Urology Flashcards

1
Q

A 33-year-old man presents with a two day history of the gradual onset of pain and swelling in the right testicle. The pain is described as 5/10 on the pain scale. Around four weeks ago he returned from a holiday in Spain but reports no dysuria or urethral discharge. On examination he has a tender, swollen right testicle. On examination the heart rate is 84/min and his temperature is 36.8ºC. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A

epididymo orchitis

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2
Q

stoorage symptoms are

A

FUN
frequency
urgency
nocturia

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3
Q

voiding symptoms are

A
terminal dribbling/ poor flow
intermittent stream
straining
hesitancy 
incomplete emptying
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4
Q

definition of nocturnal polyruria

A

voiding >1/3 of their total daily output overnight

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5
Q

what is normal voiding at night

A

1-2 times

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6
Q

what is q max and what is a representative flow

A

-q max is max rate of flow
need >150ml to be passed
>15 is normal in men

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7
Q

2 types of haematuria

A

visible

non visible : symptomatic or asymptomatic

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8
Q

definition of non visible haematuria

A

dipstick is signficant if more than or equal to 1+ RBC on 2 or more occasions

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9
Q

causes of haematuria
congenital
acquired

A

congenital

  • coagulation disorders
  • haemophilia
  • sickle cell disease

acquired

  • tumour- bladder, renal, ureter, prostate
  • BPH
  • trauma
  • stones
  • infection- UTI , schistosomiasis prostatitis
  • hyperparathyroidism -renal calcium causes stones
  • circulatory, vascular, renal infarction
  • medications
  • autoimmune IgA , glomerulonephritis, HSP
  • inflammation- interstitial nephritis
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10
Q

what are transient causes of haematuria that need excluding first

A
  • menstruation
  • strenuous exercise
  • UTI
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11
Q

drugs that cause haematuria

A

anticoagulants- aspirin, clopidogrel, warfarin
penicillins
cyclophosphamide
rifampicin

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12
Q

schistosomiasis presentation

A

-headache, fever, arthralgia, abdo pain, cystitis, haematuria

can also affect CNS and cause seizures, peripheral neuropathy

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13
Q

rx schistosomiasis

A

praziquantel

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14
Q

what is significant haematuria?

A
  • any single episode of visible haematuria
  • any single episode of symptomatic non visible haematuria (in absence of UTI or other transient cause)
  • persistent asymptoamtic NVH
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15
Q

inx for haematuria

A
  • BP and HR
  • bloods renal function
  • MSSU and culture
  • flexible cystoscopy
  • CT urogram for high risk
  • IV urogram and renall USS for low risk
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16
Q

who gets a CT urogram for haematuria

A

-high risk so
visible haematuria
>40
smoker

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17
Q

which patients need direct referral to urology for haematuria

A
  • any visible haematuria
  • any patients with symptomatic NVH
  • any patients with asymptomatic NVH but >40
  • all persistent asymptoamtic NVH
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18
Q

reasons to admit patient with haematuria

A
  • symptoms and signs of hypovolaemic shock
  • symptomatic/ asymptomatic anaemia
  • clot retention or pending clot retention
  • acopia
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19
Q

emergency management of haematuria

A
  • Ato E
  • fluid resus
  • 3 way catheter
  • bladder irrigation with saline to prevent clot accumulation in bladder
  • bladder washout with catheter tipped suringe
  • bladder washout in theatre if clots cannot be irrigated out of bladder
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20
Q

main emergency complication of haematuria

A

clot retention

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21
Q

examination of a patient with haematuria

A

-abdo exam

DRE

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22
Q

management of visible haematuria

A
  • refer to urology
  • flexible cystoscopy in 2 weeks urgent
  • CT urogram as high risk
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23
Q

management of symptomatic low risk non visible haematuria

A
  • refer to urology
  • flexible cystoscopy in 4-6 weeks
  • USS +/- IV urogram
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24
Q

when to refer haematuria to renal

A

non visible haematuria asymptomatic with

  • fhx of renal problems
  • abnormal renal functioning testing
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25
Q

what is the main cancer of the bladder

A

transitional cell carcinomas

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26
Q

what other types of cancers can be found in bladder

A
  1. transitional cell carcinoma
  2. squamous cell carcinoma
  3. adenocarcinoma
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27
Q

risk factors and causes for bladder cancer- linked to type

A
  • smoking (TCC)
  • aromatic hydrocarbons- paint, dye, tyre, metal, rubber- aniline dye (TCC)
  • chronic inflammation (SCC) UTI, stones
  • schistosomiasis (SCC)
  • exposure to other carcinogens found in the urine (TCC)
  • hx of previous pelvic radiotherapy
  • cyclophosphamide (TCC)
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28
Q

most common cancer of the bladder inAfrica

A

schistosomiasis so SCC

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29
Q

what causes adenocarcinoma of bladder

A

congenital remanant of the urachus

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30
Q

invasion classification of bladder cancers

A
  • 80% are superficial- non muscle invasive bladder cancer NMIBC
  • 20% are invasive- invasive muscle bladder cancer MIBC
  • carcinoma in situ are very superficical but highly aggressive tumour cells on urothelial lining
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31
Q

grading of bladder cancers

A

g1 well differentiated
g2 moderately differentiated
g3 poorly differentiated

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32
Q

presentation of bladder cancer

A
  • main presenting symptom is visible painless haematuria 85%
  • microscopic haematuria- less common
  • storage related LUTS - FUN
  • can be symptomatic of anaemia- pallor
  • can get recurrent UTI
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33
Q

diagnosis bladder cancer

A

-hx and rf
-abdo and pelvic exam - often normal
-DRE
check for signs of anaemia

INX
as often visible haematuria get an urgent flexible / rigid cystoscopy
ACTS as dx and RX as with cystoscopy can do a TURBT

and CT urogram -possibly

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34
Q

management of Non muscle invasive bladder cancer

A

-just the mucosa or submucosa 80%

  1. cystoscopy and TURBT trans-urethral resection of bladder tumour
  2. mitomycin C single intravesical dose chemotherapy after TURBT to reduce rate of recurrence
  3. may need further TURBT at 6 weeks to ensure adequate resection if high grade disease or no detrusor muscle in the initial resection
  4. In patients, with recurrent/ multifocal disease, intravesical immunotherapy with BCG also used to reduce recurrence risk
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35
Q

long term management of NMIBC

A

long term surveillance with flexible cystoscopy

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36
Q

management of MIBC and MIBC with mets

A

20%

  • if initial TURBT on cystoscopy showed tumour invading into the detrusor muscle then need a
    1. RADICAL CYSTECTOMY (removal of bladder and prostate in men and bladder, uterus, urethra and ovaries in women) and urinary diversion
  • alternative is radical radiotherapy which can be used to improve haematuria in metastatic disease
  • chemotherapy with cisplatin based agents for nodal metastatic disease

inx mets disease

  • CT CAP
  • MRI pelvis
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37
Q

cystectomy what happens to ureters

A

form an ilial conduit

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38
Q

contraindications to intravesical BCG

A
pregnancy 
immunosuppressed
haematological malignancy
following traumatic catheterisation
symptomatic UTI or VH
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39
Q

prognosis of low grade NMICB

A

> 90% at 5 yrs

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40
Q

prognosis of high grade NMIBC or invasive

A

50% at 5 yrs

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41
Q

main risk factors for renal cancer

A

-smoking
-obesity and HTN
-cadmium exposure
-employment in leather industry- aniline dye
-familail incidence seen with Von hiipel lindau syndrome VHL (AD)
also in PRCC ,leiomyomatosis, hereditary RCC

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42
Q

which is the most lethal of all urological cancers

A

renal cancer

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43
Q

pathology of renal cell cancer and types

A

-originates from proximal convoluted tubule epithelial cell (80% ) either clear cell or granular 10%

others
-papillary 10-15%
-chromophobe
collecting duct bellini
medullary cell
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44
Q

main cancer type for renal cancer

A

clear cell

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45
Q

presentation of renal cancer

A
  • usually asymptoamtic 50%- incidental finding
  • 10% too late triad- visible haematuria, flank pain and palpable mass
  • left varicocele due to block in left renal vein
  • pyrexia of UO
  • vte, pe and lower limb pedema
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46
Q

paraneoplastic syndromes of renal cancer

A

-haematopoeitic disorders
anaemia 30%
polcythaemia
raised ESR

-endocrinopathies (secrete renin, EPO, PTH, ACTH)
hypercalcaemia
erythrocytosis- high concen RBC
hypertension
cushing syndrome
gynaecomastia, amenorrhoea 
hypoglycaemia 

stauffer’s syndrome- hepatic cell dysfunction
abnormal LFT’s
decreased WCC
fever
hepatic necrosis- reversible following nephrectomy
due to IL6

haemodynamic alterations
peripheral oedema
systolic hypertension

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47
Q

metastasis sites for renal

A

bone brain liver lung

bone pain, night sweats, fatigue, weight loss, haemoptysis

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48
Q

inx for renal cancer

A
  • bloods-FBC, ESR, u and e, lft, coag, LDH, calcium, chP
  • renal USS
  • CT stage and plan surgery -chest abdo pelvis
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49
Q

staging renal cancer

A

t1= <7 cm
t2=>7cm
t3=tumour extends into perinephric fat and into renal vein
t4= tumour extend beyond gerotia’s fascia

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50
Q

management of renal cancer not metastasised

A
  • radical nephrectomy -removal of kidney and adrenal with intact gerotia’s fascia
  • partial nephrectomy
  • immunotherapy (soemtimes for metastatic as immunogenic)
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51
Q

management of metastatic renal cancer

A

-tyrosine kinase inhibitors eg suntinib, pazonib to inhibit angiogenesis

as renal cancer highly vascular so aim to inhibit development and spread

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52
Q

upper tract transitional cell carcinoma risk factors

A
similar to bladder cancer
smoking
phenacetin ingestion- was used for pain relief
-Balkan nephropathy
-lynch syndrome HNPCC
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53
Q

main type of upper tract transitional cell carcinoma

A

-papillary TCC 90%
scc
fibroepithelial
benign inverted papilloma

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54
Q

A 64-year-old man presents with painless haematuria. He had a similar episode 1 year ago and was given antibiotics for a presumed urinary infection and his bleeding resolved. He has a decreased urinary stream and nocturia twice a night. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 45 years. Physical examination shows only moderate enlargement of the prostate. Urinalysis is positive for 10 to 15 RBCs and 5 to 10 WBCs per high-power field with no bacteria detected.

A

bladder cancer

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55
Q

A thin 65-year-old man with no significant past medical history presents with a 5-month history of right-sided flank discomfort and abdominal fullness. He finally seeks medical attention because of 2 weeks of lower extremity oedema, and 4 days of gross haematuria with clots. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg, heart rate is 120 bpm and regular, and he is afebrile. He is found to have a palpable right-sided lower abdominal mass, and pitting oedema to the mid-shins bilaterally, which is worse on the right.

A

renal cancer

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56
Q

presentation of upper tract transitional cell carcinoma

A

-visible haematuria 80%
-flank pain “ clot colic” 30%
can be asymptomatic 4%

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57
Q

A 56-year-old obese woman presents to the emergency department with a history suggestive of biliary colic, including epigastric discomfort after a heavy meal. Her past medical history includes cholelithiasis, hypertension (treated with an angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitor), and dyslipidaemia (treated with a statin). She is an ex-smoker, drinks alcohol socially, and has no significant family history. On palpation of her abdomen, she has RUQ pain, but there are no other relevant findings on examination. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, which demonstrates the presence of gallbladder stones without obstruction, and an incidental 5-cm, left-sided renal mass

A

renal cancer

asymptomatic and incidental finding more common

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58
Q

inx for upper tract transitional cell carcinoma

A

-CT urogram or renal USS + IV pyelogram
-cystoscopy
+/- retrograde pyelogram
-urine cytology
-flexible ureterorenoscopy plus biopsy
CT CAP

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59
Q

location of upper tract transitional

A

-uncommon in renal pelvis

rare ureteric TCC

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60
Q

why can USS be tricky for upper transitional cell carcinoma

A

difficult at detecting renal pelvis and ureter tumours

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61
Q

management of upper tract transitional cell carcinoma non metastatic and normal contra-lateral kidney

A

radical nephro ureterectomy with bladder cuff excision (and node sampling)
kidney and ureter remove

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62
Q

management of upper tract transitional cell carcinoma if single functioning kidney, bilateral disease, unilateral low grade tumour <1cm or unfit for major surgery

A

-percutaneous, segmental or ureterenoscopic resection/ laser ablation
+/- mitomycin c

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63
Q

metastatic upper tract transitional cell carcinoma management

A
  • systemic chemo- platinum based
  • palliative
  • arterial embolisation/ radiotherapy for haematuria
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64
Q

poor prognostic factors of UTCC

A

-muscle invsive
high grade, stage and age
lymphovascular invasion

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65
Q

prognosis of UTCC

A

at follow up 50% will develop metachronous bladder TCC and 2% contralateral upper TCC

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66
Q

prostate cancer risk factors

A
  • age >60
  • race- african americans
  • environmental factors - common scandinavian countries
  • diet-animal fat is assoc.
  • obesity
  • nationality
  • endocrine environment
  • genetic (increased 1st degree relative)
  • exercise can be protective
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67
Q

pathology of prostate cancer

A

-adenocarcinoma- from glandular epithelium 95%

  • 80% arise from outer aspect (peripheral zone) of the prostate gland as tumours enlarge they spread both medially into the remainder of the gland and outwardly to the surrounding tissues especially the seminal vesicles
  • 20% arise from the transition zone
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68
Q

main prostate cancer cause

A

adenocarcinoma from glandular epithelium 95%

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69
Q

where is it common/ uncommon for prostate cancer to invade

A
  • doesnt invade rectum due to denovilliers fascia

- invades into urethral sphincter, corpora of penis, trigone of bladders

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70
Q

gleason score

A
  • prostate cancer
  • 1to5
  • determined by analysing the histology from 2 separate areas of the tumour specimen and add togeter to get total gleason score =10
  • 8 to 10 means aggressive poorly differentiated
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71
Q

T staging prostate cancer

A

t1= not palpable only under microscope
t2-palpable confined within capsule
t3= breach capsule and invade seminal vesicles or fat
t4= invades adjacent organs and / -bony mets

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72
Q

t2cprostate cancer means

A

palpable in both lobes

not biopsy bilateral

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73
Q

presentation of prostate cancer

A

-most are asymptoamtic
-bladder outflow obstruction- voiding symptoms poor stream, flow, straining, hesitancy , nocturia incomplete bladder emptying
-acute urinary retention
haematuria, hermatospermia

40% present with symptoms of advanced prostatic carcinoma caused by either ureteric obstruction or bony metastasis
-pain at night, wake from sleep

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74
Q

signs of prostatic carcinoma on DRE

A
  • sulcus of prostate becomes obliterated
  • gland often asymmetrical
  • very hard nodule
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75
Q

prostatis on DRE

A

-boggy and tender prostate

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76
Q

what might a mass above the prostate on DRE indicate

A

metastatic deposit on Blumer’s shelf- cancer in pouch of douglas

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77
Q

diagnosis of prostate cancer

A

-DRE
-bloods
-PSA total
PSA free: total ratio
Transrectal USS with needle biopsy TRUS
-isotope bone scan for bone mets if PSA >20 or symptomatic
-MRI for invasion if high risk disease

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78
Q

what does a lower PSA free: total ratio means

A

suggest more likely to be prostate cancer as
free tends to be less than total
total tends to increase
so get a lower ratio <10% higher risk

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79
Q

PSA total abnormal results

A

> 3 for <60
4 for 60-70
5 for >70

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80
Q

what else can elevate PSA

A
BPH
UTI- major
ejaculation/ DRE
TURP/ TRUS
acute prostatis
chronic prostatitis
catetherisation/ retention
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81
Q

function of PSA

A

liquefied ejaculate and leaks into circualtion

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82
Q

counselling for PSA

A
  • mandatory
  • need to highlight potential disadvantages about an abnormal result
  • need to balance risks and benefits of having clinically significant disease dx
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83
Q

what should be counselled about for asymptomatic men considering a PSA

A
  • cancer will be identified in <5% of men screened
  • benefits remain controversial
  • sensitivity only 80%
  • specificty only 40-50% ie affected by lots of other things
  • if elevated- pathway of DRE and TRUS+biopsy and risks pain infection bleeding
  • TRUS biopsy can miss cancer
  • may need to repeat biopsy
  • treatment may not be necessary or curative
  • decreased qofl as a result of treatment complications
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84
Q

what are contraindications to having a PSA done at the time

A
  • an active UTI
  • ejaculated in the past 48 hours
  • had a prostate biopsy in the past 6 weeks
  • exercised vigorously in previous 48 hrs
  • had a recent DRE
  • avoid receptive anal intercourse for 48hrs before PSA
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85
Q

where does prostate cancer metastasies too

A
  • surrounding tissue especially seminal vesicles
  • lymphatic spread to iliac, pre-sacral and para-aortic lymph nodes
  • blood spread- to bone , liver and lung
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86
Q

PSA greatest use

A

detecting recurrence of tumour following treatment

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87
Q

how does prostate cancer spread to vertebrae

A

via the batson systemic of veins

also goes to pelvis and femur

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88
Q

unsuspected cancer of the prostate stage T0

A
  • prostate normal on DRE but specimen on TURP shows well differentiated tumour
  • re-stage patient with a TRUS biopsy and treat by observation and regular DRE and serum PSA levels
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89
Q

localised prostatic cancer stages T1 and T2 management options

A

-confined to capsule

  1. radical prostatectomy
  2. radical radiotherapy
  3. brachytherapy
  4. active surveillance
  5. watchful waiting
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90
Q

risks of radical radiotherapy

A

-assoc. cystitis, proctitis

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91
Q

what is bracytherapy

A

internal radiation with radioactive seeds implanted

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92
Q

how is active surveillance for prostate cancer done and who for

A

regular PSA and DRE and TRUS biopsy to monitor
more popular as with PSA more insignificant prostate cancer seen

men with lower risk but life expectancy 10-20yrs

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93
Q

what men would indicate watchful waiting

A

life expectancy <10 years

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94
Q

management options for locally advanced prostate cancer T3 and T4

A
  • treatment of choice either
    1. radical prostatectomy and/or external beam radiotherapy
  • in some cases especially those with incipient ureteric obstruction may use androgen deprivation therapy in addition to irradiation
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95
Q

metastatic disease treatment for prostate cancer

A

-androgen deprivation
GnRH analogues eg goserelin
or orchiectomy

and chemotherapy docetexal

-decrease in testosterone

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96
Q

what is added to GNRH agonist goserelin for the 1st week of treatment in prostate cancer

A

-need to add androgen receptor antagonist is added to prevent tumour flare up due to
initially get transient increase in FSH and LH so get testosterone surge

eg degarelix, cyproterone acetate

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97
Q

preventing prostate cancer

A
-low fat consumption
soy
lycopene in cooked tomatoes
selenium
vit a and d
pomegranate 
green tea
coffee
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98
Q

testicuar cancer risk factors

A
cryptorchidism
fhx
age 20-54
race and ethnicity- white men 
carcinoma in situ
cancer of other testis hx 
HIV infection
very tall men
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99
Q

what is the commonest solid tumour in young men

A

testicualr cancer

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100
Q

presentation of testicualr cancer

A
  • painless hard lump
  • lump not separate from testicles
  • occasionally present with short hx of painful swollen inflamed testis often secondary to intra-tumour haemorrhage
  • few men present with signs of metastatic disease of weight loss, lymphadenopathy, abdo pain
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101
Q

most common type of testicular cancer

A

Germ cell tumours 90%

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102
Q

three types of Germ cell tumours

A
  1. seminomatous (seminomas) 48%-most common
  2. non seminomatous (teratoma or choriocarcinoma)
  3. 10% mixed
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103
Q

seminomas
age group
types and presentation

A

-mostly in 30s
-pale and homogenous
types
-classical
anaplastic
spermatocytic

better prognosis

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104
Q

non seminomatous teratomas
-presentation
age

A

-typically in 20s
contain things like hair and teeth
look for signs of metastatic disease
increased AFP and HCG

teratoma- undifferentiated, intermediate, differentiated

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105
Q

what are the non germ cell types of testicular cancer are there

A
  • sex cord stromal 3%= leydig, sertoli

- others 7%= lymphoma and metastatic disease

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106
Q

pre-cursor lesion for testicular cancer

A

TIN testicular intraepithelial neoplasia

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107
Q

examination of testicular cancer

A
  • asymmetrical or slight discoloration of testis

- hard non tender irregular non trans illuminable mass

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108
Q

inx for testicualr cancer

A
  • routine bloods
  • USS diagnosis of testicles
  • AFP and beta HCG and LDH markers
  • staging CT CAP
  • MDT refer
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109
Q

teratoma markers

A

raised AFP
LDH some limited rise
raised B-HCG

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110
Q

seminoma markers

A

normal AFP
LDH raised - more common with seminoma
raised Bhcg

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111
Q

metastasis sites of testicular cancer

A

-spreads by direct invasion to lymph nodes- para-aortic 1st

liver lung and bone if breaches tunica albuginea

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112
Q

management testicular cancer options

A
  • radical orchidectomy +/- silicon prosthesis
  • radiotherapy for seminoma- EBRT
  • chemotherapy cisplatin for non-seminomas
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113
Q

diff dx of testicualr cancer

A
-hydrocele
epididymal cyst
indirect inguinal hernia
TB-rare
syphilis-rare
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114
Q

A 35-year-old man presents with non-specific testicular discomfort and the feeling of a mass in the testis. On examination, a 2 cm by 1 cm smooth, painless mass is palpated in the right testis. The mass does not transilluminate with light. There is no lymphadenopathy.

A

testicular cancer

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115
Q

spermatocele- epididymal cyst presentation

A

Single or multiple cysts
May contain clear or opalescent fluid (spermatoceles)
-transilluminates like cantonees lantern!
Usually occur over 40 years of age
Painless
Lie above and behind testis- upper pole
It is usually possible to ‘get above the lump’ on examination

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116
Q

penile cancer main type

A

squamous cell carcinoma 95%

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117
Q

rare causes of penile cancer

A

Kaposi sarcoma
BCC
melanoma

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118
Q

risk factors for penile cancer

A

-smoking
HPV-genital warts
-keeping foreskin more common

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119
Q

pathology of penile cancer

A

-starts with penile in situ then SCC starts growing as a flat or ulcerative lesion of gland or shaft

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120
Q

presentation of penile cancer

A

-painless lump or ulcer on the distal aspect of penis/ glans

rarely

  • inguinal mass
  • AUR
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121
Q

inx for penile cancer

A

-bloods
biopsy
CT CAP/ MRI for local

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122
Q

management options for penile cancer

A
  1. topical imiquimod for small superficial tumours and PIN
  2. surgery - circumcision, partial penectomy, total penile amputation with a perineal urethrostomy
    3, lymph node sentinel biopsy and inguinal

oncology
-radiotherapy and chemotherapy for advanced disease

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123
Q

differentials of penile cancer

A
  • benign cutaneous lesions eg lichen planus, sclerosis, papules, psoriasis
  • benign subcutaneous lesions- peyronnie’s plaque, cysts
  • viral -condylomata acuminatum-genital warts
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124
Q

peak age of stone formation

A

20-50 yrs

m:f 3:1

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125
Q

when and in who is stone formation more common

A

caucasian populations

more in summer months

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126
Q

risk factors for stone formation

A

-genetics= cystinuria autosomal recessive trait
-more common in caucasians
-hypercalcaemia- hyperparathyroidism
-hyperoxaluria- bowel resection or AR genetics
-gout
renal anatomy- pujo, horseshoe, MSK
-dehydration
-renal tubular acidosis
-PKD
-beryllium/ cadmium
-ileostomy due to decrease bicarb
-drugs
-diet fluids intake, meat vit d and c
-low mobility

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127
Q

how does hyperoxaluria form

A
  • malabsorption of calcium in gut such as in bowel resection causes excess oxalate absorption from bowel
  • dietary excess
  • or due to autosomal recessive abnormality of glyoxalate metabolism so get excess oxalate production
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128
Q

what drugs cause stone formation

A

loop diuretics
steroids
acetazolamide
theophylline

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129
Q

what is cystinuria

A

autosomal recessive inheritance

get multiple stones

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130
Q

how to prevent cystinuria

A

-hydration
diet low in cysteine avoid red meat and fish
-give citrate, sodium bicarb to make stones more soluble

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131
Q

main type of kidney stones

A

80% are calcium oxalate

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132
Q

types of kidney stones

A
calcium oxalate 80%
struvite stones (mg ammonium) 10%
calcium phosphate/ oxalate 5-10%
urate 5-10
cysteine 1%
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133
Q

which stones are radio-opaque -can be seen

A

-calcium phosphate
calcium oxalate
struvite
cysteine

more calcium more can be seen

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134
Q

what do cysteine stones look like

A

“ground glass”

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135
Q

what stones cant be seen on radiography and what inx do they need

A

-uric acid
and xanthine stones

from hx, urine pH >6 gout, USS,

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136
Q

risk factors for calcium oxalate stones

A
hypercalcaemia
hyperoxaluria
hypercalciuria
hypocituria
hyperuricosuria
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137
Q

risk factors for struvite stones

A

urease producing bacteria

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138
Q

risk factors for calcium phosphate stones

A

renal tubular acidosis

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139
Q

risk factors for uric acid stones

A

gout
myeloproliferative disorders
idiopathic

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140
Q

risk factors for cystine stones

A

homocystinuria

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141
Q

cystinuria pathology

A

-defective absorption of cysteine from the intestines and proximal tubule of kidney

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142
Q

presentation of stones.

A

-renal colic pain- loin to groin
-visible haematuria +/-
-non visible haematuria
-recurrent UTI-struvite
-pyonephrosis, perinephic abscess
n and v
LUTS

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143
Q

examination of a patient with stones

A

-usually sudden onset colicky loin pain
-loin to groin radiation
waves of increasing severity
patient cant find a comfortable position

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144
Q

where can kidney stones get trapped

A
  • vesico ureteric junction- enters bladder
  • uteropelvic junction- leaves renal pelvis
  • crossing of iliac vessels
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145
Q

main diff dx of kidney stones

A

-AAA
pneumonia
appendicitis
ectopic pregnancy-females

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146
Q

calcium oxalate stone formation

A
  1. calcium phosphate concretion orginates near renal papilla = Randall’s plaque
  2. eventually eroded due to alkaline environment through the urothelium and forms a NIDUS for calcium oxalate deposition when directly exposed to urine
  3. stones then become large enough to break free
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147
Q

uric acid stone formation

A

-assoc. too
gout, myeloproliferative disorders and hyperuriscoria assoc. to insulin resistance , persistently acidic urine

not radio opaque- radio lucent

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148
Q

calcium phosphate formation

A

-due to renal tubular acidosis
defect of renal tubular H+ secretion so urine is of high pH and increases supersaturation of urine

-type 1 defect -distal cant maintain proton gradient

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149
Q

causes of calcium phosphate formation

A

suggest underlying metabolic disorder

  1. RTA
  2. primary hyperparathyroidism
  3. medullary sponge kidney
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150
Q

formation of struvite stones pathology

A

-magnesium ammonia and phosphate

urease producing bacteria break down urea to ammonia and alkalise urine
-pH >7.2 alkaline urine

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151
Q

which stones cause stag horn calculi

A

struvite stones

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152
Q

bacteria implicated in struvite stones

A

proteus
klebsiella
pseudomonas
staph aureus

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153
Q

what is lithostat used for

A

urease inhibitor can be used for struvite stones as adjunctive

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154
Q

ksp and kf in stone formation

A

> ksp and >kf

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155
Q

examination of kidney stones

A

-general temp and signs of sepsis
-patients moves around a lot
-check for pulsating mass AAA
-pregnancy test
dipstick

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156
Q

inx for kidney stones

A
  • bloods (raised WCC, renal funcion, calcium, uric acid)
  • MSU
  • dipstick for pH and UTI (alkaline in ca phos, acidic in uric acid)
  • 24hr urine for ca/ oxalate. uric acid

-CT KUB no contrast
-plain x-ray only shows radiodense
-IVU
-CT urogram
MRU magnetic resonance urography for hydronephrosis

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157
Q

test for renal tubular aciosis

A

ammonium chloride loading test

pH <7.3 or bicarb <16 but urine pH >5.5 has distal RTA

158
Q

cystinuria test

A

cysteine spot test

159
Q

risks of IVU

A

anaphylaxis

need to omit metformin 48 hrs prior

160
Q

best inx for stones

A

CT KUB no contrrast

161
Q

what might USS be useful for detecting stones

A

only renal stones

162
Q

preventing calcium stones 2

A

drink

thiazides

163
Q

preventing uric acid stones 2

A

-allopurinol

urinary alkalisation bicarbonate

164
Q

preventing oxalate stones 2

A

cholestyramine

pyridoxine

165
Q

acute management of renal stones 4

A

pain relief NSAID’s 1 st line
fluids
watchful waiting
tamsulosin alpha blocker relax ureteric smooth muscles

166
Q

indications for emergency intervention for stones

A
  1. uncontrolled pain
  2. infection fever, pyrexia, marked inflammatory
  3. impaired renal function (solitary kidney) derranged U and E
  4. prolonged unrelieved obstruction (watchful waiting already for 4-6 weeks)
  5. social reasons eg pilot
167
Q

emergency management of obstructed infected kidney stone

A
  1. a to e
  2. wide bore cannula IV fluids
  3. cultures
  4. MSU
  5. broad spec abx
  6. percutaneous nephrostomy or JJ stenting
    - use nephrostomy more as done under LA
168
Q

discharging a patient after emergency treatment of stones

A
  • discharge patient when pain and blood results improve

- follow up 3-4 weeks later and should have passed otherwise need definitive management

169
Q

definitive treatment options for stones

A
  • medical- watchful waiting but may not work -trial
  • ureteroscopy
  • ESWL
  • percutaneous nephron-lithotomy PCNL
  • nephrectomy
170
Q

small stones <5-6mm management

A

-medical: NSAID and alpha blocker, thiazide for calcium, allopurinol for uric
fluids

171
Q

stone <2cm (>5mm)

A

ESWL extra-corporeal shockwave lithotripsy

172
Q

Contraindications for ESWL

A
  • pregnancy
  • obese
  • anticoagulants
  • need to be visible on x-ray so not for uric acid
173
Q

<2cm stone and pregnancy

A

ureteroscopy

174
Q

indications for ureteroscopy and stone extraction

A
-ESWL failure
cysteine stones
obese
pregnancy 
bleeding problems- anticoagulant

lower pole stones and stone in calyceal diveriticulum or pelvic kidney- difficult locations

175
Q

complex renal calculi and staghorn calculi and >3cm management

A

PNCL percutaneous nephron lithotomy

176
Q

what is indicated before doing a PNCL

A

do a DMSA 1st to check that the kidney is functioning as dont do PNCL for a non-functioning kidney

177
Q

contraindications to medical therapy of stones

A

> 5mm

struvite (infection) staghorn

178
Q

complications of stones

A

infection
obstruction- hydronephrosis, hydroureter, nephromegaly,
perinephric standing - lymphatic congestion with fluid aroudn kidney

179
Q

main cause of stag horn calculi

A

due to struvite stones

180
Q

bladder stone cause

A

BPH and urinary stasis -same mechanisms as struvite stone

-more seen in patients on long term catheters

181
Q

management bladder stones

A

endoscopic or

open cystolitholapaxy

182
Q

balanitis is

A

inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extends to the underside of the foreskin

183
Q

causes of balanitis

A

infective

autoimmune causes

184
Q

management of balanitis

A

simple hygiene

185
Q

candidiasis balantitis presentation

A

acute

usually occurs after intercourse and assoc. to itching and white non-urethral discharge

186
Q

dermatitis balanitis presentation

contact or allergic

A

itchy sometimes painful and occasionally assc. with a clear non urethral discharge
not affecting other body areas

187
Q

dermatitis balanitis presentation

eczema or psoriasis

A
both acute and chronic
very itchy
no discharge
medical hx of eczema...
active areas elsewhere
188
Q

bacterial balanitis presentation

A

painful and can be itchy with yellow non-urethral discharge

staph

189
Q

anaerobic balanitis presentation

A

acute
may be itchy
most assoc. to a very offensive yellow non-urethral discharge

190
Q

lichen planus balanitis presentation

A

may be itchy
wickhams striae
violaceous plaques

191
Q

lichen sclerosus balanitis

A

itchy
white plaques
scarring
also called balanitis xerotica

192
Q

management of balanitis

A
hyginene
saline washes
wash under foreskin
hydrocortisone short periods 
candidiasis= topical clotrimazole
bacterial-oral flucox or clarith
anaerobic= saline wash, metronidazole
dermatitis= steroids
lichen sclerosus= high potency steroids
circumcision also for recurrent cases
193
Q

prostatitis presentation

A

perineal pain
pain on ejaculation
tender prostate on DRE
systemically unwell- fevers

194
Q

management of prostatitis

A

ofloxacin- fluoroquinolones

195
Q

epididymitis management

A

also ofloxacin -levofloxacin

196
Q

BPH definition

A

hyperplasia of stroma and epithelium in the transition zone fo the prostate
tone of smooth muscle also plays a key role

197
Q

cause of BPH

A
  • increase in epithelium and stromal cell numbers
  • testosterone diffuses into the prostate epithelial and stromal cells
  • in the stromal cells, testosterone is converted into DHT which can act in an autocrine fashion in the stromal cells or in paracrine fashion in the epithelial cells
  • converted by alpha reductase
  • forms DHT- androgen receptor complex and get increase in growth factors

overall cause is unknown
relates to DHT

198
Q

presentation of BPH

A
-voiding symptoms mainly
poor flow
intermittent stream
straining
hesitancy 

can then go to secondary stroage symptoms
-frequency, urgency, nocturia

acute urinary obstruction
haematuria
hydronephrosis and renal compromise
UTI
post-micturition symptoms
199
Q

inx for BPH

A
hx assess LUTS use IPSS 
DRE 
urinalysis exclude UTI
renal function
PSA (LE >10 yrs) 
uroflowmetry
200
Q

management options for BPH

A

watful waiting
lifestyle
medical
surgical

201
Q

contrainidcations to watchful waiting for BPH

A
-must not be used in complex BPH
recurrent UTI's
renal impairment due to high pressure chronic retentio
bladder stones
recurrent haematuria due to BPH
202
Q

indications for watchful waiting for BPH

A
  • not complex

- low bother score

203
Q

lifestyle changes for BPH

A

evening fluid restrict

reduce caffeine intake

204
Q

medical managementn of BPH

A

1st line alpha blockers
2nd line 5 alpha reductase inhibitors
-combination therapy
-plus anticholinergics for storage symptoms

205
Q

alpha blockers

A

tamsulosin, doxazosin
considered 1st line BPH
alpha 1 receptor in the prostate mediates smooth muscle contraction
idea to decrease smooth muscle tone

206
Q

SE alpha blockers

A
retrograde ejaculation
dizzy
weakness
dry mouth
headache
postural hypotension
207
Q

5 alpha reductase inhibitors

A

-eg finasteride
inhibit conversion of testosterone to DHT
cause shrinkage of the prostate epithelium and prostate volume, thus reduce the static element
takes 6 months to imprve
so often combined at beginning
also reduces vascularity and reduce haematuria

208
Q

SE 5 ari

A

-loss of libido
impotence
reduced ejaculate volume

209
Q

surgical management of BPH options

A

TURP transurethral resection of prostate
laser prostatectoyomy
open millin’s prostatectomy

210
Q

TURP indications

A

gold standard

  1. bothersome LUTS that failed to change to lifesyle or medical therapy
  2. recurrent acute retention
  3. renal impairment due to BOO
  4. recurrent haematuria
  5. bladder stones
  6. recurrent UTI
211
Q

open prostatectomy indications

A
-large prostate 
TURP not technically possible
failued TURP
urethra too long
presence of large bladder stones
212
Q

contraindications to open prostatectomy

A

small fibrous prostate
prior prostatectomy in which most of gland resected
carcinoma of the prostate

213
Q

bladder outlet obstruction causes

A

men

  • BPH main cause in men
  • urethral stricture
  • prostate cancer
women 
-pelvic prolapse
urethral stricture
-urethral diverticulum
-post surgery for stress incontinence
-pelvic mass
-Fowler's syndrome 

both
-neurological disease

214
Q

inx for BOO

A
IPSS
DRE
PSA
U&amp;E
flow test and residual volume
215
Q

upper tract obstruction definition

A

dilatation of the renal pelvis and calyces- can occur with or without obstruction

obstructive nephropathy is damage to the renal parenchyma from obstruction to the flow of urine anywhere along the urinary tract

216
Q

presentation of upper tract obstruction

A

-incidental on CT/ USS
-flank pain
-anuria
-renal failure symptoms
sepsis

217
Q

signs of upper tract obstruction

A

-HTN
palpable blader
DRE
palpable mass

218
Q

inx uto

A
renal function
renal uss 
CT urogram 
retrorade pyelogram
MAG3
219
Q

causes of unilateral hydronephrosis

A
  • obstructing stone/ clot
  • pelvicureteric junction obstruction PUJO
  • ureteric/ bladder TCC
  • extrinisc eg pregnancy/ tumour
220
Q

causes of bilateral hydronephrosis

A

-BOO bladder outlet obstruction -BPH, prostate, cancer, urethral strictures, DSD detrusor sphincter dyssnergia

bilateral ureteric obstruction at level of bladder
cervical, prostate, renal, bladder cancer

periureteric inflammation eg IBD
retroperitoneal fibrosis
bilateral PUJO
hydronephrosis of pregnancy
ileal conduit- normal
221
Q

strong predictors of AUR

A
  1. increased IPSS score
  2. large prostate volume
  3. low Q max
  4. advanced age
  5. previous episodes of retention
222
Q

definition of post-obstructive diuresis

A

polyuria from relief of severe chronic obstruction commonly occurs after catheterisation for high pressure chronic retention

  1. increased urine output out of proportion to fluid intake
  2. > 3L/24hrs or >200ml/hr for each 2 consecutive hrs
223
Q

pathology of post-obstructive diuresis

A

-physiologic process to salt wasting process

physiological diuresis occurs secondary to excretion of retained urea, sodium and water after relief of obstruction (resolves in 48hrs)

pathologic diuresis occurs secondary to impared concentrating ability of the renal tubules due to inability to maintain the solute gradient

224
Q

management of post-obstructive diuresis

A
  • admission
  • monitoring of hrly output and haemodynamic status
  • replace losses if bp drop
  • avoid dextrose
  • monitor renal funtion
225
Q

causes of unilatearl hydronephrosis

A
PACT
pujo
aberrant renal vessels
calculi
tumour
226
Q

causes of bilateral hydronephrosis

A
SUPER
stenosis urethra
urethral valve
prostatic enlargement
extensive bladder tumour
retro-peritoneal stenosis
227
Q

inx for hydronephrosis

A
USS
OBS
exam
CT KUB if unilateral for stone 
DRE
CT 
TRUS
228
Q

management of hydronephrosis

A

remove obstruction
drain urine
acute upper tract obstruction- nephrostomy
chronic obstruction- ureteric stent/ pyeloplasty

229
Q

acute urinary retention presentation

A

painful inability to void
-relieved by catheterisation and drainage
usually 500-800ml
>800=acute on chronic retention

230
Q

urinary retention causes

A
  • increased urethral resistance BOO
  • low bladder pressure
  • interruption innervation to the bladder
  • central failure of co-ordination of bladder contraction with extenal sphincter DSD
231
Q

rf for retention in men

A
advancing age
LUTS
previous episodes of spontaneous retention
low qmax
larger prostate volumes
232
Q

managemen of AUR

A

-catheterise
renal function check
alpha blocker

233
Q

definitive management AUR

A

-TWOC after 1 week
precipiated retention doesnt occur
spontaneous retention does recurr

so need TURP, drugs, long term cathether

234
Q

chronic retention definition

A

inability to void with catheterisation >800ml

235
Q

types of chronic retention

A
  • low pressure

- high pressure

236
Q

low pressure chronic retention

A

no hydronephrosis

normal renal function

237
Q

high pressure chronic retention

A

hydronephrosis
abnormal cr
intravesical pressure >30

238
Q

management high pressure chronic retention

A

catheterise

consider ISC or long term catheter before offering TURP

239
Q

management low pressure chronic retention

A

no bothersome LUTS
active surveillance
monitoring

bothersome LUTS
consider TURP

240
Q

definition of incontinence

A

involuntary leakage of urine

uretral or extra-urethral

241
Q

risk factors for incontinence

A

childbirth
pelvic surgery or radiotherapy
neurological disorders

242
Q

types of incontinence

A

stress
urgency
mixed
overflow

243
Q

inx for incontinence

A

-hx and exam
sim’s speculum on women for prolapse and cough test

bloods
MSSU urinalysis
flow studies
bladder diaries 
USS/ cystoscopy if haematuria 
definitive is urodynamics
244
Q

what does urodynamics do

A

-measures the intravesical pressure obtained with bladder filling
testing stress- cough, urge detrusor pressure

245
Q

management of stress incontinence

A
  1. pelvic floor exercises
  2. lifestyle modification- weight, smoking
    3.duloxetine
  3. local oestrogen therapy in post-menopausal women
  4. surgical
    -autologous fascial sling
    TVT mid urethral sling
    colposuspension

male sling
artifical urinary sphincter

246
Q

pathology of urge incontinence

A

due to detrusor over contractivity
abnormal contractions
cystometric assessment
mediated via the parasympathetic system -Ach

247
Q

management of urge incontinence

A
  1. pelvic floor exercises
  2. lifestyle
    -weight
    smoking
    -alcohol
    -caffeeine reduction
  3. anticholinergic Oxybutinin
    4.mirabegron beta 3 adrenergic agonist
  4. botulinum toxins
    6.neuromodulation posterior tibial nerve stimulation or implantation of sacral neuromodulator
  5. surgical
    detrusor mymectomy
    CLAM illeocystoplasty
    urinary diversion
248
Q

SE of oxybutinin

A

dry mouth
dry eyes
constipation
urinary retention

249
Q

se of duloxetine

250
Q

intravesical botulinum indictions

A

neurogenic idiopathic detrusor overactivity

DSD

251
Q

risk factors stress incontinence

A
prostatectomy -removal of proximal sphincter or also damage to the external one 
radiotherapy 
TURP
childbirth
age
oestrogen withdrawal
previous pelvic surgery
obese
252
Q

gold standard management for post-prostatectomy inccontinence

A

artificial urethral sphincter

253
Q

mixed urinary incontinence

A

complaint of involuntary leakage of urine assoc. with urgency and also with exertion, stress, sneeze
treat based on symptoms

254
Q

overflow incontinence is

A

when the bladder is abnormally distended with urine
typically patient has hx of chronic retention and dribbling incontinence
impairment over time

255
Q

management over flow incontinence

A

exam- palpable bladder
BOO and chronic retention hx
catheterise
renal function

256
Q

temporary incontinence

257
Q

loin pain causes

A
stone
infection
AAA
pneumonia
MI
ovarian
ectopic 
apenndicitis
IBD
diveritculitis
peptic ulcer
testicular torsion
258
Q

neuropathic bladder cause

A

most likely urological dysfunction following a cardiovascular accident is DETRUSOR OVERACTIVITY

259
Q

What is DSD

A

detrusor sphincter dysnergia
-sign of supra sacral lesion so between pons and L5
bladder overactivity
sphincter spasticity so increase bladder pressures

260
Q

what is autonomic dysreflexia

A

sympathetic overactivity
HTN, headache, bradycardia, sweating, flushing

can occur in supra-sacral lesion >T6

261
Q

risks of long term catheterisation

A
increased risk of cancer
recurrent UTI
stones
decreased bladder capacity
blockages requiring regular changes
262
Q

UTI definition

A

inflammatory response of the urothelium to bacterial invasion
>100,000 bacteria/ ml of midstream urine

263
Q

classification of UTI

A

cystitis- bladder
pyelonephritis- renal
isolated UTI- interval of 6 months between
recurrent UTI >2 infection in 6 months or 3 in 12 months
uncomplicated- normal functional anatomy
complicated- abnormal anatomy or underlying risk factors or fails to respond to therapy

264
Q

UTI spread

A

mostly ascending GI source
haematogenous eg TB
lymphatic
direct eg IBD, diverticulitis

265
Q

risk factors for UTI

A
stasis of urine= obstruction 
foreign body
decreased resistance eg immunosuppressed
females- shorter urethra
smoker
low obestrogen
retrograde urine eg VUR, stent
increase colonisation- sexual activity, spermicide, antibiotics
266
Q

KEEPS

A
klebsiella
e.coli
enterococci
proteus/ psuedomonas
saphrophyticus
267
Q

long term catheter UTI causes

A
  1. gardenella
  2. mycoplasma
  3. ureaplasma
268
Q

nonsocomial hospital UTI

A
e.coli
kleb
pseudonomas
providencia
serratia
269
Q

who to inx for UTI

A

recurrent UTI
haematuria
men
children 1st UTI

270
Q

inx for UTI

A
  1. hx and exam
  2. urinalysis
  3. MSSU
  4. urinary Ph
  5. POST-VOID RESIDUAL SCAN
    -men DRE
    blood and blood culture
complicated imaging
PVR scan 
USS
plain X-ray KUB
flexible cystoscopy
271
Q

cystitis management

A

men = trimethoprim or nitro for 7 days
pregnant women= nitro for 7 days first 2 terms
pregnant women= trimeth 7 days at term
non pregnant women= nitro, trimeth for 3 days

272
Q

dipsticks meaning in children

A

leucocyte and nitrate treat and do culture
leucocyte only = do a urine sample, dont treat unless good evidence of UTI
nitrites only treat and do culture

273
Q

pyelonephritis management

A

-gentamicin and amoxicillin for 7days

oral or IV depending

274
Q

recurrent UTI management

A

conservative- high fluids, oestrogen

medical
prophylactic low dose abx
post-intercourse abs dose
self start therapy

surgical for anatomical abnormalities

275
Q

asymptomatic bacteriuria management

A

only Rx in pregnancy

276
Q

who needs test of cure for UTI

A

pregnancy
pyelonephritis
complicated or relapsing UTI

277
Q

pyonephrosis

A
pus hydronephrosis
very unwell
high fever
IV fluids and IV abx
urgent nephrostomy
278
Q

perinephric abscess is

A

extension of infection outside of the parenchyma of the kidney in acute pyelonephritis
-failure to respond
RF- DM, immunocompromise

279
Q

unresolving pyelonephritis consider

A

perinephric abscess

need CT KUB

280
Q

cause epididymitis

A

-infection ascends from bladder or urethra
-in sexually active men <35 yrs need to consider STI chlamydia, gonorrhoea
-older men and children- usually UTI cause
-rare- mumps (orchitis after parotiditis, TB, syphilis)
amiodarone

281
Q
testicle 
-pain and swelling
-fever
-pain relieved on elevating testicle 
-scrotal pain that may radiate to the groin
-urethral discharge may be present
urethritis
-dysuria
A

epididymitis

282
Q

main diff dx of epididymitis

A

testicular torsion

283
Q

inx for epididymitis

A
bloods and cultures
urine dipstick
MSU
uretrhal swab
scrotal USS
284
Q

management of epididymitis

A
  • bed rest
  • analgesia
  • scrotal elevation
  • antibiotics depending on suspected pathogen
285
Q

antibiotic choice for epididymitis

A
  • men <35yrs and suspect chlamydia give ofloxacin (or single dose azithromycin) for 14 days
  • in men >35yrs and suspect gonorrhoea then give ciprofloxacin for 14 days

refer to GUM contact tracing

286
Q

prognosis of epididymitis

A

pain 48-72hrs to resolve

swelling up to 6 weeks to resolve

287
Q

prostatitis main causes

A
KEEPS 
ascending urethral infection
reflux into prostatic ducts often assoc. BOO
BPH
invasion of rectal bacteria
288
Q

acute bacterial prostatitis- class I

A

present
acute onset, fever chills, rectal, perineal pain, lower back pain, haematuria

rx
ciprofloxacin 2-4 weeks
pain relief
treat urinary retention

complication prostatic abscess- pain worsening on rx

289
Q

DRE for prostatitis

A

tender, warm, boggy prostate

290
Q

chronic bacterial prostatitis II

A

present
recurrent exacerbations of acute prostatitis signs and symptoms

recurrent UTIs with same organism
frequently asymptomatic with normal prostate on DRE

RX
3-4 months ciprofloxacin
plus an alpha blocker to reduce symptoms

291
Q

urinalysis for chronic bacterial prostatitis

A
  • colony counts in expressed prostatic secretions EPS and urine voided
  • massage colony counts should exceed those of initial and midstream urine samples by 10
292
Q

Chronic abacterial prostatitis/ chronic pelvic syndrome III pathology

A

-most common and most poorly understood prostatic syndrome

-inflammatory subtype 
pathogenesis is intraprostatic reflux of urine
urethral hypertonia
different micro orgganisms
autoimmune
chemical
293
Q

presentation chronic abacterial prostatitis

A

more than 3 months localised pelvic pain- lower back, suprapubic, penile, pain with ejaculation
LUTS
ED

294
Q

management of chronic abacterial prostatitis

A

NIH CPSI questionnaire
uroflowmetry and PVR
semen analysis, swabs, TRUS, PSA

-conservative
alpha blockers, antib, anti-inflammatory, 5ari
neuromodulation
prostatic massage
pain team referral
295
Q

hydrocele

A
fluid in the tunica vaginalis
no peritoneall connection 
usually anterior
tranilluminates
can get above the swelling
296
Q

causes hydrocele

A

idiopathic
consider malignancy in young patients
epididymo-orchitis

297
Q

management hydrocele

A

if symptomatic hydrocelectomy done

298
Q

types of hydroceles

A

congenital hydrocele- processus vaginalis remains so connected to peritoneum- repair if not resolved by 1-2 yrs

connecting= patency of processus vaginalis in newborn males

non communicating= excess fluid production

299
Q

varicocele

A

pamniform plexus veins become dilated and tortuous
more common left 15%

incompetent valves in the internal spermatic vein leads to retrograde blood flow
vessel dilatation and tortuosity of plexus

300
Q

symptoms varicocele

A
most are asymptomatic
dull ache
especially on standing
like a bag of worms
dragging sensation
sudden onset assoc. left side assoc. to renal tumour
301
Q

investigation varicocele

A

scrotal doppler USS diagnostic
venography gold standard only consider embolisation
semen analysis
urine USS tract

302
Q

management varicocele

A
conservative watchful waiting
indication for varicocele repair
-adolescents if painful
adults for symptoms
subfertility to improve semen markers?

varicocele repair
radiological embolisation

303
Q

epididymal cyst

A
from the collecting ducts of epidiymis
can get above them 
separate from body of testicles- discrete
posterior to testicle
discrete soft mass
often multiple and loculated
spermatocele- accumulation of sperm around epididymis
transilluminates
can occur post-vasecomy
304
Q

epididymal cyst maangement

A

if painful or large remove

305
Q

orchitis is

A

inflamamtion of the testis often occurs in assoc. with epididymitis
mumps, e.coli UTI related, chlamydia, gonorrhoea

306
Q

testicular trauma

A

can be blunt or penetrating
bleeding can occur from the scrotal wall and its layers leading to a haematoma
haematocele bleeding confined to tunica vaginalis
if sufficient can lead to intra-testicular haemorrhage

307
Q

presentation testicular haematoma

A

-severe pain

red

308
Q

management testicular haematoma

A

all penetrating trauma needs exploration and fixation
intact haematoma= watch
rupture= explore and repair

309
Q

sign of ruputured testicle

A

intraparenchymal haemorrhage- hypoechoic areas suggests testicular rupture

310
Q

hernia indirect

A

younger
straight into inguinal canal
risk of strangulation
enters scrotum

311
Q

testicular torstion

A

twisting of the testes on its blood supply resulting in strangulation
in neonates this is extravaginal
older intravaginal

312
Q

presentation torsion

A

usually 10-30
sudden onset severe pain, often wakin
cna give pain in abdomen as well
can be a hx of similar pain with spontaneous detorsion and resolution of pain

313
Q

signs of testicular torsion

A
loss cremasteric reflec
slightly swollen
tender
high riding
lying horizontally
314
Q

management

A

needs urgent surgical exploration
dont USS
both sides are fixed due to bell clapper abnormality

315
Q

testicular appednage torsion

A

blue dot sign
preserved cremasteric reflex
sudden onset pain

316
Q

production of sperm

A

GNRH causes FSH release which stimulates the sertoli cell inthe semniferous tubes to produce sperm
and leydig cells to produce testosterone

317
Q

subfertility

A

failure to conceive after 12 months of trying

318
Q

causes of male infertility

A
idiopathic
varicocele
cryptorchidism
functional sperm disorders
erectile problems
post-testicular injury eg torsion, trauma, mumps, radiotherapy 
endocrin
excess prolactin oestrogen
kleinfelter
systemic eg renal liver failure
drugs eg chemo, steroids alcohol cannbis
infection eg chalmydia
319
Q

inx for subfertility

A

semen analysis
hormone measurements FSH, LH testosterone
scrotal USS
transrectal USS- if low ejaculate volumes
venography- if varicocele suspected

320
Q

reversible causes treatment

A
lifestyle 
treat any infection
hormonal manipulation- anti OE, hCG,dopamine agonist
vitamin E
zinc and folic acid
treat erectile dysfunction

surgical management
-varicocele embolisation
microsurgery to epididymis
sperm extraction

321
Q

physiology of erections

A

parasympathetic s2-s4 Onuf’s- STIMULATE the erection
sympathetic T11 to S2 stimulate ejaculation and detumescence

sensory- dorsal penile and pudendal nerves

brain- medial pre-optic area and paraventricular nucleus

nerve signals activate the veno occlusive mechanism of the corpura cavernosa- increases arterial blood flow to the sinusoidal spaces, relaxation of cavernosal smooth muscle and opening of vascular space

increase in sinusoidal spaces preseses on tunica albuginea which reduces venous outflow

contraction of ischiocavernosus muscles

322
Q

ED definition

A

consistent or recurrent inability to attain and / or maintain a penile erection sufficient for sexual intercourse

323
Q

causes of ED

A

IMPOTENCE
I- inflammatory prostatitis
M- mechanical peyronnie’s
P- psychological- depression, stress, relationship
O- occlusive vascular eg HTN, smoking, PVD
T-trauma # spinal cord injury
E-extra factors- surgery, prostatectomy, klinefleter
N-neurogenic- MS, parkinsons
C chemical
E endocrine- DM, hypogonoadism, hypothyroidism

324
Q

drugs that cause ED

A
beta blockers
thiazides
ACEi
amiodarone
SSRIs
325
Q

risk factors ED

A

CVD
smoker
alcohol
drugs

326
Q

when to refer ED to urology

A

always had difficulty achieving an erection

327
Q

inx for ED

A

full hx and exam
blood test- renal, glucose, testosterone, (LH/FSH if low) psa thryoid testing
penile doppler USS
penile arteriography- post trauma

328
Q

indications of a psychological cause of ED

A
sudden onset
erection stilll on waking
reduced libido
relationship prolems
good quality spontaneous and self-stimulated erecttions
phx psychological
hx premature ejaculation
329
Q

organic cause ED

A

gradual onset
loss of nocturnal and early erejctions
intact libido
lack of tumescence

330
Q

management of ED

A
psychosexual 
lifestyle loose weight
PDE5 inhibitors eg siladenafil 
dopamine receptor agonists
intra-urethral eg prostaglandins
intra cavernosal injections PGE1 eg aloprostadil
vacuum erection device
androgen replacement therapy 
surgical peyronnie
331
Q

PDE5I SE and CI

A

-siladenafil
phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors
block breakdown of cGMP by PDE which helps to dilate corpus cavernosa

CI if takin nitrates, recent MI or hypotension or unstable angina

effective 30 mins after taking and lasts 36hrs must be on empty stomach

assoc. to visual abnormalities

332
Q

other main treatment for ED

A

PGE1 prostaglandin eg aloprostadil given intra-cavernosal injections

333
Q

vaccum erection risks

A

priaprism
pain
bruise
compliance

334
Q

priaprism is

A

rigid and painful erection >4 hours despite absence of sexual stimulation

335
Q

2 types of priaprism

A

low flow- ischaemia

high flow- non ischaemia

336
Q

risk factors low flow priaprism

A

meds- ssri, maoi, alcohol
neurological
sickle cell
malignancy

337
Q

risk factors high flow priaprism

A

trauma

arterio venous fisulation

338
Q

inx priaprism

A

butterfly needle aspirate

cavernosal blood gas

339
Q

low flow treatment

A

aspirate with butterfly needle
cavernosal irrigation
inject phenylephrine
surgical shunting to glans

340
Q

phimosis presentation

A

foreskin cannot be retracted behind the glans
at birth physiological due to adhesions between foreskin and glans
by 3 yrs of age these separate and should be retractile
-asymptomatic
-inflammatory infection
-bleeding
-UTI
-can get balloning of foreskin when voiding as urine gets caught
-pain on sexual activity

341
Q

management of phimosis

A

-children and young men- 0.1% betamethasone to soften phimosis 1st line

circumcision recommended for symptomatic phimosis but also for recurrent balanitis, BXO and UTI

342
Q

causes phimosis

A

paraphimosis
balanitis
penile cancer - increased risk uncircumscised
STI

343
Q

paraphimosis is

A

when the foreskin is retracted from over the glans of penis and becomes oedematous and cant be pulled back over the glans
teenagers or young men

344
Q

management paraphimosis

A

-ice glove
dundee- puncture holes for oedema and pull back
dorsal slit under GA and pull back over

345
Q

peyronnie

A

curvature of penis due to fibrous plaque
dorsal penile plaques are commonest - so penile cuves upwards as cannot fully lengthen
active phase -pain and changing deformity
stable phase- no pain-stabilised deformity

dont intervene in acute phase
surgery when stable for >12 months

only surgery if >3 months, unable to penetrate, >30 degrees curvature

nesbit procedure shorten the other side

346
Q

UTI epidemiology children

A

up to 1 yr of age UTIs are more common in boys

347
Q

risk factor for UTI in children

A
age-neonates
VUR
previous UTI
genitorurinary abnormalities
abnormal bladder activity
female gender
uncircumcised boys
faecal colonisation
chronic constipation
348
Q

presentation UTI children

A
non specific
fever
irritable
vomiting
lethargy
poor feeding
349
Q

inx

A
dipstick 
MSSU
USS KUB
DMSA
MCUG
350
Q

management UTI children

A
<3 months refer urgently
<6 month refer
3m to 3 yrs refer if medium risk illness and treat if micro positive, clinical, renal anomaly
>3yrs 
send urine and treat based on dipstick 
treat if symptoms specific
treat if anomaly
351
Q

cryptorchidism types

A

undescended testes
most resolve by 6 months

retractile
ectopic
incomplete descent
atrophic
ascent
352
Q

risks undescended testes

A

infertility
testicular cancer
torsion
hernias

353
Q

cause

A

abnormal gubernaculum or testes
decreased intra-abdo pressure
endocrine

354
Q

management of cryptorchidism

A

orchidoplexy 6 to 18 months

355
Q

VUR

A

vesicoureteric retrograde flow of urine from bladder into the ureters and the upper urological tract
often strong FHX

due to abnormality short ratio of intramural ureteric length to diamater
ie length inadequate

356
Q

primary VUR

A

due to congenital abnormality of VUJ

357
Q

secondary VUR

A

results from an increased intravesical pressure causing damage to the VUJ
eg from posterior urethral valves, urethral stenosis, neuropathic bladder and recurrent cystitis

358
Q

5 grades VUR

A

1= reflux limited to ureter
2= limited to renal pelvis
3=mild dilatation of ureter and pelvicalyceal system
4= tortuous ureter with moderate dilatation
5= tortuous ureter with severe dilatation

359
Q

presentation of VUR

A

UTI
abdo pain
failure to thrive
vomitting or diarrhoea

360
Q

inx VUR

A

urinalysis
USS KUB
DMSA
Cystography selected

361
Q

management VUR

A

first line-correct the cause
grade 1-3 resolve spontaneously and only observation
grade 3-5 low dose abx

362
Q

surgery VUR

A

only in selected cases for ureteric re-implantation or intramural injection of bulking agents

363
Q

hypospadias is

A

failure of ventral tissue of penis

opening of urethra on ventral side

364
Q

triad hypospadias

A

ventral curvature of shaft
hooded appearance of foreskin
ventral urethral meatus

365
Q

anatomical location of hypospadias

A

anterior
middle
posterior towards scrotum

366
Q

management of hypospadias

A

surgery not mandatory if urine stream is straight
posterior can be asssoc. with other tract malformations so need USS KUB
surgical repair between 6-18 months if severe deformity or interferes with voiding or predicted to interefere with sexual function

aims to straighten penile shaft and bring meatus to glans

367
Q

assoc. to hypospadias

A

undescended testis
hernias
disorders sexual development
need full exam to determine if other abnormalities eg chromosomal

368
Q

epispadias is

A

when the urethra opens onto the dorsal surface of the penis
anywhere from glans to pubic region
upward curvature of penis
most commonly assoc. to exstrophy

need surgery at 6-18 months-urethroplasty
often requires further surgery to reconstruct bladder neck at 5-5 urs

369
Q

exstrophy is

A

spectrum of congenital malformation affecting abdo wall, pelvis and GU tract
-eg defective development of anterior bladder and lower abdominal wall resulting in posterior bladder lying exposed on the abdomen

370
Q

pathology exstrophy

A

over development of cloacal membrane prevents in growth of the lower abdo mesenchymal tissue
cloacal membrane usually perforates to form the anus and urogenital openings
but in this case it perforates on lower abdo wall

371
Q

assoc. to exstrophy

A
all have epispadias
bone defects
hernias
genital defects
exposed bladder plate
VUR
abnormal anus, incontince, rectal prolapse
372
Q

management exstrophy

A

at birth bladder and deficit covered with plastic fil and irrigated
then surgical repair

373
Q

renal trauma

A

children greater risk due to size of kidneys and lack of fat

374
Q

management renal trauma

A

blunt trauma cna be managed conservatively
penetrating trauma needs surgical exloration
decceleration injuries also need surgical exploration as vascular injury

375
Q

presentation renal trauma

A

haematuira

loin pain

376
Q

imaging renal trauma

377
Q

grading renal trauma

A

1 contusion
2 <1cm deep parenchymal lacteration of cortex- no urine leak
3 >1cm deep parenchymal laceration no urine leak
4 parenchymal laceration into cotex with urine leak
5 completely shattered kidney

378
Q

indications for renal imaging in trauma

A
  1. visible haematuria
  2. systolic BP <90 and non visible haematuria
  3. rapid deceleration injury
  4. sus[ected renal traum in child
  5. penetrating trauma
379
Q

management renal trauma by grade

A
1-3= bed rest and re-image week later
grade4= stenting to prevent urinoma formation and diverty urine- need observation
grade5= immediate surgical exploration
380
Q

renall trauma surgical exploration indications

A
  • penetrating- more likely too
  • decelerating injury- more likely too
  • grade 5
  • persistent bleeding
  • bp not responding to fluid resus
  • expanding renal haematoma
  • pulsatile renal haematoma
381
Q

complication renal trauma

A
secondary haemorrhage
urine leak and urinoma
renal abscess formation
arteriovenous fistulas
renal impairment
HTN
382
Q

ureteric trauma

A

most common cause is iatrogenic during surgery

383
Q

management ureteritc trauma

A

-often during surgery so repair

otherwise development of hydronephrosis or urinoma should be a consideration

also high drain outputs following

384
Q

bladder urethral trauma

causes

A

most common due to Iatrogenic eg TURP/ TURBT

assoc. to pelvic #

can also occur with acceleration deceleration injuries on a full bladder

385
Q

presentation of bladder/ urethral trauma

A
  • blood at the urethra meatus
  • frank haematuria
  • urinary retention
  • perineal/ scrotal bleeding
  • high riding prostate on DRE
  • unable to catheterise
386
Q

what causes a high riding prostate

A

due to the prostate and bladder detachment from the membranous urethra and pushed forward by developing haematoma
membraneous rupture

387
Q

inx for bladder / urethral injury

A
bladder= retrograde cystogram
urethral= retrograde urethrogram

NEED TO IMAGE BEFORE CATHETERISE AS MAY NEED SUPRAPUBIC CATHETER IF URETHRAL INJURY

388
Q

management bladder injury

A

if extraperitoneal
-urethral catheter and cystogram prior to TWOC

-bladder injury intraperitoneal -open surgical reapir

-urethra injury -suprapubic cather may be required
needs an open approach

389
Q

TESTICULAR TRAUMA

A

-EITHER blunt or penetrating

all penetrating need surgical exploration and repair or orchidectomy q

390
Q

penile fractures

A

rupture of the tunica albuginea of the erect penis

can go to corpora cavernosa, corpus spongiosum and rupture of the urethra

391
Q

presentation of penile fracture

A
swollen and bruised 
aubergien sign
severe bruising
snapping or popping sound
sudden penile pain
immediate detumescence of erection

if buck’s fascia has ruptured the bruising extends onto the lower abdo wall
tender palpable defect

392
Q

management penile fracture

A

need surgical repair

catheter for 6-8 weeks