UWorld 4 Flashcards

1
Q

osteoporosis nonmodifiable RF

A
  • advanced age
  • postmenopausal
  • low body weight
  • white or asian
  • malabsorption disorders
  • hypercortilism, hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism
  • inflammatory d/o (RA)
  • chronic liver or renal dz
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2
Q

osteoporosis modifiable RF

A
  • smokin
  • excessive alcohol intake
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • meds (GC, anticonvulsants)
  • Vit D deficiency, inadequate calcium intake
  • estrogen deficiency (eg premature menopause, hysterectomy/oophorectomy)
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3
Q

Paget dz of bone

A
  • characterized by osteoclast dysfunction with a focal increase in bone turnover
  • most pts are asymptomatic, but s/s may include skeletal deformities, bone pain, and fractures
  • involvement of cranial bones may lead to HA and hearing loss
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4
Q

hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

A
  • suggested by development of clubbing and sudden-onset jt arthropathy in a chronic smoker
  • often assoc with lung ca, and therefore a CXR is indicated to rule out malignancy and/or other lung path
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5
Q

S3

A
  • low frequency diastolic sound heard just after S2 that is associated with LV failure
  • iv diuretics provide symptomatic benefits to pts with decompensated HF
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6
Q

OPP poisoning

A
  • inhibits acetylcholinesterase leading to s/s of CHOLINERGIC excess including: bradycardia, miosis, rhonchi, muscle fasciculations, salivation, lacrimation, urination and defecation.
  • atropine administration can reverse these effects
  • also: remove clothes and wash skin to prevent further transcutaneous absorption
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7
Q

spinal osteomyelitis

A
  • tenderness to gently percussion over the spinous process of the involved vertebra is the most reliable sign
  • pain not relieved with rest
  • fever and leukocytosis and unreliable findings
  • EST is grossly elevated
  • MRI is most sn diagnostic study
  • there should be avery high index of suspicion for vertebral osteomyelitis in pts w/ a h/o IVDU or recent distant site infection (UTI)
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8
Q

clinical features of analgesic nephropathy

A

CP:

  • associated with long term use of 1 or multiple analgesics (ASA, ibuprofen) for chronic HA or other somatic complaints
  • usually asymptomatic but can have chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis or hematuria d/t papillary necrosis

diagnosis:

  • elevated Cr with UA showing hematuria or sterile pyuria
  • can have mild proteinuria (<1.5g/d)
  • CT scan show small kidneys with b/l renal papillary calcifications
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9
Q

methanol intoxication

A

most severe consequences are vision loss and coma

  • PE: optic disc herniation while labs show anion gap met acidosis
  • also often see an osmolar gap as well
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10
Q

what is the most common cause of inadequate response to ESAs in pts on dialysis

A

iron deficiency

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11
Q

when are PDE-5 inhibitors contraindicated

A

in pts taking nitrates or alpha blockers as concomitant use can cause severe hypotension

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12
Q

acute exacerbation of COPD is characterized by a change in >/=1 of the following:

A
  • cough severity or frequency
  • volume or character of sputum production
  • level of dyspnea
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13
Q

alpha1-R blockers and stone impaction

A
  • ones like Tamsulosin act on the distal ureter, lowering muscle tone and reducing reflex ureteral spasm 2/2 stone impaction
  • these agents facilitate stone passage and reduce the need for analgesics
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14
Q

ppx criteria for Lyme dz (must meet ALL 5)

A
  1. attached tick is an adult or nymphal Ixodes scapularis (deer tick)
  2. tick attached for >/=36hours or engorged
  3. ppx started within 72 hrs of tick removal
  4. local borrelia burgdorferi infection rate >/=20% (eg New England area)
  5. no contraindications to doxy (eg age<8, pregnant, or lactating)
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15
Q

amiodarone and pre tests

A
  • pulm toxicity is a serious SE of long-term amiodarone use that can occur months to several years after the initiation of amiodarone therapy
  • baseline chest radiograph and PFT should be obtained prior to initiating therapy with amiodarone
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16
Q

alpha 1 AT deficiency

A
  • should be considered in pts who lack typical RF for COPD (eg age=45) or those with atypical features (basilar-predominant dz)
  • diagnosis is confirmed by measuring serum AAT levels
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17
Q

ascending aortic aneurysms

A
  • most often due to cystic medial necrosis or CTD
  • descending aortic aneurysms are usually d/t atherosclerosis
  • CXR can suggest thoracic aortic aneurysm by showing a widened mediastinal silhouette, increased aortic knob, and tracheal deviation
18
Q

management of Zenker diverticulum

A
  • open/endoscopic sx

- cricopharyngeal myotomy

19
Q

pacemaker

A

transvenous lead placement through tricuspid valve can cause severe tricuspid regurg d/t direct valve leaflet damage or inadequate leaflet coaptation
-this complication should be suspected in pts presenting with r-sided HF following implantable pacemaker or cardioverter-defribillator placement

20
Q

major risk factors for acute urinary retention

A
  • male sex (AUR rarely occurs in women)
  • advanced age (approx 33% of men age>80 will develop AUR)
  • h/o BPH
  • h/o neurologic dz (mild cognitive impairment)
  • sx (especially abdominal sx, pelvic sx, and joint arthroplasty)
21
Q

HACEK

A
  • Haemophilus aphrophilus
  • Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans (previously actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans)
  • Cardiobacterium hominis
  • E corrodens
  • Kingella kingae

responsible for only 3% of IE cases

22
Q

fibromyalgia

A
  • pain syndrome that occurs most commonly in young to middle-aged women and is characterized by fatigue, widepsread pain, and cognitive/mood disturbances
  • amitriptyline is an effective initial therapy
  • Pregablin, duloxetine, and milnacipran are alternate therapies for pts not responding to tricyclic antidepressants
23
Q

platelet dysfunction and chronic renal failure

A
  • plt dysfunction is the m/c c/o abnml hemostasis in pts with CRF,
  • PT, PTTm and plt ct are nml; BT is prolonged
  • DDAVP is usually the tx of choice if needed
24
Q

metabolic syndrome is diagnosed when at least 3 of the 5 following criteria are met:

A
  1. abdominal obesity (men waist circumference >40 inches; women: waist circumference >35 inches)
  2. fasting glucose >100-110 mg/dL
  3. BP>130/80 mmHg
  4. TG >150 mg/dL
  5. HDL cholesterol (men: <40mg/dL; women <50 mg/dL)
25
Q

hepatic hydrothorax

A
  • results in transudative pleural effusions and is thought to occur d/t small defects in the diaphragm
  • diagnosis involved documentation of the effusion and testing to exclude other causes
26
Q

ischemic hepatic injury

A
  • occurs in the setting of hypoTN and manifests as acute, massive increases in the transaminases with milder associated increases in the total bilirubin and alk phos
  • in pts who survive the inciting condition (eg hypoTN), liver enymes typically return to nml within a few wks
27
Q

possible features of BCC include:

A
  • persistent open sore that bleeds, oozes, or crusts
  • reddish patch or irritated area (superficial BCC)
  • pearly or translucent nodule with pink, red, or white color (nodular BCC)
  • elevated or rolled border with central ulceration
  • pale scar-like area with poorly defined borders
28
Q

SCC

A

most common skin malignancy in pts on chronic immunosuppressive therapy for a history of organ transplant
-SCC in immunosuppressed pts is more aggressive with an inc r/o local recurrence and regional mets

29
Q

syncope in a young pt

A
  • with a crescendo-decrescendo murmur at the lower left sternal border is most likely d/t HOCM
  • syncope in HOCM is often multifactorial and can be due to outflow obstruction, arrhythmia, ischemia, and a ventricular baroreceptor response that inappropriately causes vasoDILATION
30
Q

abdo US and AAA

A

-abdo US is study of choice for diagnosis and f/u of AAA–nearly 100% sn and sp

31
Q

panendoscopy

A

triple endoscopy=esophagoscopy, bronchoscopy, laryngoscopy

32
Q

cyanide and LA

A
  • cyanide binds to ferric iron in cytochrome oxidase a3 in the mitochondrial ETC
  • this activity blocks oxidative phosphorylation and promotes anaerobic metabolism, causing lactic acidosis
33
Q

heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

-should be suspected in pts receiving heparin anticoagulation who have thrombocytopenia, thrombosis (arterial or venous) or a >50% drop in the plt ct from baseline 5-10d after the initiation of treatment

34
Q

bath salts

A
  • have amphetamine properties that can cause severe agitation, combativeness, delirium, and psychosis
  • tachycardia is often present
  • takes up to a week to subside
35
Q

randomization in clinical trials

A

-successful when a similiarity of baseline characteristics of the pts in the tx and placebo groups is seen

36
Q

manifestations of pulmonary embolism

A
  • nonspecific and variable
  • diagnosis should be suspected in any pt who presents with some combo of sudden-onset SOB, pleuritic CP, low-grade fever, and hemoptysis
  • tachypnea, tachycardia, and hypoxemia are common exam findings
37
Q

three main categories of diabetic nephropathy

A
  1. background or simple retinopathy-consists of microaneurysms, hemorrhages, exudates, and retinal edema
  2. pre-proliferative retinopathy-with cotton wool spots
  3. proliferative or malignant retinopathy-consists of newly formed vessels
38
Q

hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A
  • inflamm of the lung parenchyma caused by antigen exposure
  • acute episodes: cough, breathlessness, fever, and malaise that occur within 4-6hr of antigen exposure
  • chronic exposure may cause weight loss, clubbing, and honeycombing of the lung
  • cornerstone of management is avoidance of the responsible antigen
39
Q

delayed sleep-wake phase disorder

A
  • circadian rhythm disorder characterized by the inability to fall asleep at traditional bedtimes=sleep-onset insomnia and excessive daytime sleepiness
  • pts sleep normally if allowed to follow their internal circadian rhythm and sleep until late morning
40
Q

solitary pulmonary nodules factors increasing malignant probability

A
  • large size (size >2cm independently correlates with >50% malignant probability)
  • advanced pt age
  • female sex
  • active or previous smoking
  • family or personal h/o lung ca
  • upper lobe location
  • spiculated radiographic appearance
41
Q

hypoventilation, post-ictal state

A

acidosis accompanied by hypercarbia and a nml or elevated serum bicarb is diagnostic of a respiratory acidosis
-hypoventilation is a major cause of respiratory acidosis and may occur in the post-ictal state

42
Q

postoperative endophthalmitis

A
  • m/c form of endophthalmitis
  • usually occurs within 6 weeks of sx
  • pts usually present with pain and dec visual acuity
  • exam: swollen eyelids and conjunctiva, hypopyon, corneal edema and infection