URE Vol 1 Flashcards

1
Q

**1-What three sources give supervisors a starting point for determining whether their current mishap prevention program is adequate?

A

AF Form 55, Material Data Safety Sheets (MSDS), and self-inspection checklist.

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2
Q

*001-When will you receive additional training in Air Force hazardous communications safety program (AFHCP) specific hazards?

A

Upon initial assignment and before exposure to hazardous materials.

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3
Q

**1-What is your first responsibility when receiving a new or updated material safety data sheet (MSDS)?

A

Study it to determine how it affects your operations

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4
Q

**2-What is the most common type of Air Force mishap?

A

Ground

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5
Q

**2-A timely mishap investigation relies on

A

Prompt notification

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6
Q

**2-Air Force mishaps that result in total destruction or damage beyond economical repair to an Air Force aircraft are considered Class

A

A

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7
Q

**2-What mishap classification is assigned if an employee is injured and misses at least 8 hours
of work?

A

C

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8
Q

**2-When must the preliminary report be initiated for class A and B off-duty ground mishaps?

A

after the 2nd duty day

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9
Q

**2-What AF Form do you log Class C off-duty ground mishaps on?

A

1057

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10
Q

**3-What are the two types of safety boards that occur when dealing with an aircraft mishap?

A

Interim safety board (ISB) and the safety investigation board (SIB).

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11
Q

**3-Who serves as the liaison between local medical authorities or coroners and military investigators during an interim safety board (ISB)?

A

ISB medical member

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12
Q

**3-Who works directly for the board president and is charged with generally facilitating the proceedings of the entire board?

A

Air Force safety center representative

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13
Q

**3-What are the four elements of the base disaster response force (DRF)?

A

Command post, control centers, disaster control group, and specialized elements

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14
Q

**4-Physiological mishaps should be filed as what Class of mishap?

A

E

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15
Q

**5-Weapons safety training is conducted by the

A

base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO

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16
Q

**5-Weapons safety training is required

A

initially, before you perform explosive related maintenance, and then annually

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17
Q

**5-If there is no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plan available, who is responsible for developing a local plan?

A

You or the personnel in your section

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18
Q

**5-You are developing local written procedures for an explosive safety training program. To do this properly, you need not include the

A

references to standard publications

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19
Q

**5-To perform a periodic inspection of an explosive operation properly, you would

A

not limit your inspection to one area

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20
Q

**6-When may an explosives-laden vehicle be loaded and unloaded while the engine is running?

A

When the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used to load and/or
unload explosives

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21
Q

**6-When you transport explosives on base, you would establish a

A

primary and alternate route

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22
Q

**7-Aircrew flight equipment explosives must be carried in

A

protective container

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23
Q

007-Which is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when you are planning and conducting explosives operations?

A

Using the two-man concept

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24
Q

**7-Who is authorized to visit an area during an explosives operation?

A

Inspection personnel

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25
**7-How often must containers of oily rags, combustible scrap, and waste materials be emptied?
Daily
26
**8-To be acceptable for storage, explosives must be
assigned a hazard classification
27
**8-Within the aircrew flight equipment shop, which limitation applies to the number of survival kits and spare components that are undergoing maintenance at any one time?
Net explosives weight (NEW)
28
**8-Explosive items are assigned to compatibility groups for
storage and transportation
29
**8-To provide the greatest protection from inadvertent ignition in storage facilities, you must give priority to items that are
self-propelled
30
**8-Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be
segregated
31
**8-Aircrew flight equipment shops are authorized to store a/an
mission-essential quantity of explosives
32
**8-Before granting an explosive facility license, the base explosive safety representative must
inspect the proposed facility
33
008-To be acceptable for the storage of explosives, a proposed facility must
be protected from moist, hot temperatures
34
008-Who enters the office symbols of the coordinators on the AF Form 2047, Explosive Facility License?
Installation weapons safety representative
35
**9-What is your most important trait when it comes to training?
Attitude
36
009-Training conducted in the form of one-way video and two-way audio is called
video teletraining
37
**9-Responsibility for determining the overall direction of training within an Air Force specialty rests with the
Air Force career field manager (AFCFM)
38
009-After a student graduates from technical school, within how many months will a supervisor receive a field evaluation questionnaire?
4 to 6
39
009-Which column on the graduate assessment survey (GAS) indicates the rating of satisfactory?
S
40
**9-How many days in advance do most units forecast or project ancillary training?
60
41
**9-Which person will assist you in filling out any locally required paperwork for projecting ancillary training within your work center?
Unit training manager (UTM)
42
*10-You can best evaluate the effectiveness of training received by your technical school graduates by using the
specialty training standard (STS)
43
*10-When you decertify a newly reassigned person on a task they are not qualified to do, you must then place that person in
qualification training
44
*11-What do training waivers provide?
Means for saving training resources without affect career progression
45
013-Information about your career progression in an Air Force specialty can be found in your Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), Part
1
46
013-Prior to using the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), you must ensure it is
the latest edition
47
*14-Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) lists all the tasks and knowledge items common to an Air Force specialty (AFS)?
1
48
*14-Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) defines the “contract” with the technical school?
4
49
*14-A proficiency code of “2b” in column 4 of the specialty training standard (STS) indicates task
performance and task knowledge
50
015-The list of tasks on an AF Form 797 pertain only to
one particular base or work center
51
*15-When developing an AF Form 797, what do you not provide?
Task developers
52
015-A task developed for an AF Form 797 must be measurable, observable, and
have a definite beginning and end.
53
016-An occupational survey report (OSR) is an all-inclusive survey of all the tasks within a/an
Air Force specialty
54
*16-Major command (MAJCOM) and Air Education and Training Command (AETC) subject matter experts (SME), in conjunction with occupational survey report (OSR) data, help develop the
specialty training standard (STS)
55
*16-When filling out your occupational survey, it is important that you answer questions that apply to tasks you
are currently doing in your job
56
*16-The Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS) provides two products.They are an occupational survey report and a
training extract (TE)
57
*17-If representatives of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) disagree on a specialty training standard (STS) item, how is it resolved?
Each major command (MAJCOM) with the exception of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) has one vote for or against
58
*18-Prior to assigning an individual their work duties, you should
evaluate the individuals OJT records
59
*18-The status of resources and training system (SORTS) is designed to indicate a unit’s
ability to undertake its full mission
60
018-What is the responsibility of a pilot unit?
Developing and maintaining standard manpower and logistics details
61
019-Which quality inspection do we perform on a survival kit before it is closed?
Quality control inspection (QCI)
62
020-Where can the office of primary responsibility (OPR) information be found for an Air Force publication?
Cover page of the publication
63
*20-Who is the final reviewer of all DD Form 1144, Support Agreements?
Staff judge advocate
64
021-What instruction covers the management of a composite tool kit (CTK) program?
AFI 21–101, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Management
65
021-Who is responsible for tool accountability and control within a specific section of your aircrew flight equipment shop?
Composite tool kit (CTK) custodians
66
*21-Consumables such as halocarbons may be placed in composite tool kits (CTK)
if they are identified on the master inventory list (MIL) as consumables
67
*21-How often should a comprehensive inspection of all composite tool kits (CTK) be accomplished?
Annually
68
*22-At which milestone of the acquisition process is the production decision made?
B
69
022-When are mission need statements required?
When solutions require new developments, new procurements, or an upgrade of existing systems.
70
022-Which agency develops the operational requirements document?
Lead operating command
71
*23-The code 412A is defined as which type of code?
Budget program activity code (BPAC)
72
*23-Who is responsible for the aircrew flight equipment special programs office (SPO)?
Human Systems Group (HSG)
73
*24-What is conducted throughout a system’s life cycle to ensure the Air Force acquires and maintains operationally effective and suitable systems that meet users’ needs?
Developmental test and evaluation
74
*24-What provides an assessment of the vulnerability or lethality of a weapon system as it progresses through its development and prior to the full-rate production decision?
Live fire test and evaluation
75
*25-What is conducted in an environment as realistic as possible to determine the system’s effectiveness and suitability, and to ensure requirements are met?
Operational test and evaluation
76
*26-How many parts are there to the typical objective statement?
3
77
*26-What is the first step in developing a lesson plan?
Research
78
027-Which aircrew continuation class is used for members prior to their first flight?
LL01
79
027-The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training must be inspected at what interval?
180
80
*27-Who has the authority to allow operational equipment to be used for training?
Major command
81
*27-What should be your number one concern when instructing aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) courses?
Safety
82
*27-Who must document compliance with an operational risk management (ORM) program that has been conducted within your training program?
The aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or aircrew flight equipment officer (AFEO)
83
*28-What instruction is used to develop an installation deployment plan (IDP)?
AFI 10–403
84
*28-Who provides overall control, direction, and supervision of large-scale exercises?
Deployment control center (DCC)
85
028-Which work center ensures the deploying personnel are properly accounted for and prepared for deployment?
Personnel deployment function (PDF)
86
028-Which work center is not part of the Installation Deployment Officers (IDO) activation process?
Personnel readiness unit (PRU).
87
*29-Which Air Force instruction (AFI) describes the air expeditionary force (AEF) Unit Type Code Status Reporting Tool (ART)?
AFI 10–244
88
029-Who is responsible for the overall AF current operations, readiness and training?
Directorate of Operations
89
*30-How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?
7,500
90
*31-What guidance is used to develop a concept of operations (CONOPS)?
AFI 10–401
91
031-What is the minimum amount of days following a significant radiological event will installations receive assistance from specialized federal assets?
12
92
031-Which of the following is not a step to preemptively mitigate the effects of a radiological warfare (RW) event?
Integrated Offence
93
*32-The minimum of how many yards from the boundary of the aircrew contamination control area (ACCA), should the toxic fee area (TFA) main personnel, rest and recovery area be placed?
200
94
*32-When setting up an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA), who is responsible for dividing manpower into groups or teams by color?
ACCA manager
95
*32-A minimum of how many trained attendants are required to run standard operations of an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?
Five
96
033-Which decontamination area is where the boot and protective over garment removal phase takes place
3
97
*33-When you use the M295 decontamination kit, you start your decontamination process of an aircrew member from
the top of the individual and work down
98
034-Within how many business days after you mail the registration form in will the data be entered into the National 406 MHz Beacon Registration Database system?
2
99
035-What is considered normal vision?
20/20
100
*35-What night vision goggle (NVG) limitation occurs during the hours of darkness that may impact the NVG mission?
Physiological considerations