Urology Flashcards

1
Q

If a 62 year old male presents with difficulty voiding with lower abdominal pain and fullness. He has not been able to urinate since yesterday. What is most concerning?

A
Acute Urinary Retention
Most commonly due to:
-- benign prostatic hyperplasia
-- advanced age
-- anticholinergic or sympathomimetic medications
-- spinal cord injuries
-- over-distention of bladder (can't contract)
-- tumors
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2
Q

What is the immediate management of acute urinary retention?

A
    • Attempt Foley placement (bladder catheterization) to decompress the bladder
    • BPH drugs in men to prevent retention
    • Surgery to resect prostate if needed
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3
Q

Where and who does benign prostate hyperplasia occur?

A
    • Middle aged men increasing risk per year
    • periurethral zone
    • DOES NOT INCREASE RISK OF CANCER
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4
Q

How is a digital rectal exam different from BPH vs Prostate Cancer?

A

BPH – uniformly enlarged rubbery prostate

Prostate Cancer – non-uniform enlargement with nodules palpable

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5
Q

What are the steps that need to be taken to evaluate lower urinary symptoms including frequency, urgency, nocturia, and hesitancy?

A
    • UA, look for infection or blood

- - PSA, BPH causes slight elevation typically, if above 10, then be concerned for prostate cancer

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6
Q

What are common complications associated with untreated BPH?

A
    • bilateral hydronephrosis
    • bladder diverticula due to increased wall tension and smooth muscle hypertrophy
    • urine stasis = increased infections
    • prostatic infarction (grows too big for blood supply)
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7
Q

What are the best ways to manage BPH in a middle aged male?

A

– Behavior modification (no liquids before bed, reduced caffeine and alcohol, etc)
– Alpha blocker (Tamsulosin / Terazosin)
– Alpha blocker + 5-Alpha Reductase inhibitor (Finasteride)
Prevents conversion of Testosterone to DHT, stopping the growth of the prostate

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8
Q

If a patient continues to experience symptoms of BPH despite maximal medical management and behavior modifications, what is the next step?

A

Transurethral Resection of the Prostate (TURP)

If patient not a surgical candidate, then transurethral needle ablation

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9
Q

What are commonly symptoms of low implantation of the ureter and how do you diagnose it?

A

Females Only – constant urine leakage from the vagina

– Diagnosed by intravenous pyelogram

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10
Q

What is posterior urethra valves and how do you diagnose it?

A

Most commonly in males, from an obstructing membrane covering the outlet to the urethra from the bladder, due to abnormal utero development.
– Diagnosed by voiding cystourethrogram (looking for the narrowing of the urethra at the bladder) or by cystoscopy by visualization.

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11
Q

What are the risks associated with vesicourethral reflex and what is it?

A
    • valves on ureters are poor and there is retrograde flow from the bladder back up the ureters.
  • *Increased risk of UTIs in children and progression to pyelonephritis (+failure to thrive)
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12
Q

When should you be suspicious of a child with vesicourethral reflex in a child?

A

When a child below the age of 2 who is diagnosed with a febrile symptomatic UTI.
– 1st time UTI in these children warrant a full work-up with an US of bladder and renal anatomy

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13
Q

What are the indications for performing a voiding cystourethrogram in a child?

A
    • recurrent UTIs in child under the age of 2

- - positive renal US in a child on their eval after first UTI

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14
Q

What is the treatment of vesicourethral reflex in a child?

A

– low dose Abx for prophylaxis of UTIs (TMP-SMX)
VUR most commonly resolves over time spontaneously without surgical intervention, if there is evidence of kidney damage from back up of urine, surgery will be conducted

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15
Q

How might you evaluate a 26 year old male who states he has had intermittent episodes of colicky flank pain on and off for the last 8 years, almost exclusively on the weekends, otherwise he does not have any dysuria, hematuria, or abdominal pain.

A
    • Renal Ultrasound – look for hydronephrosis
    • Voiding cystourethrogram – rule out vesicourethral reflex
    • Diuretic renogram – watch clearance at the ureteropelvic junction (most common cause of colicky flank pain after large volume intakes)
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16
Q

What is the best way to manage ureteropelvic junction obstruction (stenosis) in children?

A

Conservative treatment and monitoring kidney function making sure no recurrent hydronephrosis and kidney damage from back up

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17
Q

What is the cause of hypospadias and how is it managed?

A

Failure of the fusion of the urethral folds on ventral surface of the penis.
Surgical correction of the opening uses the prepuce for correction (Should not circumsized that tissue is needed)

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18
Q

If a child born with exstrophy of the bladder, what else should be looked for?

A

Epispadias – both conditions are caused by faulty positioning of the genital tubercle during development

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19
Q

A 63 year old female presents to the ED with flank pain and fever/chills. The patient has a long history of recurrent kidney stones and DM. Upon CT Abd/Pelvis imaging there appears to be air in the upper urinary tract at the kidney, what should be first step in management?

A

Rapid Administration of IV Abx
– Emphysematous Pyelitis

This is a complication from pyelonephritis and quickly lead to sepsis.

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20
Q

A 23 year old male presents to the office with left side scrotal pain and tenderness and says it feels better when he lifts them. He also has dysuria and admits to recent unprotected sex. What is the first step in management?

A

Testicular Ultrasound – Rule out testicular torsion (due to the acute testicular pain
UA – looking for WBCs (torsion will be negative WBCs)

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21
Q

If a patient who is suspected of having epididymitis culture grows gram negative rods, what is the management plan?

A

Ceftriaxone (Gonorrhea) + Azithromycin (Need to cover for Chalmydia too)
Ceftriaxone + Doxycycline – also treatment combo

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22
Q

If a patient is diagnosed with epididymitis and cultures are negative and no risk of exposure in his recent history only trauma, what’s the best management plan?

A

NSAIDS and Scrotal Support

– support the scrotum relieves tension on the spermatic cord and epididymitis

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23
Q

What is the best way to determine the type of erectile dysfunction a patient is experiencing?

A

Monitoring for noctural erections

– can determine if it is psychologic or mechnical cause

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24
Q

What are the most common mechanical (organic) causes of erectile dysfunction?

A
    • Trauma
    • Drug-induced
    • Vascular Disease – DM, Atherosclerosis
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25
Q

What drugs most commonly cause erectile dysfunction?

A
    • SSRIs
    • Spironolactone
    • Sympathetic Blockers – Clonidine
    • Thiazide Diuretics
    • Ketoconazole
    • Cimetidine
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26
Q

If a patient describes developing erectile dysfunction suddenly one day where he was unable to achieve erection, but was the previous day, what is most likely?

A
    • Trauma

- - Psychological

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27
Q

What is the evaluation you should perform when working up erectile dysfunction?

A
    • Sexual History
    • Physical Exam – looking for gynecomastia, PVD, testicular volume
    • testosterone level
    • nocturnal penile tumescence testing
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28
Q

What are the management options for erectile dysfunction?

A
    • Treating the underlying cause of trauma or psychological distress FIRST
    • Otherwise – Phosphodiesterase Inhibitors
    • Sildenafil, Tadalafil (longest action)
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29
Q

What is contraindicated with patients taking PDE5 inhibitors?

A

The patients should not take Nitrates, will cause a dangerous hypotension

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30
Q

If you are seeing a 30 year old patient to evaluate a scrotal mass and the patient states it is painless, and the mass is seperate from the testis on palpation and has positive transillumination, what is likely diagnosis?

A

Spermatocele – a cystic structure containing sperm located within the epididymis

    • painless swelling, does not cause infertility
    • KEY – Transillumination, cancer does not
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31
Q

How can you determine the different between spermatocele vs testicular cancer?

A

Usually spermatocele is palpated seperate from the testicules and is transilluminated
– Ultrasound can determine if it is a cystic structure or solid (most worrisome for cancer)

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32
Q

If a male is being evaluated for 1 year of unable to conceive, he has noticed his scrotum has felt more full for an indeterminate amount of time, otherwise does not have any symptoms. What is the fundamental causation of the patient’s symptoms?

A

Increased venous pressure in the pampiniform plexus of veins in the LEFT spermatic vein flowing into the LEFT renal vein.
– can be for multitude of reasons there is congestion

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33
Q

What are the physical exam findings if a patient is suspected of having a varicocele?

A
    • “bag of worms” on palpation
    • fullness of the scrotum
    • does not transilluminate (not a solid mass)
    • decreases in size while supine
34
Q

When is surgery considered for a varicocele?

A

When they become symptomatic.

    • Lowered sperm count
    • Bilateral varicoceles
    • Pain
35
Q

What is the difference between varicocele and hydrocele?

A

Varicocele is dilation of the venous outflow

Hydrocele is fluid-filled space between the visceral and parietal layers of the tunica vaginalis within the scrotum

36
Q

What are the types of varicoceles?

A

Communicating – defect in closure of the processus vaginallis and fluid can enter from the peritoneal cavity
Noncommunicating – accumulation of fluid from local secretion of fluids

37
Q

How do you diagnose hydrocele and type?

A

Usually is able to be palpated on the testicle, positive transillumination, and ultrasound to determine it is fluid filled.

    • increase in size on standing if communicating to the peritoneal cavity
    • does not reduce or change in size with position changes – noncommunicating
38
Q

What is the common treatment methodology for spermatocele, varicocele, hydrocele?

A

– Supportive treatment, unless symptomatic or persist

39
Q

What is semen analysis used to analyze?

A
    • sperm motility
    • number
    • morphology
    • concentration
40
Q

What does a work up for male infertility include after the male has been unable to conceive for 1 year?

A
    • screening for hypogonadism (total Testosterone and serum LH/FSH)
    • semen analysis
41
Q

Which STD causes drainage from the penis gonorrhea or chlamydia trachomatis?

A

N. Gonorrhoeae!

42
Q

If a patient is symptomatic for urethritis, but gram stain is negative, what might be the diagnosis and how can you confirm?

A

C. Trachomatis

– confirm with nucleic acid testing

43
Q

What do you treat urethritis with? Who? Why?

A

Azithromycin + Ceftriaxone
Doxycycline + Ceftriaxone
– Treat all recent sexual partners
– Due to constantly changing antigens unable to develop a resistance to the infection

44
Q

What are risk factors for prostate cancer?

A
    • Advanced age (Most important)
    • Prostatitis
    • FamHx prostate cancer
    • High fat diet
45
Q

Where would you be able to palpate prostate cancer?

A

Digital Rectal Exam – nodular firm prostate

– Peripheral Zone

46
Q

What is the difference between the beginning symptoms of BPH and Prostate cancer?

A

Minimal. Need to have a prostate exam to differentiate between the two.
– urinary retention, weak flow, increased frequency, and hesitancy

47
Q

What sites does prostate cancer most commonly metastasize to?

A
    • bone – vertebrae / pelvis

- - pathologic fractures

48
Q

If prostate cancer is localized and has not spread, what is the most common treatment?

A
    • external beam radiation

- - brachytherapy – implantation of radioactive seeds

49
Q

If prostate cancer is more extensive and locally advanced, what might be done?

A

Prostatectomy

– commonly causes infertility and incontinence

50
Q

If the prostate cancer is metastatic, what are the therapies used to treat?

A
    • GnRH agonist (Leuprolide)
    • Androgen Receptor antagonist (Flutamide)
    • Chemo – not very effective
51
Q

What is unique about prostate cancer and it’s course?

A

Very slow growing cancer, if a patient is of advanced age, best practice is to observe without intervention to preserve their quality of life

52
Q

If on a PSA screening lab test for a 68 year old male finds it to be elevated from 3 to 15 with alkaline phosphatase elevated as well. What should you be concerned about?

A

Prostate cancer that has spread into the bone.

53
Q

What are you looking for on a digital rectal exam for prostate cancer?

A

– Asymmtery
– Nodularity
– Induration
If these are noted needle core biopsy guided by transrectal ultrasound should be performed to confirm the diagnosis via pathology

54
Q

What are the most common causes of prostatis and what is the most common?

A
    • Acute Prostatitis
    • Chronic Bacterial Prostatis
  • -** Chronic nonbacterial prostatitis / pelvic pain syndrome
    • Asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis
55
Q

What are the most common organisms that cause prostatitis in males, both acute and chronic?

A
    • E.Coli (most common)
    • Klebsiella
    • Proteus
    • Chlamydia/Neisseria
56
Q

If the urine cultures are negative, but the patient still is experiencing dysuria, increased urgency, nocturia with generalized lower pelvic pain and back.

A

Chronic Nonbacterial Prostatitis

    • diagnosis of exclusion, biopsy must be performed
    • need greater than 3 months with negative urine cultures
57
Q

If a patient is experiencing dysuria, pelvic pain, increased urgency/frequency, with fever/chills, what might be the diagnosis?

A
Acute Bacterial Prostatits
-- confirmed diagnosis by:
\++appropriate symptoms and systemic symptoms
\++edematous boggy prostate
\++positive urine culture and gram stain
58
Q

If you believe the patient has acute bacterial prostatitis and exam him, what should not be done?

A

Do not repeat digital rectal exam can cause the bacteria to leak out and the patient to become septic

59
Q

What is the first line therapy of acute prostatitis?

A

TMP-SMX

Cipro/Levo

60
Q

What is the first line therapy for chronic bacterial prostatitis?

A

Similar as Acute, longer course and multiple courses
1st line – Cipro/Levo
2nd line – TMP-SMX

61
Q

What are the common treatments for chronic nonbacterial prostatitis?

A
    • Alpha-blocker – Tamulosin

- - Ciprofloxacin

62
Q

If a patient with acute prostatitis requires bladder drainage due to difficulty urinating and abdominal distention, what should be done?

A

DO NOT PERFORM TRANSURETHRAL CATHETER

    • risk of sepsis and abscess formation
  • *Suprapubic catheter insertion is best practice**
63
Q

If a patient who has been being treated for acute prostatitis, who is not getting any better? What might be going on and what should be the next step?

A

If a patient with acute prostatis is not getting better with appropriate antibiotics, then there might be an abscess formation walled off.
– CT Abd/Pelvis WITH Contrast (or US if poor renal function)

64
Q

What are the biggest risk factors for testicular cancer?

A
    • Cryptorchidism
    • Testicular cancer in contralateral testicle
    • Klinefelter
65
Q

What is the most common cause of testicular cancer in male over the age of 50?

A

– Testicular lymphoma

either primary from lymph tissue of testicle or metastatic from else where in the body

66
Q

What is the overall most common cause of testicular cancer type?

A

Germinal Cell Tumors

    • Seminoma
    • Nonseminoma
    • Mixed
67
Q

What might be warning sign symptoms of testicular cancer?

A
    • Painless testicular mass
    • Gynecomastia (too much estrogen)
    • Hyperthyroidism (hCG homology)
    • Abd pain / Pelvic pain
    • Weight loss
68
Q

What consists of a work up for a painless testicular mass?

A
  • Ultrasound is most important, if cancerous will have hypoechoic intratesticular mass
  • if positive then: serum markers
69
Q

What is the normal surgical approach to testicular cancer?

A
    • NO BIOPSY
    • Orchiectomy
    • Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
70
Q

If a patient with painless mass have elevated hCG, what type of cancer is likely causing it?

A

Nonseminoma

    • Embryonal Carcinoma
    • Choriocarcinoma
71
Q

What are the differences between the stages of testicular cancer, how is it performed?

A

Orchiectomy and radiographic imaging

  • Stage 1 – no clinical, radiographic, marker evidence beyound the testis
  • Stage 2 – Retroperitoneal adenopathy (radiographic or palpable), normal serum markers after orchiectomy
  • Stage 3 – Visceral involvement
72
Q

What is the difference in treatment between nonseminomas and seminomas?

A

Both involve orchiectomy with radiation / chemotherapy

– Nonseminoma –> includes retroperitoneal lymph dissection

73
Q

What are the most common chemotherapies used for testicular cancer?

A
    • Bleomycin
    • Etoposide
    • Cisplatin (any platinum containing)
74
Q

What are risk factors for urethral strictures?

A
    • repeative infections / inflammation to the urethra
    • repeative catheters
    • past surgeries or trauma
    • radiation
    • pelvic fractures
75
Q

If a patient has difficulty voiding with hydronephrosis and a past history of prostate cancer with radiation, what might need to be done?

A

Retrograde Urethrogram

76
Q

What are the most common treatment options if a urethral stricture is discovered and causing symptoms/

A
    • urethral dilation with balloon
    • endoscopic urethrotomy
    • stenting
    • suprapubic catheterization
77
Q

If a young patient has sudden onset of lower abdominal pain and testicular and his pain is not relieved by elevation of the testicle, what should you be concerned about?

A

Testicular Torsion

    • Cremasteric Reflex will also be absent
    • Needs immediate surgery
78
Q

What is the most common cause and who are at risk for priapism?

A
    • Hematologic disorders – Sickle Cell, G6PH, leukemia, thalassemia
    • Neurologic disorder – spinal cord lesions/trauma
    • MEDICATIONS – trazodone, IM for ED
79
Q

What is the cause of priapism in patients with sickle cell and how is it managed?

A

– mechanical occlusion of venous flow and ischemia
+Aspiration of blood, saline irrigation, adrenergic agonist
+ blood exchange transfusion
+surgical intervention if 12hours+

80
Q

How is priapism managed differently if sickle cell vs other causes?

A

Non-sickle cell causes:

– Intracavernosal Phenylephrine (vasoconstrict)

81
Q

If a patient begins experiencing colicky lumbar pain that suddenly develops into chills and high febile spikes with continued flank pain. What should be done first?

A

Non-contrast abdominal CT and Renal US

    • Acute Obstructive Pyelonephritis (most worrisome)
    • stone will be obstructing renal outflow
    • hydronephrosis / urinary tract ectasia
82
Q

If a patient is diagnosed with acute obstructed pyelonephritis, what needs to be done first for management?

A

Drainage of their urinary tract via ureteral catheterization or drain the kidney directly
– Start IV Abx