Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nephro > urology > Flashcards

urology Flashcards

1
Q

calcium stones

A 
Majority of stones 75%
•	Calcium oxalate are the most common
o	due to hypercalciuria
o	hard and dark stones
o	acidic urine
o	Urinalysis:  colorless tetrahedral (envelope shape), oval or dumbbell shape, polarizable
o	Seen in ethylene glycol poisoning
•	Calcium phosphate:  less common, softer and paler stones in alkaline urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

struvite stones

A
  • Struvite (triple phosphate): magnesium ammonium phosphate—15%
  • Due to urea splitting bacteria (proteus, staph, providencia)
  • Staghorn caliculi
  • Urine is alkaline
  • Urinalysis: colorless rectangles, coffin lid shaped crystals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

uric acid stones

A
  • Uric acid: 6%
  • Due to hyperuricemia
  • Radiolucent stones
  • Acidic urine
  • Urinalysis: rhomboid crystals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cysteine stones

A
  • Cysteine: rare—1% of stones
  • due to genetic defects in cystine transport
  • Aut Rec
  • Stones are yellow-brown and radioopaque
  • Acidic urine
  • Urinalysis: flat hexagonal crystals “stop sign”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

etiologies of infectious cystitis

A

o Culture negative cystitis: ureaplasm urealyticum, Chlamydia, mycoplasma hominis
o Bacterial cystitis: E coli, Staph saprophyticus, klebsiella
• Tuberculous cystitis by mycobacterium tuberculosis
o Fungal cystitis: candida
o Parasite cystitis: schistosomiasis
o Viral cystitis: adenovirus (type 11), HSV2
• Hemorrhagic cystitis: Present as viral cystitis bone marrow transplant recipients (also caused by cyclophosphamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

interstitial cystitis

A

“painful bladder syndrome”
o Persistent cystitis with pelvic pain and irritative voiding symptoms
o Females
o Multifactorial
o Cytoscopy: punctate hemorrhage of “hunner ulcer”
o Diagnosis of exclusion
o Vs overactive bladder—urgency of urination, pain is not the key feature but urine leakage is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

malakoplakia

A

inflammatory d/o w/ accumulation of macrophages in GU tract (esp. bladder)
o Older females, immunosuppressed, chronic infection, cancer
o Assoc. w/ UTI caused by E. coli
o Soft yellow plaques on surface of bladder
o Michaelis-Gutman bodies (engorged lysosomes containing bacteria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hypospadia

A

urethra opens on underside of penis; more common; easier to repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

epispadia

A

urethra opens on upper side of penis; less common; harder to repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

phimosis

A

narrowing of prepuce orifice; impairs retraction over glans; can strangulate glans and predisposes to infection/cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

paraphimosis

A

strangulation of glans; usually due to recurrent infection/trauma; circumcision is cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hydrocele

A

o Hydrocele: serous fluid in scrotal sac b/t 2 layers of tunica vaginalis;
• Comgenital: most common cause of scrotal swelling in infants; assoc. w/ inguinal hernia
• Acquired: occurs in adults 2/2 infection, tumor or trauma; if long standing can cause testicular atrophym compression epididymus, or fluid can become infected (periorchitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

hematocele

A

blood b/t layers of tunica vaginalis; results from trauma, hemorrhage into hydrocele, tumors, infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

spermatocele

A

o Spermatocele: cyst from protrusion of widened efferent ducts of rete testis or epididymus
• Hilar paratesticular nodule or fluctuating mass filled with milky fluid
• Cyst lined by cuboidal epithelium containing spermatozoa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

varicocele

A

o Varicocele: “bag of worms”
• Dilation of testicular veins and appears as nodularity on lateral side of scrotum
• Common cause of infertility; pts usually asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

genital herpes

A

o Genital herpes: painful, grouped vesicles that ulcerate and transform into crusts
• Cluster of vesicles on a red base
• Microscopically: viral nuclear inclusions, multinucleation, nuclear molding; skin separation with vesicle formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

syphilis

A
  • Treponema pallidum
  • Solitary, ulcer “chancre” with hard edges
  • Painless
  • Screen test VDRL, RPR
  • Confirmatory test: FTA-ABS, treponema hemagglutination assay
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

chancroid

A

o Chancroid: haemophilus ducreyi (gram negatuve coccobacillus)
• Painful papule, pustule and shallow ulcers on glans or shaft
• Chancroid ulcer has pus and soft edges
• Painful suppurative inguinal lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

granuloma inguinale

A

o Granuloma inguinale: Klebsiella granulomatis
• Donovan bodies (rod shaped bacteria within histiocytes)
• Tropical disease
• Raised painless red ulcer with copious chronic inflammatory exudate and granulation tissue
• Ulcers enlarge and heal very slowly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

lymphogranuloma venereum

A

o Lymphogranuloma venereum: Chlamydia trachomatis
• Painless, small, innocuous vesicle that ulcerates
• Swollen groin (inguinal) LN
• Sinuses draining ous from nodes into skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

condyloma acuminatum

A

o Condyloma acuminata: HPV 6 and 11

• Flat topped warts on shaft, small polyps on glans and urethral meatus, or large cauliflower-like tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

balanitis

A

inflammation of glans, due to poor hygiene
• Balanoposthitis: glans and foreskin caused by bacteria, fungi, or virus
• Complications: meatal stricture, phimosis, paraphimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

balanitis xerotica obliterans

A
  • Balanitis xerotica obliterans: chronic inflammatory condition
  • Fibrosis and sclerosis or subepithelial connective tissue
  • Affected glans becomes white and indurated
  • Fibrosis can cause phimosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

circinate balanitis

A
  • Circinate balanitis: circular, linear or confluent plaque-like discoloration of glans
  • Assoc. w/ superficial ulcerations
  • Seen in reiter syndrome: HLA-B27 autoimmune condition with arthritis, inflammation of eye, urethritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

plasma cell balanitis

A
  • Plasma cell balanitis: aka Zoon balanitis
  • Macular discoloration or painless papules of the glans
  • Connective tissue shows infiltrates of plasma cells and lymphocytes; overlying epithelium is thickened
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

peyronie disease

A
  • Peyronie disease: fibrous induration of penis
  • Focal, asymmetric fibrosis of penile shaft with ill-defined induration and normal overlying skin
  • “penile strabismus”: loss of penile curvature and painful erections
  • young and middle aged men
  • dense fibrosis with sparse chronic inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

sexually transmitted urethritis

A

o Sexually transmitted urethritis: most common manifestation of STDs in men
• Purulent and greenish yellow urethral or vaginal discharge
• Pain or tingling at meatus, pain on urination
• Gonorrhea
• Chlamydia trachomatis, ureaplasma urealyticum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

non-specific infectious urethritis

A

o Non-specific infectious urethritis: E coli and pseudomonas; assoc. w/ cystitis
• Urgency and burning on urination
• Usually no discharge
• Men can express milky fluid by milking the urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

urethral caruncles

A

o Urethral caruncles: polypoid inflammatory lesions near female urethral meatus that produce pain and bleeding
• Post-menopausal women with exophytic, ulcerated, polypoid mass at or near urethral meatus
• M: inflammation, blood vessel granulation tissue, ulceration, urothelial or squamous epithelium hyperplasia
• Does not lead to cancer
tx is surgical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

reiter syndrome

A

o Reiter syndrome: urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis of weight bearing joints
• Circinate balanitis, cervicitis, skin eruptions
• Young adults, HLA-B27
• Sx appear after urethritis or enteric infection
• Sx resolve in 3-6months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cryptorchidism

A

• Cyptorchidism: congenital undescended testis
o Bilateral in 30%; Prevalence of 1%
o Most common urologic condition requiring surgery in infants
o Location: abdominal, inguinal, upper scrotal
o Increases infertility and germ cell neoplasia
o Orchiopexy: 6months-1year to prevent infertility; but does not reduce cancer risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

infertility–possible findings on testicular biopsy

A
  • Immature seminiferous tubules (hyogonadotrophic hypogonadism 2/2 hypothalamic-pituitary disease)
  • M: seminiferous tubules w/o spermatic differentiation resembling prepubertal testes
  • Decreased spermatogenesis (cryptorchid testes, malnutrition, AIDS)
  • Germ cell maturation arrest (idiopathic)
  • Germ cell aplasia (sertoli cell only syndrome)
  • Orchitis
  • Peritubular and tubular fibrosis (cryptorchdism, infection, ischemia, radiation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

bacterial epididymitis

A

young men with gonorrhea of chlamdyia; older men and children with E. coli
• Intrascrotal pain w/ or w/o fever and infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

tuberculous epididymitis

A

assoc. w/ tuberculosis and caseating granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

spermatic granuloma

A

from sperm extravasation due to traumatic rupture
• M: mixed inflammatory cell infiltrate with numerous extravasated sperm fragments and phagocytosis by macrophages; later=fibrosis and ductal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

spermatic cord torsion

A

o Twisting of the spermatic cord with compromise of testicular blood supply
o Results from abnormal fixation of testis and spermatic cord
o Seen in children and young adults during vigorous activity
o Presents as abrupt onset of pain and swelling
o Can cause testicular infarct

37
Q

orchitis

A

inflammation of the testis
o Gram-neg bacterial orchitis is the most common form; 2/2 UTI
o Syphilitic orchitis
o Mumps orchitis: unilateral!
o Granulomatous orchitis: type IV cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction and tuberculosis
• Non-caseating granulomas
o Malakoplakia

38
Q

BPH

A

o Enlargement of prostate and urinary tract outflow obstruction
• Decreased vigor or urinary stream
• Increasing frequency
• Post-urinary dripping
• Hydroureter, hydronephrosis, and renal failure
o Blacks>whites>Asians
o Older men
o DRE: firm, enlarged nodular prostate
o Tx: transurethral resection prostate (TURP), suprapubic enucleation

39
Q

urothelial papilloma

A
  • Benign
  • Exophytic or inverted
  • M: papillary fronds lined by normal urothelium
  • Single lesion, 2-5cm in diameter
40
Q

bladder inverted papilloma

A

rare, nodular mucosal lesions, trigone area

• M: cords of urothelium descend into lamina propria covered by normal urothelium

41
Q

urothelial carcinoma

A
  • Present with Hematuria
  • 15% have mets at presentation
  • Tx: transurethral resection for T0, T1 and non-muscle invading tumors; radical cystectomy for others
42
Q

non-urothelial bladder cancer

A

rare!
• Squamous cell carcinoma: schistosomiasis
• Adenocarcinoma: urachal remnants in bladder dome
• Neuroendocrine: like small cell lung cancer
• Rhabdomyosarcoma: children, sarcoma botryoides

43
Q

urethral carcinoma

A

o Elderly women
o Distal urethral squamous cell carcinoma
o Proximal urethra: urothelial carcinoma
o Most tumors have spread at presentation

44
Q

penis carcinoma

A

uncircumcised men, 60yo, uncommon
o HPV 16, 18
o Phimosis and smegma
o SCC

45
Q

bowen disease of the penis

A

shaft; solitary, sharply demarcated, red or white plaque

penile intraepithelial neoplasia

46
Q

eryhroplasia of queyrat

A

glans and foreskin; solitary of multiple shiny, soft red plaques
o Both of these are carcinoma w/o invasion of the dermis; 10% progress to invasive carcinoma
penile intraepithelial neoplasia

47
Q

bowenoid papulosis of the penis

A

not a carcinoma!
o young sexually active men, HPV type 17; multiple brownish or violet papules
o lesions regress spontaneously and do not progress to invasive carcinoma

48
Q

invasive SCC of penis

A

o Ulcer, crater, friable hemorrhagic mass
o Exophytic, fungating
o Glans or prepuce and less commonly shaft
o M: well differentiated, focally keratinizing, SCC;
• Invasive tumors have dense chronic inflammation of dermis

49
Q

verrucous carcinoma of the penis

A

low grade SCC
o slow growing, exophytic, locally aggressive but rarely mets
o not related to HPV
o surgical removal is cure
Must differentiate from giant condyloma acuminata of Buschke and Lowenstein
• Benign condyloma in anogenital area assoc. w/ HPV 6 and 11 and overexpression p53
• Locally destructive but doesn’t met
• Men <50
• Most common on glans
• Recurs

50
Q

scrotal cancer

A

: SCC affecting older men; pts show invasion of scrotal contents and mets to regional LN; tx is surgical excision

51
Q

prostatic intraepithelial neoplasia

A

o Noninvasive neoplastic transformation of lining of prostatic epithelium
o Low grade and high grade
o Precedes invasive cancer by 20years
o M: dilated branching glands with intraluminal papillary projections; lined by crowded enlarged cells with prominent nucleoli

52
Q

prostate adenocarcinoma

A

malignant glands
o Multicentric on the peripheral zone
o Irregulary, yellow-white indurated nodules
o M: glands with conspicuous “nucleoli” that infiltrate stroma; lacks architectural organization
o Gleason grading pattern: based on tumor architecture
• Score of 2-10
• Lower score=better prognosis
o Blastic bony mets (vertebrae, ribs, pelvis); painful (positive PSAP on IHC confirms prostate origin)
o Usually detected by PSA and DRE
o Pts do not usually present with bladder probs (vs BPH)

53
Q

nephroblastoma/Wilm’s tumor

A

o Most common pediatric renal tumor!
o Chr11, WT1/2 genes are overexpressed
o Mean age is 3-4years
o Present w/ abdominal mass (rarely with hematuria, pain, HTN)
o Assoc. w/:
• Wilms-Aniridia-genital anomaly-retardation syndrome
• Beckwith-Weideman syndrome: abdominal wall defect, macroglossia, macrosomia
o M: blasema (small blue cells in solid nests), hypocellular stroma with myxoid spindle cells, epithelial arranged in tubules
o Excellent prognosis!

54
Q

congential mesoblastic nephroma

A

hamartoma
o Translocation 12;15, ETV6-NTRK3 fusion gene
o Most are benign
o 5-10% recurrences and mets
o solitarym tranb, bulgy soft mass (like leiomyoma)
o M: spindle cells with mitosis on cellular pattern

55
Q

clear cell sarcoma of the kidney

A

: “bone metastatizing tumor” aggressive malignant sarcoma; late recurrence and bad prognosis
o Located in medulla
o M: epitheloid with clear cytoplasm and nucleus arranged in sheets with arbozing blood vessels in myxoid stroma

56
Q

rhabdoid tumor

A

highly malignant seen in first 2 years of life
o Deletion/mutation of IN11 gene on chr 22q
o Does not have muscle differentiation
o Assoc. w/ brain tumor (atypical rhabdoid teratoid tumor)

57
Q

oncocytoma

A

benign adult renal tumor
• Central scar
• Mahogany brown mass with a central scar
• M: eosinophilic cells w/ abundant cytoplasm, round nucleus with prominent nucleoli arranged in nests, cords, tubules or cysts

58
Q

metanephric adenoma

A

benign renal tumor
• Epithelial nephroblastic cells
• Women, 40s, polycythemia
• Presents with hematuria and flank pain
• Gray-tan tumor, unencapsulated 5cm
• Metanephric adenofibroma: younger age, equally common in males, 80% have polycythemia
• Trisomy 7 and 17 with loss of Y or X (sim to papillary)

59
Q

papillary adenoma

A 
benign renal tumor
\:  most common renal neoplasm!!
•	Asymptomatic or hematuria
•	Gray-tan <0.5cm
•	Psammoma bodies 
•	Genetics:  +7, +17, -Y
60
Q

angiomyolipoma

A

benign renal cell tumor
• Derived from perivascular epithelioid cells
• Females
• Tuberous sclerosis (mutation in TSC1 and TSC2)
• Co-express melanocytic and muscle markers
• Presents with flank pain
• HMB45+ on IHC

61
Q

clinical presentation of malignant renal cancer

A 
•	Hematuria
•	Triad:  hematuria, flank pain, palpable mass
•	Metastasis
•	Paraneoplastic syndrome:  
•	Hypercalcemia:  PTHrP; sx of lethargy, nausea, fatigue, weakness, decreased DTR
•	Hypertension
•	Polycythemia (inc. EPO)
•	Incidental finding
o	Risk factor=tobacco!
62
Q

renal clear cell carcinoma

A
  • Elderly, male predominant
  • Sporadic
  • VHL: multifocal, bilateral RCC, inactivation tumor suppressor on chr3
  • Well-circumscribed, golden yellow, cystic solid, hemhorrhagic, necrosis
  • Fuhrman grades 1-4
  • Sarcomatoid RCC=worse prognosis
63
Q

papillary renal cell carcinoma

A

2nd most common RCC
• Multifocal, tan-white nodules >0.5cm
• Genetics: +7, +17, -Y
• Type 1: small cells, pale cytoplasm; foamy macrophages
• Type 2: large cells, eosinophilic cytoplasm; younger pts, and pts with end-stage renal disease

64
Q

chromophobe renal cell carcinoma

A
  • From intercalating cell of collecting duct
  • Multiple chromosomal losses (1, Y, 6, 10, 13, 17) and hypodiploidy
  • DDX is oncocytoma (can also have central scar)
  • Hale’s colloidal iron stain + (vs oncocytoma is negative)
65
Q

renal collecting duct carcinoma

A

collecting ducts of bellini
• Adenocarcinoma with high grade cytology
• Poor prognosis
• Ulex europaeus lectin reactivity (differentiates from papillary RCC)

66
Q

medullary renal cell carcinoma

A
  • Sickle cell trait, sickle cell disease, SC disease
  • Aggressive (most pts have mets at diagnosis)
  • Young black males
  • Poor prognosis
67
Q

renal carcinoma assoc w/ Xp11.2/TFE gene fusion

A
  • Children and young adults
  • Presents at advanced stage but has an indolent clinical course
  • Papillary architecture and psamomma bodies
68
Q

multilocular cystic renal cell carcinoma

A
  • Multi-cystic with small clusters of clear cells

* Excellent prognosis

69
Q

Germ cell tumors of the testicles epidemiology

A

• Germ cell tumors: 95% of testicular tumors
o Most common in men between 15-34; Whites>Blacks
o Risk factors: cyrptorchidism, gonadal dysgenesis, family hixostyr, isochromosome 12

70
Q

testicular seminomas

A

radiosensitive and present at an early age
• Homogenous mass with no hemorrhage and necrosis
• Most common adult testicular tumor
• Painless mass in 4th decade
• Non-hemorrhagic tumor
• IHC: PLAP+, CD117+, OCT ¾+
• Can be bHCG positive

71
Q

Spermatic seminoma

A
  • Pts >55
  • 3 sizes of cells in sheets w/o fibrovascular septa
  • excellent prognosis
72
Q

embryonal testicular carcinoma

A

o Non-seminomas: relatively radiosensitive, more aggressive, usually mixed
-hemorrhagic mass with necrosis (vs seminoma)
• Embryonal carcinoma:
• Aggressive, arises from primitive cells
• 30s-40s
• usually mixed
• pts present with mets
• pain is common sign
• poorly demarcated, variegated with foci of hemorrhage and necrosis
• IHC: CD30, cytokeratins, PLAP, OCT3/4, CD117

73
Q

testicular teratoma

A

non-seminoma–relatively radiosensitive, more aggressive, usually mixed
contains all 3 germ layers (endoderm, mesoderm ectoderm)
• kids < 2
• in adults, teratomas are malignant

74
Q

yolk sac tumors

A

•non-seminoma
Pure form in kids < 4
• Mixed GCT in adults as rapidly growing painless mass
• Schiller duval bodies
• AFP is marker (found in tissue in hyaline globules)

75
Q

choriocarcinoma

A

non-seminoma
rare malignant tumor
• Marked increase in bHCG
• Aggressive with hematogenous spread to lungs, liver, GI, brain
• can present as gynecomastia and hyperthryoidism
• can be hemorrhagic or burn out scar
• syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts

76
Q

mixed germ cell tumor of testicles

A

• Mixed germ cell tumors: 2 or more germ cell tumor types
o Elevated AFP (yolk sac) and HCG (choriocarcinoma) are common
o Presents as painless mass
o Tumor is variegated soft, firm, cystic with hemorrhage and necrosis
o Metastasis is via lymphatics to retroperitoneal lymph nodes
o Teratocarcinoma= teratoma + embyronal carcinoma

77
Q

• Intratubular Germ cell neoplasia, Unclassified:

A

o Malignant transformation of primordial germ cell
o Precursor of all invasive germ cell tumors except spermatocytic seminoma
o Higher incidence in cryptorchid testes and prior GCT
o Prophylactic orchiectomy recommended
o IHC: PLAP+

78
Q

leydig cell tumors

A
  • hormonally active and secrete androgens, estrogens, and corticosteroids
  • can have precocious puberty, gynecomastia etc
  • Present with testicular swelling
  • Bimodal age peaks
  • Reinke crystals
  • IHC: inhibin+
79
Q

sertoli cell tumor

A
  • No hormonal sx!
  • Testicular mass < age of 40
  • Small nodules
  • Large cell calcifying sertoli cell tumor is subtype assoc. w/ Peutz-Jeghers syndrome and carney’s complex
80
Q

metastasis to testicles

A

o Testicular lymphoma is most common testicular neoplasm in men >60
• Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
o Mets from prostate, large intestine, bladder

81
Q

most significant cause of bladder cancer

A

cigarette smoking

82
Q

major risk factors assoc. w/ bladder cancer

A
  • carcinogens–aryl amines, benzidine, naphthylamines, phenacetin,
  • cyclophosphadmide
  • infection (schistosomiasis)
  • chronic inflammation
83
Q

treatment of early stage bladder cancer

A

BCG

84
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

A

-30% pts get kidney cancer

85
Q

kidney cancer

A

chemoresistant

never perform a percutaneous biopsy (risk spread)

86
Q

testicular cancer (clinical)_

A
  • most common malignancy men 15-35
  • never perform a transcrotal biopsy in testicular mass (risk spread)
  • metastatic testicular cancer is curable with chemotherapy +/- radiation in 90% pts
87
Q

PSA and DRE

A

screening for prostate cancer in men >50 (but not proven to reduce mortality)
-PSA is helpful in assessing follow-up of pts with PSA secreting tumors that were treated

88
Q

recurrent prostate cancer

A

progress and become hormone refractory

-hormone refractory prostate cancer should be treated with systemic chemo (improves overall survival)

Nephro (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions