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Urogenital and STI Flashcards

1
Q

describe UTI

A
  • most frequent healthcare-associated infection
  • often results when fecal bacteria is self-inoculated into urethra
  • more common in females
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2
Q

what is the most common type of UTI

A

cystitis (bladder infection)

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3
Q

what is the number one cause of UTI

A

E. coli

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4
Q

true or false - >80% of cases are causes by uropathogenic strains of e. coli (UPEC)

A

true

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5
Q

is UPEC part of the normal GI microbiota

A

yes

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6
Q

what are signs and symptoms of bacterial cystitis

A
  • dysuria = burning or pain upon urination
  • urgency to urinate
  • pyuria = pus in urine, cloudy, foul odor
  • hematuria = blood in the urine
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7
Q

what are some complications of a UTI

A
  • sometimes the UTI progresses to pyelonephritis
    • the infection inflames the kidneys
    • repeated episodes lead to scarring; can
      cause kidney failure
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8
Q

describe vulvovaginal candidiasis

A
  • aka vaginal yeast infection
  • causative agent:
    • candida albicans
      • commensal yeast
      • part of microbiota on mucosal surfaces
        in mouth, skin, and female genital tract
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9
Q

describe candida albicans

A
  • it is part of normal vaginal microbiota in about third of all women
    • infections are endogenous - derived from host’s own normal microbiota
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10
Q

what kind of pathogen is candida albicans

A

opportunistic fungal pathogen
- antibiotics, pregnancy, or menstruation can disrupt the balance of the normal vaginal microbiota and allow overgrowth

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11
Q

how is candida albicans transmitted

A

by contact
- rarely via sex

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12
Q

what are signs/symptoms of a yeast infection

A
  • constant, intense itching and burning of vagina or vulva
  • thick, clumpy whitish vaginal discharge
  • vaginal mucosa usually red, swollen
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13
Q

what is the diagnosis of a yeast infection

A
  • wet preparation of gram’s stain of vaginal discharge and examine microscopically
    • yeast stain gram positive
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14
Q

what is the treatment of a yeast infection

A
  • prescription oral antifungal in a single dose
  • over-the-counter intravaginal cream
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15
Q

how are STI’s spread and are they reported

A
  • spread through
    • sexual contact (vaginal/penile, anal or oral)
    • sometimes also vertical transmission
  • majority of cases go unreported
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16
Q

MKE is #7 for bacterial

A

STIs
- gonorrhea, chlamydia, and syphilis

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17
Q

what is the common age to get infected with a bacterial STI in the U.S.

A

15-24 years old

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18
Q

what are some stigmas against STI

A
  • failure to disclose disease or risk status
  • failure to seek treatment
  • underestimation of risk
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19
Q

what is the prevention of STI

A
  • no vaccine for most STI (HPV is exception)
  • widespread testing and treating those are infected; and contact tracing
  • using latex condoms
  • having a monogamous relationship with a non infected person
  • abstaining from sex
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20
Q

what are some characteristics of bacterial STI

A
  • survive poorly in the environment
  • humans are the only known reservoir
  • may be associated with sores or unusual discharge
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21
Q

how are bacterial STI transmitted

A
  • via intimate physical contact
    • oral, anal, vaginal/penile contact
    • vertical transmission from mother to baby
      during birth
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22
Q

describe neisseria gonorrheae

A
  • neisseria is the only genus of gram-negative cocci that regularly causes disease in humans
  • arranged as diplococci
  • informal name = gonoccocci
  • virulence factors include fimbriae and endotoxin
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23
Q

true or false - men are more symptomatic than women for gonorrhea and women are often asymptomatic

A

true

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24
Q

what are signs/symptoms of gonorrhea in men

A
  • gonococcal urethritis
  • thick, purulent discharge from the penis
  • pain and burning during urination
  • noticeable, unpleasant symptoms -> seek treatment
    • preventing serious sequelae, but not soon
      enough to prevent transmission to other
      sex partners
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25
Q

what are signs/symptoms of gonorrhea in women

A
  • infects mucosa of uterine cervix and urethral mucosa but is often asymptomatic
  • cervicitis = if symptomatic, discharge from the vagina or intermenstrual bleeding
  • bacteria may spread upward to the fallopian tubes, causing salpingitis, a manifestation of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
  • often undiagnosed and untreated until PID complications develop
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26
Q

describe pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

A
  • ascending infection of the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and adjacent peritoneal linings
  • abdominal pain and tenderness
  • complications of salpingitis:
    • tubal scarring
    • infertility and/or ectopic pregnancy and/or
      chronic pelvic pain
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27
Q

describe gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum

A
  • aka neonatal conjuctivitis
  • infection occurs during childbirth from infected mothers
  • swelling and purulent discharge
  • can progress rapidly to corneal damage -> blindness
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28
Q

true or false - gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum is more severe than chalmydia

A

true

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29
Q

what kind of treatment is used for gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum

A
  • prophylactic treatment
    • uses silver nitrate or erythromycin
      application in eyes of all newborns within
      one hour
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30
Q

which is correct description of what a lab technician would view under the microscope when analyzing a gram stain of vaginal discharge from a patient with gonorrhea?
- gram positive cocci arranged in clusters
- gram positive bacilli
- gram negative diplococci
- gram negative cocci arranged in clusters
- gram negative bacilli

A

gram negative diplococci

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31
Q

what is the diagnosis of gonorrhea

A
  • gram negative diplococci in gram stain of patient specimen
  • interfering microbiota complicates interpretation of gram stain for women
  • asymptomatic cases identified by PCR
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32
Q

what is the treatment of gonorrhea

A
  • there were several strains in 2011 that were resistant to at least one antibiotic
  • treat with combination antibiotic therapy
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33
Q

describe chlamydia trachomatis

A
  • gram-negative bact
  • tiny, pleomorphic cells
  • non-motile
  • obligate intracellular pathogen
    • depend on host cell for ATP production
    • grows inside vesicles within host cells
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34
Q

what is the developmental cycle of chlamydia trachomatis

A
  • elementary bodies are the infectious form
  • reticulate bodies are the replicating form
    • both forms develop within the vesicle of a
      host cell
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35
Q

describe elementary body (EB) of chlamydial life cycle

A
  • small
  • non-replicating
  • extracellular
  • infectious
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36
Q

describe reticulate body (RB) of chlamydial life cycle

A
  • larger
  • replicating
  • intracellular
  • noninfectious
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37
Q

what does an elevated neutrophil count most likely indicate?
- a bacterial infection
- a viral infection
- an antibody repsonse

A

a bacterial infection (chlamydia)

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38
Q

case study - a 25 year old man comes to the clinic complaining of a penile discharge for three days. A gram stain of the urethral discharge was performed. Numerous neutrophils were seen, but there were no visible bacteria. The sexual history revealed that the patient had been having unprotected sexual relations with one female partner during the past 6 months. The girlfriend had no symptoms and felt well. What bacterial infection do they most likely have?

A

chlamydia

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39
Q

Like gonorrhea, the majority of infected females are asymptomatic and therefore persist untreated. This can sometimes lead to infertility. How do you think chlamydia may result in infertility?
- C. trachomatis destroys oocytes
- inflammation and consequent scarring block the fallopian tubes
- granulomas form around the bacteria in the vagina blocking sperm
- C. trachomatis secretes an enzyme that destroys sperm

A

inflammation and consequent scarring block the fallopian tubes

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40
Q

describe chlamydia in males

A
  • about 75% show symptoms
  • non-gonococcal urethritis (NGU)
  • watery thin gray-white discharge from penis
  • dysuria
41
Q

describe chlamydia in female

A
  • usually (about 85%) asymptomatic
  • PID may develop -> salpingitis
  • increases risk for infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and chronic pelvic pain
42
Q

describe chlamydial disease in newborns

A
  • baby becomes infected from mother as it passes through birth canal
  • develop:
    • chlamydial pneumonia
    • chlamydial ophthalmia neonatorum
43
Q

describe chlamydial ophthalmia neonatorum

A
  • aka neonatal conjunctivitis
  • discharge is usually more watery in nature and eyes are less inflamed than with gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum
44
Q

routine chlamydia screening is recommended for:

A
  • sexually active women under age 25
  • men and women at high risk (I.e., not in a monogamous relationship)
  • pregnant women
45
Q

what is the diagnosis and treatment of chlamydia

A
  • urine or cervical swab is tested via PCR for chlamydial DNA
    • because it is an obligate intracellular
      parasite, chlamydia can’t be cultured on
      agar
    • gram strain of urethral and cervical shows
      discharge shows many PMNs but no
      bacteria
  • treat with antibiotics
46
Q

describe treponema pallidum

A
  • gram negative (lacks LPS)
    • don’t stain well with gram stain due to thin
      cell wall
  • causes syphilis which can be a chronic disease
47
Q

what is the shape of treponema pallidum

A
  • spirochete
  • posses endoflagella -> motility
48
Q

true or false - treponema pallidum can cross the placenta and cause developmental defects (teratogen)

A

true

49
Q

how does treponema pallidum evade the immune response

A

because it lacks outer membrane proteins and LPS

50
Q

what are the stages of syphilis

A
  • inoculation
  • primary syphilis
  • secondary syphilis
  • latent syphilis
  • tertiary syphilis
51
Q

describe the inoculation stage of syphilis

A
  • organism spreads by lymph and blood
  • no symptoms: average incubation period is 3 weeks
52
Q

describe primary syphilis stage

A
  • chancre = may be at site of inoculation
    • on penis, labia, or vagina
53
Q

how many weeks is syphilis asymptomatic

A

about up to 24 weeks

54
Q

describe secondary syphilis stage

A
  • rash = may be accompanied by hepatitis, meningitis, or glomerulonephritis
55
Q

describe latent syphilis stage

A
  • no symptoms = treponema pallidum present in latent state
    • latent period may last 3 to 30 years
  • could move on to tertiary syphilis or revert back to secondary syphilis
56
Q

describe tertiary syphilis

A
  • gumma of skin = these lesions may also occur in deep organs, along with CNS degeneration and ascending aortic aneurysm
57
Q

pathogenesis of primary syphilis

A
  • spirochete binds to the epithelium, multiplies, and forms a single, painless, red ulcerated sore (chancre)
    • genital ulcers increase risk for acquiring
      and transmitting HIV
  • fluid from the chancre is highly infectious
  • chancre spontaneously heals as the spirochete moves into the blood
58
Q

true or false - the earlier syphilis is diagnosed, the easier it is to treat with antibiotics

A

true

59
Q

pathogenesis of secondary syphilis

A
  • spirochete is multiplying in the bloodstream (“bacteremia”)
  • flu-like symptoms and non-itchy macular rash
    • rash may be so faint as to not be noticed
  • very infectious at this stage
60
Q

pathogenesis of latent syphilis

A
  • enters latent phase that lasts 3-30 years
  • less likely to be infectious to others the longer the latent period lasts
  • can resolve, revert to secondary syphilis or progress to tertiary syphilis
61
Q

pathogenesis tertiary syphilis

A
  • may occur 10-20 years after initial infection
  • diffuse chronic inflammation and destruction of any organ
  • symptoms are due to host response to pathogen
    • generally not contagious
62
Q

what are the three major components of tertiary syphilis

A
  1. granulomatous change = gummas that damage organs
  2. cardiovascular syphilis = aortic aneurysm or coronary stenosis
  3. neurosyphilis = tabes dorsalis which is nerve degeneration in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord and subsequent ataxia; meningitis (a manifestation of neurosyphilis) can occur in earlier stages
63
Q

gumma is a form of

A

granuloma

64
Q

describe congenital syphilis

A
  • T. pallidum is a fetal teratogen
    • TORCHeS panel of prenatal tests
      • most common infections associated with
        congenital anomalies
      • Toxoplasmosis, “Other” infections (HIV,
        syphilis, VZV), Rubella, CMV, Herpes
        simplex virus
65
Q

what are some signs/symptoms of congenital syphilis

A
  • spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, and neonatal death common
  • nearly all survivors develop serious signs/symptoms
    • such as blindness, deafness, and bone
      malformations
66
Q

what is the diagnosis of congenital syphilis

A
  • culture on agar media is not possible
  • direct fluorescent antibody staining or darkfield microscopy useful is mucosal ulcers are observed in primary stage
  • serological tests:
    • nontreponemal tests (VDRL test and RPR
      test) - measure antibodies that develop
      against lipids released from damaged host
      cells during the early stages of disease;
      used for initial diagnostics screening
    • treponemal tests - detect antibodies
      specifically directs against T. pallidum as a
      confirmatory test
67
Q

a bisexual male seeks medical attention when a single ulcer appears on the shaft of his penis. He is diagnosed with syphilis. His current female sexual partner has no ulcer or other symptoms. She denied that she was the source; however, her syphilis serological test is positive. How can you explain this?
- she is not infected with the same pathogen as her male partner
- females typically do not show symptoms compared to males
- the pathogen is latent

A

the pathogen is latent

68
Q

describe trichomonas vaginalis

A
  • urogential protozoan
  • only exists as a trophozoite, no cyst form
  • high motility
  • found in urethras and vaginas of women and urethras and prostate glands of men
  • reservoir: humans
69
Q

is trichomonas vaginalis an STI

A

yes

70
Q

what are the signs/symptoms of trichomoniasis in men

A
  • most infections are asymptomatic
  • urethritis
  • occasionally thin, milky penile discharge; burning upon urination
71
Q

what are the signs/symptoms of trichomoniasis in females

A
  • foul-smelling
  • green-to-yellow frothy vaginal discharge; itchy and burning
72
Q

what is the diagnosis and treatment of trichomoniasis

A
  • commonly diagnosed with wet mount of genital secretions showing motile trophozoites
  • molecular methods (PCR) are more sensitive and specific and therefore preferred
  • curable with antimicrobials
73
Q

what is the pathogen for genital herpes

A
  • HSV-2 = causes most cases
  • HSV-1 = causes remainder of cases
74
Q

what is the pathogenesis of genital herpes

A
  • kills epithelial cells at the infection site
  • create small, fluid-filled blisters (vesicles)
  • rupture produces itchy, painful ulcerations
75
Q

describe latency of genital herpes

A
  • establish latency in ganglia of sensory neurons and can later reactivate
  • can have recurrent episodes of genital herpes
  • once infected, individual forever at risk of transmitting
76
Q

most people infected with HSV are asymptomatic or symptomatic and are their symptoms mild or severe

A

asymptomatic or have very mild symptoms that go unnnoticed
- but transmission can still occur even if host is asymptomatic or has mild lesions

77
Q

what is the difference between primary vs recurrent genital herpes

A
  • primary outbreak = longer duration, increased viral shedding and sometimes additional symptoms such as fever and body aches
  • recurrent episodes = common, but symptoms are typically shorter in duration and less severe than the first outbreak
78
Q

what are some signs/symptoms of genital herpes

A
  • painful vesicular lesions with an erythematous base on the genitalia
  • sometimes dysuria present
  • genital herpes quadruples the risk of HIV infection
79
Q

what is HSV diagnosis

A
  • the history and clinical presentation is often sufficient to diagnose the HSV infection
  • definitive confirmation by testing lesion fluid for the presence of HSV DNA by PCR
80
Q

describe neonatal herpes

A
  • typically transmits at birth but HSV-2 (and HSV-1) are teratogens and can cross the placenta
  • disseminated infection of neonate is often deadly or leads to severe neurological issues
  • C-section if mother is symptomatic at delivery
81
Q

what happens in the rare cases of neonatal herpes when the infections occur before birth when the virus cross the placenta

A
  • spontaneous abortion or severe disabilities if the fetus survives
  • TORCHeS panel of prenatal tests
82
Q

what is the treatment for HSV

A
  • there is no cure for herpes
  • antiviral meds can prevent or shorten outbreaks during the period of time the person takes the meds
  • daily suppressive therapy for herpes can reduce the likelihood of transmission to partners
83
Q

what is the most common STI

A

HPV

84
Q

most genital HPV infection are

A

transient, asymptomatic, and have no clinical consequences

85
Q

how is HPV transmitted? how long does it last? what does it cause?

A
  • transmitted by sexual contact or by direct skin contact
  • over 90% infections clear within two years
  • causes genital warts and cancer
86
Q

describe HPV

A
  • naked virus
  • DNA genome
87
Q

different types of HPV viruses have different clinical consequences, what are some

A
  • cutaneous papillomas (eg skin warts)
  • genital papillomas (eg genital warts); low malignancy risk
  • cancer; high malignancy risk
88
Q

high risk genital HPV types include

A
  • low-grade cervical abnormalities
  • cancer precursors
  • anogenital cancers
89
Q

low risk genital HPV types include

A
  • low-grade cervical abnormalities
  • genital warts
  • laryngeal papillomas
90
Q

true or false - most women with high-risk HPV infection have normal Pap test results and never develop cellular changes or cervical cancer

A

true

91
Q

describe genital warts

A
  • warts are benign growths of the squamous epithelium
  • large (“cauliflower-like”) growths called condyloma acuminata may form
92
Q

true or false - HPV is present in >90% of all cervical cancers

A

true

93
Q

what types of HPV account for 70% of cervical cancer

A

16 and 18 (“high risk types”)

94
Q

a pap smear is a screening test for what type of cancer

A

cervical

95
Q

what does a pap smear screen for

A
  • pap smear screens for abnormal changes in cervical cells
  • PCR analysis of cervical swabs to detect HPV DNA
  • if both tests negative, repeat in 3 years
96
Q

the most common cancer in males are on the anus, penis, or oropharynx

A

oropharynx

97
Q

the most common cancer in females are on the anus, oropharynx, cervix, vagina, or vulva

A

cervix

98
Q

what is the prevention of HPV

A
  • abstinence, monogamy
  • condoms not fully protective
  • subunit vaccine
  • protect against 9 types of HPV
    • includes HPV 16 and 18
    • also includes types that cause 90% of all
      genital warts
99
Q

HPV 16 and 18 cause 70% of what kind of cancer and 80% of what other kind of cancer

A
  • 70% of cervical cancer
  • 80% of anal cancer

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