uworld Flashcards

1
Q

AEDs increasing bone turnover

A

Carbamazepine, phenytoin, and phenobarbita and valproic acid,

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2
Q

envelope shaped crystals, hyperPTH, distal RTA (hypocalcitraturia)

A

calcium oxalate

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3
Q

hexagonal green/yellow crystals

A

cysteine

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4
Q

antidepressants with short half-life

A

paroxetine, venlafaxine

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5
Q

labs for autoimmune hepatitis

A

ANA, ASMA, LKM-1 (liver/kidney microsomal ab), LC-1 (liver cytosol ab)

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6
Q

tx of psoriasis in intertriginious areas

A

tacrolimus , mild cases with topical steroids and calcipotriene

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7
Q

type of statin causing intercation with amiodarone

A

atorvastatin

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8
Q

SAAG

A

> 1 Portal HTN

total protein >2.5 = heart failure

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9
Q

bugs associated with bloody diarrhea

A

ET Ecoli
Shigella
Campylobacter

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10
Q

meds causing crystal induces AKI

A

acyclovir, sulfonamides, MTX, Ethylene glycol , protease inhibitors, uric acid (Tumor lysis sd)

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11
Q

gram positive bacilli in meningitis

A

listeria

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12
Q

gram NEGATIVE bacilli with meningitis or w/ neuro devices

A

pseudomonas , acinetobacter

tx with cefepime

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13
Q

Statin with highest risk of rhabdo

A

simvastatin

Especially if given with amlodpipine

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14
Q

Med tx for tardive dyskinesia (TD is called when due to med side effect)

A

switch to 2nd generation antipsychotic

tx with valbenazine or deutetrabenazine

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15
Q

how do you monitor dabigatran (pradaxa)

A

check thrombin time

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16
Q

drugs that inreacts with SSRIs and increase chance of serotonin sd

A

MDMA, tramadol, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors/serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors, ergot derivatives, linezolid, and tricyclic antidepressants

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17
Q

brain ring enhancing lesions in HIV patients

A

toxoplasmic: multiple in the basal ganglia and frontal/parietal
primary CNS lymphoma: Single, large in subcortical white matter
abscess: grey-white matter junction with vasogenic edema

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18
Q

causes of transudative pleural effusion

A

Ci Ne Constrictive Heart

Cirrhosis, Nephrotic syndrome, constrictive pericarditis and HF

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19
Q

tx for ITP immune thrombicytopenia purpura

A

for plts <30,000 high-dose oral corticosteroids due to high risk of bleeding,
IVIG is steroids are contraindication

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20
Q

tx for HFpEF

A

aldosterone, diuretic & tx of exacerbating conditions

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21
Q

how do calcimimetic (cinalcalcet) work?

A

Act on calcium sensing receptors, decreasing PTH

so less absorption of calcium. CAREFUL in hypocalcemia

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22
Q

common meds causing drug induced optic neuropathy

A
Ethambutol
Sildenafil
Linezolid
Bevacizumab
Infliximab
Amiodarone
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23
Q

what do you monitor in patients with linnezolid

A

CBC for Bone marrow suppression

eye exam for optic neuropathy

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24
Q

Complications of P vera

A

thrombotic events, myelofibrosis, AML

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25
Q

how do you diagnose CLL

A

peripheral smear and flow cytometry

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26
Q

common drugs causing DRESS

A

anticonvulsants (phenytoin, carbamazepine)
allopurinol
sulfas
abx (minocycline/vancomycin)

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27
Q

basophilic stippling is present in

A

thalassemia, IDA, alcohol, lead and heavy metal poisoning

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28
Q

Monotherapy with an anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam

A

pip-tazo, cefepime or a carbapenem

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29
Q

which thyroid nodules need FNA? based on scintigraphy

A

cold nodules

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30
Q

CT scan shows single or multiple nodules with or without cavitations and “halo sign” (nodules surrounded by ground-glass infiltrates). In patient with pneumonia nos responding to abx and neutropenic

A

invasive aspergillosis

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31
Q

test for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis and tx

A

galactomanana and tx with voriconazole

32
Q

meds that suppress tsh

A

glucocorticoids, octreotide

33
Q

Drug interactions with tacrolimus

A

Increase drug lvl: macrolides, azoles, protease inh, CCB, grapefruit

34
Q

ages to screen for lipids

A

male>35

female>45

35
Q

microbiological indications for removal of central venous catheter infection

A

staph aureus

pseudomonas

fungi ie candida

mycobacteria

36
Q

phenytoin side affects

A

dose-dependent: rash, horizontal nystagmus, ataxia, slurred speech, lethargy, coma
IV infusion: hypotension, bradyarrythmias

37
Q

indications for early surgical management of IE

A

Valvular or conduction failure:
Acute heart failure due to valvular regurgitation
Valve leaflet fistula formation
New heart block

Uncontrollable infection:
Paravalvular abscess formation
Infection with difficult-to-treat pathogen (eg, fungi)
Persistent fever or bacteremia despite >7 days antibiotics

Embolic complications:
Systemic emboli despite appropriate antibiotics
Left-sided, mobile vegetation >10 mm & prior embolic event

38
Q

Type of lung cancer in heavy smokers

A

SCLC: central aiway (hilar mass)

39
Q

tx for TTP

A

plasma exchange

40
Q

mononeuritis complex

A

painful, asymmetrical, sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy

41
Q

how does acute radiation pneumonitis present?

A

antibiotic-nonresponsive pneumonia 4-12 weeks after neck or thoracic radiation treatment. Fever, dyspnea, cough, and pleuritic chest pain are common, as is leukocytosis.

tx with prednisone for 2 weeks

42
Q

purpura, abdominal pain, arthritis, and glomerulonephritis.

A

henoch schoenlein

43
Q

statin with highest risk of rhabdo

A

simvastatin especially if given with amlodipine

44
Q

Antidepressants in nursing mothers

A

sertraline or paroxetine

45
Q

pt with fever, cough and XR with b/l infiltrate sparing perihilar region

A

eosinophilic pneumonia

46
Q

Triad of MAHA, thrombocytopenia & AKI

A

HUS

47
Q

indications for valve replacement in AR

A

symptomatic

EF <50

LVSD >75mm

LVDD>75mm

48
Q

urgent tx for TTP (adamts13 deficiency)

A

plasma exchange, glucocorticoids, and rituximab

49
Q

indication for washed PRBC

A

IgA deficiency

h/o allergic reaction with trasfusions despite antihistamine

50
Q

indication for leukoreduced PRBC

A

h/o lots of transfusions

pt at risk for CMV

h/o febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction

51
Q

someone with high protein grap, with hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy and cytopenias

A

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

52
Q

how do you calculate RSBI (rapid shallow breathing index)

A

RR/Tidal volume in liters

<105= succesful extubation

53
Q

ECG findings in WPW, most common arrythmia?

A

Short PR interval

AVRT

54
Q

Pts with WPW who gets catheter ablation

A

those with AVRT, Afib or asymptomatic but high risk professions

55
Q

continuous cardiac murmur, HTN, diminished femoral pulses suggest

A

coarctation of the aorta

56
Q

left interscapullary continuous murmur. its with headaches, maybe epistaxis, delayed pulses

A

coarctation of the aorta, associated with bicuspid aorta

57
Q

most common organism in culture negative endocarditis

A

Coxiella Burnett (Q fever) from livestock

58
Q

what age do yu start mammogram screening and how often

A

at age 50, q2yrs

59
Q

typical EKG findings in Brugada (young male that passes out while at rest/sleeping)

A

ST elevation in V1-V3, TWI, RBBB

60
Q

common EKG findings is ASD

A

RBBB (right atrial enlargement)

61
Q

CHAGAS (trypanozoma cruzi) heart disease

A

dilated cardiomyopathy, left ventricular apical aneurysm !

62
Q

Lithium and ADH

A

Blocks adh

63
Q

Tx of lithium nephrogenic DI

A

Thiazides or loop

64
Q

tx of methemoglobulinemia

A

benzocaine

65
Q

HIV prep is

A

emtricitabine/tenofovir

66
Q

Common causes of hypogonadism in males

A

Primary: congenital (klinefelter), drugs (ketoconazole), CKD
SECONDARY (pituitary/hypothalam): tumor, cranial trauma, hemochromatosis, apoplexy
Suppression: exogenous andogens, hyperprolacto, DM, obesity
Hypercotisolism and cirrhosis

67
Q

how to test testosterone deficiency

A

between 7am and 10 am vaoue <300mg

68
Q

causes of osteoporosis in men

A
Hypogonadism (primary or secondary)
Hyperthyroidism
Vitamin D deficiency
Diabetes mellitus
Hypercortisolism
Hyperparathyroidism
Gastrointestinal	
Malabsorption (eg, celiac disease)
Cirrhosis
Inflammatory bowel disease
Oncologic
	Leukemia or lymphoma
Multiple myeloma
Medications	
Heparin (long-term)
Corticosteroids
Anticonvulsants (eg, phenytoin)
Androgen-deprivation therapy(eg, GnRH agonist)
Proton pump inhibitors
Calcineurin inhibitors (eg, cyclosporine)
Lifestyle	Smoking
Chronic alcohol use
69
Q

young man, atopic conditions, food impaction, intermittent solid dysphagia,

A

eosinophilic esophagitis : furrows and concerntric rings

70
Q

MAHA vs AIHA

A

,MAHA has hemolytic anemia, can also hace spherocytes

AIHA has spherocytes and MCV>100

71
Q

SPHEROCYTOSIS and anemia

A

AIHA, positive coombs

72
Q

meds that cause hemelysis in G6PD (bite cells)

A

dapsone, chloroquine,sulfonamide , rasburicase

73
Q

what can cause AIHA

A

viral infections, pnicillin, SLE, CLL

74
Q

Lupus pernio

A

Sarcoidosis

75
Q

Racoon eyes

A

Amyloidosis

76
Q

Level A evidence supporting the use of five medications for migraine prophylaxis (5 or 10 episodes in 1 months)

A

(propranolol, timolol, metoprolol) and two antiepileptic drugs (divalproex sodium and topiramate)