USMLE Neuro and ID Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment of myoclonic seizures

A

Valproic acid

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2
Q

The radial nerve passes through which anatomical region, which may be affected by repetitive pronation/supination of the forearm?

A

Supinator canal

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3
Q

Methylmalonic acidemia

A

AR organic acidemia due to complete/partial deficiency of methylmalonyl CoA mutase

Increased propionic acid, decreased serum glucose, increased urine ketones, increased ammonia

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4
Q

Parinaud syndrome affects which part of the brain?

A

Dorsal midbrain

Germinomas are the most common pineal gland tumor that is associated with this

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5
Q

Characteristics of Parinaud syndrome

A

Limitation of upward gaze, BL eyelid retraction (Collier sign) and light-near dissociation

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6
Q

What type of hemorrhage is a common complication of prematurity?

A

Intraventricular hemorrhage that originates from the germinal matrix

Occurs within the first 5 postnatal days

Can present with hypotonia

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7
Q

Vitamin A excess

A

Acute toxicity = nausea, vomiting, vertigo and blurred vision

Chronic = alopecia, dry skin, hepatic toxicity and enlargement; pseudotumor cerebri, hyperlipidemia and papilledema

Teratogenic (cleft palate, cardiac abnormalities)

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8
Q

Difference between Chiari I and Chiari II

A

Chiari I = ectopia of cerebellar tonsils; affects adults; headaches and cerebellar symptoms; associated with syringomyelia

Chiari II = herniation of vermis and tonsils through foramen magnum with aqueductal stenosis (leading to non-communicating hydrocephalus); associated with lumbosacral meningomyelocele

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9
Q

Agenesis of cerebellar vermis and cystic enlargement of 4th ventricle

A

Dandy-Walker

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10
Q

Which cranial nerve is most likely to be compressed with bleeding in temporal lobe and compression of anterior medial temporal lobe against free margin of the tentorium? TRANSTENTORIAL HERNIATION

A

CN III

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11
Q

Intranuclear eosinophilic inclusions and intracytoplasmic basophilic inclusions

A

Cytomegalovirus

First line tx = ganciclovir (guanine nucleoside anlogue that interferes with viral replication by competitively inhibiting incorporation of guanosine triphosphate into CMV DNA strands by CMV DNA polymerase)

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12
Q

AEs of ganciclovir

A

BM suppression, renal toxicity

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13
Q

Type of HS for rheumatic fever?

A

Type II immune mediated

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14
Q

Symptoms of rheumatic fever

A

Mitral regurg (early), mitral stenosis (late)

Joint (migratory polyarthritis)
O (carditis)
N (subQ nodules)
Erythema marginatum
Sydenham chorea
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15
Q

Tx of rheumatic fever

A

Penicillin

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16
Q

How do immunizations protect against hepatitis viruses?

A

Immunization uses recombinant HBsAg to generate anti-HBs antibodies, which prevent infection by binding to the envelope of circulating virus and inhibiting viral entry

17
Q

gp120 and gp41 in HIV

A

gp120 = attachment to host CD4+ T cell

gp41 = fusion and entry

18
Q

Protease inhibitors in HIV

A

-navir

Prevent maturation of new viruses
AE: hyperglycemia, nausea, diarrhea, lipodystrophy

19
Q

Which NRTI is CI if pt has HLA-B*5701 mutation due to increased risk of hypersensitivity?

20
Q

HIV therapy - NRTI

A

Competitive inhibit NT binding to reverse transcriptase and terminate the DNA chain

Tenofovir is a NT; all others are nucleosides

All need to be phosphorylated to be active

21
Q

Which HIV NRTI can be used for general prophylaxis and during pregnancy?

A

Zidovudine

22
Q

HIV attaches to host cells using what viral surface glycoprotein?

A

gp120

gp120 binds to CD4 molecule as the primary receptor and chemokine receptor CCR5 or CXCR4 as a coreceptor

23
Q

Which transmembrane glycoprotein mediates viral fusion in HIV?

24
Q

CCR5 and CXCR4 are coreceptors of HIV that bind to what type of cells?

A

Macrophages (early infection)

T cells (late infection)

25
Pseudomembranous pharyngitis with lymphadenopathy, myocarditis and arrhythmias
Corynebacterium diphtheriae ADP-ribosylation (potent exotoxin inhibits protein synthesis using this) Elongation factor 2
26
Fulminant hepatitis
HEV RNA hepevirus ss, unenveloped
27
Group A strep Group B strep
Strep pyogenes Strep agalactiae
28
Tx of strep pyogenes
Penicillin If allergic, macrolide (azithromycin) or clindamycin
29
What protein does Strep pyogenes have?
M protein to inhibit phagocytosis
30
Tx of malaria
Chloroquine for sensitive species (blocking heme polymerase) Mefloquine or atovaquone/proguanil for resistant Quinidine or artesunate for life-threatening Primaquine for P vivax or ovale
31
MOA of neuraminidase inhibitors (oseltamivir, zanamivir)
Inhibits influenza neuraminidase, and decreases release of progeny virus
32
Guanosine analog
Acyclovir It is phosphorylated to acyclovir monophosphate inside the HSV-infected host cell, via virally-encoded thymidine kinase More effective against herpes and VZV
33
How do lung abscesses form?
Aspiration of oropharyngeal contents (esp in pts predisposed to LOC like alcoholics, epileptics) Air fluid levels seen on CXR, potential cavitation Fusobacterium, Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus Often found in R lung Tx: clindamycin
34
Tumbling motility at RT, very narrow zone of beta hemolysis, likes cold temp
Listeria monocytogenes Elimination reliant on CMI response, facultative, intracellular