Urology Flashcards

1
Q

1) What nervous system is the pelvic nerve part of?

2) Describe the role of the pelvic nerve in micturition.

A

1) Parasympathetic nervous system.

2) Releases ACh which acts on M3 receptors on the detrusor muscle, causing contraction and micturition.

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2
Q

1) What nervous system is the somatic nerve part of?

2) Describe the role of the pudendal nerve in micturition.

A

1) Somatic nervous system.
2) Releases ACh which acts on nicotinic receptors on the external urethral sphincter causing contraction and voluntary urinary retention.

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3
Q

1) What nervous system is the hypogastric nerve part of?

2) Describe the role of the hypogastric nerve in micturition.

A

1) Sympathetic nervous system.
2) Releases NA which acts on B3 receptors on the detrusor muscle causing relaxation and alpha1 receptors on the internal sphincter causing contraction. Both of these actions cause urinary retention.

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4
Q

1) What structural entity involved in micturition is only present in males?
2) Name the 3 nerves involved in the physiology of micturition.

A

1) Internal sphincter.

2) Pelvic, hypogastric, pudendal.

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5
Q

Describe the series of events which occur when a person has an empty bladder.

A
  • Little stretching of detrusor.
  • Slow firing from afferent fibres to spinal cord.
  • Stimulation of hypogastric nerve which promotes relaxation of the bladder and internal sphincter contraction.
  • Higher centres also stimulate hypogastric nerve as well as inhibiting pelvic efferents.
  • Stimulation of pudendal nerve so external sphincter is voluntarily contracted.
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6
Q

Describe the series of events which occur when a person has a full bladder.

A
  • Stretching of detrusor.
  • Rapid firing from pelvic afferents to sacral region of spinal cord.
  • Impulses projected to pontine micturition centre.
  • Inhibition of hypogastric nerve causing relaxation of internal sphincter.
  • Stimulation of pelvic nerve efferents causing detrusor contraction.
  • Voluntary inhibition of pudendal nerve causes relaxation of external sphincter = VOIDING.
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7
Q

1) What is meant by the term neurogenic bladder?

2) What can cause a neurogenic bladder?

A

1) This is bladder dysfunction caused by neurological damage.
2) Any condition that impairs bladder and bladder outlet afferent and efferent signalling can cause neurogenic bladder.

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8
Q

In patients with a neurogenic bladder, there is a high risk of serious complications. Name 3 of them.

A

1) Recurrent infections
2) Vesicoureteral reflux
3) Autonomic dysreflexia

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9
Q

1) Name 3 CNS causes of neurogenic bladder.
2) Name 3 PNS causes of neurogenic bladder.
3) name 3 other causes of neurogenic bladder.

A

1) Stroke, spinal injury, meningomyelocoele.
2) Diabetes, alcohol, B12 deficiency, disc herniation, damage due to pelvic injury.
3) Multiple sclerosis, Parkinson’s disease and Syphilis.

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10
Q

1) What are the 2 types of neurogenic bladder?
2) Basically describe a spastic bladder.
3) Basically describe a flaccid bladder.

A

1) Spastic and flaccid.
2) Typically normal volume with small and involuntary contractions occurring.
3) Volume is typically large, pressure is low and contractions are absent.

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11
Q

1) What does a spastic bladder usually result from?
2) In patients with a spastic bladder, what is typically uncoordinated?
3) What eventuality often co-exists with a neurogenic bladder?

A

1) Usually results from brain damage or spinal cord damage above T12.
2) Bladder contraction and sphincter relaxation are typically uncoordinated.
3) Bladder outflow obstruction often co-exists with a neurogenic bladder and may exacerbate symptoms.

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12
Q

1) What might a flaccid bladder result from?

2) After acute cord damage, what may an initial flaccid bladder be followed by?

A

1) Peripheral nerve damage or spinal cord damage from S2 to S4 level.
2) Long term flaccidity or spasticity.

**Note that after acute cord damage and initial flaccidity of the bladder, there is the possibility that bladder function may improve.

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13
Q

Give 3 signs or symptoms of a flaccid bladder.

A

1) Overflow incontinence
2) Urinary retention
3) Overflow dribbling

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14
Q

Give 3 signs or symptoms of a spastic bladder.

A

1) Urgency (unless pt is lacking in sensation).
2) Frequency
3) Spastic paralysis
4) Nocturia
5) Urine leakage

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15
Q

In the condition detrusor muscle dyssynergia, what may prevent complete bladder emptying?

A

Sphincter spasm during voiding.

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16
Q

Name 5 investigations which might be involved in diagnosis of a neurogenic bladder.

A
Post void residual volume
Renal USS
Serum creatinine
Cystography
Cystoscopy
Cystometrography with urodynamic testing. 

** Diagnosis is usually suspected clinically which leads to further investigations.

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17
Q

Describe what each of the following investigations evaluates:

1a) cystography
1b) cystoscopy
1c) cystometrography

2) What can cystometrography show if it is done during spinal cord injury recovery?

A

1a) evaluates bladder capacity and can detect if there is ureteral reflux.
1b) evaluates severity and duration of retention and checks for BOO.
1c) determines whether bladder volume and pressure are too high or too low
2) It can evaluate detrusor functional capacity and predict rehabilitation prospects.

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18
Q

What can urodynamic testing of voiding flow rates with sphincter electromyography show in patients with a neurogenic bladder?

A

This can show whether bladder contraction and sphincter relaxation are coordinated.

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19
Q

Describe the 5 basic principles of management of patients with a neurogenic bladder.

A

1) Renal function monitoring
2) Catheterisation for a flaccid bladder
3) Control of UTIs
4) Increased fluid intake
5) Frequent position changes

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20
Q

What are the 3 sites of constriction in the ureters where renal stones can lodge?

A

1) Pelvico-Ureteric junction
2) Pelvic brim
3) Vesicoureteric junction.

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21
Q

1) Why do crystals in the urine usually form?
2) What may also contribute to renal stone formation?
3) Essentially, what are the crystal like structures which can form within nephrons?

A

1) Due to elevated levels of solutes in the urine (calcium/ uric acid/ sodium/ oxalate).
2) Decreased levels of stone inhibitors (citrate and magnesium).
3) Precipitants of some electrolytes.

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22
Q

Describe how renal colic pain can be caused with regards to urinary stones.

A
  • Urinary stones can cause an obstruction.
  • Obstruction within a tubule causes a build up of pressure in the tubule
  • Increased pressure leads to irritation and inflammation
  • Irritation and inflammation cause renal colic pain.
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23
Q

Describe how oedema can occur in patients with urinary stones.

A
  • Urinary stones can get stuck at sites of constriction.
  • There may be an increase in pressure proximally to the obstruction.
  • The increased in pressure can cause irritation.
  • Increased pressure plus irritation can cause oedema.
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24
Q

Describe why hyperperistalsis can occur in patients with urinary stones.

A

-Irritation and oedema can cause the ureter to contract more vigorously in order to try and push the stone out.

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25
Q

What triad of signs and/or symptoms is associated with renal stones?

A

Fever
Vomiting
Flank pain (acute, severe and colicky) which can radiate to the back or groin.

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26
Q

Aside from the triad of signs and symptoms associated with renal stone disease, give 5 other potential signs or symptoms which may occur upon clinical presentation.

A
Nausea
Urinary frequency
Urinary urgency
Haematuria
Proteinuria
Sterile pyuria
Tachycardia
Renal angle tenderness if there is retroperitoneal inflammation. 

**Often with renal stones, the patient cannot lie still due to the pain, which differentiates the condition from peritonitis which is aggravated by movement.

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27
Q

State the percentage of renal stones which are formed from the following compounds:

a) Calcium Oxalate
b) Magnesium Phosphate (struvite)
c) Urate
d) Hydroxyapatite/ Cysteine

A

a) 75%
b) 15%
c) 5%
d) 5%

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28
Q

1) In whom are struvite stones more common?

2) When are urate stones more common?

A

1) Struvite stones are more common in those with chronic UTIs.
2) Urate stones are more common in hot climates.

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29
Q

Name 5 factors which contribute towards renal stone formation.

A

1) Low urinary volume.
2) Abnormally low or high urine pH.
3) Ionic strength
4) Solute concentration.
5) Solute chemical interactions.

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30
Q

Name 7 potential risk factors for the formation of renal stones.

A
High protein diet
High salt intake
Male
Caucasian
Obesity
Dehydration
Crystaluria
Fix
Warm climate
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31
Q

Name 3 types of medication which can increase the risk of renal stone development.

A

Antacids
Carbonic annhydrase inhibitors
Na+/Ca2+ containing medications

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32
Q

Briefly describe the basic pathophysiology leading to urine supersaturation.

A
  • Increase in urinary solute concentration ± decrease in renal stone inhibitors causes urine supersaturation.
  • Decrease in urinary volume and increase/ decrease in urine pH can also contribute to urine supersaturation.
33
Q

Give a very basic description of how crystal formation occurs in renal stone disease.

A

Urine supersaturation + presence of stone forming salts = crystal formation.

34
Q

1) Name 3 blood tests you might run if you suspect a renal stone.
2) Why would you carry out urinalysis if you suspect a renal stone?
3) Levels of what are checked in a 24 hour urine test?

A

1) FBC, CRP, U&Es (incl. calcium and phosphate).
2) To check for haematuria or proteinuria.
3) Calcium, phosphate, oxalate, urate, cysteine, xanthine (helps to identify what type of stone is present).

35
Q

State which radiology investigations you might carry out for a patient with a suspected renal stone.

A

Xray KUB
USS (look for hydrometer/ hydronephrosis/ acoustic shadowing)
CT scan

36
Q

Why is a CT scan the scan of choice for patients with a suspected renal stone?

A

Because on a CT scan, 99% of stones are visible and a CT scan also helps to exclude other causes of an acute abdomen.

** a ruptured AAA can present similarly to a renal stone so a CT can help to rule this out.

37
Q

Name 5 possible differential diagnoses for a renal stone.

A
Acute appendicitis
Ectopic pregnancy
Ovarian cyst
Diverticular disease
Bowel obstruction
Acute pancreatitis
AAA
Pyelonephritis
Cholecystitis/ biliary colic
38
Q

Basically describe the acute management algorithm for a patient with a renal stone.

A

Analgesia (e.g. diclofenac or IV paracetamol/ opioids if NSAIDs/ IV paracetamol contraindicated).
IV fluids if unable to tolerate PO fluids.
±antibiotics if infection
±antiemetics if vomiting

**Do not offer antispasmodics to a patient with renal colic or ureteric colic.

39
Q

What is the further management for small renal stones (<0.5cm in diameter)?

A

Most small stones <0.5cm will pass spontaneously without intervention, and fluid intake should be increased for these.

40
Q

For a patient with a suspected or confirmed renal stone, when should you arrange immediate admission to hospital?

A
  • signs of systemic infection or sepsis
  • increased risk of AKI (pre-existing CKD, bilateral obstructing stones or kidney transplant)
  • dehydrated and not tolerating oral fluids
  • diagnosis is doubtful (arrange immediate imaging)
41
Q

For a pregnant women with suspected renal stone disease, what is the radiology of choice?

A

USS

**USS is also first line for children and young people.

42
Q

Describe management of a renal stone which is <1cm in diameter.

A

Nifedipine or an alpha blocker to facilitate spontaneous stone passage with watchful waiting.

43
Q

If a renal stone is >1cm or <1cm and does not clear with an alpha blocker, what management options are there?

A

1) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy
2) Uteroscopy
3) Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
4) Open surgery (rare and only if other 3 options do not work).

44
Q

Give 3 indications for urgent intervention in patients with renal stones, where delay may kill glomeruli.

A

1) Infection
2) Obstruction
3) Intractable pain or vomiting
4) Impending AKI
5) Bilateral obstructing stones
6) Obstruction in solitary kidney

45
Q

State 3 pieces of advice you could give a patient to try and help prevent recurrence of renal or ureteric stones.

A

1) Increase fluid intake (2.5-3L/day)
2) Add fresh lemon juice to water
3) Avoid carbonated drinks
4) Reduce salt intake (<6g)
5) Do NOT restrict daily dietary calcium intake (should be 700-1200mg/day)
6) Eat a balanced diet and maintain a healthy weight

46
Q

Following metabolic investigations in patients with renal stones, when should you offer Potassium citrate to a patient?

A
  • Children and young people with a recurrence of stones that are more than 50% calcium oxalate, and with hypercalciuria or hypocitraturia.
  • Adults with a recurrence of stones that are more than 50% calcium oxalate.
47
Q

Following metabolic investigations in patients with renal stones, when should you offer thiazide diuretics to a patient?

A

Adults with a recurrence of stones that are more than 50% calcium oxalate and hypercalciuria, after restricting their sodium intake to no more than 6 g a day.

48
Q

Which nerve fibres are responsible for recognising bladder fullness?

A

A-delta and C fibres.

49
Q

1) What is usually the cause of urge incontinence?

2) What is usually the cause of stress incontinence?

A

1) Disruption to coordination of the micturition process.

2) Normally caused by a structural abnormality (often due to an incompetent sphincter; sphincter weakness).

50
Q

Describe the following types of incontinence:

a) Stress incontinence
b) Urge incontinence
c) Mixed incontinence

A

a) Involuntary leakage on effort, exertion, sneezing or coughing.
b) Involuntary leakage accompanied by or immediately preceded by urgency.
c) A combination of the symptoms of both stress and urge incontinence.

51
Q

What is meant by the term ‘overactive bladder’?

A

Can also be known as detrusor overactivity.

Where there is urgency ± urge incontinence usually accompanied by frequency and nocturne but in the absence of metabolic or pathological conditions.

52
Q

What is meant by the following terms:

a) nocturnal enuresis
b) continuous incontinence
c) overflow incontinence

A

a) Involuntary loss of urine occurring during sleep.
b) Continuous loss of urine.
c) Urinary leakage from an over distended bladder.

53
Q

Name 5 risk factors for urinary incontinence.

A
Increasing age
Pregnancy
Obesity
Lower UTI symptoms
Dementia
Constipation
Faecal incontinence
High impact physical activity
Stroke
Parkinson's disease
Diuretic use
Caffeine consumption
54
Q

Name 4 investigations that can be done for patients with urinary incontinence.

A

Empty supine stress test
Urinalysis (check for UTI)
Post-void residual measurement
Cough stress test

55
Q

Describe the empty supine stress test.

A

Patient performs valsalva manoeuvre in dorsal lithotomy position after spontaneously voiding.

If leakage is observed, then the test is positive.

56
Q

Describe the post-void residual measurement test.

A

Done after spontaneous voiding and may confirm urinary retention if overflow incontinence is suspected. It is determined by USS and catheterisation.

57
Q

Describe the cough stress test.

A

Done in the dorsal lithotomy position and then in standing position. If either causes leakage, the test is positive.

58
Q

Give 6 possible presenting features of incontinence.

A
Involuntary leakage
Urinary frequency
Vaginal bulge/ pressure
Urogenital atrophy
Dysuria (?UTI)
Nocturia
Weakened sphincter tone
Post-void dribbling
?Hx cognitive impairment
?back injury
59
Q

1) In men, what could cause stress incontinence?
2) In women, what could cause stress incontinence?
3) Basically describe the pathophysiology of stress incontinence.

A

1) Iatrogenic sphincter weakness, caused by prostatectomy.
2) Childbirth.
3) There is a small leak of urine when intra-abdominal pressure rises, i.e. upon couging, sneezing or laughing.

60
Q

In women, what is stress incontinence associated with (3) and why?

A

Associated with increasing parity, vaginal deliveries and episiotomies which can cause weakening and stretching of muscles and connective tissues and nerve damage.

61
Q

Why is obesity a risk factor for urinary incontinence?

A

Because excess weight causes increasing pressure on pelvic tissues causing chronic strain, stretching and weakening of muscles, nerves and other pelvic structures.

62
Q

What is the diagnostic key for stress incontinence?

A

Loss of small, but frequent volumes of urine when coughing.

63
Q

Give 5 lifestyle changes that should be advised for management of urinary incontinence.

A
Weight loss
Decreased caffeine intake
Fluid management
Smoking cessation
Treatment of chronic constipation
64
Q

As well as lifestyle changes, name 3 other conservative forms of management that could be used for stress and urge incontinence.

A

Pelvic floor exercises (FIRST LINE).
Intravaginal electrical stimulation.
Ring pessary

65
Q

What medical management is available for patients with stress urinary incontinence?

A

Pseudoepherine; anticholinergics (1st line) or duloxetine can be used for urethral sphincter insufficiency.

66
Q

What surgical management is available for patients with stress urinary incontinence?

A

The sling procedure can be used to stabilise the mid-urethra.

Artificial urinary sphincters can be offered, but only if other surgical options have failed.

67
Q

What do pelvic floor muscle exercises comprise of?

A

At least 8 contractions performed 3 times per day.

68
Q

1) In which patients is overflow incontinence most often seen in?
2) How might urinary incontinence be prevented?
3) Before any surgical management of stress incontinence, what must you do?

A

1) Patients with prostatic hypertrophy causing BOO.
2) In women who do pelvic floor exercises during pregnancy, there is a decreased risk of urinary incontinence during and after pregnancy.
3) Urodynamic assessment to exclude detrusor overactivity and sphincter dyssynergia.

69
Q

1) What is the usual cause of urge incontinence?
2) In men, what may urge incontinence result from?
3) What happens in urge incontinence?
4) How is diagnosis of urge incontinence made?

A

1) Detrusor instability which occurs most often in women.
2) Partial retention of urine (overactive bladder).
3) There is the urge to urinate quickly followed by uncontrolled emptying of the bladder as the detrusor contracts.
4) Urodynamic studies,

70
Q

Name 3 causes of detrusor muscle overactivity with regards to urge incontinence.

A

1) Central inhibitory pathway malfunctions
2) Bladder muscle problems
3) Sensitisation of peripheral afferent terminals in bladder.

71
Q

Give 3 factors that urinary urgency or leaking can be precipitated by in urge incontinence.

A

1) Arriving home (latchkey incontinence)
2) Cold
3) Sound of running water
4) Ceffeine
5) Obesity

72
Q

Give 3 causes of urinary urge incontinence.

A
UTI
Diabetes
Diuretics
Atrophic vaginitis
Urethritis

**Should also check for organic brain damage such as PD, stroke or dementia.

73
Q

As well as lifestyle changes and pelvic floor exercises, what should be offered as first line for patients with urge incontinence?

A

Bladder training lasting for a minimum of 6 weeks.

**This should also be offered for those with mixed incontinence.

74
Q

If vaginitis is the cause of urinary urge incontinence, how do you treat this?

A

With topical oestrogen therapy.

75
Q

1) Which medical treatment can be used for nocturnal incontinence if this is problematic for a patient?
2) Which drugs are often used for urge incontinence?

A

1) Desmopressin

2) Oxybutining/ Toleradine (1st line) or mirabegron (2nd line if first line contraindicated or ineffective).

76
Q

If conservative and medical management of urge incontinence is not effective, what are the other options which are available?

A

Botulinum toxin type A injection
Neuromodulation (percutaneous sacral nerve stimulation).
Augmentation cystoplasty
Urinary diversion

77
Q

State 3 possibilities for medical management of a neurogenic bladder.

A

1) Techniques to trigger voiding for patients who can retain normal volumes of urine.
2) Anticholinergics may be effective for spastic bladders.
3) Treat the same as urge incontinence for patients who cannot retain normal volumes of urine.

78
Q

Give 3 surgical procedures which may be used for a patient with a neurogenic bladder.

A

1) Sphincterectomy - converts bladder into open draining conduit.
2) Sacral rhizotomy - converts spastic into flaccid bladder.
3) Urinary diversion - may involve ileal conduit or uterostomy.