Uvod u mreže Flashcards

ITN - Introduction to networks

1
Q

Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network communication?

A

Hosts

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2
Q

When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?

A

Fiber-optic cable

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3
Q

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Two)

A

Routers and swithces

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4
Q

Which connection physically connects the end device to the network?

A

NIC

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5
Q

Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks?

A

Interface

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6
Q

Which type of network topology lets you see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation?

A

Physical topology

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7
Q

Which network infrastructure provides access to users and end devices in a small geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a home, or small business?

A

LAN

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8
Q

Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access to organization’s data?

A

Extranet

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9
Q

Which network infrastructure provides access to other networks over a large geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications service provider?

A

WAN

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10
Q

When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture is achieved?

A

Scalability

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11
Q

Confidentiality, integrity and availability are requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture?

A

Security

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12
Q

With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion?

A

QoS

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13
Q

Having multiple paths to a destination is known as redundancy. This is an example of which characteristic of network architecture?

A

Fault tolerance.

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14
Q

Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in another country?

A

Video communications

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15
Q

Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network?

A

BYOD

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16
Q

Which feature contains options such as Public, Private, Custom and Hybrid?

A

Cloud computing

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17
Q

Which feature is being used when connecting a device to the network using an electrical outlet?

A

Powerline

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18
Q

Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a smartphone?

A

Wireless broadband

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19
Q

Which attack slows down or crashes equipment and programs?

A

Denial of service (DoS)

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20
Q

Which option creates a secure connection for remote workers?

A

Virtual private network (VPN)

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21
Q

Which option blocks unauthorized access to your network?

A

Firewall

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22
Q

Which option describes a network attack that occurs on the first day that a vulnerability becomes known?

A

Zero-day or Zero-hour

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23
Q

Which option describes malicious code running on user devices?

A

Virus, worm or Trojan horse

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24
Q

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

A

Spyware

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25
Q

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

A

Extranet

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26
Q

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

A

Bring your own device (BYOD)

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27
Q

What is an ISP?

A

It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

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28
Q

In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?

A

A farm in a rural area without wired broadcast access

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29
Q

What characteristics of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?

A

Scalability

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30
Q

A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories to the campus data center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is shown here?

A

Fault tolerance

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31
Q

What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Two)

A

Grows in size without impacting existing users
Suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion

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32
Q

Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

A

A router

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33
Q

Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Two)

A

Cellular
Satellite

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34
Q

What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?

A

The Internet

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35
Q

How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?

A

BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources

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36
Q

An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company network?

A

VPN

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37
Q

What is the Internet?

A

It provides connections through interconnected global networks

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38
Q

What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Two)

A

They are the interface between humans and the communication network
They originate the data that flows through the network

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39
Q

Which access method would be most appropriate if you were in the equipment room with a new switch that needs to be configured?

A

Console

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40
Q

Which access method would be most appropriate if your manager gave you a special cable and told you to use it to configure a switch?

A

Console

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41
Q

Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS over a network connection?

A

Telnet/SSH

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42
Q

Which access method would be the most appropriate if you call your manager to tell him you cannot access your router in another city over the internet and he provides you with the information to access the router through a telephone connection?

A

Aux

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43
Q

Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?

A

Privileged EXEC mode

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44
Q

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch(config)# prompt is displayed?

A

Global configuration mode

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45
Q

Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> prompt is displayed?

A

User EXEC mode

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46
Q

Which two commands would return you to the privileged EXEC prompt regardless of the configuration mode you are in? (Two)

A

CTRL+Z
END

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47
Q

What is the command to assign the name “Sw-Floor-2” to a switch?

A

Hostname Sw-Floor-2

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48
Q

How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?

A

Enable secret class

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49
Q

Which command enables password authentication for user EXEC mode access on a switch?

A

Login

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50
Q

Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords access on a switch?

A

Service password-encrpytion

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51
Q

Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to a switch?

A

Banner motd $ Keep out $

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52
Q

What is the structure of an IPv4 address called?

A

Dotted-decimal format

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53
Q

How is an IPv4 address represented?

A

Four decimal numbers between 0 and 255 separated by periods

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54
Q

What type of interface has no physical port associated with it?

A

Switch virtual interface (SVI)

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55
Q

Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

A

It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified

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56
Q

Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode?

A

The device prompt for this mode ends with the “>” symbol
Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed

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57
Q

Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

A

Privileged EXEC

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58
Q

What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

A

VLAN1

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59
Q

When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part of the guidelines?

A

The hostname should begin with a letter
The hostname should contain no spaces
The hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in lenght

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60
Q

What is the function of the shell in an OS?

A

It interfaces between the users and the kernel

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61
Q

A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

A

User EXEC mode

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62
Q

An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?

A

Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device take effect as soon as the command is typed correctly and the Enter key has been pressed

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63
Q

Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarded?

A

RAM

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64
Q

Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

A

To copy an existing configuration into RAM

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65
Q

Which functionality is provided by DHCP?

A

Automatic assignment of an IP address to each host

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66
Q

Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI?

A

Determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command
Displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode

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67
Q

Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

A

NVRAM

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68
Q

To what subnet does IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 is used?

A

10.1.0.0

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69
Q

What is the process of converting information into the proper form or transmission?

A

Encoding

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70
Q

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?

A

Formatting

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71
Q

Which three are components of message timing?

A

Flow control
Access method
Response timeout

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72
Q

Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?

A

Multicast

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73
Q

BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?

A

Routing

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74
Q

Which two protocols are service discovery protocols?

A

DNS
DHCP

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75
Q

What is the purpose of the sequencing function in network communication?

A

To uniquely label transmitted segments of data for proper reassembly by the receiver

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76
Q

This protocol is responsible for guaranteeing the reliable delivery of information:

A

TCP

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77
Q

UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?

A

Transport

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78
Q

Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model application layer?

A

DNS
DHCP

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79
Q

Which protocol operates at the network access layer of the TCP/IP model?

A

Ethernet

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80
Q

Which of the following are protocols that provide feedback from the destination host to the source host regarding errors in packet delivery? (Two)

A

ICMPv4
ICMPv4

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81
Q

A device receives a data link frame with data and processes and removes the Ethernet information. What information would be the next to be processed by the receiving device?

A

IP at the internet layer

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82
Q

Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Three)

A

Routing protocols
Messaging
Internet protocol

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83
Q

True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral.

A

True

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84
Q

This standard organization is concerned with the Request for Comments (RFC) documents that specify new protocols and update existing ones:

A

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

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85
Q

This standards organization is responsible for IP address allocation and domain name management:

A

Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)

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86
Q

What types of standards are developed by the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA)?

A

Electric wiring and connectors

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87
Q

What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission?

A

Segmentation

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88
Q

What is the PDU associated with the transport layer?

A

Segment

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89
Q

Which protocol stack layer encapsulates data into frames?

A

Data link

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90
Q

What is the name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it moves down the protocol stack?

A

Encapsulation

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91
Q

True or false? Frames exchanged between devices in different IP networks must be forwarded to a default gateway.

A

True

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92
Q

True or false? The right-most part of an IP address is used to identify the network that a device belongs to.

A

False

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93
Q

What is used to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address?

A

Subnet mask

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94
Q

Which of the following statements are true regarding network layer and data link layer addresses? (Three)

A

Network layer addresses are logical and data link addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits
Data link layer addresses are physical and network layer addresses are logical
Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length

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95
Q

What is the order of the two addresses in the data link frame?

A

Destination MAC, source MAC

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96
Q

True or false? Data link addresses are physical so they never change in the data link frame from source to destination.

A

False

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97
Q

Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Three)

A

IANA
IETF
IEEE

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98
Q

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

A

Broadcast

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99
Q

In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

A

To convert information to the appropriate form of transmission

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100
Q

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

A

Broadcast

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101
Q

What are two benefits of using a layered network model?

A

It prevents technology in one layer from affection other layers
It assists in protocol design

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102
Q

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

A

Providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur

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103
Q

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

A

Destination IP address

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104
Q

What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

A

Protocol data unit

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105
Q

Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Two)

A

IP
ICMP

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106
Q

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?

A

Transport

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107
Q

Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host destinations simultaneously?

A

Multicast

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108
Q

What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?

A

Decoding

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109
Q

What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

A

It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame

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110
Q

What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

A

Encapsulation

111
Q

A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

A

HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet

112
Q

True or false? The physical layer is only concerned with wired network connections?

A

False

113
Q

True or false? When a frame is encoded by the physical layer, all bits are sent over the media at the same time.

A

False

114
Q

The physical layer of the receiving device passes bits up to which higher level layer?

A

Data link

115
Q

What PDU is received by the physical layer for encoding and transmission?

A

Frame

116
Q

Which media uses patterns of microwaves to represent bits?

A

Wireless

117
Q

Which media uses patterns of light to represent bits?

A

Fiber-optic

118
Q

Which media uses electrical pulses to represent bits?

A

Copper

119
Q

Which of these is the name for the capacity of a medium to carry data?

A

Bandwidth

120
Q

Which of these is a measure of the transfer of bits across the media?

A

Throughput

121
Q

Which of the following attaches antennas to wireless devices? It can also be bundled with fiber-optic cabling for two-way data transmission.

A

Coaxial

122
Q

Which of the following counters EMI and RFI by using shielding techniques and special connectors?

A

STP

123
Q

Which of the following is the most common network media?

A

UTP

124
Q

Which of the following terminates with BNC, N type and F type connectors?

A

Coaxial

125
Q

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can help data travel approximately 500 meters?

A

Multimode

126
Q

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use light emitting diodes (LEDs) as a data light source transmitters?

A

Multimode

127
Q

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types use lasers in a single stream as a data light source transmitter?

A

Single-mode

128
Q

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used to connect long-distance telephony and cable TV applications?

A

Single-mode

129
Q

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types can travel approximately 100 km?

A

Single-mode

130
Q

Which of the following fiber-optic cable types is used within a campus network?

A

Multimode

131
Q

True or false? Wireless is not well suited for enterprise networks.

A

False

132
Q

True or false? Wireless LANs operate in full-duplex allowing all devices to send or receive data at the same time so the number of users does not impact performance.

A

False

133
Q

Which of the following wireless standards is best suited for industrial and IoT environments?

A

Zigbee

134
Q

Which of the following wireless standards is used for Personal Area Networks (PANs) and allows devices to communicate over distances of 1 to 100 meters?

A

Bluetooth

135
Q

A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?

A

Physical layer

136
Q

What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router console port?

A

Rollover

137
Q

Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

A

They allow for full-duplex connectivity

138
Q

Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

A

Twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

139
Q

What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?

A

It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling

140
Q

A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?

A

The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network

141
Q

Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port

A

Straight-through

142
Q

What is the definition of bandwidth?

A

The amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time

143
Q

Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?

A

It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a predictable pattern to help distinguish data bits from control bits

144
Q

What is a characteristics of UTP cabling?

A

Cancellation

145
Q

A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office that is occupied by the park ranger. The office is located at the highest part of the national park. After network testing is complete, the technicians report that the wireless LAN signal is occasionally affected by some type of interference. What is a possible cause of the signal distortion?

A

The microwave oven

146
Q

What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

A

Transmitting bits across the local media

147
Q

Which characteristics describes crosstalk?

A

The distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires

148
Q

What is indicated by the term throughput?

A

The measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time

149
Q

Which standards organization oversees development of wireless LAN standards?

A

IEEE

150
Q

Which is the binary equivalent to the 192.168.11.10 IP address?

A

11000000.10101000.00001011.00001010

151
Q

Which of the following is the binary equivalent of the 172.16.31.30 IP address?

A

10101100.00010000.00011111.00011110

152
Q

Which is the hexadecimal equivalent of 202?

A

CA

153
Q

Which is the hexadecimal equivalent of 254?

A

FE

154
Q

Which is the decimal equivalent of A9?

A

169

155
Q

Which of the following is the decimal equivalent of 7D?

A

125

156
Q

What is the binary representation of the decimal number 173?

A

10101101

157
Q

Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

A

236.17.12.10

158
Q

How many binary bits exist within an IPv6 address?

A

128

159
Q

What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 232?

A

11101000

160
Q

Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Two)

A

IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length
IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers

161
Q

Which IPv4 address format was created for ease of use by people and is expressed as 201.192.1.14?

A

Dotted decimal

162
Q

What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

A

203.0.113.211

163
Q

What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101?

A

149

164
Q

What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F?

A

63

165
Q

What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address which is represented as the binary string 00001010.01100100.00010101.00000001?

A

10.100.21.1

166
Q

What is the decimal equivalent of 0xC9?

A

201

167
Q

Which is a valid hexadecimal number?

A

f

168
Q

What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

A

11001010

169
Q

How many bits are in an IPv4 address?

A

32

170
Q

What is another name for the OSI data link layer?

A

Layer 2

171
Q

The IEEE 802 LAN/MAN data link layer consists of which two sublayers? (Two)

A

Logical Link Control
Media Access Control

172
Q

What is the responsibility of the MAC sublayer?

A

Provides the method to get the frame on and off the media

173
Q

What Layer 2 function does a router perform? (Three)

A

Accepts a frame from a medium
De-encapsulates the frame
Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame

174
Q

The media access control method used depends on which two criteria?

A

Media sharing
Topology

175
Q

Which organization defines standards for the network access layer (i.e., the OSI physical and data link layers)?

A

IEEE

176
Q

What identifier is used at the data link layer to uniquely identify an Ethernet device?

A

MAC address

177
Q

What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?

A

MAC address

178
Q

Which two engineering organizations define open standards and protocols that apply to the data link layer?

A

International telecommunication union (ITU)
Institute of electrical and electronics engineers (IEEE)

179
Q

What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

A

Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices

180
Q

What method is used to manage connection-based access on a wireless network?

A

CSMA/CA

181
Q

A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?

A

Mesh

182
Q

Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data transmission?

A

Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction at a time

183
Q

Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?

A

To identify which network layer protocol is being used

184
Q

Which data link layer media access control method does Ethernet use with legacy Ethernet hubs?

A

CSMA/CD

185
Q

What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer?

A

LLC
MAC

186
Q

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?

A

Data link

187
Q

What type of physical topology can be created by connecting all Ethernet cables to a central device?

A

Star

188
Q

What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model?

A

It provides media access control and performs error detection
It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames

189
Q

Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?

A

The use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 swithces

190
Q

Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology?

A

It uses unique MAC addresses to ensure that data is sent to the appropriate destination
It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards

191
Q

What statement describes a characteristics of MAC addresses?

A

They must be globally unique

192
Q

What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast MAC address transporting an IPv4 packet?

A

01-00-5E

193
Q

What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a unicast destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?

A

It will discard the frame

194
Q

Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC address that is contained in the frame?

A

Switch

195
Q

Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific destination based on the information found in the MAC address table?

A

Switch

196
Q

Which function or operation is performed by the LLC sublayer?

A

It communicates with upper protocol layers

197
Q

What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?

A

The frame is dropped

198
Q

What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?

A

The source Layer 2 address of incoming frames

199
Q

What is auto-MDIX?

A

A feature that detects Ethernet cable type

200
Q

What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?

A

An address that reaches a specific group of hosts

201
Q

Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

A

The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI

202
Q

What are the two sizes (minimum and expected maximum) of an Ethernet frame?

A

64 bytes
1518 bytes

203
Q

Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer?

A

It is responsible for Media Access Control
It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU

204
Q

Which command can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table?

A

netstat -r

205
Q

What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

A

Source and destination IP address

206
Q

How does the network layer use the MTU value?

A

The MTU is passed to the network layer by the data link layer

207
Q

Which characteristics describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

A

The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet handling

208
Q

Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPv4?

A

IPv4 has a 32-bit address space

209
Q

When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?

A

Destination IP address

210
Q

A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?

A

The packet will be sent directly to the destination host

211
Q

Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?

A

127.0.0.1

212
Q

When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is missing data detected and retransmitted if neccessary?

A

Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data receives and can request retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host

213
Q

What was the reason for the creation and implementation of IPv6?

A

To relieve IPv4 address depletion

214
Q

Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its destination?

A

Destination IP address

215
Q

Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?

A

Destination address

216
Q

Which field in an IPv6 packet is used by the router to determine if a packet has expired and should be dropped?

A

Hop Limit

217
Q

Which router component holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running configuration file?

A

RAM

218
Q

What type of information is contained in an ARP table?

A

IPv4 address to MAC address mappings

219
Q

A PC is configured to obtain an IPv4 address automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp -a command and notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?

A

This is a static map entry

220
Q

A cybersecurity analyst believes an attacker is spoofing the MAC address of the default gateway to perform a man-in-the-middle attack. Which command should the analyst use to view the MAC address a host is using to reach the default gateway?

A

arp -a

221
Q

What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

A

It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received

222
Q

Which two ICMPv6 messages are used during the Ethernet MAC address resolution process?

A

Neighbor advertisement
Router solicitation

223
Q

How does the ARP process use an IPv4 address?

A

To determine the MAC address of a device on the same network

224
Q

What is one function of the ARP protocol?

A

Resolving an IPv4 address to a MAC address

225
Q

Which action is taken by a Layer 2 switch when it receives a Layer 2 broadcast frame?

A

It sends the frame to all ports except the port on which it receives the frame

226
Q

What addresses are mapped by ARP?

A

IPv4 address to a destination MAC address

227
Q

When an IPv4 packet is sent to a host on a remote network, what information is provided by ARP?

A

The MAC address of the router interface closest to the sending host

228
Q

The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?

A

Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address

229
Q

What is the purpose of ARP in an IPv4 network?

A

To obtain a specific MAC address when an IP address is known

230
Q

Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

A

FFFF.FFFF.FFFF

231
Q

A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

A

The configuration file is missing from NVRAM (10.4.5, PITANJE 1)

232
Q

Which command is used to encrypt all passwords in a router configuration file?

A

Router_A (config) # service password-encryption

233
Q

Company policy requires using the most secure method to safeguard access to the privileged exec and configuration mode on the routers. The privileged exec password is trustknow1. Which of the following commands achieves the goal of providing the highest level of security?

A

enable secret trustknow1

234
Q

What will be the response from the router after the command “router(config)# hostname portsmouth” is entered?

A

Portsmouth(config)#

235
Q

An administrator is configuring a new router to permit out-of-band management access. Which set of commands will allow the required login using a password of cisco?

A

Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config-line)# login

236
Q

Which command can be used on a Cisco router to display all interfaces, the IPv4 address assigned, and the current status?

A

show ip interface brief

237
Q

Which CLI mode allows users to access all device commands, such as those used for configuration, management and troubleshooting?

A

Privileged EXEC mode

238
Q

What is the purpose of the startup configuration file on a Cisco router?

A

To contain the commands that are used to initially configure a router on startup

239
Q

Which characteristics describes the default gateway of a host computer?

A

The logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer

240
Q

What is the purpose of the banner motd command?

A

It provides a way to make announcements to those who log in to a router

241
Q

A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?

A

Any line configuration mode

242
Q

What is stored in the NVRAM of a Cisco router?

A

The startup configuration

243
Q

Which statement regarding the service password-encryption command is true?

A

As soon as the service password-encryption command is entered, all currently set passwords formerly displayed in plain text are encrpyted

244
Q

What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?

A

/27

245
Q

How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured with a /26 mask?

A

62

246
Q

Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?

A

255.255.255.224

247
Q

A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with /26 masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?

A

4

248
Q

What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

A

255.255.240.0

249
Q

Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

A

The size of each subnet may be different, depending on the requirements

250
Q

Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

A

To identify the network address of the destination network

251
Q

How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?

A

30

252
Q

Which subnet mask would be used if exactly 4 host bits are available?

A

255.255.255.240

253
Q

Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address?

A

Host portion
Network portion

254
Q

If a network device has a mask of /26, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?

A

62

255
Q

What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?

A

Host address

256
Q

If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts on this network?

A

14

257
Q

What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

A

To determine the subnet to which the host belongs

258
Q

A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.224. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide?

A

30

259
Q

What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234

A

2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234

260
Q

What is the prefix associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:D15:EA:CC44::1/64?

A

2001:DB8:D15:EA::/64

261
Q

What type of address is automatically assigned to an interface when IPv6 is enabled on that interface?

A

Link-local

262
Q

Which IPv6 network prefix is only intended for local links and can not be routed?

A

FE80::/10

263
Q

What is the purpose of the command ping ::1?

A

It tests the internal configuration of an IPv6 host

264
Q

What is the interface ID of the IPv6 address 2001:DB8::1000:A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94/64?

A

A9CD:47FF:FE57:FE94

265
Q

What is the network address for the IPv6 address 2001:DB8:AA04:B5::1/64?

A

2001:DB8:AA04:B5::/64

266
Q

Which address type is not supported in IPv6?

A

Broadcast

267
Q

What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?

A

IP is properly installed on the host

268
Q

What is the most compressed representation of the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:abcd:0000:0000:0000:0001?

A

2001:db8:0:abcd::1

269
Q

What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is enabled for IPv6?

A

To have a link-local IPv6 address

270
Q

At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

A

Link-local

271
Q

What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address?

A

A subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
A global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
An interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network

272
Q

Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:db8:130f::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create /64 subnetworks if interface ID bits are not borrowed?

A

16

273
Q
A