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Year 3 Renal > Urological Cancers > Flashcards

Urological Cancers Flashcards

1
Q

What investigations are done in anyone presenting with painless haematuria?

A

Flexible cystoscopy
CT urogram
Renal function

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2
Q

What investigations are done in anyone presenting with persistent non visible haematuria?

A

Flexible cystoscopy
US KUB
Less associated with cancer than visible

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3
Q

What is grading?

A

Looks at histology

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4
Q

What does ASA status assess?

A

How fit a patient is

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5
Q

Describe the epidemiology of bladder cancer?

A

10,200 new bladder cancer cases in the UK every year
Bladder cancer is the 11th most common cancer in the UK
Incidence and mortality declining

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6
Q

What are the types of bladder cancer?

A

> 90% of bladder cancer is transitional cell carcinoma

1-7% squamous cell carcinoma (75% SCC where schistosomiasis is endemic)

Adenocarcinoma(2%)

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7
Q

What are the risk factors for bladder cancer?

A

Smoking
Radiotherapy for other cancers
Chronic inflammation e.g. schistosomaisis
Occupational e.g. dye industry

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8
Q

What are the clinical features of bladder cancer?

A

Painless haematuria/persistent microscopic haematuria - red flag symptom

Suprapubic pain
Lower urinary tract symptoms
Metastatic disease symptoms –bone pain, lower limb swelling

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9
Q

What is cytoscopy

A

Excision and biopsy of lesion

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10
Q

What are the TNM staging guidelines for bladder cancer? (T)

A

Ta – non invasive papillary carcinoma
Tis – carcinoma in situ
T1 – invades subepithelial connective tissue
T2 – invades muscularis propria
T3 – invades perivesical fat
T4 – prostate, uterus, vagina, bowel, pelvic or abdominal wall

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11
Q

What are the TNM staging guidelines for bladder cancer? (N)

A

N1 – 1 LN below common iliac birufication
N2 - >1 LN below common iliac birufication
N3 – Mets in a common iliac LN

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12
Q

What are the TNM staging guidelines for bladder cancer? (M)

A

N3 – Mets in a common iliac LN

M1- distant mets

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13
Q

How is bladder cancer graded?

A 
G1 = well differentiated
G2 = moderate differentiated
G3 = poorly differentiate
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14
Q

What is the management protocol for non-muscle invasive bladder cancer?

A

If low grade and no CIS then consideration of cystoscopic surveillance

+/- intravesicular chemotherapy

BCG - elicits inflammatory response the reduces progression of lesion

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15
Q

What is the management protocol for muscle invasive bladder cancer?

A

Cystectomy

Radiotherapy

+/- chemotherapy

Palliative treatment

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16
Q

Describe the epidemiology of prostate cancer?

A

48,500 new prostate cancer cases in the UK every year
Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men within the UK
Incidence rising but mortality rates declining

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17
Q

What are the types of prostate cancer?

A

> 95% of prostate cancer is adenocarcinoma

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18
Q

What are the risk factors for prostate cancer?

A

Age
Western nations
African-americans

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19
Q

What is important about prostate cancer?

A

Often asymptomatic unless metastatic

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20
Q

What blood test is done to investigate prostate cancer?

A

PSA is prostate-specific but no prostate-cancer specific

Can be elevated in (UTI, prostatitis)

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21
Q

What has happened in the last 10 years with regards to management?

A

MRI prior to biopsy
Huge over-detection of low grade lesions that were not issues
Allows for more specific detection of high grade lesions - better idea of lesion locations

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22
Q

How is the biopsy conducted?

A

Trans perineal prostate biopsy:

Systematic template biopsies of the prostate

Widely used in most centres over transrectal biopsies as less risk of infection and able to sample all areas of the prostate

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23
Q

What are the TNM staging guidelines for prostate cancer? (T)

A

T1 – non palpable or visible on imaging
T2 – palpable tumour
T3 – beyond prostatic capsule into periprostatic fat
T4 – tumour fixed onto adjacent structure/pelvic side wall

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24
Q

What are the TNM staging guidelines for prostate cancer? (N)

A

N1 – regional LN (pelvis)

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25
What are the TNM staging guidelines for prostate cancer? (M)
M1a- non regional LN M1b- bone M1x- other sites
26
How is prostate cancer graded?
Gleason score Since multifocal two scores based on level of differentiation 2-6 = Well differentiated 7 = Moderately differentiated 8 – Poorly differentiated
27
How is prostate cancer treated in a young, fit person?
High grade cancer Radical prostatectomy/Radiotherapy Low grade cancer Active surveillance ( Regular PSA, MRI and Bx) Post prostatectomy – monitor PSA ( should be undetectable or <0.01ng/ml). If >0.2ng/ml then relapse
28
Why is there hesitancy to treat low grade lesions?
Erectile dysfunction | Urinary incontinence
29
How is prostate cancer treated in an old/unfit person?
high grade cancer/Metastatic disease Hormone therapy (lower testosterone) Low grade cancer Watchful waiting (regular PSA testing)
30
What are the potential side effects of prosatectomy?
The prostate contains the proximal sphincter Prostatectomy removes the proximal urethral sphincter and changes urethral length. Risk of damage to cavernous nerves ( innervation to bladder and urethra) Damage to cavernous nerves causes ED.
31
What is cytoscopy?
Telescope examination of the bladder done under GA Can be used to take biopsies and cauterise
32
What is the difference between watchful waiting and active surveillance?
Both monitoring PSA Active surveillance for those fit for surgery Watchful waiting - palliative hormone therapy
33
How does testicular cancer most commonly present?
Hard, painless nodules Young adult men (20-34 years) Gynaecomastia Hydrocele
34
What are RFs for testicular cancer?
``` Cryptochidism FH Prev diagnosis Testicular atrophy White ethnicity HIV infection ```
35
What are the investigations for testicular cancer?
``` US of testis CXR to check for lung mets CT to check for extra-testicular mets (enlarges retroperitoneal lymph nodes) bhCH elevated LDH elevated ```
36
What is the initial management for testicular cancer?
Inguinal orchiectomy Curative in early stages OR Testis sparing surgery 1. if wishing to preserve gonadal function 2. if 100% not tumour (markers, examination)
37
What occurs in TSS?
Multiple biopsies of the ipsilateral testicle normal parenchyma are obtained in addition to the suspicious mass for evaluation
38
What is the treatment for confirmed seminoma?
orchidectomy | chemotherapy and radiotherapy may be given depending on staging and tumour type
39
What tumour markers are raised in seminoma?
HCG elevated in 10% | LDH elevated in 10-20%
40
What is epidiymitis?
Acute inflammation of the epididymis, often involving the testis and usually caused by bacterial infection Lasts a few days and upto 6 weeks May be associated with LUTS
41
What causes epidiymitis?
Infection spreads from the urethra or bladder. In men <35 years, gonorrhoea or chlamydia are the usual infections Amiodarone can also cause it
42
What are are the presenting features of epidiymitis?
>19 yrs Unilateral scrotal pain and swelling (gradual onset) Tenderness Hot, red, swollen hemiscrotum
43
What are some RFs for epidiymitis?
Unprotected sex Bladder outflow obstruction e.g. BPH, urethral stricture Urethral catheterisation
44
What are the investigations for epidiymitis?
Gram stain of urethral sections (swab) | Urine dip/microscopy/culture
45
What is the management for epidiymitis?
Supportive and dependent on cause e.g. ABs Stop amiodarone
46
What is testicular torsion?
Twist of the spermatic cord resulting in testicular ischaemia and necrosis Urological emergency
47
What are the presenting features of testicular torsion?
Most common in males aged between 10 and 30 Pain is usually severe and of sudden onset. Elevation of testes does not ease pain Absent cremasteric reflex (lifting of testes on stroking inner thigh)
48
What are the investigations for testicular torsion?
US | Doppler
49
What is the management for testicular torsion?
Uro consult for emergency scrotal exploration Supportive care +/- prosthetic device Manual de-torsion
50
What is the most common cause of scrotal swelling?
Epididymal cysts separate from the body of the testicle found posterior to the testicle
51
What else might cause scrotal pain?
Hydrocele | Varicocele
52
What is hydrocele?
accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis
53
What is varicocele?
Abnormal enlargement of the testicular veins
54
What is erectile dysfunction?
persistent inability to attain and maintain an erection sufficient to permit satisfactory sexual performance
55
What are the two categories of causes of ED?
Organic | Psychogenic
56
What factors favour organic ED causes?
Gradual onset of symptoms Lack of tumescence Normal libido
57
What factors favour | pyschogenic ED causes?
``` Sudden onset of symptoms Decreased libido Good quality spontaneous or self-stimulated erections Major life events Problems or changes in a relationship Previous psychological problems History of premature ejaculation ```
58
What are RFs for erectile dysfunction?
cardiovascular disease risk factors: obesity, diabetes mellitus, dyslipidaemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, smoking alcohol use drugs: SSRIs, beta-blockers
59
What investigations are done for erectile dysfunction?
Q-risk check | Free testosterone measured in morning
60
What is the management for ED?
PDE-5 inhibitors (such as sildenafil, 'Viagra')
61
What are differentials for a groin lump?
``` Indirect inguinal hernia Direct inguinal hernia Femoral hernia Inguinal lymphadenopathy Psoas abscess/brsa Femoral aneurysm ```

Year 3 Renal (7 decks)

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