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CDCs 7 Lvl > UREs > Flashcards

UREs Flashcards

1
Q

The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the

A

resource

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2
Q

The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD) forces is

A

defeating level I threates, and disrupting or delaying level II threates in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base

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3
Q

At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)?

A

S2 and S3

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4
Q

What is the staff make-up for the S3?

A

The operations officer and staff

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5
Q

In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?

A

By service component or function

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6
Q

The primary mission of a joint operation is

A

sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force

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7
Q

When terrorists attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities, what is their mission?

A

Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies

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8
Q

A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but recieves support from, one or more governments is

A

state-supported

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9
Q

A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of

A

hard-core leadership, active cadre, active and passive support

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10
Q

Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of

A

23-30

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11
Q

When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?

A

Just before departing for the target sight

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12
Q

The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is

A

bombing

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13
Q

The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?

A

Fore protection conditions (FPCON), assessment factors, and threat levels.

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14
Q

What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?

A

Intentions

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15
Q

Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is

A

operations security (OPSEC)

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16
Q

The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to

A

support the commander by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC

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17
Q

When should commanders and planners identify mission-critical information

A

At the earliest possible moment

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18
Q

Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and guerillas

A

II

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19
Q

Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity

A

Sympathizers

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20
Q

Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?

A

II

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21
Q

Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (KM)?

A

III

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22
Q

What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for commanders?

A

Force Protection (FP) working

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23
Q

Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threats by threat analysts is a/an

A

continual process

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24
Q

What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threats to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically

A

Vulnerability

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25
Q

The key to force protection (FP) countermeasure planning is

A

protecting sensitive information

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26
Q

The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signature is

A

camoflauge, concealment, and deception (CCD)

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27
Q

To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to

A

disguise

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28
Q

The politcal-military nature of military operations other than war (MOOTW) require you to coordinate your activities

A

with a number of government and civilian agencies outside the Department of Defense (DOD)

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29
Q

Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include

A

clandestine infiltration

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30
Q

Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage

A

Security

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31
Q

As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of

A

deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum warning time

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32
Q

What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to any unexpected contingency?

A

72 hours

33
Q

What does security forces provide for the Integrated Base Defense (IBD) concept?

A

Foundation

34
Q

Based on the integrated base defense (IBD) concept of operations (CONOP), what are all Airmen considered?

A

Sensors

35
Q

Which essential element of the integrated base defense (IBD) concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?

A

Delay

36
Q

What does the risk management process allow the commander to determine?

A

Countermeasures options

37
Q

An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations

A

on short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives

38
Q

What does the Air Force maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force (AEF), as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases

A

Five BGLs

39
Q

The key to optimizing peacetime and participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is

A

predictability

40
Q

Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?

A

QF

41
Q

When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?

A

Any level

42
Q

What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?

A

Air Force-Wide Unit Type Code Availability System(AFWUS)

43
Q

Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war

A

Objective

44
Q

Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing , preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?

A

Simplicity

45
Q

Commanders do not use rules of engangement (ROE) to ensure operations

A

meet manning standards

46
Q

Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the

A

US military’s standing rules of engagement (ROE)

47
Q

What is one of the fundamental purposes of the Law of Armed Conflict (LOAC)?

A

Prevent unnecessary suffering

48
Q

What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?

A

Flexibility

49
Q

What unit type code (UTC) is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hour security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?

A

QFDB9

50
Q

What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with UTCs QFEBB and QFEBS, provide HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed security forces (SF) unit?

A

QFEBA

51
Q

What unit type code (UTC) is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?

A

QFEBR

52
Q

What unit type code (UTC) consistes of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped security forces personnel who deploy as mission essential ground personnel (MEGP) on airlift aircraft transiting or operation out of high-risk locations?

A

QFEPR

53
Q

During peacetime operation, what unit type code (UTC) would provide the inital security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security missions as required?

A

QFEB2

54
Q

What unit type code (UTC) is essential to direct the fire of an provide support for the mortar teams?

A

QFEBK

55
Q

What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?

A

Treaties

56
Q

How long are the majority of security forces unit type codes capable of existing without support?

A

5 days

57
Q

What is a base already possessing rresources and an establish infrastructure?

A

Main operating base (MOB)

58
Q

What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space?

A

Intelligence

59
Q

Fixed bases having well-establish perimeters usually have limited

A

depth

60
Q

What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference?

A

Counter-reconnaisance and counterattack

61
Q

What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?

A

Assign sectors of fire

62
Q

What should always be your first priority of work?

A

Establish local security

63
Q

What should the defense force commander (DFC) consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?

A

The entire tactical area of responsibility

64
Q

When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are

A

evenly grouped

65
Q

What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field?

A

When you have made contact with the enemy

66
Q

Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?

A

Peak of a roof

67
Q

When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?

A

Provide convering fire for the assault element

68
Q

In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element?

A

800

69
Q

Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in

A

width and depth

70
Q

what is the main mission of the machine gun?

A

to protect and defend through defensive and offensive mission

71
Q

What does not need to be shown on a sketch?

A

Location of home station flight

72
Q

What provides key information to the defense force commander and support staffs on specific air base defense activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?

A

Reports

73
Q

What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?

A

Crew-served automatic weapons

74
Q

When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as

A

Kill Zone

75
Q

Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up?

A

Required effect

76
Q

Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppresive fires to support the breach and assault?

A

To isolate the objective

77
Q

A “call for fire” is a message

A

prepared by an observer

78
Q

Against what threat levels can close precision engagement add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilites of defense forces?

A

II and III

79
Q

Once fully implemented, what will the Integrated Base Defense Security System greatly enhance in base defenseive operations?

A

Detection and Security

CDCs 7 Lvl (1 decks)

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