Urinary System Flashcards

1
Q

Which urea transporters are used where?

A

UT-A2 = thin descending limb (allows urea to flow into lumen of thin descending limb).
UT-A1 / A3 = medullary collecting duct cells. A1 transports urea across apical membrane into cell. A3 transports urea across basolateral membrane into interstitium.

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2
Q

How does the vasa recta maintain the hyperosmolar environment established in the renal medulla?

A

Counter-current and is freely permeable to salts and water: on its descending portion, water diffuses out and solutes are reabsorbed; on the ascending portion, water is reabsorbed and solutes secreted.
Blood flow is also slow through the vasa recta, to prevent dissipation of the gradient.

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3
Q

What happens in a collecting duct cell in response to ADH binding?

A

ADH causes AQ2 to be inserted into the apical membrane for water reabsorption.
UT-A1 inserted into apical membrane, UT-A3 inserted into basolateral membrane, increasing permeability to urea. This makes the interstitium even more hyperosmolar, so more water is reabsorbed.

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4
Q

What stimuli stimulate vasopressin release from the hypothalamus?

A

Osmoreceptors detect when the blood becomes >300mOs.

Also stimulates when blood volume or pressure decreases (detected by stretch receptors and baroreceptors).

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5
Q

What surround the dense, fibrous capsule of the kidney?

A

A fascial pouch (renal fascia).

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6
Q

Where do the superior poles of the kidneys lie?

A

Right kidney: 11 ICS. Left kidney: 11 Rib

Left kidney sits slightly higher than the right

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7
Q

Describe how renal arteries and veins cross the midline.

A

AA lies to the left of the IVC.
Right renal artery is longer and runs posterior to the IVC.
Left renal vein is longer, anterior to AA and deep to superior mesenteric artery.

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8
Q

Describe the difference in appearance of the renal cortex and medulla.

A

Cortex is granular looking because of random organisation.

Medulla striated because of radial arrangement of tubules and micro-vessels.

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9
Q

Describe simply the passage of urine out of the kidney.

A

Medulla drains into minor calyx via renal papilla. Roughly 3 minor calyces converge to form a major calyx, which all drain into the renal pelvis for urine to be drained via the ureter.

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10
Q

Describe the passage of the ureters.

A

Run vertically down posterior abdominal wall in vertical plane of the tips of transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae.
Cross the pelvic brim anterior to bifurcation of common iliac arteries & sacroiliac joint.
Enter the bladder at the level of the ischial spine.
Take blood supply from arteries they cross.

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11
Q

Where are the 3 sites of ureteric constriction?

A
  1. Pelviureteric junction
  2. Where the ureter crosses the pelvic brim
  3. Where the ureters traverses the bladder wall.
    (Kidney stones likely to get stuck at these places).
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12
Q

Describe the shape of the bladder.

A

A triangular pyramid, with its apex anterior and base posterior.
Apex is supported by median umbilical ligament. The posterior surface is known as the fundus (base).

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13
Q

Describe the epithelium of the ureter and bladder.

A

Transitional epithelium (urothelium). This is a 3-layered epithelium with very slow cell turnover.
Large luminal cells have highly specialised low-permeability luminal membrane.
Prevents dissipation of urine-plasma gradient.

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14
Q

What is the trigone?

A

A smooth triangle on the base of the bladder, formed by the entry of the 2 ureters and exit of urethra (at the neck of the bladder).

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15
Q

Describe the sphincter vesicae.

A

The internal sphincter of the urethra - smooth muscle.
Situated at the neck of the bladder.
Reflex opening in response to bladder wall tension
Relaxed by PNS, contracted by SNS.

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16
Q

Describe the sphincter urethrae.

A

External sphincter of urethra - striated muscle. Located in perineurium. Tone maintained by somatic nerves in pudendal nerves (s2,3,4).
Opened by voluntary inhibition of nerves.

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17
Q

Compare the male and female urethra.

A
Female urethra is straight and short - roughly 4cm. 
Male urethra is much longer:
Internal urethral orifice (bladder neck/outlet) / preprostatic urethra
Prostatic urethra
Membranous urethra (urogenital diaphragm) Ext Sph
Spongy urethra
Navicular fossa (widening at head of the penis)
External urethral meatus.
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18
Q

Describe the epithelium of the PCT.

A

Cuboidal. Water-permeable tight junctions. Brush border (increase SA). Aquaporins for transcellular water diffusion. Lots of mitochondria.

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19
Q

What are the cellular components of the JGA and its function?

A

Macula densa of DCT.
Juxtaglomerular cells of afferent arteriole.

Endocrine functions. Secretes renin to control BP via angiotensin in response to LESS perfusion, LESS Na+ in the DCT and an INCREASE in B1 sympathetic activity.

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20
Q

What is the definition of renal failure?

A

An abrupt fall in glomerular filtration.

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21
Q

What is the equation for net ultrafiltration pressure? (Puf).

A

Puf = Pgc - Pt - πgc.
Net ultrafiltration pressure = hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries - hydrostatic pressure of tubule - osmotic pressure of plasma proteins in glomerular capillary.
Roughly 10-20 mmHg.

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22
Q

What is the equation for glomerular filtration rate?

A
GFR = Puf x Kf
GFR = net ultrafiltration pressure * ultrafiltration coefficient (membrane permeability).
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23
Q

How can the ultrafiltration coefficient, Kf, change?

A

Kidney disease may reduce the number of functioning glomeruli = reduced surface area = reduced Kf.
Dilation of arterioles by drugs/inflammation = increased Kf

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24
Q

What is the definition of glomerular filtration rate?

A

Amount of fluid filtered from the glomeruli into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time (ml/min).
It is used as an index of kidney function.

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25
Q

Show how the GFR is roughly 120ml/min (180L/day).

A

Renal share of CO is 20% - roughly 1L. (Renal blood flow)
Of this, the non-cellular component is roughly 60% - 600mL. (Renal plasma flow).
Filtration fraction (FF) = 0.2. Hence 20% of this is filtered.
This gives 120mL/min.

26
Q

Explain, using the myogenic theory of autoregulation, how the perfusion pressure of the kidney is kept constant

A

Vascular smooth muscle constricts in response to stretch.
Arterial BP rises –> afferent arteriole stretches –> arteriole contracts –> vessel resistance increases –> blood flow reduces and GFR remains constant.

27
Q

What is the definition and equation for clearance?

A

Clearance is the extent to which substances are removed from the blood: it is the number of litres of plasma completely cleared of the substance per unit time.
C = (UV)/P mL/min
Clearance = (conc in urine
urine flow rate)/conc in plasma

28
Q

What makes inulin a good candidate to be used as a GFR marker?

A

Freely filtered at glomerulus
Not reabsorbed or secreted
Not toxic
Measurable in urine and plasma

29
Q

Why is inulin not used in clinical practice as a marker for GFR?

A

It is a plant polysaccharide so not made endogenously. Hence, it must be continuously infused (under supervision) which limits the time of readings to 30-60mins. Therefore, for accurate flow rate determination, bladder catherization is necessary.
Continuous blood sampling is necessary to ensure plasma levels are steady; these methods are slow, complicated and inefficient.

30
Q

Why is creatinine suitable for measuring GFR?

A

It is a breakdown product of creatine in muscle metabolism: amount released into plasma is fairly constant. As it is made endogenously, it can be measured over 24 hours, so catheterisation is unnecessary.

31
Q

What are the errors associated with using creatinine as a measure of GFR?

A

It is freely filtered and not reabsorbed, but a small amount is secreted into PCT.
Measurement involves colorimetric reaction which isn’t sufficiently specific: it also measures non-creatinine chromogens which are present in plasma but not urine.
C = (U (raised due to secretion)*V)/P (falsely high due to non-specific chromogens).
These errors tend to cancel out.

32
Q

What is 51Cr EDTA?

A

A substance with the same properties as inulin, which emits gamma radiation so the amounts in the plasma can be readily and accurately quantified.
Clearance is measured by disappearance from plasma: NO URINE REUQIRED.
Administered by SINGLE INJECTION.

33
Q

Define osmolarity.

A

A measure of the oncotic pressure exerted by a solution across a perfect semi-permeable membrane.
Dependent upon number of particles, NOT nature.
Plasma = 285-295 mOsmol/L.
Urine = 50-1200 mOsmol/L

34
Q

Describe how proteins are reabsorbed.

A

Receptor-mediated endocytosis. Drop pH in endosome so low-specificity receptor dissociates and can recirculate.

35
Q

Describe how carbonic anhydrase can lead to Na+ reabsorption.

A

H+ combines with HCO3- in tubule to form H2O and CO2 by carbonic anhydrase. CO2 enters cell and combines with H2O to form H2CO3 by carbonic anhydrase. This produces H+, which follows its concentration gradient into the tubule. Na+ absorbed by Na+/H+ antiporter.

36
Q

At the end of the Loop of Henle, how much of fluid has been reabsorbed?

A

85% of water; 90% of Na+ and K+
Tubular fluid leaving loop of Henle is hypoosmolar with respect to plasma since more salt than water has been reabsorbed.

37
Q

Explain how loop diuretics work.

A

Block the K+/Na+/Cl- cotransporter, hence less Na+ is reabsorbed in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle and DCT, so less water is reabsorbed and the volume of urine increases.

38
Q

How do thiazides cause a rise in plasma Ca2+?

A

Na+ can enter cells in the DCT by 2 ways: Na+/Cl- cotransporter on apical membrane and Na+/Ca2+ cotransporter on basolateral membrane. Thiazides block the Na+/Cl- cotransporter, so the only way for Na+ to enter the cell to replace the ions removed by Na+/K+ATPase is the Ca2+ cotransporter, so more Ca2+ is pumped out the cell and hence more Ca2+ diffuses into the cell from the tubule lumen.

39
Q

Is water reabsorbed in the distal nephron?

A

Water reabsorption here is completely under ADH control; very tight epithelium so very little paracellular transport.
Relies on AQ2 insertion by ADH for transcellular transport.

40
Q

What are principal cells of the collecting duct?

A

Cells important in Na+/K+ and water balance.
Express Na+/k+ ATPases on basolateral membrane.
Na+ channel protein on lateral membrane allows reabsorption (upregulated by aldosterone).
K+ channel protein on lateral membrane allows secretion.

41
Q

What are the intercalated cells of the collecting duct?

A

Important in acid-base regulation.
H+ ATPase on apical surface.
HCO3-/Cl- cotransporter on basolateral surface.

42
Q

What is renal tube acidosis?

A

Acidosis in the BLOOD not tube.
Caused by mutation in the H+ ATPase, so less H+ secreted.
Or mutation in carbonic anhydrase, meaning fewer protons produced.

43
Q

What is Bartter syndrome?

A

Excessive electrolyte secretion, due to inhibition of Na+/K+/Cl- cotransporter. This transporter is responsible for 25% of Na+ reabsorption, hence large salt loss.

44
Q

What is Fanconi syndrome?

A

Increased secretion of low molecular weight proteins, uric acid, glucose, PO43-, HCO3-.
One type is Dent’s disease: can’t acidify endosome so receptor doesn’t separate from protein and can’t recirculate - hence run out of receptors.
Blockage of H+/2Cl- transporter on endosome meaning pumping H+ in is “too difficult”.

45
Q

What are the ways we lose water?

A

Sweat: variable but uncontrollable (about 450mL/day) - changes based on exercise, fever, climate etc.
Faeces: uncontrollable (about 100mL/day)
Respiration: uncontrollable (about 350mL/day)
Urine output: variable and regulated (1500mL/day).

46
Q

How do changes in dietary Na+ change ECF volume?

A

If, for example, there’s an increase in dietary sodium, then there will be an increase in osmolarity (but the body can’t let this happen). There is hence an increased ECF volume and increased blood volume and pressure.

47
Q

What are the 3 principal effects of angiotensin II?

A

Vasoconstriction (of arterioles), increased Na+ (and therefore H2O) reabsorption in PCT, aldosterone synthesis in adrenal gland.

48
Q

What does an excess of aldosterone cause?

A

Hypokalaemic alkalosis.

49
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Increases Na+ reabsorption by principal cells (upregulates ATPase and channel proteins).
Increases H+ secretion by intercalated cells and K+ secretion by principal cells.

50
Q

Describe hypoaldosteronism.

A

Reabsorption of Na+ in distal nephron reduced.
Increased urinary loss of Na+.
ECF volume falls, increased renin, ang II and ADH.
Dizziness, low BP, salt cravings, palpitations.

51
Q

Describe hyperaldosteronism.

A

Reabsorption in distal nephron increased. Reduced urinary loss of Na+.
ECF volume increases (hypertension).
Reduced renin, ang II, ADH. Increased ANP, BNP.
Lead to higher BP, muscle weakness, polyuria and thirst.

52
Q

What is Liddle’s syndrome?

A

Inherited high BP caused by mutation in aldosterone activated Na+ channel - channel always “on” leading to sodium retention and hypertension.

53
Q

What happens to K+ after a meal?

A

K+ is absorbed from GI tract which increases plasma K+.
It is then taken-up into tissues (stimulated by insulin, aldosterone and adrenaline). The result is plasma K+ doesn’t rise after a meal. This is possible as all cells in the body are equipped with Na+/K+ ATPase to move K+ in.

54
Q

Name a K+ sparing diuretic and its mechanism.

A

Spironolactone: aldosterone antagonist.

55
Q

How does an increase in tubular flow rate cause an increase in K+ secretion in the distal nephron?

A

Increased flow causes cilia on the cells of the collecting duct to move, stimulating a membrane bound enzyme - PDK1. This leads through a cascade system to an increase in intracellular Ca2+ concentration. Activates K+ channels to release more potassium.

56
Q

Give the low pressure side (before left ventricle) baroreceptors and the high pressure side (after LV, before capillaries) baroreceptors.

A

Low pressure: atria, right ventricle, pulmonary vasculature.
High pressure: carotid sinus, aortic arch, juxtaglomerular apparatus.

57
Q

How do low pressure side baroreceptors respond?

A

Respond to both low and high pressure:
Low pressure –> signal through afferent fibres to brainstem, resulting in sympathetic activity and ADH release.
High pressure –> atrial stretch –> ANP and BNP produced.

58
Q

How do high pressure side baroreceptors respond?

A

Only respond to LOW pressure.
Signal though afferent fibres to brain stem resulting in sympathetic activity and ADH release.
JGA cells release renin.

59
Q

How is HCO3- reabsorbed in the PCT?

A

Carbonic anhydrase converts HCO3- and H+ into H2O and CO2. CO2 diffuses into cuboidal epithelial cell and an isoform of carbonic anhydrase converts it back to HCO3-.
Protons are pumped into the tubular lumen by H+ ATPase and sodium-proton antiporters.
Bicarbonate is pumped into interstitial space by chloride-bicarbonate exchanger and sodium-bicarbonate cotransporter (3 HCO3- per Na+)

60
Q

What is the difference between an alpha and beta intercalating cell of collecting duct?

A

Alpha intercalating cell is ACID SECRETING.
Beta intercalating cell is BICARBONATE SECRETING.
Use opposite transporters (the transporters on the basolateral membrane of alpha cells are on the apical membrane of the beta cells).

61
Q

How is glutamine used to endogenously produce HCO3- in cuboidal cells of PCT?

A

Glutamine is broken down into 2NH4+ and 2HCO3-.
HCO3- transported into blood by chloride-bicarbonate exchanger (AE1) and sodium-bicarbonate cotransporter.
NH4+ secreted by NH4+/Na+ antiporter.