Urological Cancer Flashcards

1
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of prostate cancer?

A

Localised disease can present with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS):

  • Urinary frequency
  • Nocturia
  • Weak/interrupted flow
  • Urinary urgency

More advanced localised disease may also cause:

  • haematuria
  • dysuria
  • incontinence
  • haematospermia
  • suprapubic pain
  • loin pain
  • rectal tenesmus.

Metastatic disease may cause:

  • bone pain
  • lethargy
  • anorexia
  • unexplained weight loss.
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2
Q

Differential diagnosis of prostate cancer (3)?

A
  • Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH): a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, will also cause LUTS symptoms initially
    Prostatitis: inflammation of the prostate gland. Patients usually present with perineal pain, with neutrophils seen on urinalysis
    Other causes of haematuria: these may include bladder cancer, urinary stones, urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis
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3
Q

Which laboratory tests must be performed in patients presenting with symptoms indicative of prostate cancer?

A
  • Serum PSA
  • FBP
  • U&E
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4
Q

A 54 year old male patient presents to you with urinary frequency, nocturia x 3, and hesitancy. What should you, the GP, do next?

A
  • Full history - are there infective symptoms? Drug history? Family history?
  • Urinalysis for glycosuria/infection
  • CBG
  • DR examination (size/shape/symmetry/texture/firmness/nodules/bogginess?
  • Serum PSA/FBP/U&E
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5
Q

Serum PSA has low specificity. In what conditions/circumstances is it elevated?

A
  • Prostate cancer
  • BPH
  • Prostatitis
  • Vigorous exercise
  • Post-ejaculation
  • Recent DR examination
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6
Q

Outside of serum PSA what additional investigation(s) are required to diagnose prostate cancer?

A

PROSATIC TISSUE BIOPSY GOLD STANDARD! TWO OPTIONS:
Transperineal biopsy – this involves sampling prostatic tissue transperineally in a systematic manner, done as a day case under general anaesthetic. The transperineal approach allows better access to the anterior part of the prostate and also has a lower risk of infection
TransRectal UltraSound-guided (TRUS) biopsy– this involves sampling the prostate transrectally, usually under local anaesthetic. Generally 12 cores are taken bilaterally in equal distribution from base to apex. Transrectal biopsies are associated with a 1-2% risk of sepsis.

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7
Q

Discuss the Gleason Grading System for prostate cancer

A
  • Scoring system based on histology
  • 1 = well-differentiated (small, uniform glands)
  • 5 = anaplastic (very rarely gland forming)
  • Sum of most common histological growth pattern and most aggressive pattern
  • Lowest score = 3+3
  • Higher scores = poor prognosis
  • In practice is used in conjunction with TNM staging and PSA levels to determine prognosis
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8
Q

What are the gold-standard radiological investigations?

A

MRI pelvic + isotope bone scan

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9
Q

Which three parameters are used in informing the management of prostate cancer (risk stratification)?

A
  • PSA levels
  • Gleason score
  • Clinical stage

*discussed at MDT

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10
Q

What management options are available in prostate cancer?

A
  • Active surveillance
  • Radical prostatectomy
  • Brachytherapy
  • Radiotherapy
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11
Q

Management in low-risk prognostic grouping?

A

Active surveillance (3-monthly PSA, 6 month to yearly DRE, and re-biopsy at 1-3 yearly intervals assessing for progression and intervening at the appropriate time)

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12
Q

Management in intermediate to high risk prognostic groups?

A

Radical treatment options should be discussed with all men with intermediate risk disease and high risk disease with realistic disease control. Those with intermediate risk can also be offered active surveillance (should not be offered for high risk disease)

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13
Q

Management in metastatic disease?

A

Chemotherapy agents and anti-hormonal agents can be used in metastatic prostate cancer

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14
Q

What is the mainstay surgical management and what are the side-effects?

A
  • Laparoscopic radical prostatectomy (remove prostate gland, seminal vesicles, +/- removal of pelvic lymph nodes)
  • Side-effects = erectile dysfunction, stress incontinence and bladder neck stenosis
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15
Q

Discuss the two modalities of radiotherapy used in prostate cancer

A
  • External-beam radiotherapy and brachytherapy - curative intervention for localised prostate cancer
  • Brachytherapy involves the transperineal implantation of radioactive seeds (usually Iodine-125) directly into the prostate gland, whilst external-beam radiotherapy uses focused radiotherapy to target the prostate gland and limiting damage to surrounding tissues.
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16
Q

When is chemotherapy indicated in prostate cancer?

A

Metastatic prostate cancer

17
Q

Why are anti-androgen therapies used in prostate cancer?

A

As prostate cancer growth is stimulated by circulating androgens (testosterone), androgen deprivation therapies are regularly used, such as via gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonists (e.g. goserelin)

18
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of renal cancer?

A
  • Haematuria (visible and non-visible; most common)
  • Incidental CT finding (second most common)
  • Flank pain
  • Flank mass
  • Lethargy
  • Unexplained weight loss
  • Classic triad of haematuria, mass, and flank pain (rare)
  • Left-sided masses may also present with a left varicocoele, due to compression of the left testicular vein as it joins the left renal vein.
19
Q

Differential diagnosis of haematuria?

A
  • Other urological malignancy
  • Renal stones
  • UTI
20
Q

What are the risk factors for renal cell carcinoma?

A
  • SMOKING!
  • Industrial exposure to carcinogens
  • Dialysis
  • Hypertension
  • Obesity
  • PCKD/Horse shoe kidneys (anatomical abnormalities)
21
Q

What investigations will you perform in a patient suspicious of renal malignancy?

A
  • MSSU (confirm haematuria)
  • FBC
  • Coagulation screen
  • U&E
  • USS
  • CT abdo-pelvis with IV contrast (gold standard)
  • Renal biopsy
22
Q

How is localised renal malignancy managed?

A
  • Surgical management (laparoscopic/open)
  • Partial nephrectomy for smaller tumours
  • Large tumours may require radical nephrectomy to remove kidney/perinephric fat/lymph nodes en bloc
23
Q

How is metastatic renal cell carcinoma managed?

A
  • No place for chemotherapy (does not respond)
  • Radical nephrectomy + immunotherapy indicated
  • Biological agents
  • Metastectomy of solitary mets
24
Q

Which histological sub-type is the most common bladder cancer?

A
  • TCC (80-90%)
  • SCC (2nd)
  • Adenocarcinoma (rare)
  • Sarcoma (rarer)
25
Q

How are bladder cancers classified?

A
  • Non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer – does not penetrate into the deeper layers of the bladder wall (around 70-80% cases)
  • Muscle-invasive bladder cancer – penetrates into the deeper layers of the bladder wall
  • Locally advanced or metastatic bladder cancer – spreading beyond the bladder and distally
26
Q

Risk factors for bladder cancer?

A
  • SMOKING!
  • Industrial carcinogens
  • Schistosomiasis infection (SCC)
  • Previous pelvic radiotherapy
27
Q

What are the signs

and symptoms of bladder cancer?

A
  • Painless haematuria (visible/non-visible)
  • Recurrent UTIs
  • Recurrent LUTS (frequency, urgency, feeling of incomplete voiding)
28
Q

How are suspected bladder cancers investigated?

A
  • Urgent flexible cystoscopy
  • Rigid cystoscopy if suspicious lesion identified
  • Any lesions found via rigid cystoscopy require biopsy and potential transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT)
  • CT staging required prior to TURBT if muscle-invasive bladder cancer suspected
29
Q

How is muscle-invasive bladder cancer managed?

A

If patient fit they will go for radical cystectomy for curative intent + neo-adjuvant chemotherapy OR patient can undergo radical radiotherapy with curative intent

30
Q

How is non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer managed?

A
  • May be resected via TURBT +/- adjuvant intra-vesicular therapy (BCG) in outpatient setting