Urological Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common symptom of metastatic prostate cancer?

A

Lower back pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prostate cancer - risk factors?

A

AGE (increasing)
(60% prev. in men over 75s)

FAMILY HISTORY
4x more likely if one 1st degree relative diagnosed with CaP before age 60

GENETICS
although rare, also play a part, as men who possess the BRCA2 or BRCA1 gene are at greater risk. (BRACA2 MORE SIGNIFICANT)

ETHNICITY
Black or carabian

HEIGHT
Tall stature

USE OF ANABOLIC STEROIDS

LESS SIGNIFICANT + MODIFIABLE
obesity, diabetes mellitus, smoking (associated with increased risk of prostate cancer death), and degree of exercise (considered protective).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What subtypes of prostate cancer are most common?

A

95%: ADENOCARCINOMA

  • Acinar adenocarcinoma
  • Ductal adenocarcinoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where does the most common type of prostate cancer originate from?

A

Acinar adenocarcinoma – originates in the glandular cells that line the prostate gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where does the second most common type of prostate cancer originate from?

A

Ductal adenocarcinoma – originates in the cells that line the ducts of the prostate gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of prostate adenocarcinoma tends to grow and metastasise faster?

A

Ductal adenocarcinoma (as opposed to the more common, acinar adenocarcinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Examples of LUTS that prostate cancer may present with?

A

Localised disease can present with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) including:

weak urinary stream
increased urinary frequency
urinary urgency
terminal dribbling
nocturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What symptoms might more advanced prostate cancer present?

A

More advanced localised disease may also cause:

Haematuria
Dysuria
Incontinence
Haematospermia
Suprapubic pain
Loin pain
Rectal tenesmus.

Any metastatic disease may cause, amongst others:

Bone pain
Lethargy
Anorexia
Unexplained weight loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

From what area do most prostate adenocarcinomas arise from?

A

The posterior peripheral zone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

DDx for prostate cancer?

A

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) – a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland, will also cause LUTS symptoms initially

Prostatitis – inflammation of the prostate gland; patients usually present with perineal pain, with neutrophils seen on urinalysis

Other causes of haematuria – these may include bladder cancer, urinary stones, urinary tract infections, and pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A Digital Rectal Examination (DRE) is essential if a diagnosis of prostate cancer is suspected*, as most prostate adenocarcinomas arise from the posterior peripheral zone.

What should be checked for and what might various findings present?

A

The examination should be checking for evidence of asymmetry, nodularity, or a fixed irregular mass.

A benign prostate feels smooth, symmetrical and slightly soft, with a maintained central sulcus (the dip in the middle between the right and left lobe). There may be generalised enlargement in prostatic hyperplasia.

An infected or inflamed prostate (prostatitis) may be enlarged, tender and warm.

A cancerous prostate may feel firm or hard, asymmetrical, craggy or irregular, with loss of the central sulcus. There may be a hard nodule. Any of these features can indicate prostate cancer and warrant further investigation. In primary care, these findings require a two week wait urgent cancer referral to urology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the standard method for diagnosing prostate cancer?

A

The current standard method for diagnosing prostate cancer is through biopsies of prostatic tissue:

Although there are two potential methods, there is a general trend towards performing only transperineal due to the decreased risk of infection:

Transperineal biopsy – can be done either as a template biopsy (A), which used a grid-like template, sampling of prostatic tissue in a systematic manner, or as a freehand biopsy, where sampling is guided by both intra-procedure ultrasound and mpMRI

TransRectal UltraSound-guided (TRUS) biopsy (B) – this involves sampling the prostate transrectally, using ultrasound as guidance and then sampling of prostatic tissue in a systematic manner

Multiparametric MRI of the prostate is now the usual first-line investigation for suspected localised prostate cancer. The results are reported on a Likert scale, scored as:

1 – very low suspicion
2 – low suspicion
3 – equivocal
4 – probable cancer
5 – definite cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is recommended after previous negative prostatic tissue biopsy for men with rising or persistently elevated PSA and/or suspicious DRE?

A

Repeat prostate biopsy after previous negative biopsy is recommended for men with rising or persistently elevated PSA and/or suspicious DRE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How are prostate cancers graded?

A

The Gleason grading system is a scoring system by which prostate cancers are graded, based upon their histological appearance.

It is specific to prostate cancer and helps to determine what treatment is most appropriate. The greater the Gleason score, the more poorly differentiated the tumour is (the cells have mutated further from normal prostate tissue) and the worse the prognosis is. The tissue samples are graded 1 (closest to normal) to 5 (most abnormal).

The Gleason score will be made up of two numbers added together for the total score (for example, 3 + 4 = 7):

The first number is the grade of the most prevalent pattern in the biopsy
The second number is the grade of the second most prevalent pattern in the biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What Gleason score is considered a low risk?

A

6 or below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What Gleason score is considered an intermediate risk?

A

7 is intermediate risk (3 + 4 is lower risk than 4 + 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What Gleason score is considered to be hight risk?

A

8 or above is deemed to be high risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How and when might prostate cancer be staged?

A

Typically a patient has already undergone a MRI scan of the prostate for the initial diagnosis of a prostate cancer. Once confirmed, further staging imaging is required.

Staging of prostate cancer is typically done for men with intermediate or high-risk disease. Staging is accomplished with CT chest-abdomen-pelvis scan and PET-CT nuclear medicine scan.

An isotope bone scan (also called a radionuclide scan or bone scintigraphy) can be used to look for bony metastasis.

A radioactive isotope is given by intravenous injection, followed by a short wait (2-3 hours) to allow the bones to take up the isotope. A gamma camera is used to take pictures of the entire skeleton. Metastatic bone lesions take up more of the isotope, making them stand out on the scan.

Gleason score given based on histology

TNM staging

19
Q

The two methods for prostatic tissue biopsy are:
Transrectal ultrasound-guided biopsy (TRUS)
Transperineal biopsy (increasingly more common)

What are the main risks?

A

Pain (particularly lower abdominal, rectal or perineal pain)
Bleeding (blood in the stools, urine or semen)
Infection
Urinary retention due to short term swelling of the prostate
Erectile dysfunction (rare)

20
Q

Components of TNM staging: prostate cancer

A

T for Tumour:

TX – unable to assess size
T1 – too small to be felt on examination or seen on scans
T2 – contained within the prostate
T3 – extends out of the prostate
T4 – spread to nearby organs

N for Nodes:

NX – unable to assess nodes
N0 – no nodal spread
N1 – spread to lymph nodes

M for Metastasis:

M0 – no metastasis
M1 – metastasis

21
Q

When should a patient be referred urgently to a urological cancer specialist?

A

Urgent referral to a urological cancer specialist should be arranged if prostate cancer is suspected either because the prostate is hard and nodular on DRE, or there is benign enlargement (smooth, firm, enlarged gland).

Urgent referral should be considered if a person’s PSA level is above the threshold for their age (for example, more than 4.5 in a person aged 60–69 years). The person’s preferences and any comorbidities should be taken into consideration when making the decision.

22
Q

What should the very initial assessment in primary care for prostate cancer include?

A

A digital rectal examination (DRE).
A prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test.

23
Q

Common causes of raised PSA?

A

Prostate cancer
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
Prostatitis
Urinary tract infections
Vigorous exercise (notably cycling)
Recent ejaculation or prostate stimulation

24
Q

How is prostate cancer risk stratified?

A

PSA
Clinical stage (T)
Gleason Score

25
Q

Low risk prostate cancer?

A

PSA <10
Gleason score 6 or less
Clinical stage T1-T2a

26
Q

Intermediate risk prostate cancer

A

PSA 10-20
Gleason score 7
Clinical stage T2b

27
Q

High risk prostate cancer

A

PSA>20
Gleason score above 8-10
Clinical stage T2c and beyond

28
Q

Prostate cancer management: low risk disease

A

Most can be offered active surveillance, radical treatments offered to those who show evidence of disease progression

Watchful waiting is a symptom-guided approach (reserved for older patients with shorter life expectancy) to prostate cancer management where therapy is deferred and initiated at time of symptomatic disease. The intent is not curative.

Active surveillance requires monitoring of patients with 3-monthly PSA, 6 month to yearly DRE, and re-biopsy at 1-3 yearly intervals assessing for progression and intervening at the appropriate time. Mp-MRI is also being used increasingly in such protocols.

29
Q

Prostate cancer management: intermediate and high risk disease

A

Radical treatment options should be discussed with all men with intermediate risk disease and high risk disease with realistic disease control:

  • Locally advanced: Radical radiotherapy (if 10-year life expectancy) with adjuvant hormones
    If less fit, discuss early vs deferred hormones only
  • Localised: Radical prostatectomy -Robotic approach is now standard
    Radiotherapy
    External beam
    Brachytherapy

Those with intermediate risk can also be offered active surveillance

30
Q

When might active surveillance be used in prostate cancer, and what does it involve?

A

Active surveillance can be offered to select patients with curable low-risk disease and for some cases of intermediate-risk disease. Curative treatment is considered when disease progression is noted, which can defer or avoid considerable morbidity associated with radical therapy.

Active surveillance requires monitoring of patients with 3-monthly PSA, 6 month to yearly DRE, and re-biopsy at 1-3 yearly intervals assessing for progression and intervening at the appropriate time. Mp-MRI is also being used increasingly in such protocols.

31
Q

What can be used in metastatic prostate cancer?

A

Chemotherapy agents and anti-hormonal agents can be used in metastatic prostate cancer

Treatment:

Hormones (+ Upfront enzalutamide [strong angrogen receptor antagonist] if good performance status)
Surgical castration
Medical castration (LHRH agonists)

Consider Prednisolone + Docetaxel chemotherapy

Enzalutamide (5x stronger antagonist of androgen receptor than bicalutamide)

Prednisolone + Abiraterone (abiraterone irreversibly blocks cytochrome P17 [involved in the production of testosterone])

Palliation:

Single-dose radiotherapy
Bisphosphonates
- Zoledronic acid

32
Q

Prostate cancer: surgical management

A

The mainstay surgical treatment for prostate cancer consists of a radical prostatectomy. This involves the removal of the prostate gland, resection of the seminal vesicles, along with the surrounding tissue +/- dissection of the pelvic lymph nodes.

This procedure can also be performed with an open approach, laparoscopically or robotically.

Side effects of radical prostatectomy include erectile dysfunction (affecting 60-90% of men), stress incontinence and bladder neck stenosis.

33
Q

Prostate cancer: radiotherapy

A

External-beam radiotherapy and brachytherapy are both commonly used alternatives as a form of curative intervention for localised prostate cancer.

Brachytherapy involves the transperineal implantation of radioactive seeds (usually Iodine-125) directly into the prostate gland, whilst external-beam radiotherapy uses focused radiotherapy to target the prostate gland and limiting damage to surrounding tissues.

34
Q

Prostate cancer: androgen deprication therapy

A

Androgren deprivation therapy (ADT) is the mainstay of management of metastatic prostate cancer and improves outcomes in patients undergoing radiotherapy, as prostate cancer cells undergo apoptosis when deprived of testosterone.

Options include anti-androgens (e.g. bicalutamide), gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonists (e.g. goserelin) and antagonists (e.g. degarelix) or surgical castration. Newer hormone therapies now exist, such as the drugs enzalutamide and abiraterone, acting to lower levels of serum testosterone.

BICALUTAMIDE
GOSERELIN
DEGARELIX

35
Q

Prostate cancer: chemotherapy

A

Chemotherapy is usually only indicated in patients with metastatic prostate cancer. Some examples of chemotherapy drugs used include docetaxel or cabazitaxel.

36
Q

What is bicalutamide?

A

Androgren deprivation therapy (ADT) - anti-androgen

37
Q

What is goserelin?

A

Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, used as ADT

38
Q

Side effects of radical prostatectomy?

A

Side effects of radical prostatectomy include erectile dysfunction (affecting 60-90% of men), stress incontinence and bladder neck stenosis.

39
Q

Side effects of ADT?

A

Hot flushes
Sexual dysfunction
Gynaecomastia
Fatigue
Osteoporosis

40
Q

Which patients benefit most from a TURP?

A

Younger men (age <70), intermediate/high risk localised CaP, PSA <20
For technical reasons, BMI <35.

41
Q

What cancers may cause haematuria?

A

Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Upper tract TCC
Bladder carcinoma
Advanced prostate carcinoma

42
Q

What non-cancerous conditions may cause haematuria?

A

Stones
Infection
Inflammation
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (large)
Nephrological causes

43
Q

Urology Haematuria clinic-investigations

A

FLEXIBLE Cystoscopy
Ultrasound
Urine cytology?