USMLE III Flashcards

1
Q

Oropharyngeal dysphagia def

A

difficulty swallowing, cough, drooling, or aspiration

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2
Q

Initial test oropharyngeal dysphagia

A

Nasopharyngeal laryngoscopy

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3
Q

Symptoms lateral medullary infarct

A

Loss of pain/temp ipsilateral face and contralateral body; vestibular impairment; motor spared.

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4
Q

Calculation of SAAG

A

Serum albumin minus ascites fluid albumin

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5
Q

Conditions for SAAG >/= 1.1 g/dL

A

CHF, cirrhosis, and Etoh hepatitis

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6
Q

conditions for SAAG < 1.1

A

peritoneal carcinomatosis, peritoneal TB, nephrotic syndrome, pancreatitis and serosis

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7
Q

Main worries for TCA overdose

A

CNS, arrhythmias, and anticholinergic findings

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8
Q

Treatment for TCA overdose

A

Worry about arrhythmias and treat with sodium bicarbonate

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9
Q

Screening for renovascular HTN

A

MR angiography of renal arteries

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10
Q

Etiology of constrictive pericarditis

A

viral, cardiac surgery, radiations, and TB

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11
Q

Symptoms/findings for constrictive pericarditis

A

Calcifications heart border, increase jVD, edema, Knock, ascites, pulsus paradoxes

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12
Q

Scoring system for severity of pancreatitis

A

APACHE II

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13
Q

APACHE II most imports calculating info

A

BUN and Hematocrit (Pancreatitis severity)

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14
Q

Red Flag back pain

A

> 50, weight loss, IV drugs, recent bacterial infection, night pain, hx malignancy

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15
Q

Clinical features adenomyosis

A

dysmenorrhea, heavy bleeding, chronic pelvic pain, diffuse uterine enlargement (globular uterous)

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16
Q

When iron supplementation for ESRD

A

HgB < 10.0, transferrin saturation =/< 30%, and ferritin = 500 ng/mL

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17
Q

Most common causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Idiopathic and Ischemic

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18
Q

New unexplained case dilated cardiomyopathy what are next initial tests

A

Stress testing or coronary engiogram

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19
Q

Routine prenatal screening at 24-28 weeks

A

Hgb/Hct, Antibody screen for Rd, 50 g 1-hr GTC

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20
Q

Calculating odds ratio

A

ad/bc (see table in book)

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21
Q

Type of studies odds ratio used in

A

Case control studies

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22
Q

What is subclinical hypothyrodism

A

Elevated TSH but normal T4

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23
Q

Subclinical hypothyrodism with only mild elevation in TSH

A

Antithyroid peroxidase antibody titer, if abnormal they may benefit from treatment

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24
Q

Complications if subclinic hypothyroidism not treated

A

Recurrent miscarriages, severe preeclapsia, preterm birth, low birth weight, and placental abruption

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25
Q

What are the first trimester complications from elevated sugars

A

CHD, NTD, small left colon, spontaneous apportion

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26
Q

What are the 2nd and 3rd trimester complications from elevated sugars

A

Fetal hypoglycemia, polychythemia, organomegaly

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27
Q

Contraindication to Tdap

A

Anaphylaxis or encephalopathy, not minor illness, local irritation or immunocompromised

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28
Q

Initial test for polycythemia

A

Serum erythropoietin level

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29
Q

Ddx for polycythemia with low serum erythropoietin level

A

polycythemia vera

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30
Q

Ddx for polycythemia with high serum erythropoietin level

A

Chronic hypoxia or renal cell carcinoma (most common)

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31
Q

First test scrotal mass (no pain)

A

Scrotal ultrasound

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32
Q

Treatment of Tourette syndrome in children versus adults

A

Children: Second-gen antipsychotics (eg, resperidone, aripiprazole), tetrabenazine and habit reversal therapy

Adults: First-gen antipsychotics: Haloperidol and pimozide

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33
Q

Type of lung cancers that causes SIADH (normovolemic hyponatremia)

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

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34
Q

In a study what is external validity

A

“How generalized are the results of a study to other populations”?

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35
Q

In a study what is internal validity

A

“Are we observing/measuring what we think we are observing/measuring?”

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36
Q

In preventative medicine what is primary prevention

A

Action taken before a patient develops the disease

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37
Q

In preventative medicine what is secondary prevention

A

Action taken that attemps to halt the progression of a disease in its initial stage

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38
Q

In preventative medicine what is tertiary prevention

A

Limit impairment and disabilities

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39
Q

Type of test that evaluate the association between a quantitative dependent variable and the independent variables of interest while controlling for the effects of other factors?

A

Multiple linear regression

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40
Q

Initial biopsy site for possible metastatic cancer?

A

Biopsy the most easily obtainable side (eg supraclavicular lymph nodes)

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41
Q

Treatment for severe neonatal hyperbilirubinemia

A

Exchange transfusion (unresponsive to phototherapy or >25 mg/dL)

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42
Q

Suggestive symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease

A

Confusion, ataxia, or diarrhea, hyonatremia

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43
Q

Treatment of Legionella pneumonia

A

Respiratory fluoroquinolone or newer macrolide (azithromycin)

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44
Q

Recurrent symptoms after treatment of H. pylori-associated ulcers

A

Repeat test for eradication of bacteria (urea breath testing and fecal antigen testing)

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45
Q

Consent in ER with patients that lack decision-making capacity

A

Implied consent - treat patient of what a reasonable person would expect

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46
Q

Concerning ddx for dialysis patient who just finished hemodialysis and now has developed dyspnea in the setting of iron replacement or other medications

A

ACS or anaphylaxis

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47
Q

CXR findings for malignant pleural mesothelioma

A

Pleural effusion, pleural thickening, calcifications or mass

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48
Q

How is malignant mesothelioma diagnosed

A

Thoracentesis with cytology, video-assisted thorascopic biopsy, or open thoracotomy

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49
Q

Manifestations of malignant mesothelioma

A

Pleura most commonly affected
Cough, dyspnea, chest pain, night sweats, weight loss
Pleural effusion is usually prominent

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50
Q

Hx abdominal pain with fat malabsorption; especially in setting of heavy alcohol use

A

suspicious for chronic pancreatitis

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51
Q

Diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis

A

magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) or an abdominal CT

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52
Q

First line treatment of chronic pancreatitis

A

Pain management, stop vices, frequent small meals, pancreatic enzyme supplements

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53
Q

Non-controllable risk factors for colorectal cancer

A

family history, polyposis syndromes, inflammatory bowel disease, and African-American race

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54
Q

Preventable risk factors for colorectal cancer

A

alcohol intake, cigarette smoking, and obesity

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55
Q

Protective factors for colorectal cancer

A

high-fiber diet, regular NSAIDs, hormone replacement therapy, and regular exercise

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56
Q

Symptoms of overflow urinary incontinence

A

constant dribbling of urine, incomplete bladder emptying

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57
Q

Typical examination findings with overflow incontinence include

A

Neuropathy (decreased perineal sensation) and an increased post-residual urine volume (>150).

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58
Q

Reversible and non-reversible cardiotoxicity chemotherapy medications

A

Non-reversible: doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide

Reversible: Trastuzumab

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59
Q

Most likely condition with rapidly enlargement of the thyroid gland

A

Thyroid lymphoma

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60
Q

Symptoms of pituitary enlargement, hyperpigmentation, and visual field defects following bilateral adrenalectomy

A

Nelson’s syndrome

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61
Q

Nelson’s syndrome

A

Symptoms of pituitary enlargement, hyperpigmentation, and visual field defects following bilateral adrenalectomy

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62
Q

What interventions best help facilitate recovery for a patient with critical illness (eg., ICU, intubation)

A

Early PT for progressive mobilization

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63
Q

Order of therapy in management of heart failure

A
  1. Angiotensin
  2. Diuretic therapy, BB (EF <40% once euvolemic), spironolactone (EF < 35% with stable renal function & potassium), defibrillators for EF = 30%
  3. Isosorbide dinitrate/hydralazine OR Digoxin if symptomatic with spironolactone
  4. Transplant/Ventricular assist device evaluation
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64
Q

HF treatment with EF <40%

A

BB (EF <40% once euvolemic)

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65
Q

HF treatment with EF <35 with what exceptions

A

Spironolactone but need stable renal function and potassium

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66
Q

HF treatment with EF <30%

A

Defibrillators

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67
Q

Potential benefits of quitting smoking include

A

reduction in mortality (within 5 years), reduced risk of cardiac events, reduced risk of osteoporosis, and less decline in lung function over time

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68
Q

Older adults with new-onset of cognitive impairment (even significant) should be assessed for what other conditions outside of dementia

A

Pseudodementia (late-life depression), which may be reversible with treatment

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69
Q

Indications for diagnostic testing for pheochromocytoma

A

Episodic headaches, diaphoresis & tachycardia
Hyperadrenergic spells (eg, nonexertional palpitations, pallor)
Resistant hypertension or onset of hypertension at young age

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70
Q

Patient with episodic symptoms of headaches, diaphoresis, paroxysmal hypertension, and tachycardia should be tested for what

A

Pheochromocytoma specifically plasma free metanephrine

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71
Q

Antidepressant effects on manic patients (especially bipolar disorder)

A

Can induce mania. First step in managing emergent mania is to discontinue any antidepressants.

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72
Q

Persons needing antimicrobial prophylaxis following Neisseria meningitidis exposure:

A

People in same house, roomate, or intimate contact
Child care center workers
Direct exposure to respiratory or oral secretions
Seated next to for >/= 8 hours

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73
Q

Antimicrobial chemoprophylaxis for Neisseria meningitidis exposure

A

Rifampin (not if on oral contraceptives), ciprofloxacin, and ceftriaxone

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74
Q

In type I diabetic what is the most common reason for decreasing insulin requirements and what is first test(s)

A

Adrenal failure

Cosyntropin stimulated cortisol levels

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75
Q

Most common emergency Orders CCS Cases (before physical exam)

A
Pulse oximetry
Oxygen
IV access
Normal Saline
Cardiac Monitor
BP Monitor
ECG
Ect
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76
Q

When do you perform a full physical exam on CCS

A

In clinic or non-acute setting

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77
Q

On CCS when do you assess location of patient

A

After physical exam. Decide if patient needs immediate transfer (eg., to ER)

Some initial test might later get you to transfer patient

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78
Q

Order of ordering test and meds

A

Labs then Imaging and then symptoms management

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79
Q

On CCS what orders need to be completed when admitting a patient.

A
Diet
Activity
IV access
IV fluids
Vitals (should be set)
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80
Q

On CCS monitoring

A

Check things during case

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81
Q

On CCS what to check at follow-up

A

Short exam and may consider follow-up testing

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82
Q

On CCS what are important things to complete/consider prior to surgery

A
Need surgery consult
NPO
IV access (fluids if needed)
PT/PTT
Type and cross match
ECG
Cefazolin
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83
Q

On CCS consults

A

Use if needed

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84
Q

At end of case you have two minutes to order

A

the final labs, treatment or counseling

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85
Q

On CCS case of meningitis what are big things not too miss

A

Antibiotics and lumbar puncture

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86
Q

Example of counseling

A
Stop smoking
Etoh
Safe sex
Contraception
Mediation side effects
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87
Q

When should a CT be completed in a patient with possible pancreatitis?

A

uncertain diagnosis of pancreatitis

Can diagnosis with serum lipase (or amylase) levels > 3 times upper limit of normal in the setting of characteristic symptoms and hx

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88
Q

What type of imaging with patient with pancreatitis but persistent abdominal pin and clinical deterioration

A

Abdominal CT scan with IV contrast looking for gas within pancreatic necrosis

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89
Q

What does kappa statistic represent

A

Represents the extent to which inter-rater agreement is an improvement on change agreement alone.

Inter-rater reliability

90
Q

What follow-up test for patients with fracture following minor trauma

A

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

91
Q

Symptoms to watch for in patient with higher dose of metochlopramide?

A

Extrapyramidal effect

92
Q

Drugs of choice of the immediate treatment of metoclopramide-induced acute dystonia

A

Diphenhydramine or benztropine

93
Q

Order of treatment for peripheral artery disease

A

Risk factor management
Supervised exercise therapy
Cilostazol
Revascularization for persistent symptoms

94
Q

What to test pprior to starting biologic medication (TNF inhibitors)

A

Screened for latent TB (opportunistic infections)

95
Q

What is the most reliable method for verification of entotracheal tube placement

A

Capnography

96
Q

Treatment for organophosphate poisoning

97
Q

Acquired methemoglobinemia recognition and causes

A

Large oxygen saturation gap (low pulse ox but normal PaO2)

Most common medications include topical anesthetics (eg, benzocaine), dapsone, and nitrates (in infants)

98
Q

How to rule out a diagnosis using PPV/NPV/Sensitivity/Specificity

A

A negative result on a highly sensitive diagnostic test helps to rule out a diagnosis

99
Q

Define likelihood ratio

A

Probability of a given test result occurring in a patient with a disorder compared to the probability of the same result occurring in a patient without the disorder

100
Q

Highest increase risk for pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Multiple sexual partners

101
Q

Most common pathogens in acute otitis media

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae, nontypeable Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis

102
Q

What pathogen causes otitis-conjunctivitis syndrome (purulent conjunctivitis at same time as acute otitis media)

A

H. influenzae

103
Q

Broad-spectrum antibiotics for PID

A

Cefoxitin plus doxycycline

104
Q

Acoustic neuromas are from proliferation of what type of cells

A

Swhwann cells (schwannomas)

105
Q

Cystitis in Pregnancy

A

7-day course of Augmentin OR fosfomycin

May use nitrofuratoin but not until 2/3 trimester

106
Q

Patient >60 years old with cherry-red lesions and GI bleed

A

Angiodysplasia

107
Q

Causes of angiodysplasia in colon

A

ESRD, von Willebrand disease and aortic stenosis

108
Q

Oral contraceptives / pregnancy’s effects on Thyroid

A

Estrogen stimulate hepatic synthesis of TBG, thus require higher dose of levothyroxine

109
Q

Most effective nonpharmacologic intervention for decreasing blood pressure

A

Weight loss (6 per 10-kg loss)

110
Q

Next step in patient with newly diagnosed medullary thyroid cancer

A

Serum calcitonin
Carcinoembyronic antigen
Neck ultrasound (regional mets)
Genetic testing for germline RET mutations
Evaluation for coexisting tumors (hyperparathyrodism, pheochromocytomas)

111
Q

Medications that cause an increased risk of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

A

Azithromycin and erythromycin

112
Q

Medications used for postexposure prophylaxis against pertussis

A

Azithromycin and erythromycin

113
Q

DDx to think about in patient with meningo symptoms

A

Could be viral or bacterial, treatment based on history

114
Q

Main features / findings of lactose intolerance

A

Diarrhea after lactose-containing meals
Increase stool osmotic gap
Decrease stool pH
+ Lactose hydrogen breath test

115
Q

Main features / findings of chronic pancreatitis

A

Greasy stools

Abdominal pain radiating to back

116
Q

Main features / findings of celiac disease

A

Increase stool osmatic gap
Microcytic anemia, iron deficiency
Villous atrophy

117
Q

Main features / findings of small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

A

Macrocytic anemia, B12 deficiency

+ Lactulose breath test

118
Q

Calculate attributable risk percent (ARP)

Strokes
Smokers = 1:1000
Non-smokers = 0.5:1000

A

Measure of excess risk (stroke in smoker population)

(Risk in exposed - Risk in unexposed) / Risk in exposed

Or

(RR - 1) / RR

Answer 50%

119
Q

Relative risk calculation

A

Population 1 = 1:1000
Population 2 = 0.5:1000

0.1/0.05 = 2

120
Q

Calculate population attributable risk

Strokes
Smokers = 1:1000
Non-smokers = 0.5:1000

A

Risk within the population

(Risk in total population - Risk in unexposed) / Risk in total population

Risk in total population = (Risk in smokers)(Proportion of smoker) + (Risk in nonsmokers)(Proportion of nonsmokers) = 0.1 * 0.5 + 0.05*0.5) = 0.075%

PARP = (0.075 - 0.05) / 0.075 = 0.33 (33%)

121
Q

How should traumatic amputation be transferred

A

Goal temp 33.8-50 F

Wrap in saline-moistended gauze and place in a sealed, bag and misssed with saline with 50/50 mixture of ice.

122
Q

Diagnosis of narcolepsy

A

One of the following:
Cataplexy
Hypocretin-1 deficiency (CSF)
Sleep study showing rapid eye movement sleep latency <15 minutes

123
Q

Treatment of narcolepsy

124
Q

Medication to help treat cataplexy in narcolepsy

A

SNRI, SSRI, Tricyclic

125
Q

Diagnostic tests for GI bleed

A
ESR
Sigmoidoscopy
Rectal biopsy (suspect UC)
CBC with differential
BMP
Stool ova and parasites
Stool for white cells
Stool culture
LFTs
PT/INR
PTT
126
Q

Treatment of UC with mild proctitis

A

Topical therapy with 5-ASA compounds (mesalamine suppository)

127
Q

Treatment of UC with moderate proctitis

A

Oral therapy with 5-ASA compounds (sulfasalazine, mesalamine, olsalazine)
Steroids are added when 5-ASA compounds faile to induce remission
Immunomodulators (azathioprine, 6-MP) for refractory cases

128
Q

Management of UC with severe proctitis

A
Hospital with IV fluids and electrolytes
NPO, TPN
IV steroids
Consider BS antibiotics for fever, leukocytosis or sepsis 
Surgery for refractory cases
129
Q

Managing diarrhea/cramps/mood in UC with bleeding

A

Loperamide (avoid in severe proctitis)
Anticholinergic agents for abdominal cramps
Antidepressants/anxiolytics for associated mood disorders

130
Q

Methotrexate versus laparoscopy for ectopic pregnancy

A

MTX for stable patient with B-Hcg < 5,000, tubal mass <3.5 cm, and no fetal cardiac activity.

131
Q

How to interpret odds ratios

A

OR >1 means that exposure is associated with higher odds of outcome

OR <1 means that exposure is associated with lower odds of outcome

OR = 1 exposure has no effect on odds of outcome

132
Q

What complication is most commonly associated with compartment syndrome

A

Acute renal failure

133
Q

Features of ocular melanoma

A

small, densely pigmented lesion with irregular borders in the choroid, iris, ciliary body

134
Q

Ocular melanoma management

A

diameter <10 mm, thickness <3 mm can manage with close follow-up as long as no eye pain or visual disturbances

If larger, treatment is radiotherapy

135
Q

Clinical features of post-intensive care syndrome

A

Psychiatric: >50% with maro depression, PTSD
Neurocognitive: decrease attention/memory, executive function, and processing speed
Physical: >50% with decrease mobility and independence

136
Q

Looking for what in urine when concerned about rhabdomyolysis

A

UA positive for blood but there is no RBC’s/hpf

If RBCs are present then likely exercise induced hematuria

137
Q

Bugs in pediatric septic arthritis

A

Age <3 months: Staph aureus, group B streptococcus, gram-negative bacilli

Age >3 months: Staph aureus, group A Streptococcus

138
Q

Treatment of septic arthritis in a 4 month old

A

Joint drainage and debridement

IV vancomycin

139
Q

Treatment of septic arthritis in a 2 month patient

A

Joint drainage and debridement

IV vancomycin and cefotaxime

140
Q

When are renal/bladder ultrasounds or voiding cystourethrogam be completed in pediatric patients following an UTI

A

Renal ultrasound if <24 months

Cystourethrogram with abnormal ultrasound or recurrent infections

141
Q

When should menigitis be suspected in pateints

A

nuchal rigidity
headache
bulging fontanelle
prolonged altered mental status

142
Q

Next step when there is concern that a patient does not understand the consequences of refusing treatment

A

A formal assessment of decision-making capacity

143
Q

Difference between Type I/II error

A

Type I: False Positive

Type II: False negative

144
Q

DVT prophylaxis recommendations for stroke patient who did not receive thrombolytics and are still in the hospital

A

If only receiving aspirin therapy patient should also started on intermittent pneumatic compression and low dose heparin

145
Q

Safe and effective treatment for severe bipolar mania during pregnancy

A

First generation antipsychotics (haloperidol) –> second gen antipsychotic –> Lithium (Ebstein anomaly)

Avoid carbamazepine and valproate

146
Q

Overrepresented health issues in women who have sex with women

A
Cardiovascular disease
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Obesity
Cervical cancer
Breast cancer
Ovarian cancer
Depression, anxiety
Intimate partner violence
Bacterial vaginosis 

Most of these are increased due to this population having poor healthcare maintenance.

147
Q

Resting period before returning to the previous step in gradual return-to-play protocol

A

24-hour rest period

148
Q

Treatment for neonatal polycythemia

A

Adequate hydration
Correction of metabolic derangements (hypoglycemia)
Partial exchange transfusion

149
Q

Pathogen and Presentation of impetigo

A

Staph aureus and Strep pyogenes

Papules and pustules with honey-crusted, adherent coating
Plus/minus pain or pruritus

150
Q

Pathogen and Presentation of eczema herpeticum

A

HSV Type I

Painful vesicular rash
“Punched-out” erosions and hemorrhagic crusting

151
Q

Pathogen and Presentation of molluscum contagiosm

A

Poxvirus

Skin-colered papules with central umbilication

152
Q

Pathogen and Presentation of Tinea corporis

A

Trichophyton rubrum

Pruritic circular patch with central clearing
Raised, scaly border

153
Q

Diagnostic tests for diarrhea

A
CBC with diff.
BMP
TSH
FOBT
ESR
Stool O&P
Stool WBC
Stool bact. culture
72-hour stool fat
PAP smear????
154
Q

Therapy for irritable bowel syndrome

A
Lactose free diet
High fiber diet
Loperamide
Biofeedback
Reassurance
Relaxation exercise
Patient counseling
155
Q

Diagnostic test in depressed pateint

A

CBC with diff
BMP
TSH
Vitamin B12

156
Q

Diagnostic test UTI/Yeast infection

A
Vaginal pH
Wet mount
Gram stain, vagina
GC, culture
Chlamydia, culture
U/A
157
Q

When should NIPPV be started in a COPD exacerbation

A

PCO2 >45 or pH <7.30

158
Q

Outpatient antibiotics for COPD exacerbation

A

TMP-SMZ or doxycycline

159
Q

Inpatient antibiotics for COPD exacerbation

A

levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, ceftriaxone, or cefotaxime

160
Q

Therapy for COPD exacerbation

A
Bronchodilators
Steroids
Antibiotics
Counseling
Influenzae vaccine
Pneumococcal vaccine
161
Q

When is a fine-needle aspiration completed following a mammogram

A

If it demonstrates a complex cyst or solid mass

No further work-up if simple cyst

162
Q

Procedure to remove aspirated foreign body

A

Rigid bronchoscopy

163
Q

Diagnostic test for foreign body aspiration

A

CXR-PA/lateral
X-ray neck
CBC
Rigid bronchoscopy

164
Q

Indications for carotid endarterectomy (CEA)

A

symptomatic patient with 70%-99% within 14 days of last symptomatic event

165
Q

Contraindications for carotid endarterectomy (CEA)

A

100% carotid stenosis
Previous stroke with persistent neurologic symptoms
Poor surgical candidate

166
Q

Difference in pharmacotherapy for carotid stenosis and cardioembolic

A

Carotid stenosis: Aspirin and/or clopidogrel

Cardioembolic:
Heparin in TIA is controversial
warfarin, rivaroxaban, apixaban (not if GFR <30)

167
Q

Empirical antibiotics for lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, or adenexal tenderness Inpatient versus outpatient)

A

Inpatient:
IV cefoxitin plu IV or PO doxycycline

Outpatient: 
Ceftriaxone IM (one dose) plus doxycycline PO x 14 days

May add metronidazole for suspected BV, Trich, pelvic abscess or recent gynecologic instrumentations

168
Q

Patient with bleeding and prolonged PTT with normal PT

A
Deficiency of: 
factor VIII (Hemophilia A)
factor IX (Hemophilia B)
factor XI
Von Willebrand's disease

Acquired causes:
antiphospholipid syndrome
heparin use

169
Q

Patient with bleeding and diagnosed with hemophilia

A

Purified monoclonal recombinant factor VIII (Hem A) or factor IX (Hem B)

Desmopressin and antibibrinolytic agens

170
Q

Symptoms of suspected stable coronary artery diease

A

Elderly patients (eg >80) are more likely to experience anginal symptoms other than chest pain

Symptoms other than chest pain:
SOB
Lightheadedness
Fatigue

171
Q

Time-to-event data in survival analysis where the event of interest is death

A

It accounts not only for the number of events in both groups, but also for the timing of the events throughout the follow-up period (eg all die at same time but on group has better life prior to death)

172
Q

What are the most important predictors of prognosis in patients with COPD

A

FEV1 < 40%

Age

173
Q

Treatment of aspiration pneumonia (not aspiration pneumonitis)

A

Clindamycin or ampicillin-sulbactam or amoxicillin-clavulanate

174
Q

Evaluation of a child >4 years old with primary nocturnal enuresis

A

Urinalysis (to exclude other causes)

Voiding diary

175
Q

Suggestive labs of platelet dysfunction

A

Increase bleeding time and normal PT/APTT

176
Q

Treatment for bleeding patient with platelet dysfunction

A

desmopressin

177
Q

Characteristic blood findings in thalassemia

A
microcytic, hypochromic anemia
mildly elevated ferritin
Normal RCDW
Normal Fe
Normal to mild decrease TIBC
178
Q

Clinical features of stress-induced (takotsubo) cardiomyopathy

A

Chest pain mimicking myocardial infarction
Decompensated heart failure
Moderate troponin elevation

179
Q

EKG findings in stress-induced (takotsubo) cardiomyopathy

A

ischemic changes in precordial leads without CA findings

180
Q

Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

PID
RUQ pain with elevated transaminases
Fever

181
Q

Main findings of acute sickle hepatic crisis

A

Triggered nausea and vomiting resulting in dehydration

Anemia, elevated transaminases, and fever

182
Q

What are the objective measurements of the MELD (Model for End-Stage Liver Disease):

A

Bilirubin
INR
Serum creatinine
Serum sodium levels

183
Q

Need to closely monitor what in patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

High risk of respiratory failure

Frequent monitoring of tidal volume and negative inspiratory force

184
Q

Main features of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Symmetric muscle weakness (lower legs first)
Paresthesia
Dysautonomia (eg, tachycardia, urinary retention)
Decreased or absent deep tendon reflexes

185
Q

Treatment of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Plasma exchange or IV immunoglobulin

186
Q

In diabetic neuropathy what are main senses testing to assess nerve damage

A

Pain, temperature, vibratory (tuning fork), and proprioception sense

187
Q

Ddx with ST depression and elevated cardiac enzyems

188
Q

Ddx with ST depression and normal cardiac enzymes

A

unstable angina

189
Q

In a patient with unstable angina what should be completed prior to starting Heparin

190
Q

Medications for patient in hospital for unstable angina

A

Metoprolol
Simvastatin
Eptifibatide

191
Q

Important orders for hospital patient with unstable angina

A
NPO, bedrest, 12 lead ECG, urine output
Metoprolol
Simvastatin
Echocardiography
Cardiology consult, stat (cardiac catheterization)
Eptifibatide
Lipid panel, LFTs
192
Q

Counseling for unstable angina

A
Smoking cessation
Limit alcohol
Exercise program
Medication compliance
Relaxation techniques
Diet, low sodium
Diet, low cholesterol
Follow-up at 2-6 weeks
193
Q

What should be added prior to sending a patient with unstable angina for catheterization

A

GP IIB/IIIA (Eptifibatide)

194
Q

Orders for patient with viral croup

A
CBC with diff, stat
Neck x-ray, stat
Humidified air
Dexamethasone, oral
Epinephrine, inhalation (moderate/severe)
195
Q

Diagnostic test for patient that present for suspected asthma exacerbation

A
Peak flow (PEFR) q hr
ABG
ECG
CXR
CBC
BMP
196
Q

Under what criteria should a asthma exacerbation be admitted to floor

A

Admit for PEFR (peak expiratory flow rate) <40% predicted at 4 hours
Consider admission for PEFR 40-70% at 4 hours
Discharge to home for PEFR >70% at 4 hours

197
Q

Basic labs for clinic constipation patient

A

CBC
BMP
serum magnesium, phosphate, TSH, HgbA1c
FOBT

198
Q

Preoperative antibiotics

A

Cefoxitin
ampicillin-sulbactam
cefazolin plus metronidazole

199
Q

Diagnostic study for suspected appendicitis

A

Ultrasound then CT

200
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics for bacterial arthritis

A

ceftriaxone with IV vancomycin

201
Q

Antibiotics with septic knee with gram stain showing gram-positive cocci

A

MRSA: IV vancomycin x 4-6 weeks
MSSA: IV cefazolin for 2 weeks than 2-4 more weeks of oral antibiotics

202
Q

Antibiotics with septic knee with gram stain showing gram-negative bacilli

A

IV 3 generation cephalosporin (ceftriaxone x 14 days), then 14 days of oral antibiotics

203
Q

Appropriate joint drainage for septic arthritis

A

Perform in all cases using closed needle aspiration

If closed needle aspiration does not provide adequate drainage, then: Arthroscopy or open drainage (arthrotomy)

204
Q

Initial labs in patient (pediatric or adult) with abnormal uterine bleeding

A
Urine pregnancy test
Serum TSH
Serum prolactin 
CBC with diff
PT/INR
PTT

Consider biopsy (perimenopausal women), pelvic ultrasound (obese/PCOS), LFTs (liver disease)

205
Q

What OCP to start on patient present with dysfunctional uterine bleeding

A

Hgb 10-12:

  • Absence of active bleeding: Progestin-only OCPs
  • Presence of active bleeding (combination OCPs, low progesterone, low estrogen)

Hgb < 10:
- Hormonal therapy: Combination OCPs with high estrogen if stable; IV estrogen if unstable

206
Q

Treatment for idiopathic or viral pericarditis

A

NSAIDs while patient is symptomatic (steroids if resistant)

Colchicine for 3 months

Avoid NSAIDS (other than aspirin) in post-MI pericarditis

207
Q

Diagnostic tests for suspected pericarditis

A
CBC/CMP
CXR
Troponin/CK-MB
ESR
Blood cultures
Echocardiography
208
Q

Routine labs in ER trauma patient

A
CBC with diff
BMP
LFTs
Serum amylase/lipase
UA
ABG
PT/INR/PTT
Blood type and cross
Ethanol
Urine tox screen
Urine Hcg
12 lead ECG
Chest and Spin x-ray
Abdominal CT
Urine output
209
Q

Monitoring for patient with traumatic event (MVA)

A

Serial exam
H&H q6 hours (bleeding)
Urine Output (Foley catheter)

210
Q

In a trauma, under what circumstances is ultrasound (FAST exam) versus CT of abdomen

A

Unstable perform ultrasound

Stable CT

211
Q

Diagnostic test in patient with suspected gout

A
CBC with diff
BMP
PT/IRN
PTT
ESR
Serum uric acid
X-ray of the foot/toes
Synovial fluid analysis
212
Q

Initial therapy for gout including lifestyle changes

A
NSAIDs (indomethacin, naproxen)
Low protein diet
No alcohol
No Smoking
No aspirin
213
Q

Management of PCP pneumonia

A

Bactrim

PO2 < 70 and/or A-a O2 > 35 add oral steroids

214
Q

Early treatment for patient with HIV

A

Early HAART (Efavirenz/Tenofovir/Emtricitabine)

Azithromycin if CD4 <50 for MAC prophylaxis

215
Q

Preop antibiotic

216
Q

Preop antibiotics for bowel surgery

A

Ampicillin-sulbactam or piperacillin-tazobactam

217
Q

Once Turner syndrome is confirmed what other screening that need to be completed.

A
Serum FSH and LH
UA
BMP, fasting glucose, serum TSH
Echocardiogram
renal and pelvic ultrasound
skeletal survey
Hearing test
218
Q

Therapy for Turner syndrome

A

Growth hormone (height <5%) and anabolic steroids (oxandrolone)

Estrogen replacement (12-13 yr old)

Age >13 begin with combination estrogen and progestin until menopause

Vitamin D and calcium (osteoporosis)

Dietary and Psychiatry consult (IQ)

Ophthalmology consult

Ob/Gyn consult

Exercise

219
Q

How long attempt non-pharmacologic treatment for BP until starting medications

A

6-12 months

220
Q

Treatment for life altering menopausal symptoms

A
Oral estrogen (no uterus) 
Estrogen AND Progesterone with intact uterus
221
Q

Initial treatment of patient with suspected PE

A

High suspicion just start patient on heparin (LMWH or UFH)

When confirmed add warfarin until therapeutic

IVC filter for patient with contraindication to anticoagulation

thrombolytic therapy for hemodynamically unstable patients