Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 3 Studying Part 2 > USMLE questions > Flashcards

USMLE questions Flashcards

1
Q

Describe scombroid poisoning

A

Scombroid poisoning is a common histamine-induced reaction that occurs within 10-30 minutes of ingesting improperly stored seafood (in temp >15C histidine in fish can undergo decarboxylation and form histamine). Symptoms include flushing, headache, palpitations, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, oral burning (“spicy”). Patients may describe a bitter taste. Exam may be notable for erythema, wheezing, tachycardia, hypotension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe pufferfish poisoning

A

Form of food poisoning due to toxin (tetrodotoxin) and characterized by PREDOMINANT neuro symptoms: perioral tingling, incoordination weakness, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the management of preeclampsia with severe features

A

FIRST maternal stabilization: magnesium for seizure prophylaxis, short-acting antihypertensives (labetalol, hydralazine) NEXT delivery planing: preeclampsia WITHOUT severe features = delivery once >37 weeks preeclampsia WITH severe features = delivery >34 weaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F: Phytoestrogens (soy, wild yams) cause nipple discharge

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Common causes of vision loss in the elderly

A

Among those >75yo vision loss is caused by… cortical cataracts (40%) & macular degeneration (20%) All patients should be evaluated for macular degeneration as those patients will have less (and possibly no) benefit with cataract surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What you should be thinking in a baby with a genital rash….

A

You must differentiate CONTACT dermatitis (most common) from CANDIDA dermatitis (2nd most common). Contact dermatitis spares creases/skinfolds while candida is a BEEFY red rash with satellite lesions. Contact dermatitis - treat with topical barrier ointments (zinc oxide, petrolatum) Candida dermatitis - treat with topical antifungals (nystatin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Treatment of tertiary hyperparathyroidism

A

Parathyroidectomy when electrolyte derangements are persistently elevated (ca, phos, pth), soft tissue calcification or calciphylaxis, intractable bone pain or pruritus. Typically perform parathyroidectomy before renal transplant. Note that bisphosphonates actually make things worse,.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Diagnostic ECG findings of STEMI

A

1) New ST elevation at the J point in >/= 2 anatomically contiguous leads with the following threshold: > 1mm in all leads EXCEPT V2 and V3 (require MORE) > 1.5mm in women, >2mm in men >40yo and >2.5 in men <40 in leads V2 and V3 2) New LBB with clinical presentation of ACS https://emergencymedicinecases.com/wp-content/uploads/2019/08/Screen-Shot-2019-08-13-at-2.53.25-PM.png https://www.google.com/imgres?imgurl=https%3A%2F%2Flitfl.com%2Fwp-content%2Fuploads%2F2018%2F08%2FECG-LBBB-AF.jpg&imgrefurl=https%3A%2F%2Flitfl.com%2Fleft-bundle-branch-block-lbbb-ecg-library%2F&tbnid=Hh3kvU30NveAoM&vet=12ahUKEwiJqpr__dbpAhWtADQIHcdOCXIQMygAegUIARCOAg..i&docid=74EpJHi54BFfDM&w=1200&h=627&q=lbbb&hl=en-us&client=safari&ved=2ahUKEwiJqpr__dbpAhWtADQIHcdOCXIQMygAegUIARCOAg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

EKG finding suggestive of pericarditis

A

Diffuse 1mm ST elevations with PR depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe RBBB EKG findings

A

R prime (second R wave) in V1 accompanied by widened S wave in V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

EKG findings suggestive of right heart strain

A

T wave inversions in leads II, III, and aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe different etiologies of sinus bradycardia after MI

A

Sinus bradycardia in INFERIOR wall MI are typically transient and RESPONSIVE to atropine (bc they are due to increase in vagal tone) Sinus bradycardia in ANTERIOR wall MI are due to damage to conduction system BELOW the AV node and AV nodal block is typically NOT responsive to atropine and requires transcutaneous cardiac pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the diagnostic algorithm when suspect pheochromocytoma

A

1 - 24hr urine fractioned metanephrines and catecholamines, plasma fractionated metanephrines > If negative, repeat during spell

2 - CT scan or MRI of abdomen

> Negative - consider further imaging, i.e. MIBG scan, octreotide scan, PET, whole-body MRI

> Positive - surgical eval, genetic testing, MIBG scan if very large (>5cm) tumor (may have extraadrenal disease, mets), alpha and beta blockade prior to surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Appropriate use of CENTOR criteria

A

If a patient has 3 or more of criteria then TEST with rapid strep test (culture takes too long) If <3 criteria then do not need to test Cough (absent) Exudates Nodes (anterior) Temperature OR (younger OR older; <14 +1, >45 -1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

W/u of UTI in babies

A

All children <24mo with SINGLE febrile UTI should undergo renal and bladder ultrasound to evaluate for hydronephrosis and uretal dilation suggestive of anatomic abnormality If abnormal US or recurrent febrile UTIs THEN undergo voiding cystourethrogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diagnosis and treatment of psoriasis

A

Diagnosis of psoriasis is CLINICAL (bx not necessary) If isolated plaque psoriasis then topical glucocorticoids or vitamin D derivatives (calcipotrient) may be sufficient If joint involvement then SYSTEMIC treatment with methotrexate (not oral steroids - may trigger pustular psoriasis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Detrimental effects of estorgen/progesterone menopausal hormonal therapy

A

VTE Breast cancer CAD Stroke Gallbladder disease (mostly in women >60yo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When to consider stress or pharmacological echo?

A

Patients with low risk non ST elevation MI or unstable angina based on TIMI score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do glucocorticoids cause osteoporosis?

A

They decrease absorption of calcium from the gut, cause renal calcium wasting, and have a direct anti-anabolic effect on the bone. They also suppress the release of GrH from the hypothalamus leading to central hypogonadism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Causes of urinary incontinence in the elderly

A

A. Genitourinary - > decreased detrusor contractility, detrusor overactivity > Bladder or urethral obstruction (tumor, BPH) > Urethral sphincter or pelvic floor weakness > Urogenital fistula B. Neurological - > MS > Dementia - Parkinson’s, Alzheimer’s, NPH > Spinal cord injury, disk hernia Timon C. Potentially REVERSIBLE - DIAPPERS > Delirium > Infection > Atrophic urethritis/vaginitis > Pharmaceuticals - I.e. alpha blockers, anti holiness is, opiates, CCB (urinary retention/overflow), diuretics > Psychological - I.e. depression > Excessive urine output (I.e. diabetes, CHF) > Restricted mobility (I.e. post surgery) > Stool impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When should women be given intrapartum prophylaxis for GBS

A

GBS bacteriuria or GBS UTI in CURRENT pregnancy (regardless of treatment) GBS-positive rectovaginal culture in current pregnancy Unknown GBS status PLUS any of the following: > LESS than 37 weeks gestation > Intrapartum fever > ROM for > 18hrs Prior infant with early-onset neonatal GBS infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe lab and pathology features of celiac disease

A

Lab features: > Increased stool osmotic gap > Microcytic anemia, iron deficiency Pathology: villous atrophy!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Treatment of antifreeze (ethylene glyco) ingestion

A

Fomepizole (better than ethanol) with immediate dialysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What cause of glomerulonephritis has high association with neuropathy?

A

Polyarthritis nodosa (PAN) - involvement of every organ EXCEPT the lung Associated with multiple motor and sensory neuropathy with pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treatment of IgA nephropathy and Henoch-Schonlein Pupura

A

These diseases cause glomerular disease via proteinuria and are best treated with ACE inhibitors FIRST and then steroids if needed Henoch-Schonlein purport will resolve spontaneously over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drug induced lupus spares…

A

The kidney and the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Best initial tests for suspected lupus

A

ANA and anti-dsDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Treatment of lupus nephritis

A

Dependent upon extent of disease - BIOPSY demonstrating severity of disease guides therapy > Sclerosis - NO treatment (scar) > Mild disease,early stage, nonproliferation - steroids > Severe disease, advanced, proliferative - MMF and steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HUS and TTP

A

HUS is a TRIAD: 1 - intravascular hemolysis 2 - elevated creatinine 3 - thrombocytopenia TTP is all of the above + 4 - fever 5 - neurological abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the treatment of HUS and TTP?

A

PLASMAPHERESIS Definitely NOT platelets (make disease worse) or antibiotics (can also make disease worse) - just fueling the fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Nephrotic syndrome changes

A

Low albumin (>3.5g lost in urine/day) Hyperlipidemia (lost lipoprotein signals = less removal of lipids) Thrombosis (loss of antithrombin III, protein C, protein S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Causes of mild transient proteinuria

A

CHF Fever Exercise Infection Orthostatic proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are some dialyzable drugs?

A

Lithium Ethylene glycol Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Manifestations of uremia

A

Hyperphosphatemia Hypermagnesemia Anemia Hypocalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Differential for hypernatremia

A

Simple dehydration Diabetes insipidus - central (failure to produce ADH) vs nephrite is (insensitivity of the kidney)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Diagnostic algorithm for cause of hypernatremia

A

Urine osmolality Urine sodium Urine volume If dehydration then osmolality will be increased, sodium will be high, volume will be low In BOTH central and nephrogenic hypernatremia the urine osmolality will be low, urine sodium with be low, volume will be high, & NO change in urine osmolality with water deprivation. DDAVP will result in a decrease in volume and increase in urine osmolality in central but NOT nephrogneic DI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Causes of nephrogenic DI

A

Lithium toxicity

Hypokalemia

Hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Causes of hypovolemic hyponatremia

A

Either renal (diuretics) or non-renal (GI, skin losses) Differentiate via urine Na - will be high in renal causes (kidneys are NOT working) and normally low in nonrenal causes (kidneys are working correctly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

By how much does hyperglycemia impact sodium?

A

Every 100 extra points of glucoses cause an ARTIFICIAL drop in Na of 1.6 points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Impact of adrenal insufficiency on electrolytes…

A

Causes hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Causes of SIADH

A

Any CNS abnormality Any lung disease Medications - sulfonylureas, SSRIs, carbamazepine Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Derangements caused by SIADH

A

Hyponatremia (euvolemic)

High urine sodium (>20)

High urine osmolality (>100)

Low serum osmolality

Low serum Uric acid

Normal BUN, Cr, bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Rate of correction hyponatremia

A

Max rate of correction 10-12 mEq/L in the first 24hrs (due to risk of central pontine myelinolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Causes of hyperkalemia

A

Metabolic acidosis from shift outside of cells

Adrenal aldosterone deficiency such as Addison disease

Beta blockers (inhibit Na/K ATPase activity)

Digoxin toxicity

Insulin deficiency

Diuretics (spironolactone)

ACE inhibitors, ARBs (via aldosterone inhibition)

Prolonged immobility, seizures, rhabdomyolysis, or crush injury

Type IV renal tubular acidosis resulting from decreased aldosterone effect

Renal failure, preventing potassium exertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Progression of hyperkalemia on EKG

A

Peaked T waves Loss of p wave widening of QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Impact of hypokalemia

A

Arrhythmia - causes U waves on EKG Muscular weakness - hypokalemia inhibits contraction May lead to rhabdomyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hypokalemia treatment

A

Replace the potassium - there is no max dose on oral replacement as the bowel will automatically regulate absorption.

Be cautious in IV replacement though as too quick administration can cause arrhythmia

Avoid glucose-containing fluids - will stimulate insulin and worsen the hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hypermagnesemia causes and impact

A

Caused by TOO much intake either laxatives or iatrogenic administration (I.e. tocolytic during labor) Impact is muscular weakness and loss of DTRs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Hypomagnesemia impact

A

Hypocalcemia Cardiac arrhythmia BECAUSE magnesium is necessary for PTH release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Causes of hypomagnesemia

A

Loop diuretics Alcohol withdrawal, starvation Gentamicin, amphotericin, diuretics Cisplatin Parathyroid surgery Pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Causes of metabolic acidosis with increased AG

A

MUDPILES Methanol intoxication Uremia Diabetic keto acidosis Paraldehyde, paracetamol/acetaminophen Isoniazid toxicity Lactic acidosis (hypoperfusion results in anaerobic metabolism) Ethanol Salicylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Aspirin metabolic derangements

A

Immediately causes respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation Over a short period it causes metabolic acidosis from poisoning of the mitochondria and the loss of aerobic metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Most important indicator of DKA severity

A

Serum bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Treatment of ethylene glycol poisoning (antifreeze)

A

Fomepizole (or ethanol) - like in methanol intoxication (where fomepizole inhibits production of toxic formic acid), fomepizole prevents production of oxalic acid (which binds to calcium and forms crystals, hurting the kidneys) and allows time for dialysis to remove ethylene glycol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Causes of metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap

A

Diarrhea - loss of bicarbonate and potassium, increased CL- reabsorption causing normal anion gap RTA - > Distal (Type I): inability to excrete H+ ions in distal tubule resulting in accumulation of acid and alkaline urine (stones will form). Serum potassium will also be low because body will excrete + ions in form of K instead of H+. > Proximal RTA (type II): inability to reabsorb bicarbonate in the PRT > Hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism (type IV): decreased aldosterone production or effect - diabetic patient with normal AG metabolic acidosis (the ONLY RTA with increased K level)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Explain the urine anion gap and how it is used in cases of metabolic acidosis

A

Urine anion gap (UAG) = Urine Na+ - Urine Cl - UAG can be a helpful way of distinguishing renal vs nonrenal causes of metabolic acidosis because in nonrenal causes of acidosis, the kidneys will excrete more acid and thus more CL- (NH4Cl) leading to a NEGATIVE UAG. If the kidneys are NOT working (renal etiology of acidosis) the UAG will be positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Describe volume contraction impact on acid/base balance

A

Volume contraction causes ALKALOSIS because decreased volume stimulates aldosterone which will secrete H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Most common cause of death in cystic disease

A

End stage renal failure - - NOT SAH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Routine tests for HTN on CCS

A

Urinalysis EKG Eye exam for retinopathy Cardiac exam for murmur and S4 gallop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the most effective lifestyle modification for hypertension?

A

Weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

First-line antihypertensive

A

Tricky question guided by a few principles: - Does the patient have diabetes? (If yes, ACEI/ARB) - Does the patient have heart failure? (If yes, beta blocker, acei/arb) (keep in mind chlorthalidone bc studied in ALLHAT and longacting) - CAD? (If yes, beta blocker) - Migraine? (If yes, CCB, beta blocker) - Osteoporosis? (If yes, thiazides) - Depression, asthma? (If yes - NO beta blockers) - Pregnancy - alpha methyldopa - Is the patient black OR old and does not have the above? (If yes, thiazides or CCB) - There is some evidence younger (<50) patients respond best to ACEI/ARBs and beta-blockers but beta blockers are not used unless specific indication because they provide inferior protection against stroke - ACCOMPLISH trial showed that there is some benefit to using different classes in Ab/CD distribution (I.e. more benefit with acei and CCB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

When to investigate for a cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Red flags - ie young patient, sx of pheochromocytoma If refractory to 3 antihypertensives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

BP target

A

130/80 for general population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Describe when to give pneumococcal vaccine

A

In ALL patients >65yo give 13PVV then the 23PVV in a year If immunocompromised then 13PVV now, 23 PVV after 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

3 most likely causes of circulatory disturbances in the setting of trauma

A

Hypovolemic shock Pericardial tamponade Tension pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Describe different etiologies of shock

A

Hypovolemic - decreased intravascular volume; decreased PCWP Cardiogenic - increased PCWP Neurogenic - decreased cardiac output Anaphylactic Septic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When is craniotomy done on SDH?

A

When there are lateraling signs and midline displacement is 10mm or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How does mannitol work?

A

Mannitol is filtered by the glomeruli but NOT reabsorbed from the renal tubule, the result being decreased water and Na+ reabsorption which leads to decreased extra cellular fluid volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Presentation of third cranial nerve palsy

A

Ptosis Unequal pupils Etiologies - PCOMM aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

First choice test when suspect esophageal perforation

A

Gastrograffin (not barium) esophagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Describe perioperative risk for different cardiac risk factors: - Low EF - CHF - Recent MI - Severe progressive angina

A
  • EF < 35% is a CONTRAINDICATION to noncardiac surgery - CHF should be optimized medically prior to surgery - Recent MI should defer surgery for 6 months - Severe angina should be worked-up with cath prior to surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Describe perioperative risk management of smoking

A

Order PFTs to evaluate FEV1 (risk high with FEV1 < 1.5, PCo2 high) Cessation of smoking for 8 weeks prior to surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe perioperative management of hepatic risk

A

If bili > 2.0, PTT > 16, albumin < 3, encephalopathy > 40% mortality with any one risk factor > 80-85% mortality if 3 or more risk factors are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Describe perioperative risk of nutritional deficiency

A

Provide 5-10days of nutritional supplements before surgery > Weight loss > 20% of body weight > Serum albumin < 3.0 > Anergy to skin antigens > Serum transferrin < 200mg/dl > Diabetic coma - absolute contraindication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Describe postoperative fever mnemonic

A

Wind - Water - Walking - Wound Wind - day 1 - atelectasis - order CXR Water - day 3 - UTI - order UA Walking - day 5 - DVT - order Doppler Wound - day 7 - CT scan for deep infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

VACTERL congenital anomalies

A

Vertebral anomalies Anal atresia Cardiac anomalies Tracheal Esophageal fistula Renal and/or radial anomalies Limb defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Treatment of congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

Endotracheal intubation, low pressure ventilation, sedation, NG suction Perform surgical repair after 3-4 days to allow for lung maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Gastroschisis vs omphalocele

A

Gastroschisis - defect to the right of the umbilical cord; no protective membrane and bowel looks angry and matted (due to absence of enteric neurons within myenteric plexus and submucosal plexus) Omphalocele - umbilical cord goes to the defect which has a thin membrane under which one can see normal-looking bowel and a little slice of liver (associated with trisomy 18 and 13)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Treatment of exstrophy of the bladder

A

Surgical repair at a specialized center WITHIN the first 1-2 days of life. Do not delay treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Causes of double bubble sign

A

Duodenal atresia Annular pancreas Malrotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Appearance of intestinal atresia on X-ray

A

Multiple air-fluid levels throughout the abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Most common causes of necrotizing enterocolitis in babies

A

Occurs in premature infants when first fed, most common pathogens are E. Coil and Klebsiella pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Describe biliary atresia and work up

A

Incomplete biliary tree that presents usually around 6- to 8- week of life as progressively increasing jaundiced (conjugated bilirubin) Diagnose with serological and sweat test (r/o other causes), HIDA scan for 1 week after phenobarbital (if no bile reaches the duodenum, surgical exploration is needed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Describe hirschsprung disease

A

Chronic constipation diagnosed by full-thickness biopsy of rectal mucosa (appears normal on film but no myenteric and submucosal plexus due to failed neural crest cell migration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Diagnosis/treatment of intussusception

A

Barium or air enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How does Meckel diverticula present? How diagnose?

A

Presents as lower GI bleeding in a child of pediatric age If is a TRUE diverticula of all three layers of bowel wall Diagnose with radioisotope scan looking for gastric mucosa in the lower abdomen Treat with surgical resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe appearance of anterior shoulder and posterior shoulder dislocation

A

Anterior shoulder dislocation - most common, pt will have arm held close to the body but forearm will be externally rotated; will have associated numbness over the deltoid muscle because the auxiliary nerve is stretched Posterior shoulder dislocation - uncommon but seen in seizures and electrical burns; patient will hold arm close to the body and shoulder will be internally rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What nerve may be impacted by humerus fracture? What symptoms would you observe?

A

Radial nerve - unable to dorsiflex (extend) the wrist; function regained after reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What anatomic structure would be impacted in posterior dislocation of the knee? How would this present on exam?

A

The popliteal artery leading to decreased distal pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Treatment of acute epididymitis in men <35yo vs older men

A

males <35yo - tx for gonorrhea/chlamydia with ceftriaxone and doxycycline older men treat with levofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Most common cause for newborn baby not to urinate during first day of life… Diagnosis and management…

A

Posterior urethral valves Catheterize empty bladder and diagnose with voiding cystourethrogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Management of hydrocele

A

Watchful waiting in first 12 months (typically resolve) If persists elective surgery in order to decrease future risk of inguinal hernias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Management of cryptorchidism

A

Should undergo orchiopexy of undescended testes as soon as possible after 4mo of age and should definitely be completed before 2yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Workup of priapism

A

Obtain blood gas from the corpus cavernosum to distinguish ischemic (due to decreased venous flow) from nonischemic (due to fistula between cavernosal artery and corporal tissue). Ischemic will show hypoxemia, hypercarbemia, acidemia; nonischemic will show normal levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Describe subclavian steal syndrome

A

Arteriosclerotic stenotic plaque at the origin of the subclavian allows enough blood supply to reach the arm for normal activity but not enough to meet increased demands of exercise (claudication in the arm) resulting in blood being “stolen” from the vertebral artery resulting in syncopal episodes(visual symptoms, equilibrium problems) Diagnose with angiography and treat with bypass surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Describe decision to proceed with surgery in abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

ALL symptomatic aneurysms should get surgery! (urgently, pain etc suggests leaking of the aneurysm and may rupture within a day or 2) Surgery is considered in asymptomatic AAA with diameter >5.5cm or rapid expansion of >1cm/year (or >0.5cm in 6mo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Causes of conjunctivitis in the newborn (timeline)

A

Day 0 - Chemical irritation due to silver nitrate (less common now as erythromycin ophthalmic ointment used at delivery instead) Day 2 - Neisseria gonorrhea - tx ceftriaxone Day 7 - Chlamydia trachomatis - oral erythromycin Day 21 - HSV - systemic acyclovir and topical vidarabine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Treatment of the newborn at delivery

A

Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment (protect against Neisseria) 1mg of vitamin K Im

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Association of preauricular tags in the newborn

A

Hearing loss Genitourinary abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Describe CHARGE syndrome in neonates

A

Congenital abnormality usually noticed due to malformation of the iris (“hole” in the iris) C - coloboma of the iris Heart defects Atresia of the nasal choanae growth Retardation Genitourinary abnormalities Ear abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Significance of absence of the iris in a newborn

A

Aniridia raises c/f wilms tumor (WAGR syndrome) - screen with abdominal ultrasound every 3 months until age 8 Wilms Aniridia GU anomalies Mental Retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Lateral neck mass diagnosis

A

Brachial cleft cyst - can get infected - give antibiotics, surgery if large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Midline neck mass that moves with swallowing

A

Thyroglossal duct cyst - can get infected, associated with thyroid ectopia - surgical removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Signs of infant of a diabetic mother

A

Macrosomia, hx of birth trauma Hypoglycemia after birth Hypocalcemia Hypomagnesemia Hyperbilirubinemia Polycythemia Cardiac abnormalities - ASD, VSD, truncus arteriosus Small left colon syndrome (abdominal distension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Saw palmetto is used to…

A

Treat BPH It is not evidenced based - does NOT appear to improve symptoms, flow measures, or prostate size Help remember this because “saws are manly”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Kava kava is used to…

A

Treat anxiety and insomnia - while it may help symptoms it is associated with liver toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Saw palmetto side effects

A

Mild stomach discomfort Increased bleeding risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Ginkgo biloba use and side effects

A

Memory enhancement, associated with increased bleeding risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Ginseng uses and risk

A

Used for improved mental performance, associated with increased bleeding risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Black cohosh use and side effects

A

Used for postmenopausal symptoms (hot flashes, vaginal dryness) SE hepatic injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Kava kava side effect

A

Severe liver damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Echinacea use and side effect

A

Treatment and prevention of cold and flu SE is anaphylaxis (more common in asthmatics)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Ephedra use and side effects

A

Used for treatment of cold and flu, weight loss, and improced athletic performance SE: HTN, arrhythmia/MI/sudden death Stroke, seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Describe herpangina

A

Vesicles on the posterior oropharynx associated with fever that occurs in children and is caused by Coxsackie group A virus Self-limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

T/F: The rates of misuse and overdose are higher with long-acting formulations.

A

TRUE, surprise!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Describe the potential impacts of amiodarone on thyroid function

A
  1. It decreases T4-> T3 conversion (elevated T4, normal T3) but these abnormalities THEN IMPROVE over 3-6 months so NO treatment (or cessation) is necessary 2. Inhibits hormone synthesis (elevated TSH, low T4) 3. Can have either AIT (amiodaraone-induced thyroiditis) type 1 (iodine-induced increased in synthesis) or type 2 (destructive) > AIT type 1: Low TSH, high T3, T4, decreased RAIU, increased vascularit yon US > AIT type 2: decreased TSH, increased T3, T4, undetectable RAIU, decreased vascularity on ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Impact of aspirin on thyroid hormones

A

High aspirin >2g displaces thyroid from THBG leading to increased free hormone and decreased TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Describe euthyroid sick syndrome

A

Low T3, may also have low T4 and TSH Mildly elevated TSH in recovery of the illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

VZV vaccine in a patient who lives with someone who is immunocompromised?

A

Yes, it should be given but patient should be monitored for a rash which would indicate possibility to infect immunocompromised individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Distinguish major depressive episode from a normal grief reaction

A

They share many similar features including sadness, anhedonia, sleep and appetite disturbances, impaired concentration, and normal grief can include hallucinations of their loved ones. Importantly however in normal gief the sadness is less persistent and does NOT involve low self-esteem, excessive guild, or active suicidal ideation. Best treatment is education, support, and good sleep hygiene. No meds or psychotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Hirschsprung disease diagnosis

A

Presents as neonate with idelayed passage of meconium and expulsion of stool on rectal exam Rectal SUCTION biopsy is the gold standard: demonstrates absence of ganglion cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Distinguish between hydatid and protozoal liver infection

A

Hydatid cysts due to Echinococcus granulosus tend to grow slowly over years and remain largely asymptomatic until size >10cm or if cyst ruptures. E. histolytica is an example of a Protozoal liver infection that causes fever, RUQ pain, and hypoechoic liver lesion (amebic liver absess) that has “anchovy paste” and negative gram stain if aspirated. Dx by blood serology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How to determine if a foreign body swallowed by a child needs to be removed?

A

First determine what it is - if it is a battery it needs to be removed regardless A coin with an UNKOWN time of ingestion, ingestion >24 hours prior (risk of erosion), or a patient who is symptomatic requires retrieval If swallowed <24hrs and asymptomatic can observe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Osteoporosis T score

A

-2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

When is parathyroidectomy indicated for primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

When patients have symptomatic hypercalcemia, complications (i.e. osteoporosis), or a high risk of complications (moderate to severe hypercalcemia). Also in patients <50yo who are likely to develop complications later in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Describe osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Condition of impaired collagen in which patients have blue sclera and multiple fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Describe radiographic findings of osteomalacia

A

Epiphyseal widening Metaphyseal cupping Osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Primary prevention indications for statin therapy

A

LDL >190 Age >40 with DM Estimated 10year ASCVD risk 7.5-10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Secondary prevention indications for statin therapy

A

ACS Stable angina Arterial revascularization Stroke, TIA, PAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are options for HIGH intensity statin therapy?

A

Atorvastatin 40-80mg Rosuvastatin 20-40mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Causes of erythema multiforme

A

HSV Mycoplasma pneumonia Medications (allopurinol, antibiotics) Autoimmune disorders Malignancies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Describe the algorithm for breast masses

A

If the patient is >30yo > Mammogram +/- ultrasound - If results suspicious, core biopsy If the patient <30yo > Ultrasound +/- mammogram - If simple cyst monitor or electively aspirate - If complex cyst or mass then image-guided biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

From which cells does HCC arise?

A

Hepatocytes themselves!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What does pulmonary infarct look like on CT?

A

Like a crescent Do not confuse with metastasis (if present, should be more than one)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

When are patients with prostate cancer considered low-risk?

A

When Gleason score = 6 with <3 cores affected (<50% involvement in each affected core) Normal DRE PSA <10ng/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What substance of abuse has a particularly rapid elimination?

A

Inhalants They may otherwise easily be confused with other substances of abuse (i.e. benzos, alcohol) as they cause mild pupillary dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Management of male infant with inguinal hernia?

A

If asymptomatic elective surgery in 1-2 weeks because increased risk for incarceration with delayed repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Who can you use short course of combination menopausal hormonal therapy in?

A

Women <60yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Who should receive zoster vaccine?

A

Everyone > age 50

Over the hill is a chicken = zoster vaccine!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Explain pneumoccocal vaccine schedule

A

Unique populations: patients with chronic heart, lung, liver disease, diabetes, or those who smoke or use alcohol should receive PPSV23 before age 65 At age 65 all patients should receive 13 PPSV23 and then revaccination with PPSV23 (revaccinate after 3 more years) CHECK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Describe diagnostic criteria of Kawasaki disease

A

Fever >/= 5 days + >4 of the following: - Conjunctivitis: bilateral, nonexudative - Mucositis: injected/fissured lips or pharyns, “strawberry tongue” - Cervical lymphadenopathy: >1 lymph node >1.5cm in diameter - Rash: erythematous, polymorphous, generalized, perineal erythema and desquamation; morbilliform (trunk, extremities) - Erythema & edema of hands and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Treatment of new aflutter (or fib)

A

Before cardioversion or ablation patients need to be on at least 3 weeks of anticoagulation due to the risk of thromboembolism (which also exists with amiodarone!) In patients with aflutter of known duration <48hrs they can undergo synchonized electral cardioversion due to low thromboembolic risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are the autoantibodies in systemic sclerosis?

A

Anti-centromere antibodies “Systemic sclerosis is sentral” (centromere)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What are the autoantibodies in lupus?

A

Anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are the autoantibodies in primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Anti-mitochondrial

146
Q

Describe acne treatment

A

Based on type of acne (although in general topical retinoids > topical antibiotics > oral antibiotics > oral isoretinoin) Comedonal acne - topical retinoids, salicylic, azelaic, glycolic acid Inflammatory acne (papules <5mm and pustules) > mild: topical retinoids and benzoyl peroxide > moderate: topical antibiotics (erythromycin, clinda) > severe: oral antibiotics (tetracycline, macrolides, tmp-smx) Nodular (cystic) acne (large nodules >5mm that appear cystic, high risk of scarring) > Moderate: topical retinoid + benzoyl peroxide + topical antibiotic > Severe: add oral antibiotics > Unresponsive severe: oral isoretinoin

147
Q

Hypercalcemia symptoms

A

Stones, Bones, Moans (abdominal), Psychiatric overtones Mild-moderate: nausea, fatigue, constipation, ileus Severe: confusion, weakness, delirium, coma QTc SHORTENING

148
Q

What electrolyte derangement causes QTc shortening?

A

Hypercalcemia!

149
Q

What impact due thiazide diuretics have on calcium?

A

Increase!

150
Q

What impact due thiazide diuretics have on calcium? uric acid?

A

Increase! Increase!

151
Q

What is the GFR cutoff for quite bad kidney function?

A

eGFR <30. At this point should have discussion about renal replacement therapies.

152
Q

What type of scrotal mass is more likely to change with valsalva? What is the best management?

A

Varicocele - if it is on the left no further w/u required, if on the right may consider further investigation for a mass

Management depends on age:

  • in older men w/o concerns re: fertility just symptomatic management with NSAIDs
  • if the man is younger it increases risk of infertility and can manage with gonadal vein ligation
153
Q

Describe management of malignant pleural effusion that reaccumulates

A

Patients with malignant pleural effusion in general have high mortality and management is palliative In patients with rapid accumulation (in whom serial thoras will not be practical) chemical pleurodesis is the best option (indwelling catheter is associated with higher mortality) Radiation has not proved effective and lobectomy generally not indicated due to poor prognosis

154
Q

Describe lead toxicity based on levels and appropriate management

A

Lead toxicity:

  • Severe >70
  • Moderate 45-69
  • Mild <44mcg/dL

Hint: Pb 44 (low threshold) - 77 (severe)

No current data to suggest benefit to treatment of asymptomatic children with DSMA; generally reserved for moderate toxicity

Severe lead intoxication should be treated with parenteral dimercaprol and EDTA

155
Q

First line method of diagnosis of PCP

A

Induced sputum (sensitivity is 50-90%)

156
Q

Management of acute PCP

A

Depends on ABG to determine if corticosteroids are required - P)2 < 70 or A-a gradient >35 should prompt corticosteroid treatment

157
Q

Describe risk of secondary malignancies in Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Hodgkin lymphoma puts patients at risk for secondary malignancies especially lung, breast, thyroid, bone, and GI. Lung cancer risk is especially increased with smoking in combination with prior radiation or chemotherapy.

158
Q

Describe the phases and management of acetaminophen poisoning

A

Acetaminophen poisoning has 4 specific stages based on the TIME from ingestion:

  1. Asymptomatic or nonspecific sx (0-24hrs)
  2. Hepatotoxicity (24-72hrs)
  3. Peak of LFT abnormalities (72-96hrs)
  4. Recovery (4-14 days)

If patient <4hrs from ingestion can give activated charcoal for decontamination.

If >4-24hrs after ingestion, give empiric NAC

159
Q

Biggest risk factor for pancreatic adenocarcinoma

A

Cigarette smoking (alcohol consumption actually has little association)

160
Q

Describe indications for implantable cardioverter-defibrillator vs biventricular pacemaker insertion for cardiac resynchronization

A

Implantable cardioverter-defibrillator is indicated in patients with:

  • Prior MI and LVEF < 30% - NYHA class II or III and LVEF <35%
  • Prior VF or unstable VT
  • Prior sustained VT without underlying cardiomyopahty

Pacemaker and resynchronization is indicated for:

  • LVEF <35% with widened QRS >120ms (different variations on this but think really bad HF + widened QRS)
161
Q

Factor V Leiden =

A

Resistance to protein C

162
Q

Treatment for suspected TCA overdose (prolonged QRS, ventricular arrythmias)

A

Sodium bicarbonate

163
Q

What is the threshold for bariatric surgery?

A

Failure to lose weight with other methods and BMI >40 or >35 plus comorbidity

164
Q

What are medication options for obesity?

A

Best is orlistat which works by inhibiting pancreatic lipases resulting in less fat absorption

165
Q

What is a common infectious cause of blood diarrhea + afebrile? Bloody diarrhea + febrile?

A

EHEC is usually afebrile and in the history likely to be some exposure to animals

Shigella is usually febrile and contracted through contaminated food or water

166
Q

Describe screening for neural tube defects in pregnancy

A

Second-trimester maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) - will be elevated Ultrasound - as part of initial screening or to investigate elevated AFP If both are elevated then can perform amniocentesis to obtain amniotic AFP and acetylcholinesterase levels which have high PPV to predict NTD

167
Q

Describe lichen planus

A

4Ps: pruritic, planar, polygonal, purple Most commonly involve flexor surfaces

168
Q

Explain why initiating mechanical ventilation may be associated with an acute drop in BP? Management?

A

Because the increase in intrathoracic pressure results in a decrease in preload Treat with a NS bolus

169
Q

Describe parvovirus impacts in pregnancy

A

It can result in fetal anemia, hydrops fetalis, and fetal demise AT ANY POINT during pregnancy. Risk is greater when infection occurs in the first half of pregnancy but risk persists throughout pregnancy and warrants close monitoring with periodic ultrasound assessments

170
Q

Treatment of a patient with suspected new bulimia nervosa

A

Basic laboratory testing would be reasonable but CBT is first-line Patients generally treated as outpatients unless uncontrolled purging present

171
Q

Diagnosis of PSC

A

Endoscopic cholangiography or MRCP is usually necessary to appreciate the multifocal areas of stricture and dilation of the intra- and extrahepatic bile ducts CT and ultrasound may show suggestive features but are not sensitive enough

172
Q

What congenital heart defects are ductal dependent?

A

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome - dependent upon alternative path of oxygenated blood via PFO and PDA via right heart circulation to supplement impaired left heart circulation

Aortic coarctation may present with respiratory distress and shock after PDA closes but cyanosis would only be present in distal extremities (as distal to aortic narrowing)

173
Q

Describe Rh alloimmunization in pregnancy and correct use of anti-D immune globulin

A

Rh alloimmunization occurs in Rh- mothers after exposure to an Rh+ fetus. The main principle of giving immune globulin is to PREVENT the development of maternal antibodies after exposure to fetal blood. Thus if a mother who is Rh- has a first time pregnancy with Rh+ fetus she should receive anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks and <72hrs after delivery to prevent hemolytic complications in any future pregnancy.

A mom who has ALREADY developed antibodies will not receive any benefit to anti-D immune globulin

174
Q

Describe the standard initial prenatal lab panel:

A

Rhesus (Rh) type and antibody screening Hgb or Hct and HCV Rubella and varicella serology Urinalysis and UCx Serologic tests for syphilis, HIV, HBV NAAT for chlamydia Guidelines-based pap test

175
Q

Lead time bias

A

When a diagnostic test detects a disease earlier leading to an apparent increase in survival however the difference is merely due to earlier detection and the length of survival is actually unchanged (i.e. PSA in prostate cancer)

176
Q

Gaucher disease

A

Had an old mneumonic idk how to recover now

Autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disorder due to glucocerebrosidase deficiency leading to glucocerebroside accumulation within macrophages:

  • bone marrow infiltration - anemia, thrombocytopenia
  • splenomegaly > hepatomegaly
  • skeletal involvement causing bony pain
  • low bone density predisposing to pathologic fractures
177
Q

Describe main features of glycogen storage diseases

A

Hypoglycemia, hepatomegaly, and muscle pain/weakness (i.e. von Gierke diseasE) NOT bone bone or pathologic fractures like Gaucher’s

178
Q

Describe PCOS and w/u

A

Suspect PCOS when 2/3 criteria are present:

  • Oligomenorrhea
  • Hyperandrogenism
  • PCOS Pelvic ultrasound is appropriate for w/u

FSH and LH are typically NORMAL

All patients with PCOS should have oral glucose tolerance test to screen for T2DM

179
Q

What threshold for knee aspirate should be used for noninflammatory vs inflammatory etiologies?

A

<2000cells/ml = noninflammatory etiology (i.e. osteoarthritis)

>2000 cells for inflammatory etiologies like rheumatoid arthritis and reactive arthritis

180
Q

Define infertility

A

In women <35yo infertility is the inability to conceive with >/=12 months of appropriately timed intercourse w/o contraception

In women >35yo infertility is considered no pregnancy in >/= 6months (due to decreased ovarian reserve and decresed fecundability)

181
Q

Describe findings of disseminated gonococcal infection

A

Either purulent monoarthritis or as a triad:

  • tenosynovitis - typically involving the distal extremities
  • Dermatitis - isolated pustules or papules, primarily on the hands and feet
  • Polyarthralgia - asymmetric, migratory joint pain
182
Q

What is pituitary apoplexy?

A

Pituitary infarction that usually leads to adrenal crisis, headache, visual symptoms

183
Q

What sign suggests acute renal failure is specifically due to atheroembolism (compared to CIN, etc)?

A

Eosinophilia

184
Q

What type of flank mass typically moves with respiration?

A

Renal cell carcinoma

185
Q

Describe best initial regimen for gout prevention

A

start allopurinol but in the immediate period after initiating patients are at an INCREASED risk for attacks as acute change in uric acid predisposes to flares, thus patient’s should be started on prophylactic short course of colchicine (or NSAIDs) to prevent flare

186
Q

Describe rabies prophylaxis guidelines

A

People with anticipated exposure should receive preexposure prophylaxis (day 0,7,21 or 28)

Post-exposure prophylaxis depends on whether someone has been previously vaccinated:

  • Unvaccinated: rabies vaccine (day 0,6,7,14) + IVIG
  • Vaccinated: Rabies vaccine on days 0 & 3
187
Q

Describe the likelihood ratio

A

The probability of finding an event in patients with the disease/probability of the same finding in patients without the disease positive

LR (LR+) = probability of a patient with the disease testing positive/probability of a patient without the disease testing positive

LR= sensitivity/(1-specificity)

Negative LR (LR-) = probability of a patient with the disease testing negative/probability of a patient without the disease testing negative

LR- = 1-sensitivity/specificity

188
Q

Describe patellofemoral pain syndrome

A

Condition of anterior knee pain that occurs in young athletes and young women triggered by overuse or malalignment and management is conservative (reduced intensity of exercise, modification, nsaids, stretching and strengthening exercises)

189
Q

Antibiotic of choice for human bite

A

Augmentin - covers mix of aerobes and anaerobes

190
Q

Describe postpartum thyroiditis and treatment

A

Condition of autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland that is generally self-resolving but associated with increased risk of hypothyroidism (hashimoto-like) later on

During acute period of thyrotoxicosis sx managed with beta-blockers as antithyroid drugs are not effective (autoimmune destruction and release of preformed hormone)

191
Q

Explain how sterilization is managed in patients with intellectual disability

A

Patient’s who lack capacity (i.e. have court-appointed guardian) still have the right to reject sterilization if proposed by their caregiver. Their lack of capacity does NOT come into play. Explore other birth control options

192
Q

Treatment of akathisia

A

Decreasing the antipsychotic dose if possible, if not adding propranolol

193
Q

Where does rotator cuff tendonitis pain typically manifest?

A

The lateral shoulder

194
Q

Treatment of organophosphate toxicity

A

Due to acetylcholinesterase inhibition leading to excess acetylcholine and cholinergic toxicity

Treat with atropine - competitive agonist of acetylcholine muscarinic receptor and decreases cholinergic activity

Also pralidoxime - an acetylcholinesterase reactivator which decreases both muscarinic and nicotinic receptor stimulation

195
Q

What is the mechanism of myasthenia gravis and its treatment?

A

Myasthenia gravis is characterized by antibodies to nicotinic AChR leading to its loss from postsynaptic membrane. Pyridostigmine slows the breakdown of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (like organophosphates)

196
Q

Treatment of urethritis based on type

A

If purulent then think gonococcal urethritis (N. gonorrhoeae)

  • Dx by intracellular GN diplococci
  • Treat with ceftriaxone plus azithromycin

If nonpurulent then think Chlamydia (other causes but most common)

  • Dx aseptic urethral stain with leukocytes
  • Treat initially with azithromycin alone
197
Q

Management of dumping syndrome

A

High protein diet and smaller food portions

198
Q

What is THE single most important risk factor for osteoporosis and osteoporotic bone fracture?

A

AGE (not smoking, alcohol)

199
Q

Describe surgical management of renal cell carcinoma

A

If confined within the renal capsule (stage I) partial nephrectomy can be offered If the process extends through the renal capsule but not beyond Gerota’s fascia (stage II) then radial nephrectomy is the best treatment option

200
Q

Standard PEP

A

Triple drug therapy (tenofovir, emtricitabine, raltegravir) for 4 weeks

201
Q

What measure can be used to assess the value of a diagnostic test independently from prevalence?

A

The likelihood ratio Sensitivity and specificity are also independent of disease prevalence

202
Q

Describe LR

A

Positive LR = value of a positive test = probability of a patient with the disease testing positive/probability of a patient w/o the disease testing positive sensitivity/(1-specificity)

Negative LR represents the value of a negative test result. = probability of a patient with the disease testing negative/probability of a patient w/o the disease testing negative. The smaller the LR the less likely it is that the disease is present LR = (1-sensitivity)/specificity

203
Q

What is external validity?

A

External validity is the generalizability of a study to other populations and is reflected in the inclusion/exclusion criteria

204
Q

Treatment of Tourette syndrome

A

Risperidone (second generation antipsychotics)

alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonists (clonidine, guanfacine)

Tetrabenazine (dopamine depleter)

205
Q

Describe organophophate poisoning symptoms

A
  • Muscarinic effects: DUMBELS

Defecation

Urination

Miosis**

Bronchospasm/bradycardia

Emesis

Lacrimation

Salivation

  • Nicotinic effets: muscle weakness, paralysis, fasciculations
  • CNS: Respiratory failure, seizure, coma
206
Q

What causes anticholinergic toxicity and how does that differ from organophosphate poisoning?

A

Anticholinergi toxicity is caused by paroxetine or excess atropine (competitive inhibitor of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors) and leads to dry mucous membranes, flushing, mydriasis, urinary retention, and decreased bowel motility

207
Q

Describe alopecia areata

A

Nonscarring hair loss that is classically well-demarcated, often round, and complete hair loss It is commonly associated with nail pitting Often relapsing or progressive Associated with increased risk of other autoimmune diseases

208
Q

What is a super important risk factor for cardiovascular disease?

A

DIABETES (especially in women) - it is considered a coronary heart disease equivalent HTN (>130/80) and smoking are also important risk factors. Smoking is more important when >1ppd

209
Q

Describe use of steroids in prematurity

A

Should be given in neonates <34 weeks to help lung maturity and prevent Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS); most effective if >24hrs before delivery NO benefit in postnatal corticosteroids

210
Q

Describe common complications of prematurity (3)

A

1 - Retinopathy of prematurity - hypoxemia

2 - Bronchopulmonary dysplasia - prolonged high-concentration oxygen; prevent with CPAP

3 - Intraventricular hemorrhage

211
Q

Treatment for meconium aspiration

A

Suctioning offers NO benefit after birth and may cause harm!! Treatment: Positive pressure ventilation High-frequency ventilation Nitric oxide therapy Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation

212
Q

Causes of meconium plugs and ileus in neonates

A

Plugs:

  • Small left colon in infant of diabetic mother (IODM)
  • Hirschsprung disease
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Maternal drug abuse

Ileus:

  • Cystic fibrosis
213
Q

Newborn has prominent drooling with his first feed, subsequently gags and develops respiratory distress with an infiltrate on CXR. Diagnosis? Method of diagnosis?

A

Tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) - diagnose with NG placement - Look for VACTERL syndrome

214
Q

Double bubble differential on KUB

A

Duodenal atresia - associated with Down syndrome, polyhydramnios, presents as vomiting with first feed

Annular pancreas

Malrotation/Volvulus - most dangerous

215
Q

How to identify necrotizing enterocolitis in a newborn?

A

Will be a neonate with bloody stools, apnea, lethargy after the first feed. May have abdominal wall erythema and distension. Dx with KUB that may demonstrate pneumatosis intestinalis. Tx by stopping feeds, decompression, broad spectrum antibiotics, possible surgical resection

216
Q

When is hyperbilirubinemia pathological in the newborn?

A

Bilirubin >12mg/dL in the term infant (bbbbb 12)

Direct bilirubin >2mg/dL at any time

If present on the very first day

Present after the 2nd week of life

217
Q

What should you be thinking about if jaundice is prolonged (>2 weeks) with NO elevation of conjugated bilirubin (indirect predominant)?

A

UTI or other infection

Bilirubin conjugation abnormalities - i.e. Gilbert syndrome, Crigler-Najjar syndrome

Hemolysis - Intrinsic red cell membrane or enzyme defects: spherocytosis, elliptocytosis, G6PD, pyruvate kinase deficiency

218
Q

Treatment of jaundice in the newborn

A

Phototherapy when bilirubin >10-12mg/dL (normally decreases by 2mg/dL every 4-6hours)

Exchange transfusion in any infant with suspected bilirubin encephalopathy or failure of phototherapy to reduce total bilirubin and risk of kernicterus

219
Q

Congenital rubella infection signs

A

Cataracts, deafness, heart defects, blueberry muffin spots (extramedullary hematopoiesis)

220
Q

Congenital syphilis symptoms

A

Osteochondritis and periostitis; desquamating skin rash of palms and soles, snuffles (mucopurulent rhinitis), hepatomegaly (mot common finding)

221
Q

Congenital varicella symptoms

A

Neonatal - pneumonia

Congenital - limb hypoplasia, cutaneous scars, seizures, mental retardation

222
Q

What maternal substance of use has higher association of seizures with neonate withdrawal?

A

Methadone - it also has longer presentation of withdrawal (96hrs)

223
Q

Lithium congenital abnormality

A

Ebstein anomaly - tricuspid valve is not formed properly

224
Q

Warfarin congenital abnormality

A

Facial dysmorphism (saddle nose) and chondrodysplasia (bone stippling)

225
Q

Phenytoin teratogenic effect

A

Hypoplastic nails, typical facies, IUGR

226
Q

Isotretinoin teratogenesis

A

Facial and ear anomalies, congenital heart disease

227
Q

ACE inhibitors teratogenic effect

A

Craniofacial abnormalities

228
Q

NSAIDS teratogenic effect

A

Premature closure of PDA

229
Q

Sulfonamides side effect on neonate

A

Displace bilirubin from albumin

230
Q

Phenobarbital side effect on neonate

A

Vitamin K deficiency

231
Q

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

A

Syndrome of IGF-2 disruption leading to multiple organ enlargement - macrosomia, macroglossia, pancreatic beta cell hyperplasia (hypoglycemia), large kidneys, neonatal polycythemia Increased risk of abdominal tumors - obtain ultrasounds and AFP every y months through age 6 to look for Wilms tumor and hepatoblastoma

232
Q

Prader-Willi syndrome

A

Deletion of 15q11 which is paternally derived Decreased life expectancy related to morbid obesity

233
Q

Robin sequence

A

Mandibular hypoplasia, cleft palate Monitor airway - obstruction possible until 4 weeks of life

234
Q

Most common cause of trisomy

A

NONDISJUNCTION during meiosis

235
Q

What are the contraindications to breastfeeding?

A

Galactosemia in baby

HIV

HSV if lesions ON the breast

Acute maternal disease if absent in infant (i.e. tuberculosis, sepsis)

Maternal cancer receiving treatment

Substance abuse

236
Q

Bedwetting before what age is considered normal

A

Age 5

237
Q

Describe encopresis and w/u

A

Encopresis is unintentional or involuntary passage of feces in inappropriate settings in children >4yo

Best initial test is KUB to help distinguish retentive (constipation and overflow incontenence) with nonretentive (associated with abuse)

238
Q

Features of ADHD and diagnosis

A

Triad: Inattention, hyperactivity, impulsivity (at least 6 symptoms of impulsivity and hyperactivity or at least 6 symptoms of inattention)

Must occur in MORE than one setting

Occur often for >6mo

Occur before 12yo

Impair function

239
Q

Epiglottitis management

A

Consult ENT and anesthesia

Intubate

Give antibiotics (ceftriazone) and steroids

Give rifampin prophylaxis to household contacts if H. influenzae positive

240
Q

Management of angioedema

A

Steroids and epinephrine - if severe intubate for airway protection

241
Q

Treatment of bronchiolitis

A

Supportive ONLY unless patient is high-risk (preterm, bronchopulmonary dysplasia) in which case give hyperimmune RSV IVIG or monoclonal antibody to RSV F protein (palivizumab)

In general ribavirin is NOT recommended - it has not been shown to provide clinical benefit

242
Q

Presentation of chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia in infants

A

Infants 1-3mo of age with insidious onset

No fever or wheezing (distinguishes from RSV) +/- conjunctivitis at birth

Classic findings: staccato cough, peripheral eosinophilia

243
Q

For what CF patients can Ivacaftor be given?

A

Anyone >6yo with at least one copy of the G551D mutation! Helps decrease sweat chloride levels, improve FEV1, and decrease pulmonary symptomst and exacerbations, and improve weight gain

244
Q

Which treatments have been shown to improve survival in CF?

A

Ibuprofen - reduces inflammatory lung response

Azithromycin slows rate of decline in FEV1 in patients <13yo

Antibiotics during exacerbations delay progression of lung disease (based on extent of disease or known Pseudomonas or S. aureus - treat appropriately but these patient’s high risk to develop resistance so avoid overuse of antibiotics)

245
Q

What is the most common cyanotic congenital heart disease in the immediate newborn period?

A

Transposition of the great arteries presents in the immediate newborn period (Tetrology of Fallot generally presents beyond infancy)

Transposition of the great arteries is the most common in infant of diabetic mother

Surgery AS SOON as possible

(Tetrology of Fallot surgical repair 4-12mo)

246
Q

When are prophylactic antibiotics indicated in dental procedures?

A

Prosthetic heart valves

Previous endocarditis

Congenital heart disease (unrepaired or repaired with persistent defects)

Cardiac transplantation patients with valve abnormalities

247
Q

Most common causes of bloody diarrhea in children and general treatment

A

Campylobacter

ameoba - E. histolytica

Shigella

E. coli

Salmonella

In general, treatment is supportive. Antibiotics are RARELY used except severe Campylobacter (erythromycin), young patients or severe disease in Salmonella, and C. diff which you always treat, E. histolytica/Giardia (metronidazole), Cryptosporidium (antiparasitics)

248
Q

Patients with celiac disease have increased risk of…

A

Osteoporosis and GI malignancies (most commonly enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma)

249
Q

tx E. coli O157:H7?

Presentation and management of HUS?

A

NEVER give antibiotics in suspected case of E. coli O157:H7 - there is increased risk of HUS

Acute renal insufficiency + thrombocytopenia + anemia

Treatment is supportice care, tx of hypertension, early dialysis

Children with microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal fialure in the absence of blood diarrhea (suggestive of Shiga toxin-mediated HUS) should receive complement therapy with eculizumab

250
Q

What clinical features helps distinguish between pyloric stenosis and duodenal atresia?

A

One helpful clinical feature is that patients with pyloric stenosis have NONbilious vomit while those with duodenal atresia have bilious vomit (based on anatomy of obstruction)

251
Q

Best diagnostic test for malrotation/volvulus

A

ULTRASOUND - will show inversion of superior mesenteric artery and vein and duodenal obstruction

or Barium enema (cecum is not in the right lower quadrant)

KUB is NOT helpful

252
Q

Intussusception diagnosis

A

Generally very suggested by the history

First get a plain film KUB to r/o SBO

Then air enema which is diagnostic and curative

253
Q

Treatment of vesicoureteral reflux

A

FIRST antibiotic prophylaxis with Bactrim or nitrofurantoin in the first year to prevent kidney scarring from recurrent infections

If breakthrough UTI, new scars, or failure to resolve then proceed with surgical correction

254
Q

T/F. Bone scan is never the correct answer in multiple myeloma.

A

TRUE - bone scan is NOT useful in purely lytic lesions and will not be helpful in multiple myeloma

It IS helpful in metastatic bone lesion, evaluating delayed fractures, Paget disease

255
Q

Diagnose

A

Alopecia areata - note clear borders of circular hair loss

256
Q

Which antipsychotic affects SIX receptors and has least sedating side effect?

A

Risperidone (for less sedating side effect think “risperidone = raring to go”)

Works on 6 different receptors:

5HT

D1

D2

a1

a2

H1

257
Q

Management of acute dystonia

A

Reduce the dose of offending agent

Anticholinergics - benztropine, diphenhydramine, trihexyphenidyl

258
Q

Treatment of tardive dyskinesia

A

Stop older antipsychotics

Switch to newer antipsychotics (i.e. clozaril)

Valbenazine (inhibits presynaptic VMAT2 and thereby reduces dopamine release)

259
Q

What is the advantage of buspirone for anxiety?

A

There is NO sedative or cognitive impairment thus it is a good option for people with occupations where driving or machinery is involved

260
Q

Distinguish acute stress disorder from PTSD

A

Acute stress disorder is diagnosed when symptoms last less than 1 month and occur within 1 month of the stressor

PTSD is diagnosed when symptoms last longer than one month

They otherwise share the same symptoms which fall into three groups: 1) reexperiencing the traumatic event 2) avoidance of stimuli 3) increased arousal

261
Q

What should you do for a patient with bipolar disorder well-controlled on lithium who is newly pregnant?

A

D/c lithium to avoid heart abnormalities and choose ECT therapy for first trimester in pts with manic episodes

Then use lamotrigine in the 2nd or third trimester

262
Q

What is cyclothymia?

A

A milder form of bipolar

Think dysthmia but for bipolar

Best treated with psychoterapy and divalproex (aka valproic acid, superior even to Lithium)

263
Q

Describe the cardiotoxicity associated with trastuzumab vs doxorubicin

A

Trastuzumab cardiotoxicity is generally REVERSIBLE

Doxorubicin is the prototypical example of a type I chemotherapy-related cardiac dysfunction agent and results in irreversible, dose-dependent myocardial damage.

264
Q

Treatment of grief reaction

A

Supportive therapy

265
Q

When is bupropriion a good choice?

A

In patients with depression who are concerned about weight gain or sexual side effects with other medications.

Cannot have hx of seizures or bulimia.

266
Q

What antidepressant is associated with prolonged erections?

A

Trazodone

267
Q

Side effects of lithium

A

Acne and weight gain

Dose-related tremors, GI distress, headaches

Hypothyroidism

Polyuria

Nephrotoxicity (long-term)

Teratogenic - Ebstein anomaly

268
Q

Lithium-induced toxicity presentation

A

Disorientation, tremors, nausea, vomiting, increased DTRs

Dehydration

269
Q

Describe treatment of serotonin syndrome

A

Obviously stop medications contributing

IV fluids

Cyproheptatine to decrease serotonin production

Benzodiazepine to reduce muscle rigidity

270
Q

Why is it important to ascertain suicidal ideation before initiating an antidepressant?

A

Welp for many reasons but principally there is an increased risk of suicidal ideation in the first two weeks of starting an antidepressant

271
Q

Distinguish somatic symptom disorder from illness anxiety disorder

A

Somatic symptom disorder is when patient has many bodily c/o without evidence of medical illness

Illness anxiety disorder is what was previously described as hypochondriasis - preoccupation over having or developing illness for at least 6 months

272
Q

Suspect nephrolithiasis in pregnancy… next step?

A

Renal and pelvic ultrasound

If positive for stone treat supportively

If negative then transvaginal ultrasound

If that’s negative treat empirically or MR urogram or low-dose CT (only in 2nd and 3rd trimester) - try to avoid radiation!!

273
Q

Orthostatic hypotension definition

A

>20mmHg change

274
Q

What oral diabetic medications can cause hypoglycemia?

A

HIGH HYPOGLYCEMIA RISK:

Sulfonylureas (increase insulin secretion by acting on pancreatic beta cells) - glyburide, glipizide, glimepiride

Meglitinides (work the same as sulfonylureas)- nateglinide, repaglinide

LOW RISK:

GLP-1 agonists - exanatide, liraglutide (increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion)

DDP4 inhibitors (increase endogenous glp-1 and GIP levels) - sitagliptin, saxagliptin

NOT AT RISK:

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors - acarbose, miglitol

SGLT2 inhibitors (inhibit renal glucose reabsorption)- canagliflozin, dapagliflozin

Thiazolidinediones (improve insulin sensitivity) - Pioglitazone

275
Q

Treatment of DCIS and LCIS

A

Treat DCIS as precurser to invasive cancer and schedule surgical resection with clear margins, give radiation therapy, and tamoxifen for 5 years

Treat LCIS as a small risk factor and give tamoxifen alone for 5 years (or surveillance)

(classically LCIS is seen in premenopausal women)

276
Q

Febrile seizures risk

A

Yes there is a small increased risk of recurrence and epilepsy but not much greater than the general population

277
Q

Distinguish Legg-Calve Perthes disease from SCFE

A

Legg-Calve Perthes disease occurs in children age 2-8 and is characterized by painful limp with xray showing joint effusions and widening; due to avescular necrosis of the femoral hip

Treat with NSAIDS, rest, and surgery on BOTH hips

SCFE is a disorder that occurs in adolescence and presents as a painful limp and externally rotated leg in an obese adolescent, xray will show widening of the joint space

Treat with SURGERY - internal fixation with pinning

278
Q

Treatment of Kawasaki disease

A

IVIG and high-dose aspirin

(only IVIG has been shown to reduce incidence of cardiovacular complications)

279
Q

Describe routine care and treatment of sickle cell disease

A

Routine care:

  • Penicillin prophylaxis: 3mo to 5yo
  • Immunizations: regular PLUS pneumococcal at 2mo, influenza at 6mo then yearly, meningococcal at 2yo
  • Daily folate supplementation

Definitive tx: bone marrow transplant (mortality 10%)

If >3 crises per year or symptomatic anemia: hydroxyurea (decreases frequency of crises and transfusions, does NOT decrease risk of stroke)

280
Q

If you suspect immune thrombocytopenic purpura what test should you always obtain and why?

A

Peripheral spear to r/o TTP and HUS

281
Q

Treatment of immune thrombocytopenic purpura

A

1st choice: prednisone

2nd choice: IVIG

If chronic ITP then rituximab or splenectomy

*Important: AVIOD platelet transfusion (ab will just destroy) - treatment is NOT based on the platelet count but clinical bleeding

282
Q

Empiric treatment of neonatal sepsis

A

Ampicillin and gentamicin until 48-72hr cultures are negative (cover GBS, Listeria, E. coli, Haemophilus)

Add cefotaxime if meningitis is possible

Add acyclovir if child <28 days old

283
Q

Rubella vs rubeola

A

Rubella (aka German measles) is characterized by a maculopapular rash that spreads from head to the body and lasts 3 days

“rubella rubies” togavirus

Rubeola aka MEASLES is characterized by a maculopapular rash that spreads from head to the entire body and becomes confluent as it spreads downward; also associated with cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, and Koplik spots

“measles think weasles”

284
Q

When should you consider preeclampsia?

A

When patient has sustained BP >140/90

Always get a urinalysis to check for proteinuria (1+ or >300mg on 24hr)

285
Q

Diabetes screening in pregnancy @24-28wks

A

50g OGTT to screen

(if positive, confirmatory 3h 100g OGTT with positive result x2 to make diagnosis of gestational diabetes)

286
Q

Preeclampsia WITH severe features

A

Preeclampsia + any of the following:

SBP > 160 or DBP >110

New-onset cerebral (headache) or visual disturbance

Hepatic abnormality - RUQ pain or transaminases >2x

Thrombocytopenia <100,000

Renal abnormalities

Pulmonary edema

287
Q

Placental abruption is associated with…

A

DIC!!

288
Q

What should you always do as part of initial evaluation in a pregnant woman with spontaneous third trimester bleeding?

A

Abdominal ultrasound to r/o placenta previa because you CANNOT do vaginal exam if has placenta previa

289
Q

Whan are antibiotics for GBS NOT the answer?

A

Planned c-section WITHOUT rupture of membranes - even if culture is positive

Culture positive in a previous pregnancy but culture negative in the CURRENT pregnancy

290
Q

Treatment of maternal varicella

A

Oral acyclovir to mother plus VariZIG to mother AND neonate

291
Q

treatment of congenital varicella

A

VariZIG and IV acyclovir to the neonate

292
Q

Pregnant woman has IgG+/IgM+ CMV, treatment?

A

This indicates RECENT infection with CMV (as well as past infection)

Treat with ganciclovir or foscarnet to prevent viral shedding and hearing loss; give CMV hyperimmune globulin to reduce the risk of congenital infection

293
Q

Pregnant woman with active herpes infection and vaginal lesions…

A

Schedule CESAREAN!!

Neonatal infection with HSV has 50% mortality rate and bad outcomes in those who do survice

294
Q

Management of HIV in pregnancy

A

ALL women should be on triple HART therapy that includes Zidovudine

Give intrapartum zidovudine during delivery

ALL women should have C-section (except those with RNA <1,000)

NO breastfeeding

Avoid unnecessary instrumentation

Infant should receive 6 weeks of zidovudine

295
Q

What lab test portends the highest risk of vertical transmission from mother to fetus of HBV?

A

Positive HBeAg is associated with VERY HIGH (80-90%) prenatal transmission of HBV

296
Q

When is HELLP syndrome the answer?

A

When the description is a patient with: hemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP)

297
Q

Treatment of preeclampsia

A

Treat to goal BP is <160/110 but OK below that because trying to AVOID decrease in uteroplacental blood flow

Seizure management and prophylaxis - protect airway, MgSO4

Induce labor if >37weeks in preeclampsia w/o severe features - attempt vaginal if no contraindications

298
Q

Choice of medications for Graves disease in pregnancy

A

PTU during the first trimester

Methimazole in the second and third trimesters

299
Q

Treatment of asymtpomatic bacteriuria or acute cystitis in pregnancy

A

cephalexin or amoxacinllin po

Test of cure

300
Q

MoA of tamoxifen

A

It is an estrogen receptor ANTAGONIST at breast tissue but an estrogen receptor AGONIST at endometrial tissue

Associated with high risk of thromboembolism

301
Q

Describe stepwise approach to nonreassuring fetal heart tracing (i.e. variable decels, late decels, decreased variability)

A
  1. Discontinue medications such as oxytocin to eliminate possible effect on fetal heart rate
  2. Change patient’s position (to left lateral)
  3. Provide high-flow oxygen
  4. Give IV normal saline bolus
  5. Vaginal exam to r/o prolapsed cord
  6. Scalp stimulation to observe for accelerations (reassuring)
302
Q

Contraindications to breastfeeding

A

Maternal infections: HIV, active TB, HTLV-1, HSV if lesion on the breast

Drugs of abuse (except tobacco, alcohol)

Cytotoxic medications (methotrexate, cyclosporine)

Galactosemia in the infant

303
Q

Treatment of invasive breast cancer

A

When tumor size <5cm -> lumpectomy w/ SLN bx + radiotherapy +/- adjuvant therapy +/- chemotherapy

Always test for ER, PR and HER2/neu receptors

If tumor >5cm or metastatic disease then treatment is SYSTEMIC therapy

304
Q

Explain the influence of pre- vs post- menopausal status on choice of hormonal therapy treatment in breast cancer?

A

Both patients who are pre- and post- menopausal can be treated with tamoxifen 5y treatment which reduces recurrence of any hormone receptor + breast cancer (ER+, PR+, etc)

Patient’s who are HR+ and post-menopausal can receive aromatase inhibitors (i.e. anastrozole), patients who are HR+ premenopausal should still receive tamoxifen

305
Q

When is colposcopy done for an abnormal pap?

A

When the patient has either:

  • LSIL with positive HPV
  • HSIL
  • Two ASCUS pap smears
306
Q

When is LEEP the ansewr?

A

When CIN 2 or 3 is present

Alternatives are: cryotherapy, laser vaporization, electrofulguration, cold-knife conization

(CIN 1 can be monitored with q6 HPV)

307
Q

Distinguish the following potential causes of amenorrhea:

  • Mullerian agenesis
  • Androgen insensitivity
  • Gonadal Dysgenesis (Turner syndrome)
  • Hypothalamic-pituitary failure
A
  • Mullerian agenesis - normal karyotype (XX), normal secondary sex characteristics (breasts = ovaries intact), but shortened vagina because the mullerian duct derivatives failed to form
  • Androgen insensitivity - diagnosis when there is NO pubic or axillary hair and karyotype reveals male karyotype (XY), ultrasound reveals testes (normal levels of estrogen and testosterone)
  • Gonadal Dysgenesis (Turner syndrome) - absence of secondary sexual characteristics, karyotype is 45 XO and elevated FSH, streak gonads
  • Hypothalamic-pituitary failure - NO sexual characteristics but uterus normal on ultraound and FSH low; causes include stress, exercise, anorexia, Kallman syndrome (anosmia)
308
Q

Standard deviation percentages

A

68-95-99.7 RULE

309
Q

Distinguish mineralcorticoid from glucocorticoids

A

Glucocorticoids are steroids that act primarily like cortisol which is made in zona fasciculata

Mineralcorticoids (i.e. fludricortisone) are steroids that act like aldosterone which is made in the zona glomerulosa

310
Q

Describe the MEN syndromes

A

MEN 1: pituitary adenoma, parathyroid hyperplasia, pancreatic tumors

MEN2a: Parathyroid hyperplasia, medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma

MEN2b: Mucosal neuroma, marfanoid body habitus, medullary thyroid carcinoma

311
Q

Describe HLH

A

Potentially fatal disease of overactive histiocytes and lymphocytes that commonly presents in infancy (although can be present in all age groups) characterized by fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia, lymphadenopathy, and rash

312
Q

Describe Q-tip test

A
313
Q

Mass and leg pain in a young boy with the following

Dx?

A

Ewing sarcoma - note the onion skinn

314
Q

Diagnosis?

A

Sunburst pattern = Osteosarcoma

315
Q

What are shockable rhythms?

A

VF/pulseless VT

(PEA/asystole is NOT shockable)

316
Q

Describe recommended duration of antiplatelet therapy for:
Bare metal stent (BMS) placement

Drug-eluting stent (DES)

A

BMS: absolute minimum of DAPT for 4 weeks

DES: recommend DAPT for 6-12mo

Ideal DAPT for total of 30 months if possible

Continue aspirin indefinitely

317
Q

Which cause of vaginosis has normal pH?

A

normal pH! (3.8-4.5)

Candidiasis

318
Q

Empiric treatment of CAP

A
319
Q
A
320
Q

evaluation of precocious puberty

A
321
Q

Exudative pleural effusion criteria

A

Pleural protein/serum protein > 0.5 OR

Pleural LDH/serum LDH >0.6 OR

Pleural LDH >2/3 ULN of serum LDH

322
Q

HCW exposed to blood of HBV+ patient

What is the treatment?

A

Depends on the HCW immunization status -

If immune, NOTHING

If NOT immune then give HBV IG and vaccine

323
Q

Antithrombotic therapy in patients with mechanical valve

A
324
Q

Manifestations of hereditary hemochromatosis

A

Do not get tripped up by elevated ferritin and transferrin saturation

325
Q

Likelihood of HIT

A
326
Q

Breastfeeding vs Breast milk jaundice

A

Breastfeeding jaundice: exaggerated physiologic jaundice that occurs earlier in an infant with poor latch (inadequate milk intake); Lack of effective breastfeeding causes inadequate milk and calorie intake and results in decreased stooling and increased enterohepatic circulation. Infants may also be dehydrated.

Breast milk jaundice: Indirect hyperbilirubinemia over the first few weeks of life due to increased enterohepatic circulation; thriving infant; moa unclear, hypotheses include factors found in the milk that may inhibit hepatic UGT1A1. BMJ is associated with East Asian infants who are more likely to have a UGT1A1 mutation and weight loss.

327
Q

What factors impact TBG?

A
328
Q

McCune Albright

A
329
Q

Differentiate different myopathy etiologies

A
330
Q

Describe features of NF type 1

A
331
Q

Evaluation of oligoarthritis

A
332
Q

Dx and treatment of Pagets

A

Best diagnostic method is bone scan - most sensitive

Tx bisphosphonates

333
Q

Pregnancy induced skin changes vs intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

A
334
Q

Common causes of shoulder pain differential

A
335
Q

Workup of a thyroid nodule

A
336
Q

Thyroiditis differential

A
337
Q

Tuberous sclerosis

A
338
Q

Vaccines for adults

A
339
Q

Calculate sensitivity, specificity, NPV, PPV, NNT, LR

A

NNT:

Odds ratio:

Risk ratio:

Edit!

340
Q

Highest risk factor for PID

A

Multiple sexual partners!

Even higher than prior PID

341
Q

Posterior fat pad on arm xray after falling on outstretched hand (FOOSH)

A

Significance is that it suggests supracondylar fracture

342
Q

Lichen sclerosus vs vulvar carcinoma

A

Lichen sclerosus (first picture) and vulvar carcinoma (second) can appear similar. Lichen sclerosus is a cancer precursor characterized by pruritus that develops into figure-of-eight thinning and lightening of the skin. If there are concerning features such as thickening into plaques or alteration of the normal vulva architecture have a high level of concern for possible vulvar carcinoma and get a biopsy. If simple lichen sclerosus can treat with topical steroids and only biopsy if refractory to treatment.

343
Q

What type of cranial hematomas in infants is associated with forceps-delivery?

A

Cephalohematoma (think of someone pulling out with forceps “I see the head…”) - is a hemorrhage that occurs underneath the periosteum (does not cross suture lines) that occurs due to subperiosteal vein shearing

Caput succedaneum is a serosanguinueous fluid collection beneath the scalp that DOES cross suture lines

Subgaleal hemorrhage are hemorrhage under the galea aponeurotica and can occur as complication of vacuum-assisted deliveries but will present as RAPIDLY expanding with hypovolemic shock and blood loss

344
Q

Distinguish conduct disorder from oppositional defiant disorder

A

Conduct disorder is about violating major social norms or the rights of others (stealing, fighting, lying, truancy, putting others at risk), with characteristic lack of remorse and indifference to parental feelings

Also associated with torturing animals, destroying property, bullying, forcing someone into sexual activity

If >18yo then antisocial personality disorder

ODD involves defiant d/o towards authority figures and will often break the rules but their behavior does not put others at risk and is more reactionary than deliberate disregard

345
Q

Treatment of developmental dysplasia of the hip

A

Referral to orthopedic surgery!

If identified in the first 6 months of life then Pavlik harness for 3 months first

346
Q

Treatment of acute rhinosinusitis

A

ALWAYS supportive treatment as clinical features (fever, purulent discharge, etc.) are not reliable distinguishers of viral vs bacterial and the vast majority of cases ARE viral

347
Q

Pain in a woman with a recent UTI (now resolved) c/o pain that is RELIEVED by urination…

A

Interstitial cystitis/Idiopathic bladder pain

348
Q

When do you need to submit changes to a protocol to the IRB?

A

ALWAYS regardless of whether it actually impacts patients

349
Q

significance of anti-SSA (Ro) and anti-SSB(La) antibodies in pregnancy?

A

Confer higher risk of neonatal lupus and small (~2%) but significant risk of congenital heart block

Mothers should continue takign hydroxychloroquien and take aspirin during their pregnancy

350
Q

Risk of ADHD medications in adults…

A

HTN - dose-dependent and will not resolve with duration of therapy!

(remember there is a low risk of arrhythmias! I think I got confused because you should get a baseline EKG in both kids and adults!)

351
Q

Differentiate the following:

Chicken pox

Roseola (HHV6)

Measles

Rubella

5th Disease/erythema infectiosum

A
352
Q

Anticipated Cr rise after starting ACE inhibitors?

A

30% rise in cr from baseline within the first several weeks - stay the course!!

353
Q

What constitutes elevated urine pH?

A

5.5

(don’t confuse with vaginal which is 4.5)

354
Q

Treatment of hypercalcemia

A

Intravenous fluids

Calcitonin

(do NOT confuse with cinacalcet which is a calcimimetic to reduce PTH)

Long-term with bisphosphonates such as zolendronic acid

355
Q

Commonly used medications that can raise blood pressure include

A

NSAIDs

Decongestants

Some antidepressants (venlafaxine)

Oral contraceptives

Systemic glucocorticoids

Stimulants (methylphenidate)

356
Q
A
357
Q

Treatment options for latent TB

A

Isoniazid and rifapentine weekly for 3 months under direct observation

Isoniazid monotherapy for 6-9 mo

Rifampin for 4 mo

358
Q

HIT type 2 characteristics

A

Thrombocytopenia - platelets decline >30-50%

Timing - onset 5-10 days after heparin initiation or <1 day with prior recent heparin exposure

Thrombosis - new thrombosis, progressive thrombosis, skin necrosis

AlTernative causes - no other sauces for thrombocytopenia are present or likely

If it doesn’t meet these characteristics then its regular heparin-induced thyrombocytopenia that will self resolve

359
Q

Polycythemia in a newborn…

A

Monitor GLUCOSE levels…

If patient symptomatic (respiratory distress, cyanosis, apnea, irritability, jitterniness) then should administer fluids

360
Q

Describe pneumococcal vaccine

A

If never received PCV variations before then: PCV13 @ 65yo then PPSV23 in 1 year

PPSV23 earlier if: smoker, heart disease, lung disease, liver disease, diabetes, alcoholism then: PPSV13 + PPSV23 1 year later

If immunocompromised or CSF leaks or cochlear implants then PSV13 + PPSV23 8 weeks later

Step 3 Studying Part 2 (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions