Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

cbse med 5 > usmle success > Flashcards

usmle success Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following chromosomes is associated with familial
hypercholesterolemia?
A. Chromosome 17
B. Chromosome 18
C. Chromosome 19
D. Chromosome 20
E. Chromosome 21

A

C. Chromosome 19 (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following drug combinations is recommended for the treatment of
gonorrheal infections?
A. Azithromycin + Ceftriaxone
B. Ampicillin + Cefotaxime
C. Azithromycin + Gentamicin
D. Amikacin + Ceftriaxone
E. Ceftriaxone + Penicillin

A

A. Azithromycin + Ceftriaxone (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion?
A. Myotonic dystrophy
B. PKU
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Leber hereditary optic neuropathy
E. MELAS syndrome

A

A. Myotonic dystrophy (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

At which of the following CD4 counts would you most likely expect to see a
Mycobacterium Avium infection?

A. 0-50
B. 51-100
C. 101-150
D. 151-200
E. 200-300

A

A. 0-50 (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following works by inhibiting DNA topoisomerase?
A. Linezolid
B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Cefotetan
D. Ciprofloxacin
E. Aztreonam

A

D. Ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for Erlichiosis?
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Ampicillin
C. Doxycycline
D. Penicillin G
E. Chloramphenicol

A

C. Doxycycline (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following genes are mutated in Dubin-Johnson syndrome, leading to
a defective bilirubin pump?
A.BCL2
B. ABCC2
C. CACNA1A
D. FGF21
E. HBP1

A

B. ABCC2 (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following amino acids is most importantly affected by Hartnup’s
disease?
A. Leucine
B. Tryptophan
C. Histidine
D. Glutamate
E. Asparagine

A

B. Tryptophan (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following genitourinary structures fails to develop properly in patients
with cystic fibrosis?
A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Cowper’s glands
C. Epididymus
D. Leydig cells
E. Vas deferens

A

E. Vas deferens (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following most accurately represents the odds that two carriers of a
disorder characterized by homogentisic acid oxidase deficiency will have a child
who inherits the disorder?
A. 0%
B. 12.5%
C. 25%
D. 50%
E. 66%

A

C. 25% (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is most closely associated with a treponema pallidum
infection?
A. Anti-nuclear antibodies
B. Anti ds-DNA antibodies
C. Anti ribonucleoprotein antibody
D. Anti Sm antibodies
E. Cardiolipin antibodies

A

E. Cardiolipin antibodies (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following oxidase-negative bacteria does not produce hydrogen
sulfide?
A. Salmonella
B. Proteus
C. Shigella
D. Pseudomonas
E. Pasteurella

A

C. Shigella (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following bacteria is a diplococcic that does not ferment maltose?
A. N. Meningitidis
B. Bordetella pertussis
C. Enterobacter
D. C. Jejuni
E. N. Gonorrhea (

A

E. N. Gonorrhea (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following correctly describes the position whereby a replacement of
arginine for glycine leads to Achondroplasia?
A. 181st position
B. 380th position
C. 508th position
D. 509th position
E. 612th position

A

B. 380th position (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is both effective at increasing HDL and a cause of skin
flushing?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B4
E. Vitamin B5

A

C. Vitamin B3 (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is associated with severe anal pruritis?
A. Echinococcus
B. Ascaris Lumbricoides
C. Paragonimus Westermani
D. Cutanea Larva Migrans
E. Enterobius Vermicularis

A

E. Enterobius Vermicularis (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following metabolites is responsible for the dense pigments found
within the liver in cases of Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
A. Epinephrine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Cortisol
D. Glucagon
E. Glycogen

A

A. Epinephrine (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following receptor types is found on the pre-synaptic axons, providing
negative feedback by binding norepinephrine?
A. Alpha 1
B. Alpha 2
C. Beta 1
D. Beta 2
E. Muscarinic

A

B. Alpha 2 (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be seen in a 35-year old male with a
diagnosis of Alkaptonuria?
A. Arthritis of the knees and wrists
B. Increased risk of ascending aortic dissection
C. Increased risk of skin cancer
D. Increased risk of renal stone formation
E. Recurring pulmonary infections

A

A. Arthritis of the knees and wrists (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is a slow fermenter of lactose?
A. Klebsiella
B. Serratia
C. E. Coli
D. Pseudomonas
E. Enterobacte

A

B. Serratia (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following trinucleotide repeats is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia?
A. CGG
B. GAA
C. CAG
D. CAC
E. CGC

A

B. GAA (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following anti-seizure medications is most closely associated with
Steven-Johnson syndrome?
A. Ethosuxamide
B. Carbamazepine
C. Gabapentin
D. Oxcarbazepine
E. Lamotrigine

A

E. Lamotrigine (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following genes is responsible for the development of Wilson
disease?
A. IL2-RG
B. FBN-1
C. ATP7B
D. SOX11
E. SHOX

A

C. ATP7B (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When the sperm encounters an egg, the acrosomal reaction is initiated once the
sperm cell binds to this glycoprotein:
A. ZP1
B. ZP2
C. ZP3
D. ZP4
E. ZP5

A

C. ZP3 (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

It is recommended that your 15-year old female patient with severe cystic acne is
started on Isotretinoin. Prior to prescribing this medication, checking which of the
following is mandatory?
A. Serum AFP
B. Beta hCG
C. Liver function tests
D. Pulmonary function tests
E. BUN/C

A

B. Beta hCG (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following medications is a known cause of tendon damage?
A. Erythromycin
B. Aztreonam
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Meropenem
E. Amikacin

A

C. Ciprofloxacin (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following parasites is known to lead to neurocysticercosis once
reaching the brain?
A. Echinococcus
B. Taenia solium
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
E. Strongyloides stercoralis

A

B. Taenia solium (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for causing an
ectopic pregnancy?
A. N. Gonorrhea
B. S. Saprophyticus
C. Vibrio Vulnificus
D. Chlamydia Trachomatis
E. Chlamydia Psittaci

A

D. Chlamydia Trachomatis (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following would most effectively manage the adverse effects
associated with Grave’s disease?
A. Isoprenaline
B. Tamsulosin
C. Bisoprolol
D. Nicardipine
E. Oxymetazoline

A

C. Bisoprolol (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of the 50s ribosome?
A. Amikacin
B. Minocycline
C. Nalidixic acid
D. Metronidazole
E. Clarithromycin

A

E. Clarithromycin (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes the number of amino acids found
in GH?
A. 188
B. 189
C. 190
D. 191
E. 192

A

D. 191 (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Decreased expression of which of the following is most likely seen in an infant
who has delayed detachment of the umbilical cord?
A. CD10
B. CD12
C. CD18
D. CD20
E. CD54

A

c. CD18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is an inducer of the CYP450 system?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Isoniazid
C. Ritonavir
D. Griseofulvin
E. Cimetidine

A

D. Griseofulvin (Correct)

St. John’s funny funny (phenphen) mom never refuses
greasy carbs and chronic
alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following is an inducer of the CYP450 system?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Isoniazid
C. Ritonavir
D. Griseofulvin
E. Cimetidine

A

D. Griseofulvin (Correct)

St. John’s funny funny (phenphen) mom never refuses
greasy carbs and chronic
alcohol

St. John’s wort
Phenytoin
Phenobarbital
Modafinil
Nevirapine
Rifampin
Griseofulvin
Carbamazepine
Chronic alcohol overuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following gastrointestinal disorders is seen in approximately 10% of
all cystic fibrosis patients?
A. Intussusception
B. Rectal prolapse
C. Pyloric stenosis
D. Volvulus
E. Meckel’s diverticulum

A

B. Rectal prolapse (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is the most appropriate antidote for streptokinase toxicity?
A. Aminocaproic acid
B. N-Acetylcysteine
C. Dimercaprol
D. Deferoxamine
E. EDTA

A

A. Aminocaproic acid (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following organisms is most closely linked to the development of
colon cancer?
A. Staph Saprophyticus
B. Strep Agalactiae
C. Strep Bovis (Gallolyticus)
D. Clostridium Difficile
E. Corynbacterium species

A

C. Strep Bovis (Gallolyticus) (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following genes is responsible for early-onset Alzheimer’s disease in
Down syndrome?
A. ARP
B. APP
C. APB7
D. IL2-RG
E. SURF-1

A

B. APP (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is most closely associated with the development of
pseudomembranous colitis?
A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Azithromycin
D. Levofloxacin
E. Ciprofloxacin

A

A. Ampicillin (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which of the following is most closely associated with the development of
pseudomembranous colitis?
A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Azithromycin
D. Levofloxacin
E. Ciprofloxacin

A

A. Ampicillin (Your Answer)(Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following amino acid alterations is responsible for the presence of an
overactive FGFR3 gene?
A. Arginine replaces Glycine
B. Glycine replaces Arginine
C. Arginine replaces Glutamine
D. Glycine replaces Asparagine
E. Leucine replaces Lysine

A

A. Arginine replaces Glycine (Correct)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A patient of yours is diagnosed as having a mutation of the LDLR gene, and is
therefore at greater risk than the general population of early development of which
of the following?
A. Otosclerosis
B. Osteoporosis
C. Visual deterioration
D. Atherosclerosis
E. Hearing loss

A

D. Atherosclerosis (Your Answer)(Correct)

43
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes the physical findings associated
with disseminated histoplasmosis?
A. Ulcerated lesions of the tongue
B. Bullous lesions of the lung apices
C. Cardiac fibrosis
D. Pulmonary fibrosis
E. Undulating fever

A

A. Ulcerated lesions of the tongue (Correct)

44
Q

A gene located on which of the following chromosomes is associated with cystic
fibrosis?
A. Chromosome 5
B. Chromosome 6 (Your Answer)(Incorrect)
C. Chromosome 7 (Correct)
D. Chromosome 8
E. Chromosome 9

A

C. Chromosome 7 (Correct)

45
Q

Which of the following is not a member of the Flavivirus family?
A. Dengue fever
B. Rhinovirus
C. Yellow fever
D. West Nile
E. St. Louis encephalitis

A

B. Rhinovirus (Correct)

46
Q

Which of the following genetic conditions is caused by a mutation to the MECP2
gene?
A. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
B. GM1 gangliosidosis
C. Rett syndrome
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
E. Hemochromatosis

A

C. Rett syndrome (Your Answer)(Correct)

47
Q

Iron-deficiency anemia may be the result of infection/infestation with which of the
following organisms?
A. Ancylostoma Duodenale
B. Enterobius Vermicularis
C. Trypanosoma Cruzii
D. Trypanosoma Brucei
E. Listeria Monocytogenes

A

A. Ancylostoma Duodenale (Correct)

48
Q

Which of the following is the antidote for Heparin toxicity?
A. Penicillamine
B. Vitamin K & fresh frozen plasma
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. N-Acetylcysteine
E. Protamine Sulfate

A

E. Protamine Sulfate (Correct)

49
Q

Marfan syndrome can be linked to a gene mutation found on which of the following
chromosomes?
A. 5
B. 13
C. 15
D. 19
E. 21

A

C. 15 (Correct)

50
Q

Which of the following is a prophylactic for plasmodium infection that acts as an
inhibitor of the dihydrofolate reductase enzyme?
A. Mefloquine
B. Quinine
C. Piperaquine
D. Pyrimethamine
E. Lumefantrine

A

D. Pyrimethamine (Correct)

51
Q

Which of the following types of collagen is most closely related to Alport
syndrome?
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4
E. Type 5

A

D. Type 4 (Correct)

52
Q

Which of the following medications is a known inhibitor of ADP release from the
platelets?
A. Abciximab
B. Aspirin
C. Tirofiban
D. Eptifibatide
E. Clopidogrel

A

E. Clopidogrel (Correct)

53
Q

Which of the following recurring dermatologic findings is characteristic of X-linked
SCID?
A. Psoriasis
B. Cutaneous candidiasis
C. Cellulitis
D. Eczema-like rash
E. Erysipelas

A

D. Eczema-like rash (Correct)

54
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of atypical pneumonia in 10-30
year olds?
A. C. Pneumonia
B. S. Pneumonia
C. H. Influenza
D. M. Pneumonia
E. S. Aureus

A

D. M. Pneumonia (Correct)

55
Q

Which of the following parasites lays eggs large enough to be visualized in the
feces?
A. Ascaris Lumbricoides
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Strongyloides Stercoralis
D. Trichinella Spiralis
E. Dracunculus Medinensis

A

A. Ascaris Lumbricoides (Correct)

56
Q

Which of the following cutaneous signs is most telling of Tuberous Sclerosis?
A. Café-Au-Lait spots
B. Ash-leaf spots
C. Port-wine stain
D. Seborrheic dermatitis
E. Eczematous rash

A

B. Ash-leaf spots (Correct)

57
Q

) Which of the following receptors is blocked by either Eptifibatide or Abciximab?
A. ADP receptor
B. TXA2 receptor
C. gpIb receptor
D. gpIIb/IIIa receptor
E. gpIa receptor

A

D. gpIIb/IIIa receptor (Your Answer)(Correct)

58
Q

Which of the following medications is not a common cause of photosensitivity?
A. Amiloride
B. Sulfonamides
C. Tetracycline
D. 5-Fluorouracil
E. Amiodarone

A

A. Amiloride (Correct)

59
Q

Which of the following is deficient in cases of Christmas disease?
A. Factor 8
B. Factor 9 (Your Answer)(Correct)
C. Factor Xa
D. Factor 7
E. Protein C

A

B. Factor 9

60
Q

Which of the following is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?
A. Flumazenil
B. Penicillamine
C. Dimercaprol
D. N-Acetylcysteine
E. Sodium Bicarbonate

A

D. N-Acetylcysteine (Correct)

61
Q

Which of the following alpha 2 agonists is safe for use in pregnant patients?
A. Clonidine
B. Tizanidine
C. Guanoxabenz
D. Methyldopa
E. Guanabenz

A

D. Methyldopa (Correct)

62
Q

Which of the following is most closely associated with a renal angiomyolipoma?
A. Tuberous sclerosis
B. Neurofibromatosis
C. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
D. Dupin-Johnson syndrome
E. Friedreich’s ataxia

A

A. Tuberous sclerosis (Your Answer)(Correct)

63
Q

The Presenilin 1 and Presenilin 2 genes are located on which two chromosomes?
A. 1 and 15
B. 2 and 14
C. 1 and 14
D. 14 and 21
E. 1 and 21

A

C. 1 and 14 (Correct)

64
Q

Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by Thiabendazole?
A. Xanthine Oxidase
B. Ornithine Transcarbamoylase
C. Squalene mono-oxygenase
D. Squalene Epoxidase
E. Mitochondrial fumarate reductase

A

E. Mitochondrial fumarate reductase (Correct)

65
Q

Hartnup’s disease most closely mimics the signs and symptoms associated with
deficiency of which of the following?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B3
D. Vitamin B6
E. Vitamin B9
F. Vitamin B12

A

C. Vitamin B3 (Correct)

66
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of the 30s ribosome?
A. Doxycycline
B. Linezolid
C. Piperacillin
D. Nafcillin
E. Azithromycin

A

Which of the following antibiotics is an inhibitor of the 30s ribosome?
A. Doxycycline (Correct)

67
Q

Which of the following street drugs is known to induce a coronary artery
vasospasm, and is a known cause of myocardial infarction in younger people?
A. Lysergic acid diethylamide
B. Phencyclidine
C. Methamphetamine
D. Cocaine
E. Marijuana

A

D. Cocaine (Correct)

68
Q

Retinoblastoma can be most closely linked to a mutation of this chromosome?
A. 13
B. 14
C. 15
D. 16
E. 17

A

Retinoblastoma can be most closely linked to a mutation of this chromosome?
A. 13 (Correct)

69
Q

Which of the following findings are most consistent with MEN1 syndrome?
A. Pituitary adenoma, Pheocromocytoma, Parathyroid hyperplasia
B. Pituitary adenoma, Marfanoid body habitus, Medullary thyroid carcinoma
C. Pancreatic tumors, Pituitary adenoma, Parathyroid hyperplasia
D. Pheocromocytoma, Pituitary adenoma, Marfanoid body habitus
E. Parathyroid hyperplasia, Mucosal neuromas, Pancreatic tumors

A

C. Pancreatic tumors, Pituitary adenoma, Parathyroid hyperplasia (Your Answer)(Correct)

70
Q

Which of the following timeframes most accurately describes that in which the
emetic toxin from B. Cereus may begin to exhibit symptoms?
A. 30 minutes - 6hrs
B. 6-12hrs
C. 12-18hrs
D. 18-24hrs
E. 24-72hrs

A

Which of the following timeframes most accurately describes that in which the
emetic toxin from B. Cereus may begin to exhibit symptoms?
A. 30 minutes - 6hrs (Correct)

71
Q

Dural ectasia, a condition characterized by weakening of the connective tissue of
the dural sac, is commonly associated with which of the following?
A. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
D. Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome
E. Marfan syndrome

A

E. Marfan syndrome (Correct)

72
Q

Which of the following is the most likely initial presentation of Alport syndrome?
A. Hematuria
B. Hemoptysis
C. Visual decline
D. Loss of hearing (high-pitched frequency)
E. Loss of hearing (low-pitched frequency)

A

A. Hematuria (Correct)

73
Q

Which of the following neurocutaneous syndromes is most closely associated with
a port-wine stain?
A. Osler-Weber-Rendu
B. Neurofibromatosis 1
C. Von Hippel Lindau
D. Sturge-Weber
E. Neurofibromatosis 2

A

D. Sturge-Weber (Correct)

74
Q

PKU is caused by a deficiency of this enzyme:

A

phenylalanine hydroxylase

75
Q

name the oxygen containing amino acids

A

serine threonine tyrosine

76
Q

the conversion of 5 methyltetrahydrofolate into tetrahydrofolate requires vitamin b12 and this enzyme

A

methionine synthase

77
Q

fill out the table

A
78
Q
A
79
Q

name 3 pathways that occur in both the cytosol and mitochondria

A

I. heme synthesis
II. gluconeogenesis
III. urea cycle

80
Q

this splits PIP2 into IP3 and DAG

A

phospholipase C

81
Q

name the nitrogen-containing amino acids

A

glutamine, asparagine

82
Q

name the 2 shuttles and the enzymes that can get NADH into the mitochondria

A

malate=aspartate;enzyme is malate dehydrogenase
glycerol 3 phosphate; enzyme is glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase

83
Q

name the allosteric activator of the pfk-1 enzyme:

A

amp, f26bp

84
Q

name the enzyme that converts 1,3bpg into 2,3bpg under stressful circumstances

A

bisphosphoglycerate mutase

85
Q

a full thickness wound will see contraction beginning as late as this many days post injury

A

14 days

86
Q

In phosphorylating the myosin light chain, activation the enzyme responsible for this phosphorylation is achieved by the binding of these two structures:

A

calcium & calmodulin

87
Q

coenzymes required to convert pyruvate into acetyl coa requires this number of co-enzymes:

A

I. TPP thiamine-vitamin B1) - carboxylation
II. lipoic acid (vitamin b4)-accept 2 carbon unit
III. CoA (Pantothenic acid-vitamin b5)- final 2 carbon acceptor
IV. riboflavin (vitamin b2) - oxidize lipoic acid
V. Nicacin (vitamin B3) - oxidize FADH2

88
Q

name the aromatic amino acids (hint:PTT mnemonic)

A

phenylalanine, tryptophan, tyrosine

89
Q

This enzyme adds guanine residues to the 5’5’ triphosphate link during formation of the 7-methylguanosine cap:

A

guanosyl transferase. it ensures protection of 5’end from ribonuclease attack. pg. 54 biochemistry

90
Q

the mitotic phase is characterized by chromosomes lining up along a centrally located plate:

A

metaphase

91
Q

name the 3 pre mRNA modifications made prior to translation:

A

I.intron removal
II.addition of poly A tail
III. addition of methyguanosine cap

92
Q

this is the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle:

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase

93
Q

per turn of the citric acid cycle, this total number of ATP is generated:

A

10 ATPs per turn

94
Q

in converting pyruvate into acetyl coa, this number of ATPs is generated:

A

5 atps

95
Q

this is the total number of nadh molecules made per turn of the citric acid cycle:

A

3 NADH. it is coming from the isocitrate –>alpha ketoglutarate
alphaketoglutarate–> succinyl coa
malate–> oxaloacetate
enzymes in order: isocitrate dh
akg-dH
malate DH

96
Q

disulfiram exerts its effects by inhibiting this enzyme:

A

acetaldehyde DH pg 97 in usmle success biochemistry

97
Q

accumulation fo F-I-P is associated with deficiency of this enzyme;

A

Aldolase B. fructose metabolism if deficient leads to fructosemia. evidents when baby started on fruits pg 94-95 biochemistry usmle success

98
Q

this pathway reduces glucose into sorbitol

A

aldose reductase pathway. can lead to cataract in galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase pg 94 biochemistry usmle success

99
Q

which of the following is both rod shaped and a fast fermenter of lactose?
A. Citrobacter
B. Serratia
C. Pseudomonas
D. Yersinia
E. Klebsiella

A

E. Klebsiella (Correct)

100
Q

Which of the following syndromes is not inherited in a mitochondrial fashion?
A. MELAS syndrome
B. MERRF syndrome
C. LHON
D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
E. Leigh syndrome

A

D. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Correct)

101
Q

name the allosteric activators of the glycolytic pathway

A

fructose 26bp, amp

102
Q

autosomal dominant diseases mneumonic

A

Jobs liver mocha stnd p
job syndrome
li fraumeni
acute intermittent porphyria
vhl vwd
essential tremor
retinoblastoma
marfan syndrome
olssier weber rendu
cholesterolemia familial
huntington disease, hypokalemia periodic paralysis
achondroplasia, acute polycystic kidney disease

spherocytosis surge weber
tuberculosis sclerosis
neurofibromatosis
dystrophy (myotonic)
familial adenidosis polytosis

103
Q

inducer cyp450

A

St. John’s funny funny (phenphen) mom never refuses
greasy carbs and chronic
alcohol

cbse med 5 (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions