urological cancers Flashcards

1
Q

what is the epidemiology of kidney cancer?

A

13,100 new kidney cancer cases in the UK every year
Kidney cancer is the 7th most common cancer in the UK
Incidence and mortality rising

85% of kidney cancer is Renal Cell carcinoma(adenocarcinoma)(RCC)
10% transitional cell carcinoma, Sarcoma/Wilms tumour/other types(5%)

Risk factors: Smoking, Renal failure and dialysis, obesity, hypertension

Genetic predisposition with Von Hippel-lindau syndrome (50% of individuals will develop RCC)(

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the clinical features of kidney cancer?

A

Painless haematuria/persistent microscopic haematuria is a red flag symptom and can reflect any of these urological malignancies

Additional Features of RCC include:
Loin pain
Palpable mass

Metastatic disease symptoms: bone pain, haemoptysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what investigations are done for kidney cancer?

A

Painless visible Haematuria – more worrying:
Flexible cystoscopy (Flexible cysyoscopy looks inside the bladder
Can find transitional cell carcinoma, kidney stones, carcinoma in situ)
CT urogram
Renal function

Persistent non visible haematuria:
Flexible cystoscopy
US KUB

Suspected kidney cancer:
CT renal triple phase
staging CT chest
bone scan if symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is kidney cancer staged and graded?

A
TNM staging of RCC:
T1 – Tumour ≤ 7cm
T2 – Tumour >7cm
T3 – Extends outside kidney but not beyond ipsilateral adrenal or perinephric fascia
T4 – Tumour beyond perinephric fascia into surrounding structures
N1 – Met in single regional LN
N2 – met in ≥2 regional LN
M1- distant met

Fuhrman grade:
1 = well differentiated
2 = moderate differentiated
3 + 4 = poorly differentiated

1-3 based on nuclear size , 4 = presecence of sarcomatoid/rhabdoid differentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is kidney cancer managed?

A

Management:
Patient specific ( depends on the ASA status, comorbidities, classification of lesion)
Gold standard is excision either via:
Partial nephrectomy (single kidney, bilateral tumour, multifocal RCC in patients with VHL, T1 tumours (up to 7cm)
Radical Nephrectomy

In patents with small tumours unfit for surgery – Cryosurgery

Metastatic disease- Receptor Tyrosine Kinase inhibitors
immunotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the epidemiology of bladder cancer?

A

Epidemiology:
10,200 new bladder cancer cases in the UK every year
Bladder cancer is the 11th most common cancer in the UK
Incidence and mortality declining

Types of cancer:
>90% of bladder cancer is transitional cell carcinoma, 1-7% squamous cell carcinoma (75% SCC where schistosomiasis is endemic), Adenocarcinoma(2%)(2)

causes:
Smoking, occupational exposure( aromatic hydrocarbons), chronic inflammation of bladder (bladder stones, schistosomiasis, long term catheter), drugs (cyclophosphamide), Radiotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the clinical features of bladder cancer?

A

Painless haematuria/persistent microscopic haematuriais a red flag symptom and can reflect any of these urological malignancies

Additional Features of bladder cancer include:
Suprapubic pain
Lower urinary tract symptoms
Metastatic disease symptoms –bone pain, lower limb swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what investigations are done for bladder cancer?

A

Painless visible Haematuria:
Flexible cystoscopy
CT urogram
Renal function

Persistent microscopic haematuria:
Flexible cystoscopy
US KUB

If biopsy proven muscle invasive then staging investigations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how is bladder cancer staged and graded?

A

TNM staging of Bladder cancer:
Ta – non invasive papillary carcinoma
Tis – carcinoma in situ
T1 – invades subepithelial connective tissue
T2 – invades muscularis propria
T3 – invades perivesical fat
T4 – prostate, uterus, vagina, bowel, pelvic or abdominal wall
N1 – 1 LN below common iliac birufication
N2 - >1 LN below common iliac birufication
N3 – Mets in a common iliac LN
M1- distant mets

WHO classification:
G1 = well differentiated
G2 = moderate differentiated
G3 = poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is Cystoscopy + transurethral resection of bladder lesion?

A

A transurethral resection of bladder lesion uses heat to cut out all visible bladder tumour.

This provides histology and also can be curative.

However, if the tumour extends beyond muscle then the resection is incomplete due to the risk of perforating the bladder

Might follow after a flexible cystoscopy if seen some changes suggestive of cancer

This scope is rigid (unlike flexible cystoscopy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the management of bladder cancer?

A

Non Muscle Invasive:
-If low grade and no Carcinoma in situ then consideration of cystoscopic surveillance +/- intravesicular chemotherapy/BCG

Muscle Invasive:
Cystectomy
Radiotherapy
\+/- chemotherapy
Palliative treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the epidemiology of prostate cancer?

A

Epidemiology:
48,500 new prostate cancer cases in the UK every year
Prostate cancer is the most common cancer in men within the UK
Incidence rising but mortality rates declining

Types of cancer:
>95% of prostate cancer is adenocarcinoma

Risk factors: Increasing age, Western nations(Scandinavian countries), Ethnicity(African Americans)

Clinical Feature:
Usually asymptomatic unless metastatic

PSA screening, prostatic specific antigen – can be a biomarker for prostate cancer, especially in keeping with clinical findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what investigations are done for prostate cancer?

A

Blood tests:
PSA is prostate-specific but not prostate-cancer specific
Can be elevated in (UTI, prostatitis)

MRI :
Management paradigm for suspected prostate cancer has shifted towards imaging prior to biopsy testing.
Historically random biopsies of the prostate were associated with an under detection of high grade (clinically significant) prostate cancer and over detection of low grade(clinically insignificant) prostate cancer.
Several large RCT’s have shown that the use of risk assessment with multiparametric MRI before biopsy and MRI targeted biopsy is superior to the previous gold standard of transrectal ultrasonography-guided prostate biopsies.

Trans perineal prostate biopsy:
Systematic template biopsies of the prostate
Widely used in most centres over transrectal biopsies as less risk of infection and able to sample all areas of the prostate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how is prostate cancer staged and graded?

A
TNM staging of prostate cancer:
T1 – non palpable or visible on imaging
T2 – palpable tumour
T3 – beyond prostatic capsule into periprostatic fat
T4 – tumour fixed onto adjacent structure/pelvic side wall
N1 – regional LN (pelvis)
M1a-  non regional LN
M1b- bone
M1x- other sites

Gleason score:
Since multifocal two scores based on level of differentiation

2-6 = Well differentiated
7 = Moderately differentiated
8 – Poorly differentiated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how is prostate cancer managed?

A

Highly dependent on patient age/comorbidities and stage and grade of prostate cancer

If young and fit:
+ High grade cancer -> Radical prostatectomy/Radiotherapy
+ Low grade cancer -> Active surveillance ( Regular PSA, MRI and Bx)

Post prostatectomy – monitor PSA ( should be undetectable or <0.01ng/ml). If >0.2ng/ml then relapse

if old/unfit:
+ high grade cancer/Metastatic disease -> Hormone therapy
+ Low grade cancer -> Watchful waiting (regular PSA testing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are side effects of prostate cancer treatment?

A

The prostate contains the proximal sphincter (proximal sphincter is smooth muscle, distal is striated. distal sphincter is more likely to be damaged)

Prostatectomy removes the proximal urethral sphincter and changes urethral length.

Risk of damage to cavernous nerves (innervation to bladder and urethra)

Damage to cavernous nerves causes erectile dysfunction