperiosteal thinning of cortical (compact - outer layer) bone in appendicular skeleton (pelvic girdle, pectoral girdle, limbs) with osteolytic cysts in long bones

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

unlike in osteoporosis, trabecular architecture of cortical bone is relatively preserved despite thinning

341
Q

Common cancer cell mech of resistance to chemo drugs, and drugs that inhibit it?

A

MDR1 gene –> P-glycoprotein (transmembrane protein that functions as ATP-dependent efflux pump, pumping out the drugs)

  • verapamil, diltiazem, ketoconazole reduce action of MDR pump
342
Q

Serotonin syndrome sx

A

autonomic instability (hyperthermia, htn, tachycardia)

AMS (agitation, confusion)

neuromuscular hyperactivity (tremor, hyperreflexia, myoclonus etc)

GI sx

diaphoresis

very similar to sx of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

343
Q

Pre-op prophylactic antibiotic choice?

A

cephalosporin (good for normal skin flora, esp staph epidermidis and staph aureus)

344
Q

Sx of organophosphate poisoning

A

depolarizing blockade of NMJ (muscle weakness, fasciculations, paralysis)

CNS effects (lethargy, seizures)

muscarinic overstim (miosis, bradycardia, increased lacrimation and salivation)

345
Q

Hox genes encode ___?

A

transcription factors that regulate which parts of DNA are expressed where (resp for segmental organization of embryo)

346
Q

akathisia: definition + tx?

A

subjective restlessness with inability to sit still

side effect of antipsychotics, usu starts days-weeks after starting drug

tx: decrease antipsychotic dose or treat with beta blocker or benzo

vs tardive dyskinesia = involuntary movements (eg lip smacking) with chronic use

347
Q

Symptoms of serum sickness drug hypersensitivity

A

fever, urticaria, arthralgias, proteinuria, LAD

348
Q

meng CSF findings: bacterial vs viral

A

bacterial: low glucose, high protein, PMNs
viral: normal glucose, high protein, lymphocytes

349
Q

Causes of orchitis

A

Mumps

  • young adults/adolescents: chlamydia and gonorrhea
  • older adults: E Coli
350
Q

Treatment of postherpetic neuralgia

A

first-line: TCAs (decrease reuptake of ser and NE and thus inhibit pain signals), anticonvulsants (eg gabapentin - decrease CNS depolarization)

nonsystemic options: topical capsaicin (loss of membrane potential in nociceptive fibers due to buildup of intracellular ca + release and then depletion of substance P), topical lidocaine (decreased depol of peripheral nn)

351
Q

neuropeptide Y

A

NT in CNS and ANS thought to play role in appetite and pain perception

352
Q

endorphins vs. dynorphins

A

endorphins act on mu opioid receptors

dynorphins act on k opioid receptors

353
Q

Roth spots

A

edematous, hemorrhagic lesions of the retina; immuno

from IC deposition in vv, usually in IE

354
Q

Long-term treatment of panic disorder

A

SSRIs and SNRIs

vs. acute: benzos

355
Q

Angiogenesis is driven by what 2 substances?

A

VEGF (increase endothelial cell motility and prolif)

FGF (endothelial cell proliferation, migration, and differentiation; also contribute to embryonic dev, hematopoiesis,a nd wound repair)

vs. Epidermal growth factor has mitogenic influence on epith cells, hepatocytes, and fibroblasts; not as important in angiogen

356
Q

Barrier to angiogenesis in BM

A

laminin

357
Q

Concentric vs eccentric cardiac hypertrophy

A

concentric = pressure overload (eg HTN)

eccentric = volume overload (eg aortic regurg, chronic HF)

358
Q

Throwing injury - which muscle?

A

lat (thoracodorsal nerve, used for extension, adduction, and internal rotation of humerus)

injured by external trauma and anything that requires forceful downward movement of humerus (eg throwing, serving a tennis ball, climbing)

359
Q

whiplash typically injures which muscle?

A

trapezius

fxn = elevation, rotation, and stabilization of scapula (innervated by CN11)

360
Q

pathogens most often responsible for secondary bacterial pna

A
  1. strep pneumo
  2. staph aureus
  3. h. flu
361
Q

Drugs that improve long-term survival in chronic HF pts

A

BETA BLOCKERS (decrease cardiac work by slowing HR, also decrease circulating levels of vasocon hormones)

also ACE-i, ARBs, aldo antagonists (spironolactone, eplerenone)

362
Q

Ligamenta flava

A

paired elastic ligaments that connect the vertebral laminae and form the posterior wall of the spinal canal

363
Q

erector spinae

A

large muscel group of the back that course longitudinally along the spinous processes (superficial back)

364
Q

Part of the spine involved in RA?

A

Cervical (may get subluxation, cord compression)

hips and lumbosacral joints usually = spared

vs lumbar spine = affected in OA

and sacroiliac joints = affected in seroneg spondyloarthropathies

365
Q

Difference in sx between SAH and intracerebral hemorrhage

A

SAH - no focal neuro deficits!

intracerebral: focal neuro deficits (hemiplegia, hemianesthesia, CN deficits, aphasia etc)

366
Q

Decorticate vs decerebrate posturing

A

Decorticate: high lesion (eg in cerebral hemispheres) above red nucleus –> decreased inhibition of rubrospinal tract –> excessive flexing of UE

Decerebrate: lesion below the red nucleus –> no excitation of UE flexors, so extensors of vestibulospinal tract predominate

vs. cervical spinal cord damage –> spinal shock (flaccid paralysis)

367
Q

sx of dorsal midbrain damage

A

vertical gaze palsy, pupils accommodate but don’t respond to light (light-near dissociation) due to proximity of superior colliculus

368
Q

Nerve roots in the lumbosacral spine exit ____ their corresponding vertebral body level (below/above)?

A

below (eg L5-S1 foraminal stenosis will cause L5 problems)

369
Q

Causes of hyperacusis

A

facial nerve damage (stapedius branch innervates stapedius muscle, which stabilizes the stapes; mandibular branch of V3 innervates the tensor tympani, which contracts the TM medially to dampen sound transmission)

370
Q

exudation and alveolar hepatization happen in ____

A

pna, mostly Strep pneumo (red hepatization first when PMNs and RBCs accumulate in alv spaces, then gray hepatization when RBCs start to degrade)

371
Q

obliterative lower airway inflammation happens in ____

A

cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (inflamm causes granulation tissue proliferation –> obstruction of small airways and consolidation of airways)

idiopathic, resolves with steroids

372
Q

topoisomerase I vs II

A

topo I - makes ss nicks to relieve negative supercoiling

topo II - makes breaks in both DNA strands to relieve both positive and negative supercoiling

irinotecan and topotecan inhibit topoI

etoposide and podophyllin inhibit topoII by prevent it from resealing its nicks

373
Q

fxn of leukotrienes C4, D4, E4

vs fxn of leukotriene B4 and 5-HETE (precursor to leukotrienes)

A

C,D,E = bronchospasm and vasodilation

B and HETE = PMN recruitment to site of inflamm

374
Q

Collagen is made up primarily of which AA?

A

GLYCINE (every third aa position is glycine) - smallest AA and only one that can fit in small space between the alpha chain

cross-links = thanks to hydroxylysine
alpha helix = thanks to proline

375
Q

thyroid peroxidase functions

A
  1. catalyze oxidation of iodide into I2
  2. catalyze iodination of thyroglobulin to form DIT and MIT
  3. catalyze coupling reaction between 2 iodized tyrosine residues to form T3 or T4

Ig against this enzyme = present in autoimmune/hashimoto’s thyroiditis

376
Q

iodotyrosine deiodinase vs iodothyronine deiodinase

A

iodotyrosine: removes I from unpaired DIT and MIT to be recycled inside thyroid follicular cells (ie DIT, MIT, T3 and T4 are made in lumen, reabsorbed, T3 and T4 are secreted, and I is pulled off of DIT and MIT to restart the cycle and make more T3 and T4)
iodothyronine: pulls an I off of T4 in the periphery to make more potent T3

377
Q

Arcuate scotoma

A

damage to particular region of optic nerve head –> visual field defect that follows arcuate shape of nerve fiber pattern

378
Q

where is the area postrema and what does it do?

A

where: dorsal surface of medulla, at bottom of fourth ventricle
what: no BBB, so samples chemicals in blood (chemoreceptor trigger zone) –> nausea and vomiting

379
Q

G6PD deficiency - mode of inheritance?

A

X-linked recessive

380
Q

vitamin D-resistant rickets - inheritance pattern?

A

x-linked dominant

381
Q

how to work up metabolic alk cause?

A

check volume status and measure urine Cl (low with vomiting/NG aspiration or past diuretic use; high with current diuretic use, bartter, gitelman, or excess mineralocorticoids [eg cushing, conn])

382
Q

how do you get damage to facial nerve via face trauma?

A

lateral head trauma (fracture of temporal bone) or zygomatic orbit fracture

383
Q

sx of basilar skull fracture?

A

hematomas over mastoid process (behind ear) + otorrhea (CSF out of ear) + periorbital ecchymosis

384
Q

What kind of GI ulcer is not itself a risk for cancer?

A

duodenal - may indicate H pylori infxn, which raises risk of cancer, but ulcer itself is rarely malignant and doesn’t require biopsy

vs. have to biopsy esophageal, gastric, and CRC, which frequently present as ulcerative lesions

385
Q

U/A findings with rhabdo

A

myoglobinuria –> positive urine dipstick for blood without RBCs

386
Q

Cholesterol lowering agent that increases TGs

A

bile acid-binding resins (increase hepatic production of TGs and release of VLDL particles from the liver, which contain lots of TGs)

387
Q

when does beta-hCG appear in the urine, and where does it come from?

A

appears after 6-8 days after fertilization when blastocyst implants and its outer cell mass (trophoblast) differentiates into cyto and syncytio

syncytio invades endometrium and starts making beta-hCG to stimulate the CL to continue making progesterone to keep the lining nice and thick

vs. urine preg test is less sensitive than serum; can detect beta-hCG only when it’s > 20IU/L (around 14 days after fertilization)

388
Q

Asparaginase - what’s it used for?

A

chemo drug - decrease conversion of aspartate to asparagine, which is used up so quickly by tumor cells that they can’t produce it fast enough on their own, so have to use asparagine synthase to make more

decreasing asparagine conc thus –> lysis of tumor cells

389
Q

paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration - pathophys?

A

SCLC, breast, ovarian, and uterine ca - immune response against tumor cells, and those Ig (anti-Yo, anti-Hu, anti-P/Q) attack purkinje neurons –> dizziness, limb and trunk ataxia, dysarthria, visual disturbances

390
Q

uniform, diffuse capillary wall thickening on LM is a sign of ____

A

membranous nephropathy

IF: granular deposits of IgG and C3 along GBM

391
Q

why do you get gallstones with malabs (eg Crohn)?

A

ileal inflamm or other cause of malabs –> decreased bile acid recycling, so less bile acid is present in bile made in liver –> increased chol: bile acid ratio

increased ratio –> chol precipitates in bile of gallbladder and forms stones

392
Q

Drugs that cause sexual dysfxn

A

SSRIs, TCAs, and some anti-htns (eg thiazide diuretics, spironolactone, clonidine)

393
Q

Long-term use of pioglitazone may cause what adverse effect?

A

urinary bladder cancer

394
Q

Histo features of schwannoma

A

biphasic (dense areas with spindle cells that palisade (Antoni A) and loose, myxoid areas (Antoni B))

395
Q

S100

A

Neural crest marker

Schwannomas and melanoma, also neuroblastomas (most common extracranial solid tumor in kids)

396
Q

Bonds in primary, secondary, and tertiary protein structure?

A

primary: peptide bonds
secondary: H bonds (into alpha helix or beta pleated sheet)
tertiary: ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, H bonds, disulfide bonds

397
Q

Bacteria with fibriae

A

Neisseria and E. Coli

398
Q

Bacteria that use hyaluronidase to invade tissue

A

staph, GAS, C diff

399
Q

Aneurysm arising from ____ will cause non-pupil-sparing third nerve palsy?

A

SCA or PCA (CN3 passes between them)

400
Q

Ototoxic agents

A

aminoglycosides, salicylates, cisplatin, loop diuretics (furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide)

401
Q

Drugs used to treat pseudomonas

A

ticarcillin and piperacillin, ceftazidime (3rd gen) and cefepime (4th gen), amikacin/gentamicin/tobramycin (aminoglycosides), cipro/levofloxacin (not moxi! used for lung infxns), aztreonam, impenem/meropenem

402
Q

How long do pts need to take RIPEs for active TB?

A

> = 6 months

403
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitors used for HIT vs

DVT prevention/tx and stroke prevention in afib?

A

HIT: lepirudin, argatroban

DVT prevention/tx and stroke prevention: dabigatran (“D” for Dvt)

404
Q

Symptoms of scurvy?

A

swollen gums, bruising, petechiae, hemarthrosis, anemia, poor wound healing, corkscrew hair

due to defects in collagen (in blood vessel walls, skin etc)

405
Q

Organ susc to infarction, from greatest to least

A

CNS, myocardium, kidney, spleen, liver (not susc b/c of dual blood supply)

406
Q

Caudal regression syndrome - what is it, and with what maternal condition is it associated?

A
  • rare condition in which baby is bortn with agenesis of sacrum +/- lumbar spine –> flaccid paralysis of legs, dorsiflexed feet, urinary incontinence (ranges in severity)
  • maternal association = uncontrolled DM
407
Q

Effect of cocaine abuse in mom on baby

A

cocaine –> vasocon, so denies baby of necessary blood –> IUgr, spontaneous abortion, placental abruption, prematurity

408
Q

Vitamin A overdose in preg –> ?

A

craniofacial abnormalities, posterior fossa defects, auditory defects, abnormalities of great vv

similar to DiGeorge sx

409
Q

Benzos that don’t depend on liver metabolism (use in pts with liver disease)

A

lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam

“LOT”

410
Q

Benzo used for short-term anxiety

A

lorazepam

avoid long-term AEs (eg excessive daytime sleepiness)

411
Q

short-acting benzos

A

lorazepam, triazolam (liver-dependent metabolism)

412
Q

long-acting benzos

A

chlordiazepoxid, diazepam, flurazepam

“beginning of the alphabet”

vs short-acting start with letters at end of alphabet

use these to treat alcohol withdrawal and prevent progression to seizures and delirium (preferred b/c they self taper, so smoother withdrawal - esp chlor and diaz - have active metabolites)

413
Q

intermediate-t1/2 benzos

A

alprazolam, clonazepam

414
Q

Characteristic histo/gross features of pilocytic astrocytoma vs medulloblastoma vs ependymomas

A

PA: CBL, brainstem, HT, or optic pathways; well-diff with SPINDLE cells with HAIR-LIKE GLIAL PROCESSES, MICROCYSTS, ROSENTHAL FIBERS

Medulloblastoma: SMALL, BLUE CELLS, HOMER-WRIGHT ROSETTES, also in posterior fossa

Ependymomas: PSEUDOROSETTES, GFAP+, blood vv

both in kids

415
Q

Drugs that cause drug-induced lupus

antibody present?

A

drugs metabolized by N-acetylation in the liver:

Procainamide
Hydralazine
Isoniazid
MInocycline
TNF-alpha inhibitors

especially in slow acetylators (increased concentration of drugs)

**drug-induced SLE usually lacks cutaneous manifestations (eg rash), neuro or renal sx

antibody = anti-histone

416
Q

Phase 1 rxn catalyzed by cytochrome P450?

A

oxidation

417
Q

Left vs. right-sided frontal lobe lesion sx

A

Left: apathy and depression

Right: disinhibited behavior

418
Q

acute-onset, mid-chest pleuritic pain that improves on sitting up and leaning forward?

A

acute pericarditis, usually serofibrinous or fibrinous

causes: MI, RF, uremia, viral infxn

419
Q

pericardial knock

A

early diastolic, high-freq precordial sound heard in chronic, constrictive pericarditis

420
Q

signs of chronic, constrictive pericarditis

A

Kussmaul’s sign (anything that causes increased right heart pressure)

pulsus paradoxus (again, anything that causes increased rh pressure, eg cor pulmonale, cardiac tamponade)

pericardial knock

421
Q

acute-onset, mid-chest pleuritic pain that improves on sitting up and leaning forward?

A

acute pericarditis, usually serofibrinous or fibrinous

causes: MI, RF, uremia, viral infxn

422
Q

pericardial knock

A

early diastolic, high-freq precordial sound heard in chronic, constrictive pericarditis

423
Q

signs of chronic, constrictive pericarditis

A

Kussmaul’s sign (anything that causes increased right heart pressure)

pulsus paradoxus (again, anything that causes increased rh pressure, eg cor pulmonale, cardiac tamponade)

pericardial knock

424
Q

Ways to test executive function

A

Clock drawing

425
Q

Way to test concentration/attn

A

reciting months of year backwards, counting down from 100 by intervals of 3 or 7, spelling “world” backwards

426
Q

How to test STM

A

recalling 3 unrelated words after 5 min

427
Q

How to test comprehension

A

following multistep commands

428
Q

Cause of viral encephalitis with flaccid paralysis?

A

West nile virus

429
Q

Assessment of decision-making capacity - 4 key criteria

A
  1. communicates a choice
  2. understands info provided
  3. appreciates consequences of choice
  4. can give rationale for decision (can weigh risks/benefits)

pts have right to refuse treatment based on principle of autonomy

430
Q

Cerebral perfusion pressure = ?

A

MAP - ICP

431
Q

Muscle that does arm abduction below the horizontal?

Muscle that does shoulder abduction above the horizontal?

A

below horizontal = delt

above horizontal = trap

432
Q

Spinal accessory nerve controls what muscles? how is it injured?

A

controls trap and SCM

courses superficially through posterior triangle of neck, so easily injured, eg by ln dissection

433
Q

False aneurysm

A

rupture through all the walls of the vessel –> bleeding outside the vessel, with subsequent flap of connective tissue that walls off the hematoma and connects to vessel (so it just looks like bulge in the wall)

434
Q

how to decrease incidence of neonatal tetanus?

A

vaccinate moms with inactivated toxin so they will pass IgG to baby

also hygienic cord care

435
Q

Causes of rectal prolapse

A

pregnancy, constipation, severe diarrhea, CF

436
Q

What initially prevents edema despite increased transudation from capillaries?

A

lymphatics - increased interstitial pressure –> increased lymphatic drainage; prevents edema until the lymphatics are overwhelmed

437
Q

What do mast cells release from their granules?

A

tryptase and histamine

use serum tryptase levels as marker for anaphylaxis

438
Q

Muscle tissue IHC stain?

A

smooth muscle actin, caldesmon (calmodulin-binding protein - inhibits ATPase activity of myosin in smooth muscle), desmin (IF in sarcomeres)

439
Q

IHC markers for endothelium?

A

CD34, vWF

440
Q

Sx of lithium toxicity

A

acute: GI upset, then neuro
chronic: gradual onset of neuromusc excitability, ataxia, confusion

toxicity increased by anything that decreases glomerular filtration –> increased lithium reabs in PT

441
Q

Midline Episiotomy cuts through the ______

vs mediolateral episiotomy cuts through _____ muscle

A

midline: from posterior vaginal opening to perineal body, through the vaginal lining and submucosal tissue
mediolateral: transverse perineal muscle

improper repair –> pelvic organ prolapse, dyspareunia

perineal body anchors bulbospong m (UG triangle), external anal sphincter, transverse perineal mm, external urethral sphincter, levator ani, and musc coat of rectum (anal triangle)

442
Q

Varicose veins - sx and mech

A

sx: dilated superficial veins and associated skin changes from stasis dermatitis (due to tissue ischemia)
mech: increased pressure in veins –> dilation and incompetence of valves –> backflow and further increased pressure

risk fx: obesity, preg (obstruction), sedentary lifestyle, prolonged standing, DVTs (damage valves)

443
Q

Kehr sign

A

referred pain to shoulder from peritoneal irritation (eg splenic laceration) via phrenic nerve innervation

444
Q

Dobutamine - when is it used?

A

refractory HF with severe LV systolic dysfxn, cardiogenic shock

positive inotrope (increases cardiac contractility –> increased CO and decreased LV filling pressure), positive chronotrope (increased HR - can exacerbate MI, but benefits may outweigh risks), mild vasodilation (decreased systemic vascular resistance)

445
Q

IHC markers for mesenchymal tissue

A

vimentin (IF)

446
Q

IHC marker for neuroendocrine tumors

A

chromogranin A, neuron-specific enolase

447
Q

Myocardial hibernation

A

state of chronic myocardial ischemia –> reduction in myocardial metabolism and function to match decreased coronary blood flow; prevents myocardial necrosis, and fxn returns with reperfusions

448
Q

ischemic preconditioning

A

repeated, brief episodes of MI, followed by reperfusion, protect myocardium from subsequent prolonged ischemia (so more time to salvage the myocardium via revasc)

449
Q

McCune albright syndrome - triad of sx

A

cafe au lait spots, endocrine abnormalities (eg precocious puberty, hyperthyroid), fibrous dysplasia (bone lesions)

mutation –> constitutive activation of GPCR/AC cascade, affecting many cells (eg autonomous endo fxn, melanocytes, fibroblasts, IL6, OCs)

450
Q

Legg-calve-perthes disease

A

young kids - isolated, idiopathic osteonecrosis of the hip

451
Q

Psoas sign

A

pain on passive extension of the hip (stretches the psoas)

seen in psoas abscess (due to direct spread of infxn or from hematogenous/lymphatic seeding)

452
Q

Deficiency of ____ immune cells predisposes to superficial candida infxn.

Deficiency of _____ immune cells predisposes to disseminated candidiasis

A

superficial: T lymphocytes (eg in HIV)
disseminated: neutrophils (eg chemo)

453
Q

Bacitracin - mech of action?

A

prevents mucopeptide transfer into growing cell wall, so inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis; effective in growing bacterial populations

454
Q

Cancers with propensity for bony mets

A

PB/KTL (“lead kettle”):

prostate, breast, kidney, thyroid, lung

455
Q

Systemic mastocytosis - physio, mutation involved, and sx

A

clonal mast cell proliferation in the marrow, skin and other organs

often associated with KIT receptor tyrosine kinase mutations

sx = from release of histamine from mast cells degranulation (syncope, flushing, hypotn, pruritis, urticaria, gastric ulcers from increased stomach acid, diarrhea etc b/c stomach acid inactivates pancreatic and intestinal enzymes –> decreased abs)

456
Q

Contact precautions

vs standard precautions

vs. airborne precautions
vs. droplet precautions

A

contact = gown and nonsterile gloves + handwashing with soap and water for cdiff

standard = handwashing, gown and gloves as needed (eg body fluids), proper disposal of cleaning instruments and linens

droplet (>5microns - eg neisseria meng, flu, bordetella pertussis, mycoplasma pna, rsv) = simple facemask

airborne (

457
Q

Drugs/conditions that increase risk of osteoporosis

A

Steroids! (increase OCs, decrease OBs, inhibit Vit D-induced Ca absorption in the gut, increase PTH)

Thyroid hormone (increased bone turnover)

Anticonvulsants that induce P450 (increase Vit D breakdown)

Aromatase inhib and progesterone, GnRH agonists (decrease estrogen)

PPIs (decrease Ca absorption)

Unfractionated heparin and thiazolidinediones (DM) - decrease bone formation

458
Q

How does estrogen –> stronger bones?

A
  • induces production of OPG by OBs and stromal cells, which binds RANKL and prevents OC activation
  • decreases expression of RANK receptor on OCs
  • decreases apoptosis of OBs and osteocytes by activating extracellular signal-regulated kinases
459
Q

Causes of aplastic anemia

A

autoimmune, infxns (eg parvo, EBV), drugs (eg carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, sulfonamides), exposure to radiation or toxins (eg benzenes, solvents); often unknown etiology in kids (idiopathic)

will have pancytopenia WITHOUT SPLENOMEGALY b/c problem is lack of available hematop. progenitor cells, so not doing extramedullary hematopoiesis

460
Q

RCCA originate from ____ cells

vs. oncocytomas originate from _____ cells
vs. transitional cell carcinoma in the kidney originates from ____ cells

A

RCCA: proximal convoluted tubule cells

oncocytoma: collecting duct cells

transitional cell: renal pelvis lining

461
Q

Closed-loop communication

A

sender transmits message to receiver, who repeats the message

sender says “yes” to confirm that the message was understood

way to ensure clear, concise info exchange in high-risk setting

462
Q

Acute chest syndrome

A

vaso-occlusive crisis localized to pulmonary vasculature, esp in sickle cell anemia

commonly brought on by pulm infxn

463
Q

3’–>5’ exonuclease

vs 5’ –> 3’ exonuclease

A

3’ –> 5’ = proofreading for mismatches

5’ –> 3’ = remove RNA primers and damaged DNA

464
Q

relationship between RPF and RBF

A

RPF = (1-Hct) * RBF

since renal plasma flow is the fraction of renal bloodflow that’s not composed of RBCs

465
Q

Fanconi anemia

A

genetic loss of DNA crosslink repair

sx = short stature, cafe au lait spots, thumb/radial defects, increased incidence of tumors/leukemia (may progress to AML), aplastic anemia

466
Q

Cytokine mediator of septic shock

A

TNF-alpha

467
Q

Air bronchogram

A

when you can see the outline of the bronchiole b/c alveoli around it are filled with fluid or gunk

suggests infxs process or severe interstitial disease

468
Q

protective factors for ovarian cancer

A

anything that decreases ovulation frequency (OCPs, multiparity, breastfeeding) - decreased trauma to ovaries

469
Q

Signs of acute vs chronic kidney tpx rejection

A

acute: dense lymphocytic interstitial infiltrate and endotheliitis + complement and PMNs

vs chronic: low-grade immune response over period of time –> gradual vessel intima thickening and luminal narrowing –> ischemia of kidney –> interstitial fibrosis and atrophy, HTN, increasing Cr, proteinuria

470
Q

How to change pH of urine to decrease risk of Ca or uric acid stones?

A

alkalinize it

471
Q

BRCA1 and 2 genes code for ?

A

DNA repair proteins

472
Q

APC/beta catenin codes for ?

A

Wnt signaling proteins

so tumor suppressor

473
Q

RB codes for?

A

G1–>S inhibition proteins

so tumor suppressor

474
Q

VHL codes for?

A

ubiquitin ligase

tumor suppressor

475
Q

EGFR and HER2 code for?

A

receptor tyrosine kinases

both proto-oncogenes

EGFR mutated in lung adenocarcinoma, HER2 in some breast and ovarian cancers

476
Q

BRAF codes for?

A

Ras signal transduction proteins

proto-oncogene mutated in some melanomas and hairy cell leukemia

vemurafenib targets the mutation

477
Q

Ras codes for?

A

a GTP-binding protein

so it’s a proto-oncogene mutated in lung, colon, pancreatic, cholangio, renal, and bladder ca

478
Q

Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea - mechanism?

A

reduced circulating leptin b/c of decreased body fat –> inhibition of pulsatile GnRH release –> decreased LH and FSH –> decreased estrogen –> amenorrhea

479
Q

CD18 - what is it, and what happens if it’s missing?

A

antigen on surface of PMNs, necessary for tight binding to ICAM and VCAM on endothelial surface

without it, get LAD1, lots of PMNs but can’t get where they need to go (so recurrent infxns without purulence)

480
Q

Carotid sinus baroreceptors - afferent and efferent nn?

vs aortic arch baroreceptors - afferent and efferent nn?

A

carotid: afferent = glossopharyngeal (sense stretch) –> medulla –> parasymp efferent (vagus) –> decreased BP and decreased CO
aortic: afferent = vagus

481
Q

Conus medullaris syndrome - level of lesion and sx? causes?

vs cauda equina syndrome - difference?

A

level of lesion = L2 (at termination of spinal cord)

sx: flaccid paralysis of bladder and rectum, impotence, saddle (S3-5) anesthesia

may have mild leg weakness

causes: disk herniation, tumors, spinal fractures

vs cauda equina = caused by massive rupture of intervert disk or other injury that –> compression of >=2 nerve roots in cauda equina; sx = low back pain that radiates, saddle anesthesia, loss of anocuyt reflex, bowel and bladder dysfxn, loss of ankle-jerk reflex, plantarflex weakness

482
Q

imperforate hymen - cause and sx?

A

cause: mucus from mom’s vaginal secretions can accumulate in baby’s vaginal canal; if undiag/untx –> reabs and failure of degeneration of fibrous tissue band that connects walls of vagina

at puberty, normal secondary sex char, but girl won’t menstruate; blood accumulates and bulges, and has cyclic pelvic pain when she should be bleeding

483
Q

What do you use pudendal nerve block for and where do you inject the anesthetic?

A
  • perineal repair eg during labor (if it’s too late to give epidural); eliminate sensory innervation to perineum and genitals
  • landmarks = ischial spines (palpate intravaginally) and sacrospinous ligament
  • don’t inject into the internal pudendal or inferior gluteal aa! run medially to pudendal nerve
484
Q

Jehovah’s witness needs blood transfusion emergently and is incapacitated - what to do?

what if it’s a child?

A

if carrying a blood refusal card, don’t give blood

if next of kin surrogate decision maker says no, don’t give blood

if no next of kin and no card - give blood (don’t need consent in emergency)

**always give live-saving tx to minor, regardless of parents’ wishes; if it’s non-emergent, physician should try to reach agreement with parents, advocating for child’s best interests

485
Q

effect of AV shunt on afterload?

A

decreased - since blood can bypass high resistance arterioles

486
Q

Only statin not metabolized by P450 (so use it if need P450 inhibitor to decrease risk of statin AEs like myopathy)

A

pravastatin

487
Q

Lung pathology in RA and causes?

A

interstitial lung dz that looks like idiopathic interstitial pna

methotrexate treatment of RA can also cause interstitial pneumonitis and fibrosis

488
Q

CXR: bilateral, diffuse small, irreg opacities, esp in lower lobes with end-inspiratory crackles

A

pulmonary fibrosis

489
Q

key CXR findings in LV failure, obstructive dz, fibrosis, pulm htn

A

LV failure: big heart, hazy edema in lungs

obstructive: hyperinflation, flattened diaphragm
fibrosis: reticular, diffuse white lines, esp in lower lobes

pulm htn: enlarged pulm arteries and RV

490
Q

Mesna mechanism of action

A

supplies thiol group to cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide to make them less toxic –> prevent hemorrhagic cystitis

491
Q

how to prevent tumor lysis syndrome?

A

allopurinol (decrease breakdown of nucleic acids into uric acid)

rasburicase (recombinant urate oxidase, which breaks down uric acid into more soluble allantoin)

492
Q

Most common underlying valvular disease predisposing to development of infective endocarditis in developed countries

A

MVP

in developing world, think rheumatic heart disease

493
Q

Injections where have a high probability of causing trendelenburg gait?

A

superomedial buttock - easy to injure superior gluteal nerve there, which serves the gluteus medius and minimus mm

get hip drop contralaterally

target anterolateral or superolateral hip for ventrogluteal injection to avoid nn

494
Q

Most important opsonins

A

IgG and complement C3b

also mannose-binding lectin and C-reactive protein

495
Q

Most important opsonins

A

IgG and complement C3b

also mannose-binding lectin and C-reactive protein

496
Q

AEs of amphotericin (all due to off-target binding to human cholesterol in cell membranes instead of fungal ergosterol)

A
most important:
electrolyte abnmlities (hypoMg, hypokalemia)

dose-dependent nephrotoxicity from decreased GFR

others:

acute infusion rxn (fever, chills, rigors, hypotn; often decrease with subsequent doses and can be prevented with antihist etc)

anemia (suppression of renal epo synth) - worsened by zidovudine in HIv (also suppresses bone marrow)

thrombophlebitis at site of injection

497
Q

Most likely septal defect with fixed splitting?

A

ASD (not VSD) - equalization of left and right atrial pressures minimizes the effect of respiration on amount of blood cross P and A valves

498
Q

bifid carotid pulse is associated with?

A

HCM with dynamic LVOT obstruction

499
Q

Mechanism of action of opioid analgesics

A

bind opioid receptors (GPCRs) that open K channels and close Ca channels –> hyperpolarization and decreased pain transmission

also inhibit AC and NT release

500
Q

Most important risk fx for developing aortic dissection?

A

HTN

vs atherosclerosis predisposes to aortic aneurysm (esp abdominal)

501
Q

Amino acids that make up transmembrane domain of GPCRs

A

nonpolar, hydrophobic AAs (alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, tryptophan, methionine, proline, glycine) - arranged in alpha helix with hydrophobic R groups out

vs. extracellular domain of receptor = made of hydrophilic AAs

502
Q

petechiae vs. purpura vs. ecchymosis

A

petechiae: 1cm diam

may be cut or subQ collection of extravasated blood; don’t blanch under pressure since blood isn’t in vv; petechiae and purpura are often associated with plt dysfxn or capillary fragility, usu in areas of increased venous pressure

503
Q

Typical presentation of Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome, aka

A

aka hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

presentation = recurrent epistaxis or GI bleeding

504
Q

laryngomalacia

A

inspiratory stridor during infancy due to collapse of supraglottic structures during inspiration; worse in supine position

505
Q

Micro causes of septic abortion

A

gram neg, staph aureus (normal vag flora that seeds uterus during instrumentation)

risk fx = preg termination with retained products of conception (that subsequently get infected)

sx: fever, ab pain, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling vaginal discharge

506
Q

overproduction of ____ by gut microbes in small intestinal bacterial overgrowth?

deficiencies?

A

gut bugs make vit K and folate; excess –> nausea, bloating, malabs

esp common with roux-en-y bypass b/c bacteria can proliferate in closed-ended gastroduod limb

deficiencies: all other vitamins due to malabs

507
Q

Central venous catheters - which site of insertion has higher risk of infxn?

A

femoral vein

vs. subclavian and internal jugular = better

508
Q

Drugs used to treat MRSA and their mechanisms and AEs?

A

Vanc - blocks glycopeptide polymerization by binding D-ala-D-ala; AEs = red man, nephrotox

Daptomycin - depolarizes cell membrane by creating transmem channels; AEs = myopathy, CPK elevation

Linezolid - inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding 50S; AEs = thrombocytopenia, optic neuritis, ser synd

509
Q

Catabolism of which AAs makes propionyl CoA?

Then what happens to propionyl CoA?

A

Isoleucine, valine, threonine, methionine, cholesteroal, and odd-chain FAs all make propionyl coa via oxidative decarboxylation

propionyl coa is then converted to methylmalonyl CoA, which is made into Succinyl CoA –> TCA

MOV(e)IT into the tca cycle

510
Q

Major AEs for HIV drugs

A

NRTIs: lactic acidosis, lipodystrophy, hypersensitivity, pancreatitis, bone marrow suppression

NNRTIs: hepatotox, rash, neurotox and teratogenicity (efavirenz)

PI: metabolic complications

Integrase inhibitors: myopathy

511
Q

Disinfectants

A

alcohols (isoprop, ethanol) - disrupt cell membranes and denature proteins

chlorhexidine - disrupt cell mem, coag of cytoplasm

H2O2 - makes free radicals that oxidize cell components; SPORICIDAL

Iodine - halogenation of proteins and nucleic acids; SPORICIDAL

512
Q

Difference between HMO and point-of-service plans?

A

health maint organization: low monthly premiums, copayments and deductibles, lowest total cost for pt but has to stay in network, need PCP referral for specialist services, and denied coverage for service that don’t meet established guidelines

POS: higher premiums and significant cost (but allowed) to see out-of-network providers

513
Q

Osteoblastic vs osteolytic lesions - which cancers cause which

A

osteoblastic: prostate, SCLC, HL
osteolytic: MM, NSCLC, NHL, RCCA, melanoma

514
Q

Radial head subluxation

A

“nursemaid’s elbow” - most commonly in kids 1-4yo from sharp pull on pronated, extended elbow –> annular ligament is torn from radial neck attachment and slips between radius and humerus

after 5yo, ligament gets stronger, so injury is less likely

tx: reduce by supinating and flexing

515
Q

sign of biceps tendon rupture?

A

“Popeye” deformity (visible or palpable mass in mid-upper arm)

516
Q

how does an ulnar collateral ligament injury happen?

A

pitching - tx = “tommy john surgery”

517
Q

Why do barbiturate anesthetics –> quick recovery?

A

barbiturate anes = thiopental

high potency and lipid solubility, but rapidly redistributes into skeletal muscle and fat

518
Q

Coronary sinus empties into the _____ in the heart

A

right atrium, between the IVC and the tricuspid valve

519
Q

Strep that makes dextrans

A

Viridans (extracellular pollysacch that allow bug to adhere to damaged heart valves)

520
Q

Drugs used for smoking cessation

A

Bupropion (wellbutrin)

Varenicline (partial ag at nAChR)

521
Q

enzyme that metabolizes excess fructose in essential fructosuria?

A

hexokinase (since deficiency in fructokinase)

522
Q

Hepatosplenomegaly and marrow fibrosis are seen in which leukemia?

A

hairy cell

bone marrow infiltration and cytokine production –> marrow failure –> pancytopenia

splenic red pulp infiltration –> splenomeg

523
Q

basophilic stippling vs. ringed sideroblasts

A

stippling = lead poisoning, thalassemias, MDS; accum of ribosomes b/c lead inhibits degradation of RNA

ringed sideroblasts = abnormal RBC precursors in the MARROW; seen in heme pathway problems and MDS - iron precipitates

524
Q

From where is IGF-1 released?

A

Liver

GH activates hepatocytes via JAK/STAT –> release of IGF-1, which acts via receptor tyrosine kinases

525
Q

In lac operon, the _____ binds to the operator region, and is inhibited by _____

Promoter binds ____ site and is transcribed when?

A

repressor protein binds operator and is inhibited by presence of lactose

promoter binds CAP and is transcribed in absence of glucose

526
Q

Causes of suppurative parotitis (bugs)?

A

staph aureus, anaerobes

findings: elevated serum amylase without pancreatitis (normal serum lipase, no sx of pancreatitis), CT shows inflamm

risk fx: decreased salivary flow (meds, obstruction, dehydration), intubation

527
Q

Triad of sx in HUS

A

microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

thrombocytopenia

renal insufficiency

528
Q

Drugs that cause drug-induced SLE?

A

procainamide, hydralazine, isoniazide

529
Q

Lipid-lowering agent that increases risk of gallstones?

A

Fibrates

530
Q

Globus sensation

A

functional disorder of the esophagus - no structural or motility problem, but feel that there’s something stuck in your throat

if significant pain, dysphagia, vocal abnormalities, systemic sx, suspect something else is going on

531
Q

Warburg effect

A

malignant cells do lots of glycolysis to make the macromolecules they need to sustain rapid growth

532
Q

Drugs with anticholinergic effects

A

antipsychotics (clozapine, chlorpromazine, thioridazine, olanzapine)

antispasmodics (dicyclomine, hyoscyamine)

TCAs

antihistamines (first gen)

533
Q

When genetic mutation is ID’d in offspring but not in the parents, what’s the likely explanation?

A

germline mosaicism

534
Q

Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) is secreted by what kinds of cells? Fxn?

A

secreted by macrophages, T cells, NK cells, mast cells, endoth cells, fibroblasts

fxn: stimulates production of granulocytes (neutrophils, eos, mast cells, basophils) and monocytes (macrophages)

535
Q

molluscum bodies are made of what?

A

virus particles - form big, eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion

see them in gunk from lesions

536
Q

What nerve/vessel is at greatest risk of injury with knee dislocation?

A

popliteal artery (deep in popliteal fossa and high traction)

vs tibial n. is more superficial

537
Q

Mastitis is caused by ____

A

staph aureus from infant’s oral flora –> breast infection during lactation

538
Q

most important risk factor for postpartum endometritis?

A

c-section (introduces microbes and foreign bodies into incised uterus)

sx = fever, leukocytosis, uterine tenderness, foul-smelling vag discharge

539
Q

Vasomotor rhinitis

A

chronic nasal congestion that worsens with abrtupt change in temp, humidity, odor or alcohol exposure

may also have h/a, anosmia, sinusitis

540
Q

rhinitis medicamentosum

A

chronic nasal congestion in pts who have become habituated to nasal decongestant sprays

541
Q

RBCs have increased osmotic fragility with ____

decreased osmotic fragility with ____

A

increased with hereditary spherocytosis (less SA:vol)

decreased with sickle cell, target cells (more membrane to accommodate increased fluid inside)

542
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma paraneoplastic syndromes

A

cholestatic liver disease, alcohol-induced pain, skin lesions, neuro syndromes, nephrotic syndrome

543
Q

Risk fx for intraventricular hemorrhage in newborns

A

aka germinal matrix hemorrhage

prematurity, low birth weight, alterations in cerebral blood flow (eg mechanical ventilation)

544
Q

germinal matrix - what is it and what pathology happens there?

A

dense cellular and vascular layer of subependymal zone of the brain from which neurons and glial cells develop in utero; should be totally involuted at term

path: vv of germinal matrix are weak and susc to spon intraventricular hemorrhage in newborn; often opens into ventricles and –> hydrocephalus (eg indicated by bulging fontanelle) and clots

545
Q

cephalohematoma

A

subperiosteal bleed in a newborn that doesn’t cross suture lines and presents as scalp swelling

can occur after traumatic birth

546
Q

Most common sites of SCCA of the head and neck?

A

ventral tongue, floor of mouth, lower lip, soft palate, gingiva

assoc with smoking and alcohol

547
Q

Palmitoylation

A

process in which FAs are covalently anchored to plasma membrane cysteine residues

common in GPCRs

548
Q

Albright hereditary osteodystrophy - inheritance pattern, pathophys

A

autosomal dominant

mut in GNAS1 –> faulty alpha unit of Gs that mediates effects of PTH, so don’t respond to PTH

sx: skeletal and developmental defects (short stature, short hand bones, etc) + end-organ resistance to LH, FSH, TSH

**kidney expresses only mom’s GNAS, so if mutation comes from dad, will have all of the skeletal abnormalities, but Ca, P, and PTH levels will be normal

549
Q

Latex agglutination test looks for ______ in patient serum

vs ELISA looks for _____ in patient serum

A

Latex agg: presence of antigen in sample of interest

add sample to beads with Ig on them and look for clumping of beads

ELISA: looks for Ig in patient serum (fix antigen to surface and add pt serum)

550
Q

Complement fixation test - method?

A

goal: is there antibody or antigen of interest in pt serum?

patient serum + standard complement proteins + antigen of interest + sheep RBCs prebound to anti-sheep RBC antibodies

if the solution turns pink (lysed RBCs) when you add sheep RBCs, that means there was complement available to bind the sheep ag-Ig complex

but if no rxn when add sheep RBCs, that means the complement has all been used up, which means that the pt serum bound the antigen of interest (ie there’s antibody in the pt’s serum)

551
Q

Shortened limbs and digits (trident hand) with macrocephaly, midface hypoplasia, and frontal bossing?

A

achondroplasia

**increased risk of spinal stenosis and vertebral compression from dorsal kyphosis and lumbar lordosis (“S”)

552
Q

COL1A1 mutation in what condition?

A

OI (collagen 1 defect)

553
Q

Ear anomalies, micrognathia, depressed nasal bridge, hypertelorism

A

Isotretinoin use during pregnancy

554
Q

smooth filtrum, shortened palpebral fissures, microcephaly

A

FAS

555
Q

alpha thal is most common in what ethnic population?

A

southeast asian

556
Q

surgical tx of hyperhidrosis of the axilla?

A

electrocoag of the thoracic sympathetic trunk around T2

**sweating is SYMPATHETIC, but uses mAChR, which is why it’s inhibited by anticholinergics (eg atropine)

557
Q

17-ketosteroids - what are they and when are they elevated?

A
  • metabolic breakdown products of steroid hormones, esp androgens (eg androstenedione, androsterone)
  • urinary levels are elevated in pts with androgen-secreting tumors
558
Q

penetrance vs. expression

A

penetrance - presence or absence of phenotypic expression of mutated gene

expression - degree of phenotypic expression of mutation

559
Q

what causes “red man syndrome” and how do you prevent it?

A

cause: widespread histamine release via nonspecific mast cell degranulation from rapid infusion of vanc; NOT an allergic rxn
prevention: decrease rate of infusion

560
Q

Two causes of ischemic colitis and histo stages

A

causes: diminished cardiac output (eg heart disease, shock), or occlusion of blood supply (eg atherosclerosis, thrombosis)

histo stages:

  1. hemorrhage, ecchymoses, and patchy necrosis of mucosa
  2. injury extends into muscularis –> bowel wall thickens and becomes edematous
  3. transmural infarction, which may –> perf
561
Q

Most common genetic defect in beta-oxidation and its symptoms?

A

medium-chain acyl-coa dehydrogenase deficiency

hypoglycemia after prolonged fasting (often presenting with infection) with inappropriately low ketone bodies (can’t make them)

562
Q

Shine-Dalgarno vs Kozak sequences in mRNA

A

Shine-Dalgarno: prokaryotic mRNA sequence that helps ribosome find place to start translation

Kozak: eukaryotic mRNA sequence that ribosome finds after starting at 5’ cap to start translation

563
Q

Tachyphylaxis

A

progressively diminishing response to a drug on repeated administration b/c of desensitization of target tissues to the drug

eg with topical alpha agonists to treat nasal congestion, after a while, nerve terminals stop making NE –> relative vasodilation and more edema/congestion (rhinitis medicamentosa/rebound rhinorrea)

another ex = nitroglycerine (decreased NO release with continued use)

564
Q

molecular chaperone heat shock protein - fxn?

A

with heat or other cell stressor, they interact with newly synthesized proteins to ensure their appropriate folding

or if can’t do that, then they facilitate the degradation of misfolded proteins

565
Q

arytenoid mm control ___ and are innervated by the ____ nerve

A

control intrinsic mm of larynx (sound production) and are innervated by recurrent laryngeal

external laryngeal innervates cricothyroid (only larynx muscle not innervated by recurrent laryngeal)

566
Q

external laryngeal nerve branches into the ___ and the ___ nerves, which do what?

A

external laryngeal - innervates cricothyroid muscle in larynx

internal laryngeal - sensation over supraglottic area

567
Q

only DNA virus that doesn’t replicate in host cell nucleus using host machinery?

A

poxvirus - replicates in the cytosol using virally-encoded polymerases etc

568
Q

agrammatism - definition and with what condition do you see it?

vs dysarthria - definition and with what condition do you see it?

A

agrammatism:

defn: slow speech consisting primarily of nouns and verbs

see it in Broca’s aphasia

vs. dysarthria (slurred speech) - happens with primary motor cortex lesion (also CBL lesions)

569
Q

Unmyelinated nerves in the body

A
  • postganglionic ANS axons
  • afferent neurons that conduct heat and slow/dull/burning/visceral pain sensation
  • bipolar sensory neurons of olfaction
570
Q

Lichen sclerosus - pathophys, sx, and tx

A

autoimmune inflamm condition that can involve any part of body but usually involves genital and perineal region –> atrophic macules that coalesce into itchy, painful white plaques

increase risk for SCCA and genital disfigurement

tx: ultra high potency topical corticosteroids

571
Q

Antibiotics that bind bacterial 30s subunit

Antibiotics that bind bacterial 50s subunit

A

30s: aminoglycosides (prevent initiation complex formation) and TCNs (prevent charged tRNA transfer)
50s: chloramphenicol (blocks binding of charged tRNA so no peptidyltransferase peptide bond formation), macrolides (block exit tunnel so no translocation)

572
Q

Hand-foot-genital syndrome - mutation in what gene? symptoms?

A

rare, AD condition

mut in HOXA13 (homeobox gene) that –> developmental malformations of distal limbs and Mullerian fusion abnormalities (eg uterus didelphys)

573
Q

PAX genes do what?

A

important for embryologic specification of eye and brain development

mut –> ocular defects (eg aniridia)

574
Q

what is acute rhinosinusitis, which sinus is most commonly affected and why?

A

mucosal edema, usu due to infxn or allergy, causes obstruction of paranasal sinus ostia, which imapris drainage and causes inflamm of sinus lining –> accum of mucus and transudative or purulent fluid

maxillary sinuses = most commonly affected b/c drain through middle nasal meatus, which is superior to floor of sinus, so don’t drain well when we’re upright

575
Q

what opens into inferior nasal meatus?

A

lacrimal duct –> lacrimal sac –> inferior meatus

576
Q

First-line tx for esophageal variceal hemorrhage?

A

octreotide (inhibition of hormones that normally cause splanchnic vasodil (VIP, glucagon) –> splanchnic vasocon diverts blood away from portal circ)

577
Q

NAVL goes in what direction?

A

lateral to medial

578
Q

HLA-A, B, C, D correspond to which MHCs?

A

MHCI = HLA-A,B,C

MHCII = HLA-Ds (DR, DP, DQ)

579
Q

Depression sx must be present most of the day, almost every day for >= how long to get depression diag?

A

> = 2 weeks of continuous symptoms

580
Q

Triad of sx in fat embolism syndrome?

A

respiratory distress, neuro sx (AMS, seizures), petechial rash (usually over upper body)

581
Q

How does HSV1 get into brain to cause temporal encephalitis?

A
  • primary oropharyngeal infxn travels through olfactory tract
  • or latent virus reactivates in trigeminal ganglion and spreads into cerebral vault
582
Q

Marjolin’s ulcer

A

SCCA that forms in area of previously traumatized or chronically inflamed skin, usually >10yrs after initial trauma

583
Q

Characteristics of drugs cleared by liver, not kidney

A

tend to be lipophilic (so high Vd, good penetration into CNS)

lipophilicity means that when they’re filtered by the kidney, they easily cross the tubular cell membranes to be reabsorbed, so not excreted by kidney

vs. that same lipophilicity allows drug to easily cross into hepatocytes where it’s excreted in bile etc
vs. low Vd (low rate of redistribution) will be highly plasma protein bound and hydrophilic, so more readily available for renal excretion

584
Q

common sites of afib pathogenesis?

vs common site of atrial flutter pathogenesis?

A

afib:

AV node (where tricuspid meats orifice of coronary sinus)

opening of pulm veins in left atrium

both = common areas of radiofrequency ablation

atrial flutter: isthmus between IVC and tricuspid annulus

585
Q

Effect of NE on heart rate

A

no effect or even slightly decreased b/c beta 1 stimulation of cardiac contractility, conduction and HR –> reflex bradycardia thanks to baroreceptors

586
Q

Opsoclonus-myoclonus

A

paraneoplastic syndrome of neuroblastoma (in kids

587
Q

Interal vs. external hemorrhoids - pain? and blood supply?

A

Internal - visceral innervation so NOT PAINFUL, and vein = superior rectal (part of portal system)

External - somatic sensation via inferior rectal branch of pudendal n., so PAINFUL, vein = inferior rectal vein (–> internal pudendal vein –> internal iliac –> common iliac –> IVC)

588
Q

mechanism of zenker diverticulum formation

A

abnormal spasm or diminished relaxation of cricopharyngeal mm during swallowing –> food gets trapped in upper esophagus and pushes wall out into a false diverticulum (through mucosal tissue at killian triangle)

589
Q

what causes true diverticulum in the esophagus?

A

mediastinal lymphadenitis (eg due to TB, fungus) –> scarring/traction of mid-esophagus –> true diverticulum

590
Q

Mitral valve thickening with vegetations + coronary artery arteritis or thrombosis - underlying cause?

A

SLE is likely - thrombosis due to hypercoagulable APLS (in 10-30% of SLE pts) may cause ACS even with angiographically normal coronary aa + Libman-Sacks endocarditis (IC deposn)

591
Q

Why do statins reduce risk of ACS more than other lipid-lowering meds?

A

b/c they also have anti-inflamm properties, improve endothelial dysfxn, and stabilize atherosclerotic plaques

592
Q

How can cells not involved in reductive biosynth (ie that don’t do the oxidative steps of the HMP shunt) synthesize ribose from F6P?

A

using transketolase and transaldolase, can make ribose from F6P and G3P (nonoxidative steps), thus bypassing the RLS using G6P and G6PD dehydrogenase

need to make ribose for synthesis of nucleotides (so all cells need to be able to run the non-oxidative phase forwards and backwards)

593
Q

Prophylaxis of MAC in HIV pts? Treatment of MAC?

A

Prophylaxis: azithromycin

Tx: azithromycin or clarithromycin + rifabutin + ethambutol

594
Q

how to distinguish disseminated MAC from M. TB?

A

MAC grows well at higher temperatures, clear lungs, marked anemia, HSM, elevated alk phos and LDH

TB: lung findings, lower temp

595
Q

TMP-SMX is used as prophylaxis for ___ in HIV+ pts?

A

PJP and toxo

596
Q

viral hepatitis affects which zone in liver?

alcoholic hepatitis?

ischemia?

ingested toxins?

A

viral hep and ingested toxins = periportal

alcoholic hep and ischemia = centrilobular

597
Q

fourth intercostal space - what’s at that level?

A

about nipple-level, so we’re below the pulm aa and aorta, and at level of RV

598
Q

Most common mode of transmission of Hep B in developed world?

vs Hep C?

A

Hep B: sexual

Hep C: IVDU (sexual transmission is inefficient)

599
Q

First-line treatment for wilson disease?

for lead poisoning?

A

wilson: d-penicillamine (free SH group chelates Cu)
lead: edetate calcium disodium (increases urinary excretion of lead)

600
Q

solar lentigine vs ephelides

A

ephelides = freckles, caused by increased melanin production in melanocytes

lentigines = bigger, from increased proliferation of melanocytes (more cells)

601
Q

Aldolase B vs Aldose reductase

A

aldolase B converts F1P to DHAP and glyceraldehyde (fructose metabolism - mutated in fructose intolerance)

aldose reductase converts glucose to sorbitol

602
Q

Three enzymes involved in fructose metabolism (in order)

A

fructokinase, aldolase B, triokinase

603
Q

Physical sx of fanconi anemia

A

hypo/hyperpigmented patches, short stature, hypoplastic thumbs

defect in DNA repair genes

also pancytopenia and increased risk of malignancy

604
Q

Bronchopulmonary sequestration

A

congenital malformation with extra, non-fxal lung tissue that doesn’t communicate with tracheobronchial tree

can get recurrent pna in that tissue

605
Q

P bodies

A

cytoplasmic proteins that do mRNA quality control - may degrade (associated with miRNA) or store mRNA for later use

606
Q

Menarche

A

breast and endometrial

607
Q

Most common drug type causing overdose deaths?

A

opioids (prescription pain meds and heroin)

608
Q

Acetaminophen overdose causes ____

NSAID overdose causes _____

A

Acetaminophen –> acute hepatic failure

NSAIDs –> metabolic acidosis and renal failure

609
Q

What treatment can precipitate korsakoff in wernicke pt?

A

if you give glucose/dextrose before IV thiamine (makes the B1 deficiency worse)

610
Q

capitation

A

arrangement in which payor pays fixed, predetermined fee to cover all medical services required by a patient

this is the payment structure in HMOs (have to see in-network providers, get referrals for specialists, approval of care etc)

usually payment is made to insurance company, which negotiates with individual physicians or networks to provide care

611
Q

global payment

A

insurer pays provider a single payment to cover all expenses associated with given incident of care (eg surgery + post-op visits)

612
Q

what makes up pseudogout crystals and what shape are they?

A

made of calcium pyrophosphate

rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent (blue with parallel light)

sx = similar to gout, so need to do synovial fluid analysis to distinguish them (MSU crystals in gout = needle-shaped and negatively birefringent)

613
Q

penicillin binding protein - what type of protein is it?

A

transpeptidase (cross links cell walls)

614
Q

what is the pterion and why do we care?

A

region where frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet - it’s thin and susceptible to fracture, which could lacerate the middle meningeal artery (branch of the maxillary artery) –> epidural hematoma

615
Q

what is the pterion and why do we care?

A

region where frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet - it’s thin and susceptible to fracture, which could lacerate the middle meningeal artery (branch of the maxillary artery) –> epidural hematoma

616
Q

DBS of ____ for PD

DBS of ____ for intractable essential tremor

A

PD: DBS of GPi or STN to decrease thalamic inhibition and increase cortical excitation

essential tremor: DBS of ventral intermediate nucleus of the thalamus to decrease excessive movements

617
Q

Cause of ACE-i induced cough?

A

decreased breakdown of bradykinin, substance P, and prostaglandins

so more bradykinin and substance P –> inflamm and lung irritation

618
Q

Cause of ACE-i induced cough?

A

decreased breakdown of bradykinin, substance P, and prostaglandins

so more bradykinin and substance P –> inflamm and lung irritation

619
Q

Mechanism of hyaline arteriolosclerosis

vs. hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis?

A

hyaline: deposition of homogeneous hyaline material (leaked plasma proteins etc) in the intima and media of small arteries and arterioles

associated with DM, HTN, and advanced age

hyperplastic: from severe HTN - onion-like concentric thickening of walls of arterioles (smooth muscle hypertrophy)

620
Q

High-output heart failure

A

heart is pumping lots of blood, but there’s a circulatory overload that’s still causing blood to back up (eg b/c of AV shunt, vasodilation that causes blood to pool etc)

621
Q

High-potency antipsychotics? Common AEs?

A

“TRy to FLy High”

trifluoperazine
fluphenazine
haloperidol

AEs: EPS

622
Q

Low-potency antipsychotics and their AEs?

A

Cheating THieves are LOW

CHlorpromazine

THioridazine

AEs: anticholinergic, sedation (anti-hist), orthostatic hypotension (anti-alpha1)

623
Q

For which treatments do minors not need parental consent?

A

in most states, minors can consent to prenatal care, diagnosis/tx of STDs, contraception, and drug/alcohol rehab

for all else that’s non-emergent, need parental consent

unless emancipated (homeless, parent, financially independent, married, in the military, high school grad)

ABORTION: 2/3 of states require parental consent, 1/3 require parental notification

624
Q

Effect of MS vs MR on arterial pulses?

A

MR - bounding pulse with brisk upstroke b/c more blood fills LV, so increased CO

MS - decreased arterial pulse amp b/c of decreased SV

625
Q

pulsus parvus et tardus

A

due to LV outflow tract obstruction (eg AS): slow-rising, low amplitude pulse due to decreased stroke volume (pulsus parvus) and prolonged LV ejection time through stenotic valve (tardus)

626
Q

why do you get pulsus paradoxus in severe asthma and COPD?

A

exaggerated intrathoracic pressure drop with inspiration (hyperinflated lungs) –> decreased blood return to left heart –> big drop in LV output and thus big drop in blood pressure with inspiration

**NB - asthma and COPD exacerbation are most frequent causes of pulsus paradoxus in absence of significant pericardial disease

627
Q

Fever and sore throat in patient with hyperthyroidism treated medically - what do you worry about?

A

agranulocytosis (both methimazole and propylthiouracil can cause it; methimazole often preferred due to risk of severe hepatotox with propylthiouracil, but propyl used in pregnancy)

get CBC with diff and d/c drug if agranulocytosis!!

also: 50% of pts taking propyl develop ANCA antibodies; most = asymptomatic, but some –> vasculitis sx

628
Q

Ecthyma gangrenosum

A

increased risk with neutropenia (ANC destruction of surrounding tissue and insufficient bloodflow –> necrotic lesions

629
Q

Increased ESR - mechanism?

A

acute phase reactants made by liver in response to cytokines (IL-6, IL-6, TNF-alpha) and one of them - fibrinogen - causes erythrocytes to form stacks (rouleaux) that sediment faster

non-spec marker of inflamm

630
Q

Ddx of chest pain - how do these present?

CAD

Pulmonary/pleuritic (pleurisy, pna, pericarditis, PE)

Aortic (dissection, intramural hematoma)

GI/esophageal

chest wall/musculoskeletal

A

CAD: substernal, radiates, precipitated by exertion and relieved by rest or NG

pulmonary/pleuritic: sharp/stabbing pain that’s worse with inspiration and when supine, relieved when lean forward; PE and pneumothorax can –> resp distress, hypoxia

aortic: tearing pain radiating to back, HTN and atherosclerosis = risk fx; also BP diff b/w arms

GI/esophageal: pain often postprandial or at night, nonexertional, relieved by anatacids, often with regurg, nausea, dysphagia

chest wall/MS (eg costotsernal syndrome, costochondritis, anterior chest wall syndrome): persistent, worse with movement and palpation, often follows repetitive activity

631
Q

Rb gene - how is it activated and inactivated?

A

activated = hypophosphorylated (prevents G1 –> S)

inactivated = hyperphosphorylated

632
Q

Mechanism for adverse reaction to vanc, radiocontrast agents, opioids (eg morphine)?

A

IgE - INDEPENDENT mast cell degranulation by activation of PKA and PI3 kinase –> histamine, bradykinin, heparin, chemotactic fx etc

633
Q

Change in ABGs and pH at high altitude

A

immediate decrease in FiO2 –> decreased PaO2 –> hyperventilation –> decreased PaCO2 –> respiratory alkalosis

over 24-48 hours, kidney compensates by losing bicarb –> compensatory metabolic acidosis

pH will be up

over time, compensation: increased 2,3-DPG (so Hgb dumps more O2 to decrease hypoxemia), increased Hgb production (increased Epo), increased DLCO, VEGF-induced angiogenesis to get more O2 to tissues, increased # of mt/cell, concentration of blood (due to bicarb loss and fluid shift)

634
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis for meningococcal infxn?

What about if you have vaccine?

A

Vaccine won’t protect you in time - still need PEP

drugs that work: rifampin, cirpofloxacin (may cause CT injury in kids), IM ceftriaxone (painful to administer)

635
Q

Hawthorne effect

A

= observer effect

study subjects change their behavior when they know they’re being studied

636
Q

Pygmalion effect

A

researcher’s beliefs in efficacy of treatment can affect the outcome

eg kids were randomly assigned IQ scores and those assigned high scores did better (likely b/c teacher treated them differently, had higher expectations etc)

637
Q

Relationship between visceral pleura/lungs, parietal pleura, and ribs

A

2 ribs between visc and parietal pleura

so lungs/visc pleura come down to 6th rib (midclavicular), 8th rib (midaxillary), and 10th rib (paravertebral)

+2 for corresponding parietal pleura borders

*so do thoracentesis between 6th and 8th ribs along midclavic line, or 6th and 8th along midaxillary, or 10th and 12th along paravertebral (watch out for lung if go too high, or liver if go below 9th rib on midaxillary line)

638
Q

Rat poison contains?

A

superwarfarin

give pts FFP with ingestion

639
Q

cryoprecipitate contains which clotting factors?

A

8, 13, vWF, prothrombin (2)

these are the cold-soluble clotting factors

640
Q

Risks of second-hand smoke exposure in fetus/kids

A

in fetus/baby: abnormal placentation, decreased fetal oxygenation, prematurity/low birth weight, SIDS, middle ear disease, asthma, respiratory tract infxns

why SIDS? probably has something to do with decreased arousal and abnormal CV responses to stimuli

641
Q

how are intracellular pathogens broken down to be displayed on MHC I?

A

by ubiquitin-proteasome system in the ER –> coupled to MHCI and displayed on the cell surface

642
Q

Parvo sx in kids vs adults?

A

kids: erythema infectiosum/fifth disease
adults: acute arthropathy (symmetric, involves PIP, metacarpal, knee, and ankle joints; self-limited and non-destructive)

get these sx once the heavy viremia/viral shedding phase is over (sx from active immune response with formation of ICs)

643
Q

order of hormones secreted in response to fast?

A

Glycogenolysis for first 12-18 hrs

Then gluconeogenesis

glucagon acutely (increase hepatic gluconeo and glycogenolysis)

then epinephrine (also increase hepatic gluconeo and glycogenolysis, increase mobilization of gluconeo substrates)

finally cortisol and GH to alter transcription of genes that conserve glucose (increase gluconeo, do lipolysis and proteolysis)

644
Q

Digoxin - mech and what is it used to treat?

A

slows ventricular rate by ENHANCING VAGAL TONE –> decreased ventricular response to atrial flutter/afib

also blocks Na/K atpase so increases [Ca]i

645
Q

Fibronectin

A

high-molecular weight glycoprotein that binds components of ECM and to integrin receptors

made in liver

role in wound healing

646
Q

Differences in mechanism of buprenorphine and methadone?

A

methadone = full mu-opioid receptor agonist with long half life, so it suppresses cravings and withdrawal sx but can –> resp suppression, QT prolongation

buprenorphine = partial agonist

647
Q

What happens to the aortic valves in different causes of AS?

A

calcific degeneration (more common in developed countries) - progressive leaflet thickening and ca –> restricted mobility of the valve

rheumatic valve disease (developing world): fusion of valve commissures due to repetitive inflamm

also congenital causes (eg bicuspid aortic valve –> accelerated valve degen)

648
Q

Risk fx for SCCA vs adenocarcinoma of the esophagus

A

SCCA: smoking, alcohol, and nitroso-containing foods are big causes; some association with low fiber/nutrient diet and Plummer-Vinson, very hot foods/beverages, achalasia

adeno: Barrett’s, GERD, obesity, tobacco

649
Q

Most common route of infxn in osteomyelitis in adults?

most common bugs?

sx?

w/u?

A

usually hematogenous spread

bugs = staph and G-

sx: new or worsening localized back pain, fever, recent endocarditis or bacteremia, new neuro findings

w/u: blood cultures and MRI of spine (then can isolate the bug via CT-guided bone bx)

650
Q

Two different sensory innervation sources of parietal pleura?

A

Phrenic: sensory innervation of diaphragmatic and mediastinal parietal pleura - pain in these areas = referred to shoulder etc (C3-5)

Intercostal nn: sensory innervation of costal and cervical pleura (extends with apices of lungs into neck) - pain in these areas = local

651
Q

Why is hydralazine not used in htn emergency?

A

b/c it vasodilates –> reflex sympathetic activation (increased HR and contractility)

use DA D1 agonists instead (eg fenoldopam) to save kidneys and decrease BP without affecting beta and alpha receptors

use IV drugs b/c they can be quickly adjusted and act fast

652
Q

Metabolic effects of thiazides

A

decreased insulin secretion, increased LDL, increased TGs

also raise serum Ca, uric acid; lower serum sodium, K, Mg

653
Q

Expression cloning

A

type of DNA cloning where signals necessary for transcription and translation are included in cloned DNA, so that DNA can be inserted into bacterial plasmid and the bacteria produces large amounts of protein of interest on its own

654
Q

Positive skew - where is the tail? RElationship of mean and median?

A

positive skew means tail is on the RIGHT (so higher values are less frequent)

mode

655
Q

Carpal tunnel - what makes up its borders and what’s inside it?

A

bordered by transverse carpal ligament/flexor retinaculum, which attaches to hamate and pisiform medially (ulnar side) and trapezium and scaphoid laterally (radial/median side)

what passes through: flexor digitorum profundus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus tendons, and MEDIAN NERVE

so compression of median n –> sx (weakness of thumb abduction and opposition, atrophy of thenar eminence, pain and paresthesias)

656
Q

Thayer martin media

A

SELECTIVE medium

vanc (kills G+), nystatin (kills fungi), colistin and TMP (kills other G-)

vs. differential medium allows bugs to grow but they grow differently (eg pink lactose fermenters on MacConkey)
vs. ENRICHMENT media contain special growth factors (eg X and V factors for haemophilus)

657
Q

Somatic symptom vs illness anxiety disorder

A

somatic symptom - excessive anxiety and preoccupation with >=1 unexplained sx

illness anxiety - few or no sx and negative evaluations, but persistent fear of having serious illness

658
Q

Two enzymes that degrade 6-MP to inactive form?

Enzyme that activates 6-MP?

A

Xanthine oxidase, TPMT

if block them (eg with allopurinol), can increase effect of 6-MP (good if intentional, bad if unintentional and –> bone marrow suppression)

activating enzyme: HGPRT

659
Q

Cells that release proliferative factors key to atheroma formation?

A

platelets, endothelial cells, macrophages

660
Q

Key/specific findings in Legionnaire’s disease

A

hyponatremia, grows on BCYE medium (selective), sputum shows lots of PMNs but not bugs, GI sx, neuro sx, fever with relative bradycardia

also patchy infiltrates on CXR

661
Q

Why are pregnant ladies more prone to thrombosis?

A

virchow’s triad:

hypercoagulable from increased factors 7, 8, and 10 + vWF and fibrinogen

stasis from preg-related venous dilation and uterine compression of IVC

endothelial damage from birth

**thrombosis often assumed to be infxn b/c presents with fever but then doesn’t improve with abx

662
Q

Absolute contraindications for use of OCPs

A
  • hx of thromboembolic event or stroke
  • history of estrogen-dependent tumor
  • > 35 yo and/or heavy smoker
  • hyperTG
  • decompensated or active liver disease (impaired steroid metabolism)
  • pregnancy

**no longer induce insulin resistance (low-dose estrogen)

663
Q

Copper reduction test

A

urine test to look for reducing sugar (fructose, glucose, galactose)

vs. urine dipstick uses glucose oxidase to ID presence of sugar, so will only pick up glucose (not, eg, fructose in essential fructosuria)

664
Q

Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease

A

defective production of proteins involved in peripheral myelin sheath

autosomal dominant

often presents with weakness of foot dorsiflexion

665
Q

Where do anal fissures usually happen?

A

longitudinal tears in posterior midline of anal canal, distal to pectinate line

probably posterior is most common b/c least perfusion, so slowest healing and more sensitive to trauma

usu due to constipation; if not midline, consider IBD etc as cause

666
Q

Dystonia - definition and most common types?

A

sustained, invol muscle contractions

cervical dystonia (torticollis) = most common, then blepharospasm (eyelid closure), then writer’s cramp

667
Q

Sx of hypothyroidism (beside metabolic ones)

A

slowing of metabolic processes (eg weight gain)

matrix glycosaminoglycan accum (coarse, dry skin; hoarseness, nonpitting edema, macroglossia)

depression

myalgia and arthralgia (get myoedema - focal mounding of muscle with percussion - due to slow reabs of Ca into SR) - CK may be elevated BEFORE OTHER SX OF HHYPOTHYROIDISM DEVELOP

hypercholesterolemia

668
Q

Causes of elevated CK

A

hypothyroid

autoimmune (eg polymyositis)

muscular dystrophies

meds (eg statins)

vs. CK normal in glucocorticoid-induced myopathy and polymyalgia rheumatica

669
Q

Three kinds of creatine kinase

A

CK-MM (skeletal muscle)

CK-MB (cardiac muscle)

CK-BB (nervous system)

670
Q

Effect of beta blockers on K movement?

A

move K out of cells (vs beta agonists move K into cell)

671
Q

Chronic tic vs tourette

A

Tourette: multiple motor and one or more vocal tics (not necessarily concurrent) for > 1 year, onset before 18yo; tics may wax and wane, worse with fatigue/stress, preceded by urge and followed by relief

Chronic tic: >=1 motor OR verbal (not both) tics for >=1 year

672
Q

pink frothy sputum and cough is a sign of ?

A

severe pulmonary edema that –> rupture of bronchial veins

may be due to LV failure –> backup of blood into lungs and increased intrapulm pressure

673
Q

Enzymes that require thiamine?

A

pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complexes

674
Q

Conditions that can cause carpal tunnel

A

anything that reduces carpal tunnel space

pregnancy (fluid accum)

hypothyroidism (glycosaminoglycan buildup, which also causes skin sx etc)

DM (CT thickening)

RA (tendon inflamm)

dialysis (amyloidosis)

MAY OCCUR BILATERALLY

675
Q

Conditions that can cause carpal tunnel

A

anything that reduces carpal tunnel space

pregnancy (fluid accum)

hypothyroidism (glycosaminoglycan buildup, which also causes skin sx etc)

DM (CT thickening)

RA (tendon inflamm)

dialysis (amyloidosis)

MAY OCCUR BILATERALLY

676
Q

Treatment of PCOS - general?

for women who want to get pregnant?

for women who don’t want to get pregnant?

A

general: weight loss

if that doesn’t work, and want to get pregnant: clomiphene or other SERM (blocks estrogen negative feedback on HT –> increased GnRH release –> increased LH and FSH –> ovulation)

if weight loss doesn’t work and don’t want to get pregnant: OCPs (progestin decreases endometrial proliferation, estrogen/progestin suppress LH secretion and increase SHBG synthesis in liver, which binds up free androgens and decreases their effects)

677
Q

Most susceptible vascular beds to atherosclerosis?

A

lower abdominal aorta, coronary arteries (bends and branch points –> turbulence that causes endothelial dysfxn and prolonged contact with cholesterol in blood)

**predominantly plaques develop in big elastic and large/medium-sized muscular arteries (eg coronary) - in aorta, lesions = most prominent around ostia of branches (more turbulent)

next most common: popliteal arteries, internal carotid arteries, and circle of willis

678
Q

Vessels that are resistant to developing atherosclerosis?

A

internal mammary arteries

often used in CABG for that reason

679
Q

Progressive supranuclear palsy

A

form of parkinsonism from deposits of phosphorylated tau proteins –> neurodegen of MIDBRAIN AND FRONTAL SUBCORTICAL WM

sx: gait dysfxn and falls, executive fxn loss, vertical gaze palsy

680
Q

How to distinguish CMV from EBV mono?

A

EBV –> positive monospot (heterophile antibody agglutination)

also EBV more commonly causes pharyngitis and LAD

both cause atypical lymphocytes, fever, fatigue, splenomegaly

EBV infects B cells; CMV infects leukocytes (granulocyte-macrophage precursors)

mono-like illness that’s monospot neg can also be caused by HHV6, HIV, and toxo

681
Q

cardiovasc sx of SLE and what causes them?

A

serosal inflamm is common, and often manifests as pleuritis or PERICARDITIS (pleuritic pain that increases with inspiration and is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward)

can hear friction rub

also Libman-sacks endocarditis, pericardial effusion, increased risk of CAD

682
Q

Listeria - drug resistance?

A

develops resistant PBP, so resistant to PCN, cephalosporin etc

susc to ampicillin (so empiric abx for infants and IC pts with meng often include ampicillin)

683
Q

Drugs that can prolong QT

A

class IA and III antiarrhythmics (quinidine, sotalol)

antibiotics (eg macrolides, quinolones)

methadone

antipsychotics (eg haloperidol)

684
Q

If have to do horizontal transection of rectus abdominus, which vessels have to be ligated?

A

inferior epigastrics (don’t have supporting posterior sheath surrounding rectus abdominus below the arcuate line, so no protection)

685
Q

Xanthelasma vs other xanthomas?

A

xanthelasma - in 50% pts, no associated lipid abnormality, no inflamm or fibrotic stroma around them

other xanthomas - lipid-macrophages surrounded by inflamm cells and fibrotic stroma (can be eruptive and sudden, plane in PBC, tuberous/tendinous on achilles and extensor tendons)

686
Q

ovarian epithelium type?

fallopian tube/uterus/upper cervix (endo) epith type?

lower (ecto) cervix/vagina epith type?

A

ovary = simple cuboidal

tubes/uterus/endocervix = columnar

ectocervix/vagina = stratified squamous (nonkeratinized)

687
Q

Why is it bad to give glucose before thiamine in Wernicke?

A

b/c giving glucose ramps up glycolysis and TCA, which uses up what little thiamine is left and worsens the deficiency (since thiamine is used in pyruvate dehydrog and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrog)

688
Q

Maple syrup urine disease is caused by deficiency in ….?

and what are the cofactors of that enzyme complex?

A

deficiency in branched-chain alpha-ketoacid dehydrogenase complex - any of four genes that code for catalytic subunits of enzyme complex can be mutated

similar to pyruvate dehydrog and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrog (5 cofactors: thiamine, lipoate, CoA, FAD, NAD)

689
Q

Antibiotic resistance that occurs through drug modification by bug?

A

aminoglycosides

690
Q

Antibiotic resistance that occurs via influx/efflux pumps?

A

vanc, quinolones, TCNs, macrolides

691
Q

Antibiotic resistance that occurs via inactivating enzyme?

A

TCNs - bug enzyme allows ribosome to do translation even in presence of TCNs

692
Q

Most notorious side effect of amphotericin B?

vs. azole side effect?

A

amph: renal toxicity (reduced GFR and renal vasocon + direct tubule damage)

can –> hypokalemia and hypoMg

azoles: hepatotoxicity

693
Q

Erythema multiforme - what is it and what causes it?

A
  • red, round papules that become target lesions with dusky central area, red zone and pale ring around that; cell-mediated immune response with CD8 infiltrate
  • cause = infxn usually (esp HSV and mycoplasma) - may = due to immune response against bug antigens deposited in skin; also assoc with sulfonamides and other drugs, malig, collagen vasc dz
  • NOT systemic infxn, but systemic response to local infxn
694
Q

sx of TCA overdose and how to reverse it?

A

anti-cholinergic (dry mouth, blurred vision, dilated pupils, urinary retention, hyperthermia, flushing)

sedation (AMS, respiratory depression)

blockade of heart Na channels (arrhythmias, prolonged PR/QRS/QT intervals)

alpha 1 receptor blocking (hypotension with reflex tachy)

reversal: sodium bicarb to treat widened QRS and ventricular arrhythmias (it increases serum pH, which favors neutral form of drug, so it’s less accessible to bind Na channels; also increases Na conc which helps overcome blockade)

695
Q

acetaminophen vs ibuprofen vs aspirin

A

acetaminophen = tylenol; antipyretic but NOT anti-inflamm

ibuprofen = NSAID (reversible cox inhibitor)

aspirin = NSAID (irreversible COX inhibitor)

696
Q

Classic presentation of benzo overdose and reversal

A

depressed CNS with normal vital signs

reversal = flumazenil

697
Q

Bleeding time is a test of what?

A

Platelet function

NOT COAG FACTORS

698
Q

What kind of colonic polyp causes watery diarrhea?

A

Villous adenoma - secretes watery mucus –> secretory diarrhea, hypovolemia, electrolyte abnormalities

vs. hamartomatous polyps can cause bleeding and intussusception

hyperplastic = asymptomatic

carcinoids can cause diarrhea but also flushign, wheezing, telangiectasia

699
Q

Why do you get lactic acidosis with sepsis?

A

decreased end organ perfusion –> decreased tisue oxygenation and thus decreased ox phos

also hepatic hypoperfusion means liver can’t clear lactate by converting it back to glucose

700
Q

Damage to nucleus ambiguus causes ___?

A

myoclonus

701
Q

aplastic crisis vs aplastic anemia

A

crisis = just RBC problem (eg parvo infection of RBCs in sickle cell patient)

aplastic anemia = bone marrow failure –> PANCYTOPENIA

702
Q

How to treat coag-negative staph?

A

common cause of infection in pts with catheters or foreign implants (create biofilm)

most = methicillin-resistant, so start with vanc as empiric abx

if susc results show susc to methicillin, use nafcillin or oxacillin (anti-staph pcns that resist staph beta lactamases)

703
Q

“Endoneural inflammatory inflammation”

A

think Guillain-Barre (ascending flaccid paralysis and hyporeflexia due to autoimmune attack of myelin sheath)

704
Q

Mechanism of AAA

A

chronic transmural inflammation of the aortic wall –> degradation of elastin and collagen and remodeling of the wall that –> weakness

vs “fibrinoid necrosis” = immune process in vasculitis

705
Q

Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome

A

one of most common congenital long-QT syndromes

also congenital neurosensory deafness

706
Q

pituitary apoplexy - most common cause and tx?

A

cause = adenoma

tx = glucocorticoid replacement (to prevent hypotension) and surgery

707
Q

Malformed teeth are a sign of congenital ______

A

syphilis

708
Q

Effect of Fe deficiency anemia on serum transferrin

A

Increased transferrin (liver makes more transferrin with Fe deficiency)

Increased TIBC (decreased saturation with decreased Fe supply)

709
Q

Symptoms of HSP

A

young kids, usu after URI

abdominal pain (+/- bleed), joint pain, LE purpura (from IC deposition in skin), hematuria (from IC deposition in mesangium)

710
Q

Symptoms of Kawasaki and tx

A

medium-vessel vasculitis, esp in young kids

swollen ln, red eyes, high fevers, strawberry tongue, perioral erythema and fissuring, can develop coronary artery aneurysm –> thrombosis or rupture!

tx = IVIG and aspirin

711
Q

WHich vessel do you ligate with postpartum hemorrhage?

A

internal iliac - uterine aa branch off the internal iliac

enough collaterals to uterus (from ovarian arteries, which branch off abdominal aorta) to maintain uterine fxn after ligation

712
Q

Three drugs to treat alcohol dependence and mech of each?

A
  • naltrexone (blocks mu opioid receptor, so blocks rewarding effects of alcohol and decreases craving)
  • disulfiram (inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase so acetaldehyde accumulates when you drink –> nausea, vomiting, flushing, sweating, headache, palp etc)
  • acamprosate (NMDAR modulator, decreases withdrawal sx; mech unknown)
713
Q

N. meng capsular polysaccharide vs outer membrane lipooligosaccharide (LOS)

A

capsule polysacch = important virulence factor that prevents phagocytosis

LOS = endotoxin that –> systemic inflamm and sepsis (analogous to LPS; increased LOS –> worse prog)

714
Q

Broad- vs. narrow-spectrum anticonvulsants and uses?

A

broad: lamotrigine, levetiracetam, topiramate, valproic acid - use for generalized seizure disorders (both hemispheres involved) - tonic-clonic, myoclonic, absence
narrow: carbamazepine, gabapentin, phenobarb, phenytoin (for simple and complex partial seizures)

715
Q

Lumbosacral plexopathy

A

injury during labor where fetus directly compresses lumbosacral trunk on its way out

mom presents with foot drop and numbness of lateral aspect of leg and dorsum of foot (peroneal) - usually self resolves

716
Q

cause of fecal/urinary incontinence following labor?

A

stretch injury to pudendal nerve, which does sensory innervation fo external genitalia + skin around anus and perineum + motor innervation of pelvic floor mm and external urethral and anal sphincters

717
Q

alopecia areata + tx

A

autoimmune disorder that –> rapid onset patchy or diffuse hair loss

tx: intralesional glucocorticoids

718
Q

high- vs low-grade CIN - how are they defined?

A

high: atypical cells extend beyond bottom 1/3 of cervical epithelium
low: atypical cells are only in bottom 1/3 of epithelium (usually regress spontaneously)

719
Q

Effective abx for anaerobes

A

often produce beta lactamase, so Pip-tazo works, as does metronidazole, carbapenems, and clindamycin

720
Q

Tumor under the nail could be _ or __?

A

melanoma or glomus tumor (made of smooth muscle cells of thermoregulatory glomus body)

721
Q

complete hemithorax opacification on CXR - causes and how to tell them apart?

A
  1. collapsed lung, usu due to mainstem bronchus obstruction –> alveolar collapse as air inside them is absorbed into blood –> pull trachea and other organs TOWARD affected side
  2. pleural effusion, if really big –> tracheal deviation AWAY from affected side
722
Q

Mechanism of DIC in obstetrics?

A

placental injury (eg abruption) –> release of tissue factor from trophoblasts into maternal circulation –> activation of intravasc coag and microthrombi that circulate and –> organ ischemia, clotting and breaking up clots (increased d-dimer from fibrinolysis)

most common cause is htn –> placental abruption –> fetal demise and DIC

723
Q

DIC in pregnant woman with hypotension and cardiogenic shock?

A

amniotic fluid embolism (fetal antigens in amniotic fluid –> clotting cascade)

724
Q

Bug that typically causes epididymitis?

A

Gonorrhea or Chlamydia

725
Q

Antivirals that don’t require viral kinase?

A

foscarnet

nucleotide analogs (cidofovir, tenofovir) - vs nucleoside analogs (acyclovir, famcyclovir, gancicylovir etc) need viral kinases

so in thymidine-kinase deficient VZV strains (isolated mostly in HIV pts), use these drugs

726
Q

Use of terbutaline in mom has been linked to what AEs in baby?

A

used to delay labor by relaxing uterus

AEs in baby: intraventricular hemorrhage, hypoglycemia, hypocalcemia, ileus

727
Q

Hemolysin

A

secreted by Staph aureus –> hemolysis, destruction of PMNs, macrophages, plts

728
Q

Fibronectin

A

glycoproteins in the ECM made by fibroblasts and epithelial cells that bind to integrins (transmembrane proteins) and collagen - link between cell and ECM collagen

729
Q

Two types of glycosaminoglycans in the ECM and their fxn?

A

hyaluronic acid - water retention and matrix stiffness

keratan sulfate - maintaining type I collagen fibril organization

730
Q

Sentinel event

A

sort of red flag

unexpected occurrence involving death or serious physical or psychological injury that requires immediate investigation

731
Q

definition of “preventable adverse event”

A

injury to a patient due to FAILURE TO FOLLOW EVIDENCE-BASED BEST PRACTICE GUIDELINES

732
Q

Dimpling of the breast in breast cancer indicates what?

A

invasion of suspensory ligaments of the breast

733
Q

How to treat ER+ tumor in pre- vs post-menopausal women?

A

pre: still have lots of aromatase in their ovaries, so use GnRH analog (continuous) like goserelin
post: decreased granulosa cells so less aromatase in ovaries, and can use aromatase inhibitors (eg anastrozole, exemestane) to decrease extraovarian aromatase activity

734
Q

Mechanism of testicular torsion

A

inadequate fixation of lower pole of testis to tunica vaginalis –> twisting

pampiniform plexus is compressed so no blood outflow, but testicular arteries are ok for a while –> blood inflow with no drainage –> engorgement –> hemorrhagic infarction

sx: pain, high-riding testis, no cremasteric reflex, n/v

735
Q

Effects of TCAs

A
  1. Inhibit reuptake of NE and serotonin
  2. mAChR antag (tachy, delirium, pupil dilation, flushing, sweating, urinary retention etc)
  3. alpha 1 antag (vasodil)
  4. anti-hist (H1) –> sedation, increased app
  5. block cardiac fast sodium channels (conduction problems, arrhythmias)
736
Q

Most common cause of death in TCA overdose?

A

cardiac arrhythmias from blocking Na channels (slowed cardiac depol)

737
Q

Most common cause of death in TCA overdose?

A

cardiac arrhythmias from blocking Na channels (slowed cardiac depol)

738
Q

Sx of glucagonoma

A

necrolytic migratory erythema

DM (hyperglycemia)

normocytic normochromic anemia

GI sx (diarrhea, ab pain etc)

739
Q

necrolytic migratory erythema

A

erythematous papules/plaques on face, perineum, extremities that coalesce and form bronze-colored central indurated area with peripheral blistering and scaling

seen with glucagonoma from low levels of circulating AAs (since they’re all being used for gluconeo)

740
Q

p27

A

cell cycle inhibitor

present in low quantities in many tumors, so decreased G1–>S inhibition

741
Q

Sx of theophylline intoxication? Tx?

A

Seizures - treat with benzos and barbs

tachyarrhythmias - treat with beta blockers

activated charcoal to decrease GI abs

742
Q

Sx of iron poisoning

A

hematemesis, melena (iron is toxic to gastric mucosal cells)

743
Q

Hyperplastic vs hyaline arteriolosclerosis?

A

hyperplastic = with super high BP, onion skinning

hyaline = moderately high BP, deposition of hyaline material in intima and media

744
Q

Flow = ?

Flow, vessel radius relationship?

A

Flow = P/R

R = 8nuL/r^4

so flwo is directly proportional to vessel radius^4

745
Q

Pure red-cell aplasia causes

A

decreased RBCs and retics but normal granulopoiesis and thrombopoiesis

causes: auto-IgG or cytotoxic Ts inhibit erythroid progenitors - associated with thymomas and lymphocytic leukemias, parvo

746
Q

Reverse T3

A

inactive form of thyroid hormone generated from peripheral T4

747
Q

Why don’t we give hypothyroid patients T3?

A

short t1/2, so pts can have wide fluctuations in plasma T3 levels

748
Q

types of exocrine glands

A

merocrine (secrete via exocytosis) - salivary, eccrine sweat glands, apocrine sweat glands

apocrine (secrete via membrane-bound vesicles) - mammary glands

holocrine (secrete via cell lysis, releasing cell contents) - sebaceous glands, meibomian glands (eyelids)

749
Q

What causes urine leakage 5-10 days post-kidney transplant?

A

transplanted kidney is placed retroperitoneally with its ureter and the ureter is connected to recipient’s bladder

usually distal ureter has lots of anastomotic blood supply; proximal ureter has donor renal artery to supply it, but distal donor ureter is susc to ischemia –> leakage of urine

750
Q

effect of multiple myeloma on the kidney?

A

tubular obstruction (due to precipitation of free light chains [bence jones proteins] with tamm-horsfall protein –> tubular casts)

751
Q

E Coli virulence factor that causes meng?

In E Coli that cause UTIs?

In E Coli that cause sepsis?

A

neonatal meng: K1 capsular antigen

UTIs: fimbriae

LPS: sepsis (causes macrophage activation –> release of IL1, IL6, and TNFalpha)

752
Q

Mucicarmine stain

A

stains cryptococcal capsule red

753
Q

pathophys of photoaging? which UV and what happens to collagen?

A

UVA (vs UVB causes upper dermis damage and increases risk of malignancy)

increased ROS –> decreased collagen fibril production, increased cross-linking of collagen that is there and increased MMPs, which break down that collagen and elastin –> deposition of collagen breakdown products

also get thinning of epidermis and atrophy of dermis –> wrinkling

754
Q

How does the menotropin/hCG combo work?

A

induce ovulation

menotropin mimics FSH –> follicle development

then give hCG to mimic LH surge and stimulate ovulation of that follicle

755
Q

Order of tx in anaphylaxis?

A

epinephrine first

then anti-histamines or steroids

756
Q

ubiquitination roles

A

antigen processing

muscle wasting (atrophy)

cell cycle regulation

DNA repair

disposal of misfolded proteins

impaired in neurodegen dz (eg Parkin, PINK1, and DJ-1 mutations that –> aut recessive, early onset PD)

need 4 ubiquitin tags on protein, added in ATP-dependent process, to degrade it

757
Q

IFN-alpha is used to treat what viruses?

A

hep B and C, Hairy Cell leukemia, condyloma acuminatum, kaposi’s sarcoma

758
Q

CD31, aka?

A

PECAM1

expressed on surface of endothelial cells and functions in leukocyte migration through endothelium

look for it to ID vascular tumors (eg angiosarcoma)

759
Q

Straight leg test - use?

A

pain elicited in supine patient with leg held straight and raised

sign of sciatic nerve root irritation (L4-S3)

usually from intervertebral disc herniation

760
Q

Primary route of copper excretion?

A

whatever is ingested and not incorporated into ceruloplasmin is secreted by liver into bile and excreted in stool

761
Q

aseptic (viral) vs bacterial meng: CSF findings and sx

A

CSF:

  • bacterial: low glucose, high protein
  • viral: normal-slightly low glucose, low/normal protein

sx: aseptic is usually less severe (no focal neuro sx, seizures, or AMS; if yes, consider alternative diag, like bacterial meng, encephalitis, intracranial hemorrhage)

762
Q

What is a spacer and why do patients need it?

A

piece that fits on inhaler to ensure appropriate dose and inhalation technique with long-acting steroid inhaler for asthma

helps prevent oropharyngeal candidiasis (also rinse the mouth)

763
Q

role of neurophysins

A

posttanslational processing and stabilization of oxytocin and vasopressin within their secretory vesicles in herring bodies (axons of HT neurons that descend into posterior pit)

764
Q

Through what area do direct inguinal ligaments protrude? Due to weakness in what?

A

through hesselbach’s triangle (bordered by inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vv laterally, and rectus abdominus medially)

due to weakness in transversalis fascia (floor of triangle)

765
Q

cause and sx of:

familial chylomicronemia

familial hypercholesterolemia

familial dysbetalipoproteinemia

familial hyperTGemia

A

CM: LPL defect - can’t break down CMs, so get acute pancreatitis, eruptive xanthomas, lipemia retinalis (milky retina)

cholesterolemia: LDL receptor defect - tendon xanthomas, premature CAD
dysbetalipoproteinemia: ApoE defect so can’t clear CMs and VLDL remnants –> tuboeruptive and palmar xanthomas, premature CAD and peripheral vasc dz

hyperTGemia: ApoA defect usually so can’t clear VLDL –> increased risk of pancreatitis, associated iwth obesity and insulin resistance

766
Q

how do CD8 t cells kill infected cells?

A

induce apoptosis

767
Q

How does entamoeba histolytica get to liver to form cyst?

A

ingest it and it ascends from colon through portal venous sytem to liver

768
Q

how can enteric bugs cause liver abscess? (routes of access)

A

biliary tract infxn (ascending cholangitis)

portal vein pyemia (from bowel or peritoneum)

direct invasion from adjacent source (peritonitis, cholecystitis)

769
Q

Drug of choice for unruptured ectopic?

A

methotrexate

hinder growth of rapidly dividing embryonic cells

770
Q

when do you see first histo signs of MI?

when do you first see PMNs?

macrophages?

granulation tissue and neovascularization?

Scar?

A

4 hours after onset of severe ischemia

(start to see coag necrosis, edema, punctate hemorrhage, wavy fibers)

PMNs at 1-3d

Macrophages at >= 5 days

Granulation tissue and neovasc >= 7 days

scar >= 2 weeks - 2 months

771
Q

Cause of hypocalcemia with blood transfusion?

A

citrate anticoagulant in transfused blood can chelate Ca

only causes problems with massive transfusions over 24 hrs (5-6L)

772
Q

Symptoms of cerebellar hemisphere lesion

A

impaired coordination and motor planning in IPSILATERAL extremities

  • dysdiadochokinesia (impaired RAMs)
  • limb dysmetria (over/undershoot)
  • intention tremor
773
Q

Most common cause of death in DM?

A

Coronary heart disease

774
Q

Three strongest risk fx for development of coronary heart disease?

A

DM, noncoronary atherosclerotic disease, CKD

775
Q

significance of monoclonality in B or T cell population in a lymph node?

A

indicates malignancy in lymph node (if responding to antigen, multiple genetically-distinct cells undergo limited monoclonal expansion –> overall polyclonal response, but malig = monoclonal)

test with PCR to look at rearrangement of receptor genes (T cells) or Ig variable regions (B cells)

776
Q

What is “microsomal monooxygenase”?

A

cytochrome P450 mooxygenase in hepatic microsomes and ER - metabolizes toxins etc by making them soluble, but that can also convert pro-carcinogens to carcinogens (eg benzopyrene)

so if have increased p450 activity (genetic), more susc to these pro-carcinogens

777
Q

Call-Exner body - what does it look like and what cancer?

A

Granulosa cell tumor

granulosa cells gathered in microfollicular pattern around pink, eosinophilic center + coffee-bean nuclei

other clues: yellow tumor (b/c of lipid content in theca cells) + endometrial hyperplasia from excess estrogen made by tumor

vs. schiller-duval bodies of endodermal sinus tumor (increased AFP)

778
Q

what does it mean to have “decreased lung elastic recoil” in COPD?

A

decreased radial traction –> dynamic airway collapse

779
Q

histo finding in PML?

A

cytoplasmic inclusions in oligodendrocytes

780
Q

most common cause of spontaneous lobar hemorrhage?

A

amyloid angiopathy

vs. charcot-bouchard aneurysm rupture causes hemorrhage of deep brain structures

781
Q

Mycotic aneurysm

A

local destruction and dilation of arterial wall due to infection (doesn’t have to be fungal, despite the name)

782
Q

Basophils release?

A

Heparin (anticoag) and histamine (vasodil)

783
Q

Cardiac manifestations of systemic sclerosis

A
  • cor pulmonale due to PAH
  • pericardial disease
  • myocardial fibrosis
  • conduction system disease
784
Q

Short- vs long-acting second-generation sulfonylureas

A

short: glipizide (decreased risk of hypoglycemia)
long: glyburide, glimepride (higher incidence of hypoglycemia, esp in elderly)

785
Q

Role of indomethacin in treating nephrogenic DI?

A

PGs inhibit ADH, so inhibit PGs to increase effect of endogenous ADH

786
Q

Inheritance pattern for achondroplasia

A

Autosomal dominant

787
Q

Why must NSAIDs be avoided in hyperthyroid pts?

A

NSAIDs can displace thyroid hormones from binding proteins, thus increasing circulating levels of thyroid hormones

788
Q

Chorionic somatomammotropin, aka

A

human placental lactogen

increases insulin resistance in mom during 2nd and 3rd trimesters

789
Q

Effect of nitroprusside on preload and afterload

A

Decreases both b/c it’s a balanced venous and arterial vasodilator

790
Q

Otic ganglion

A

innervates parotid gland (salivation)

791
Q

Vascular dementia - ischemic lesions of what part of brain?

A

subcortical white matter

792
Q

Sx that distinguish Marfan and homocystinuria

A

Marfan - ectopia lentis (dislocated lens) = upward, aortic root dilation

Homocystinuria - ectopia lentis = downard, ID, thrombosis, megaloblastic anemia, fair complexion

793
Q

Complementation

A

2 parents give rise to distinct phenotypic trait because they each have homozygous mutations in different genes that participate at different steps of same pathway

794
Q

Effect of Ca on QT interval

A

hypocalcemia –> QT prolongation

hypercalcemia –> QT shortening

795
Q

Effect of K on EKG

A

hyperkalemia - peaked T, loss of P, prolonged PR, widened QRS, slowed HR, vfib if severe

hypokalemia - U wave, QT prolongation, ST depression, torsades if severe

796
Q

Lateral gaze palsy usually results from lesion where?

Vertical gaze palsy from lesion where?

A

Lateral = pontine lesion that affects abducens (or FEF lesion)

Vertical = superior colliculus lesion (eg stroke, pinealoma)

797
Q

Mammary duct ectasia histo

A

ductal dilation and inspissation with breast secretions

around the ducts, chronic granulomatous inflammation

798
Q

Why is the spleen so important in immune response to encapsulated bugs?

A
  1. spleen’s phagocytes clear bugs that haven’t been opsonized (capsule protects these guys from opsonization)
  2. spleen contains about 50% of body’s B cells that make opsonizing antibodies

so double whammy - can’t opsonize and can’t clear stuff that isn’t opsonized

799
Q

Pathophys cause of lactose intolerance?

A

decreased lactase gene expression with age

800
Q

Risk factors for nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

EBV, nitrosamines, tobacco, alcohol

801
Q

What to do with patient with low back pain?

A

If have red flag sx (>50yo, history of cancer, constitiutional sx, nighttime pain, pain > 1 month, no response to nsaids etc, neuro deficits, positive straight leg test [suggests radiculopathy]) - plain film X ray and ESR (suggests malignancy or inflamm condition); f/u Xray with MRI if necessary

else just NSAID or acetaminophen + moderate, regular physical activity

SIGNS OF CORD COMPRESSION (eg bowel/bladder dysfxn, saddle anesthesia, motor weakness) - URGENT MRI to exclude cauda equina syndrome from infxn or tumor

802
Q

what nerve travels through spiral groove on humerus?

A

radial

injured with midshaft humerus fracture

triceps reflex, elbow extension, and sensation over posterior arm all are intact b/c nerves branch off radial before entering groove; only get wrist/finger extensor problems (wrist drop)

803
Q

what nerve travels through spiral groove on humerus?

A

radial

injured with midshaft humerus fracture

triceps reflex, elbow extension, and sensation over posterior arm all are intact b/c nerves branch off radial before entering groove; only get wrist/finger extensor problems (wrist drop)

804
Q

What and where in the brain are negri bodies?

A
  • nucleocapsid material from rabies virus that looks like eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions
  • where? hippocampus
805
Q

xerosis

A

aka asteatotic dermatitis, or “winter’s itch”

indoor heaters lower humidity of ambient air –> defects in stratum corneum permeability barrier; common in elderly

tx: maintain and replenish barrier - use lukewarm water to bathe with neutral or acidic cleansers and moisturize immediately after

806
Q

Similarities and differences b/w presentation of McArdle and FA metabolism defects?

A

FA metab defects –> buildup of TGs in muscle –> myalgias, but usually with prolonged exercise, and they don’t improve with rest

vs. McArdle - myalgia is basically immediate with exertion and improves with rest (increased blood to mm with FFAs etc for energy)

807
Q

First sign of cavernous sinus thrombosis?

A

lateral gaze palsy, from compression/involvement of CN6

808
Q

trophozoites with phagocytosed RBCs in their cytoplasm?

A

entamoeba histolytica

oral-fecal (household contacts, sexual activity, water)

809
Q

Effect of probenecid on PCN

A

probenecid blocks organic anion transporters in the prox tubule, so on basolateral side, blocks PCN secretion (and thus excretion, raising plasma PCN levels) by blocking OAT - used in PCN resistance, neurosyphilis, gonorrhea

on apical side, blocks urate transporter to decrease uric acid reabs

810
Q

general cause of syncope?

mech of cough syncope?

A

generally: decrease in cerebral blood flow
cough: increased intrathoracic pressure during cough –> decreased venous return to heart –> transient decrease in CO and cerebral perfusion

811
Q

what happens when you stimulate the vagus nerve in the external ear (auricular branch)?

A

reflex cough or vomiting

812
Q

Drugs used to coat coronary stents to prevent stent thrombosis and restenosis due to intimal hyperplasia?

A
  • sirolimus
  • paclitaxel (inhibits cellular division so prevents intimal hyperplasia)

risk of thrombosis continues for longer with drug-coated stents b/c takes longer to form new endothelium over them, so must keep pts on anti-plt agents for longer to prevent late stent thrombosis

813
Q

only RNA viruses that replicate in the nucleus?

only DNA virus that replicates in the cytoplasm?

A

RNA: influenza, retroviruses

DNA: pox

814
Q

mm that act on clavicle when it’s fractured?

A

delt pulls lateral fragment inferolaterally

SCM and trap pull more medial segments superiorly and medially

net effect is increased separation of fractured bone, which increases risk of nonunion

815
Q

melanoma susceptibility locus

A

CDKN2A on chromosome 9p21 - gene encodes CDK inhibitor 2A/p16, which is a cell cycle inhibitor

mutation there –> uncontrolled proliferation and increased susc to melanoma

associated with dysplastic nevus syndrome

816
Q

Leucine zippers

A

class of eukaryotic TF - 2 alpha helices with leucine at every 7th position combine, and have lots of Arg and Lysine at the base of the complex (basic AAs) that can bind in major groove of DNA –> TFs

other motifs seen in TFs: zinc finger structure, helix-loop-helix

817
Q

Causes of positive psoas sign

A

Appendicitis, psoas abscess

818
Q

Inheritance pattern for Alport syndrome?

A

X linked

819
Q

p57 significance with mole?

A

p57 is a paternally imprinted but maternally expressed gene, so in complete mole (no maternal genetic material, just double dad), negative staining for p57

vs partial mole - p57 positive

820
Q

Factor that causes greatest increase in risk of coronary artery disease?

A

Smoking

821
Q

Diaphragmatic apertures and what passes through them?

A

Vena caval aperture at T8 (IVC, right phrenic nerve)

Esophageal hiatus at T10 (esoph, anterior and posterior trunks of vagus)

Aortic hiatus at T12 (aorta, thoracic duct, azygous)

T10 = "oesophagus"
T12 = "At T-1-2 it's the red, white, blue"
822
Q

pathophys of MODY?

A

maturity-onset diabetes of the young, usually in thin, young person

often caused by mutation in glucokinase gene or associated TFs so t hat you need more glucose to get insulin release (decreased affinity of glucokinase in pancreatic beta cells)

usually mild hyperglycemia that doesn’t require medication

823
Q

straight leg raise test

A

to test for radiculopathy, usually due to herniated disk (esp at L5/S1)

can also be due to skeletal problem (eg foraminal stenosis) or infection, tumor

most cases resolve on their own in a few weeks-months

824
Q

Cytotoxic vs. vasogenic edema

A

cytotoxic - cellular injury impairs Na/K ATPase –> cells swell

vasogenic: increased vascular permeability and plasma filtration into the interstitium; happens in brain from tumors due to disruption of BBB –> increased ICP

825
Q

Causes of increased ICP with brain tumor?

A

Disruption of BBB –> vasogenic edema

CSF obstruction with tumors in third ventricle –> non-comm hydrocephalus

826
Q

anatomy of the cervix from out to in?

A

exocervix (external os) is lined with stratified non-keratinized squamous epith –> transformation zone/squamocolumnar junction –> simple columnar epithelium lining endocervical canal, which runs from external os to internal os/endocervix and contains mucus-secreting glands

827
Q

Blood sx of SLE?

A

warm AIHA and Ig to plts and WBCs –> pancytopenia