UREs Flashcards
The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the
resource
The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is
defeating level I threates, and disrupting or delaying level II threates in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base
At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?
S2 and S3
What is the staff make-up for the S3?
The operations officer and staff
In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
By service component or function
The primary mission of a joint operation is
sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force
When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?
Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies
A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but recieves support from, one or more governments is
state-supported
A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of
hard-core leadership, active cadre, active and passive support
Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
23-30
When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
Just before departing for the target sight
The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
bombing
The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
Fore protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.
What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
Intentions
Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
operations security (OPSEC)
The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to
support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC
When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information
At the earliest possible moment
Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerillas
II
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity
Sympathizers
Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
II
Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (KM)?
III
What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?
Force Protection (FP) working
Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an
continual process
What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically
Vulnerability
The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is
protecting sensitive information
The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signature is
camoflauge, concealment, and deception (CCD)
To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to
disguise
The politcal-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) require you to coordinate your activities
with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD)
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include
clandestine infiltration
Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage
Security
As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of
deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time
What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?
72 hours
What does security forces provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?
Foundation
Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?
Sensors
Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
Delay
What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?
Countermeasures options
An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations
on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives
What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases
Five BGLs
The key to optimizing peacetime and participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is
predictability
Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
QF
When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?
Any level
What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?
Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System(AFWUS)
Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war
Objective
Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing , preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
Simplicity
Commanders do not use rules of engangement (ROE) to ensure operations
meet manning standards
Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the
US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE)
What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?
Prevent unnecessary suffering
What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?
Flexibility
What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?
QFDB9
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provide HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?
QFEBA
What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?
QFEBR
What unit type code (UTC) consistes of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped security forces personnel who deploy as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operation out of high-risk locations?
QFEPR
During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the inital security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security missions as required?
QFEB2
What unit type code (UTC) is essential to direct the fire of an provide support for the mortar teams?
QFEBK
What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?
Treaties
How long are the majority of security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support?
5 days
What is a base already possessing rresources and an establish infrastructure?
Main operating base (MOB)
What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space?
Intelligence
Fixed bases having well-establish perimeters usually have limited
depth
What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?
Counter-reconnaisance and counterattack
What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?
Assign sectors of fire
What should always be your first priority of work?
Establish local security
What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?
The entire tactical area of responsibility
When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are
evenly grouped
What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?
When you have made contact with the enemy
Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?
Peak of a roof
When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?
Provide convering fire for the assault element
In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?
800
Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in
width and depth
what is the main mission of the machine gun?
to protect and defend through defensive and offensive mission
What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
Location of home station flight
What provides key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air base defense activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?
Reports
What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?
Crew-served automatic weapons
When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
Kill Zone
Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?
Required effect
Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppresive fires to support the breach and assault?
To isolate the objective
A “call for fire” is a message
prepared by an observer
Against what threat levels can close precision engagement add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilites of defense forces?
II and III
Once fully implemented, what will the Integrated Base Defense Security System greatly enhance in base defenseive operations?
Detection and Security
