URE Set D Flashcards
(001) The preferred Air Force base distribution system is
3-phase, 4-wire.
(001) A substation with one incoming transmission circuit and three outgoing distribution circuits
has (at least) how many lightning arresters?
12.
(001) Which item supplies control voltage to operate circuit breakers?
Batteries.
(002) What is the configuration of an induction-voltage regulator’s primary and secondary
windings?
The primary is in shunt and the secondary is in series.
(002) In regards to the circuit, how are a step-voltage regulator’s primary and secondary windings
configured?
Primary is in parallel and the secondary is in series.
(002) When can the secondary of a current transformer be opened?
When the primary is deenergized.
(003) Which is not a major function of an oil circuit breaker?
To stabilize current flow during an overload situation.
(003) What oil circuit breaker components supply amperage to the protective relays?
Current transformers.
(004) What percent of electrical system faults are temporary?
95 percent.
(004) Of these devices, which does not interrupt a fault current?
Sectionalizer.
(005) Air-break switches can be used to break a circuit “under load” if they have
arc horns.
(005) Why is the arc extinguished so quickly in a vacuum recloser?
There is very little oxygen to burn.
(005) The insulating quality of sulfur hexafluoride (SF6), at 0 PSI, is how much greater than dry
air?
2 1/2 times.
(006) A high-voltage switch is connected to the distribution system that it is to protect in
series.
(006) What is usually installed with an oil circuit breaker to allow for equipment maintenance,
letting you keep the circuit in operation?
Knife blades and a normally open air-break switch.
(007) Oil circuit breaker contacts that are discolored by excessive heat should be
replaced.
(007) Dielectrically check the oil in oil circuit breakers
every 6 months.
(007) Which of these acids mixed with water is an effective solution for cleaning insulators and
bushings?
Muriatic.
(007) What do you use to clean the arc interrupters of an air-break switch?
Cloth or light sanding.
(007) Clean a modern air switch that has been closed for a long time by
opening and closing the switch several times.
(008) Battery bank maintenance is normally done
monthly.
(008) What do we use to test a battery cell for its specific gravity?
Hydrometer syringe.
(008) What must you do if you add water to a battery in freezing temperatures?
Charge the battery.
(009) The dielectric test voltage for a relay that is rated at 600 volts is
2,200 volts.
(009) After a wiring change to a control device, check substation circuits for
proper operation.
(009) Switchboard graphic instruments and revenue watt-hour meters must be calibrated every
4 years.
(010) Which device is essentially a voltage regulator and requires similar servicing?
Distribution transformer.
(010) What is the first step in isolating a voltage regulator?
Place regulator in the neutral or zero position.
(011) For each degree below 77°F, battery capacity is reduced by what percent?
0.8.
(011) What must you do after repair work on a relay?
Notify electrical supervisor.
(012) Which meter do you use in a transformer continuity check?
Megger.
(012) If a continuity check between the primary and secondary transformer windings shows a zero
reading, the transformer is probably
shorted.
(013) What publication outlines how to perform a flash hazard analysis to determine personal
protective equipment requirement?
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 70 E.
(013) Hard hats must meet ANSI289.1 Class E requirements 20,000V ac test for how many
minutes?
3 .
(013) Proper wear of arcflash resistant clothes includes?
Coveralls worn with sleeves rolled down.
(014) How often should the supervisor inspect body belts and safety straps?
Every 6 months.
(014) Which of these is used for a bending test on a body belt or safety strap?
3/4-inch mandrel.
(015) Which of these is not a way to tell whether gaffs are sharpened properly?
Slope test.
(015) Which part of the gaff do you sharpen?
Flat inner side.
(016) What is the required rhythm method when climbing a utility pole?
Left arm rises as left foot rises.
(016) What is the OSHA standard for retraining of climbing tasks performed less than once per
year?
Annually.
(017) Leather protectors or gauntlets should be
2 to 5 inches shorter than the rubber gloves.
(017) For full protection up to the shoulder, rubber sleeves are
worn tucked into rubber gloves.
(017) Which of these combinations are you likely to use inside rubber gloves?
Cotton gloves and dusting powder.
(018) How often are rubber gloves given an electrical test?
Every 6 months.
(018) The supervisor must inspect rubber blankets visually every
6 months.
(018) How must rubber blankets be stored?
Flat or rolled in blanket canister.
(019) Which of the following manufacturer’s certification tests is acceptable for hotsticks?
100,000 volts AC per foot for 5 minutes on fiberglass and epoxy sticks.
(019) How often are hot-line tools tested electrically?
Every 6 months.
(020) Test hot sticks electrically with a
DC hi-pot test set.
(020) How many high-voltage tests are made on a hot stick before it can pass?
Four 1-foot segment tests and one overall test.
(021) At the job site, the aerial lift device should be positioned so the work area is always
within reach of the boom.
(021) While raising the bucket, the operator should always face in the direction
in which the bucket is moving.
(021) Materials or tools can only be passed from a worker on the ground to a worker on the aerial
lift vehicle when
both workers are wearing rubber gloves.
All in-use aerial devices must receive a daily
pretest inspection and periodic verification test.
The moisture test setup is the same as the
upper boom insulation test.
(022) Who is responsible for daily inspections and overseeing other testing on the aerial lift truck?
Principal operator.
(023) The line truck winch is operated
through the power takeoff.
(023) When you must work on a slope, position the truck so the work is
on the high side of the truck.
(023) How is the rope put on the capstan?
Wind it clockwise, with the load end next to the truck.
(024) Holding up a closed fist indicates what?
Stop all action.
(024) The key to using hand signals is what?
All operators and co-workers understand signals to be used.
(025) Which of these is the Operator’s Inspection Guide and Trouble Report (Aircraft Towing,
Base Maintenance, Deicers,
AF Form 1806.
(025) Which of the following does the motor pool handle?
Low oil.
(025) While you are operating the line maintenance truck, which gauge is the most important to
watch?
Tachometer.
(026) In addition to engineers or the Planning Section, who assists in making a “staking sheet” of
the area over which the line is to pass?
A survey crew.
(026) Use AF Form 103, Base Civil Engineering Work Clearance Request for
digging permits.
(027) For poles that are subject to more strain than normal, how many inches deeper do we set
them?
6.
(027) What method do we use to remove dirt from a power auger?
By spinning it off.
(028) What is the minimum number of workers needed for pole handling?
2.
(028) What tool do workers use to position poles on the ground?
Cant hook.
(028) Sort a large number of poles to be stored by
length.
(028) What method do we usually use to load poles on a trailer?
Boom method.
(029) In determining the class of a pole, how far up from the pole’s butt do you measure its circumference?
6 feet.
(030) What type of roof do we find on untreated wood poles?
Double-cut.
(030) What must you do before you cut the roof on a wood pole?
Find the pole’s face side and back side.
(030) Where do we make the gain on a wood pole?
Face side of the pole.
(031) In using the line truck and winch to set a pole, attach the winch line before you raise the
pole slightly
above the midpoint of the pole.
(031) If a pole must be set in an energized line, what two additional articles of equipment must be
used?
Rubber gloves and pole guard.
(031) Which of these is the best situation for backfilling a pole hole?
One shoveler and three tampers.
(032) What is the maximum amount of pole line angle you can have without needing a guy wire?
5°.
(032) What type of anchor do we use for hard or compact soil?
Expanding anchor.
(032) What type of guy do we normally use at a curve in the line?
Side guy.
(032) Which of these combinations do you use to draw up a guy wire and hold it in place for
attachment to the anchor rod?
Chain hoist and two strand grips.
What are the considered factors that establish the three loading areas for conductors in the
United States?
Longitudinal, transverse, and vertical loading.
(034) What insulator material is more resistant to vandalism?
Polymer.
(034) What knots does the person on the ground use to raise a crossarm?
Half hitch and clove hitch.
Use armor rod on
aluminum conductors.
(035) You are building a new pole line; which conductor does the person on the ground send up
first if you are on the second pole?
The inside conductor.
(036) With what splice do you have to choose the correct size die?
Compression.
(036) What do you do to prevent a hot-line clamp from burning a main conductor?
Use a stirrup.
(037) What type of insulator is used at the dead end for a primary conductor?
Suspension insulator.
(037) What information do you need to find the proper amount of sag?
Span length, conductor type, temperature, and loading district.
(038) Pad mounting transformers is the preferred mounting method for what transformer size?
225 kVA.
(038) Which method do we most likely use to install light, single-phase transformers?
Block and tackle.
(038) Where do you connect the top and bottom connection points of a transformer’s lightning
arrester?
Top to primary wire, bottom to ground wire.
(039) What causes a low power factor on a distribution line?
Large induction load in the circuit.
(039) What can we install to raise the power factor in a distribution circuit?
Capacitors.
(039) What device do we use across a capacitor’s terminals to gradually discharge the capacitor?
Resistor.
(040) For a below-ground check of a pole, to what depth do you dig the trench?
8 to 18 inches.
(040) At what location on a crossarm does decay usually start?
Pin holes.
(040) What condition can cause a crossarm to twist?
Unbalanced strain or insufficient guying.
(041) When a span shows too much sag while adjacent spans appear normal,
the conductor has stretched from being hit by a falling object.
(041) We must make voltage and current readings on capacitor installations at least
four times a year.
(042) Where would you put the tree pruner to add a third section?
Lean it against a tree limb.
(042) To remove a limb, where do you make the last cut?
Flush with the trunk or parent limb.
(043) Which device can you use to detect a problem before service is interrupted?
Infrared detector.
(044) What must the electrician do before working on deenergized lines?
Test and ground the lines.
(044) How is the cable used for ground sets constructed?
600-volts insulated rubber or synthetic-covered flexible copper.
(044) The first connection you make in applying a ground set is the
ground.
(045) When a break occurs in an energized line, how is the line at the break affected?
The center disappears, leaving soft wire on either side.
(045) When you replace an arrester that has been damaged by a stroke of lightning, what do you
also check for damaged?
Ground wire.
(046) What must you do before working on energized lines?
Inspect hot line tools and equipment for proper operation
(046) What two connector types do we use when splicing energized conductors?
Compression and automatic.
(047) On energized conductors, we keep the tie wires short when removing them from the
insulator because this
prevents the tie wire from contacting other phases
(047) What tie stick head do we normally use to untie tie wires?
Rotary blade.
(047) What do we use to raise the auxiliary crossarm assembly once we untie the tie wires?
Wire tongs.
(048) How many line hoses are needed for a pole change when the pole has a single crossarm
supporting three phase conductors?
8.
(048) When replacing a pole, how many feet above the pole do you raise the auxiliary arm?
3 to 4 feet.
(048) The high voltage audible indicator makes an audible sound when placed
in an electrostatic field.
(049) The act of tying a tagline to each outside conductor with a bowline knot and pulling the
conductors out of the work area we call
tagging out.
(049) Where do you place the crossarm prior to securing it to the pole with a throughbolt?
Linemen’s safety strap.
(050) The service meter normally measures
kilowatt-hours.
(050) What is the formula to find the amount of watt-hours used?
New reading minus the previous reading.
(201) Which of these items is not a part of a direct current (DC) motor?
Stator.
(201) In a direct current (DC) motor, how are coil ends from the armature windings attached to the
Soldered.
(202) The direct current (DC) motor with the highest starting torque is the
series motor.
(202) The direct current (DC) shunt motor connects the field coils and armature in
parallel.
(203) What part of a three-phase motor is connected to the supply voltage?
Stator.
(203) The component of a three-phase motor connected to the load is the
rotor.
(204) The magnetic field of a three-phase motor rotor is caused by
current flow in the rotor.
(204) Which motor would have the highest revolutions per minute (rpm) if each were connected to
the same power supply?
4-pole motor.
(205) The internal windings of all three-phase motors are
either wye or delta connected.
(205) Which of the following features describes three-phase motors best?
Either single- or dual-voltage motors.
(206) The motor that requires some starting means is the
single-phase AC motor.
(206) A centrifugal switch is used in a single-phase motor to
de-energize the start windings.
(207) The squirrel-cage winding has high-inductive reactance and is placed beneath the
wound rotor section.
(208) A single-phase motor with external leads numbered T1, T2, T3, T4 is what type?
Dual-voltage nonreversible.
(208) What should you connect to operate a single-phase dual-voltage motor on high voltage?
Run windings in series.
(209) How many basic types of across-the-line motor controls are there?
Five.
(210) The basic types of overload relays are
thermal and magnetic.
(211) The methods used to open the contacts on an across-the-line magnetic controller are
spring tension and gravity.
(212) What type of motor enclosure is designed to prevent liquids or solids from entering it except
at indirect angles?
Splash-proof.
(212) What type of bearing should be used in a vertically-mounted motor?
Ball or roller.
(213) When you clean a motor with compressed air, what is the maximum air pressure to use?
25 psi.
(213) What should be your first check on a motor that seems to be overheating?
Ventilation.
(214) If a motor has been operating normally but suddenly stops, you should suspect
electrical overload.
(214) The end play of a motor should not exceed
1/64 of an inch.
(215) An indication of an open rotor in a squirrel-cage motor is
the motor slowing down under load.
(216) A motor that operates slowly may have a
deficient voltage supply.
(216) Motor voltage must be within what percent of the voltage rating?
10.
(217) A woodworking shop would constitute what class of electrical hazard?
Class III.
(218) Electrical equipment used in Class I locations must be
explosion-proof.
(218) Sparkproof electrical equipment must be used in what class locations?
Class III.
(219) Which of these wiring methods is permitted in Class I, division 1 hazardous locations?
Mineral-insulated cable.
(219) To prevent explosive materials from passing from one part of an explosion-proof conduit
system to another, you should use
sealing compound.
(220) Before working on an electrical system, you always should
deenergize the power to the circuit.
(220) A proper fit between an enclosure and its cover is achieved by
flat ground-joint surfaces.
(221) When you work in a Class I hazardous location, you should use all the equipment listed
below except
battery-powered test equipment.
(221) If work must be done on equipment exposed to hazardous material, the equipment should be
cleaned and tagged.
(222) How long must the power supply to an emergency light be able to supply voltage?
1 ½ hours.
(222) According to the National Electric Code (NEC®), the wiring for emergency lighting
systems must be
independent of the regular wiring used for appliances.
(223) How often should a total discharge of emergency-light batteries and recharge be done?
Every six months.
(223) If an emergency light battery will not hold a charge, what should you do to it?
Replace.
(224) The electric range produces heat by
passing current through a resistor.
(224) What is the most desirable water heater temperature control setting for general purposes?
150°F.
(225) To prevent others from tampering with switches, you will
lock and tag them.
(225) If you check a heating element and the ohmmeter reads “0” ohms, the element is
good.
(226) A signal head may have a maximum of how many signal faces?
5.
(226) The most common types of detectors for traffic control are
pressure and loop.
(226) Which of the following do you use on a traffic control system?
FM.
(226) The controller operates loop and lead-in systems whose total inductance is between
20 and 70 microhenries.
(227) Most repairs made in the controller cabinet of a traffic control system are made by replacing
a module or circuit board.
(228) At least how many hours of backup power should you have on a traffic controller random
30 hours.
(228) What is the minimum mounting clearance required for the signal head?
15 feet.
(229) The purpose of the motor on a siren for a base warning system is to rotate the siren
360 degrees.
(229) Which organization is responsible for turning on the base warning siren?
Command post.
(230) Your first step in troubleshooting the base warning system should be to check the
control circuit.
(230) Voltage being present on the load side of the controller on a base warning system means the
controller is fully operational.
(231) What type of process is corrosion?
Electrochemical.
(231) The ions that leave the metal and enter into solution are
anodes.
(232) How many basic forms of corrosion are there?
Four.
(232) Where does stray current corrosion cause greatest damage?
Where it exits a structure.
(233) At least how many inches of backfill should extend from each end of the anode?
12.
(234) How often should a structure be checked for depth of pitting?
Every two years.
(235) The basic guidance for completing maintenance action sheets is in
AFI 32–1001, Operations Management.
(235) How often must you maintain AF Form 491, Cathodic Protection Operating Log for
Impressed Current System?
60 days.
(236) To protect steel or cast-iron structures, what should the voltage reading be between the
structure and a saturated copper-copper sulfate half-cell contacting the electrolyte?
–0.85 volts.
(237) One of the most important measurements made in cathodic protection (CP) is the single rod
probe measurement of the soil resistance between what two points?
Structure-to-electrolyte potential.
(237) What meter should you use to make a structure-to-electrolyte measurement?
High-resistance voltmeter.
(238) What is the basic unit of conductivity for water resistivity?
Ohms per centimeter.
(239) After the initial series of cathodic protection (CP) of a galvanic anode system is established,
during the first year, how often should the system be checked?
Quarterly.
(240) An above-normal potential between the half-cell electrode and the anode under test shows
that the anode is corroded away.
that the anode is corroded away.
central station.
(242) Fire alarm reference material should be maintained in the
fire department technical services office.
(242) When troubleshooting fire alarm systems, where do the most frequent problems occur?
Wire termination points.
(243) What are the two main classes of intrusion detectors?
Point and area.
(244) Repair of intrusion detection systems should always be done in accordance with?
Manufacture’s specifications.
(401) Electrical cables are installed under roadways using
concrete-encased ducts.
(401) To ensure a sufficient number of spare ducts, you should allow for at least a 25% increase in
the number of
cables
(401) Why must ducts that terminate in a building be sealed?
To prevent gases and rodents from entering a building.
(402) What information is marked on manhole covers?
Ownership or type of utility.
(402) What is the minimum size of a constructed manhole?
4 feet by 6 feet by 6 feet.
(402) The use of 90° bends in duct lines is permitted for
pole risers.
(403) What is the purpose of a vault?
Isolate electrical equipment.
(403) What type transformer is used in a vault?
Subway transformer.
(403) Junction boxes located in an underground vault must
provide a water-tight seal.
(404) What specified percentage insulation level is used for medium-voltage ungrounded cables?
133 percent.
(404) The mechanical strength of underground cable is not a major concern because the cable is
not under tension.
(404) What material is used between the conductor and the cable insulation?
Strand shielding.
(405) When pulling cable, the snatch block and pulling rope is attached to
the pulling-in iron in the manhole.
(406) Which is a determining factor in the spacing between manholes?
Cable weight.
(406) Using the winch method, how many people does it take to pull underground cable safely?
5.
(407) What term describes an underground cable that is brought up through a conduit and attached
to an overhead line?
Riser.
(407) The device used to terminate high-voltage cables is called a
high-voltage termination.
(407) What is the purpose of a cable end seal?
Prevents moisture from entering the cable.
(408) When making a load-break elbow, before attaching the crimp connector to the cable make
sure you
align the hole on the end of the connector with the equipment bushing.
(408) What is the next step after sliding the elbow over the connector and cable?
Thread the electrode into the connector using the wrench from the elbow kit.
(409) What combustible gases are usually found in manholes?
Natural gas or hydrocarbon fuels.
(409) What must you do when work takes place in a manhole that is 15 feet deep or more?
Use a power blower for the entire work period.
(409) Which is not a manhole ventilation method?
Funnel.
(409) How often must a gas test be made in a confined space?
Continuously.
(410) What is the approximate bending radius for underground cable?
5–12 times cable diameter.
(410) For racking purposes, how much straight cable need exist on each side of a cable splice?
6 inches.
(410) What type of tape is used for fireproofing underground cable in manholes?
Polymeric elastomer tape.
(410) What type of cable test is made after its installation but before it is placed into service?
Acceptance test.
(410) When you perform a maintenance test on a cable, what is the acceptable test voltage?
75 percent of acceptance test voltage.
(410) Power-factor tests can be performed at any voltage without exceeding the
line-to-ground rating of the cable.
(411) What is the easiest and quickest way to locate a cable fault?
Visually.
(411) When you use the MM–1 fault locator or the thumper to locate a cable fault, what signal is
Fault locator signal fades out at the fault; thumper signal increases to the loudest volume.
(412) In many cases, a cable fault is located at a
splice.
(412) Which cable splice kit requires the most labor to install?
Conventional taped splice kit.
(412) What is the preferred method when making splices?
Factory Pre-form splice kit.
(413) What should be your first step when troubleshooting a pad mount transformer?
Take a complete set of secondary phase-to-phase and phase-to-ground voltage readings.
(413) If tests indicate an off-ratio winding, how would you verify whether the problem was in the
transformer or not?
Take voltage readings on the primary side of the transformer.
(414) Which airfield lights have yellow filters installed for the last 2,000 feet of runaway?
Runway edge lights.
(414) Which airfield lights provide positive identification of the beginning of the operational
runway surface for approaching aircraft?
Threshold lights.
(414) Which airfield lights are required on all lighted runways?
Runway end lights.
(414) Which airfield fixture is unidirectional?
Approach.
(414) Which of the following items are found on ALSF–2 approaches?
500 foot bar.
(414) What color is used for the taxiway edge light?
Blue.
(414) At what minimum distance from the usable landing area does a station beacon also require
an identification beacon?
2 miles.
(415) One of the main control panels for the airfield lights is in the vault; where is the other panel
located?
Control tower.
(415) Approximately how far should the airfield vault be from the runway?
3,000 feet.
(416) What should you have available if your system uses 48-volt DC control?
An extra power supply module.
(416) How many conductors does the standard control cable for an airfield lighting control system
contain?
Seven.
(416) Which airfield vault device is used to swap location of control of the airfield lights?
Transfer switch.
(416) What airfield lighting control system device compensates for the voltage drop from the
tower to vault?
Low-burden pilot relay.
(416) What size cable is used for airfield light field circuits?
No. 8.
(416) What type of transformer is used at each airfield light fixture to avoid the problems that are
normally associated with series circuits?
Isolating transformer.
(417) What is performed before installing a regulator?
Pre-installation check.
(417) What size counterpoise is used for airfield lighting circuits?
No. 4 AWG.
(417) When replacing an IL transformer, what must the first listed amperage on the IL match?
The maximum amperage out put of the regulator.
(417) What feature is common to elevated airfield lights?
They are built with frangible construction.
(418) What is the primary purpose of the rotating/airport beacon?
To guide the pilot to the airfield.
(418) How many revolutions per minute does the airport beacon turn?
6.
(418) What occurs when the operating lamp in the airport beacon fails?
A reserve lamp is placed in operation automatically.
(418) What voltage is necessary to run the airport beacon?
120/240 volts.
(419) What is the minimum number of hazard beacons used on one side of an extensive or
extremely high antenna?
Three.
(419) What device can be used to change voltage up or down for the airport beacon lamps?
The tap changer in the distribution transformer.
(419) How often must you check the level of the airport beacon base and the beacon motor’s
gears?
Annually.
(420) How often does each strobe light unit flash?
Twice each second.
(420) How many brightness steps is the strobe system capable of producing?
Three.
(420) What voltage rating is the wire that connects the flash head to the individual control
3 kV.
(420) When does the hour (elapsed-time) meter operate?
When system is operated on high intensity.
(420) Which items still have power when CB1 in the MCC is turned off?
The GFCI outlet and maintenance lamp.
(420) How do you bypass the interlock switch on the Individual Control Cabinet?
Pull on the plunger.
(421) How long does it take the flash capacitors to bleed off their charge?
One minute.
(421) What is indicated when two skips occur within 100 flashes of the condenser discharge
system?
A worn out lamp.
(421) Where should you start troubleshooting if you turn the strobe system on and it does
nothing?
The source of power.
(421) Which of the following is highest priority when troubleshooting the condenser discharge
system?
Getting the lights to flash in sequence.
(422) To check the coil of a deenergized relay, use a(an)?
Ohmmeter.
(423) How are animals prevented from chewing on airfield lighting fixture cords?
Fixtures are designed so that no cords are exposed.
(423) What is used to maintain contact with the tower when away from the truck?
Hand-held radios.
(424) Which approach lighting system maintenance item must be performed daily?
Check and record burned out lamps.
(424) When should you check all approach light fixtures for alignment?
Semiannually.
(425) Where is the PAPI system located?
On the left side of the runway.
(426) What calculation is used to determine the load on an airfield regulator?
Input current times input voltage times the regulator power factor.
(426) How often are dielectric oil tests made on airfield regulators?
Annually.
(426) When you tie together two airfield light circuits for emergency operation, what do you do to
prevent regulator overload?
Move the control wire from step 5 relay to step 4 relay.
(427) In order to perform a DC hi-potential test on an airfield light circuit, what do you do with
the leads once you remove them from the airfield regulator?
Support both leads and keep them clear of each other and the ground.
(427) When using radios, which two words should you use to describe circuit conditions?
Open/closed.
(427) If a combination of faults exist in an airfield circuit, which faults do you clear first?
Grounds.
(428) Ballast voltages in multiple street light circuits usually are
120 to 480 Volts.
(428) What type of light fixture should be placed near hidden entrances?
Security light.
(428) In an incandescent lamp, how much consumed energy is lost in the form of heat?
90 %.
(428) Which lighting system should be considered for retrofit with a more efficient system?
Mercury vapor.
(428) What letter represents the American National Standards Institute’s special designation code
for high-pressure sodium lamps?
S.
(428) Photocells are used extensively in which type of lighting system?
Street lighting.
(429) To ensure that the proper amount of light is provided after fixture installation, check the
lighting with a/an
light meter.
(429) High-pressure sodium lamp cycling usually indicates
the end of normal lamp life.
(429) When troubleshooting a 120-volt photocell, which conductor should provide power to the
light fixture?
Load (red).
(429) What lighting system practice results in reduced maintenance costs and increased safety?
Group relamping.
(601) Which of the following is not a subsection of the mobile aircraft arresting system?
Pendant cable.
(601) The mobile aircraft arresting system is capable of handling an aborted takeoff or arrested
3 to 5 minutes.
(601) How many hydraulic power units are installed on each mobile aircraft arresting system
Two.
(601) What crew size do you need to install the mobile aircraft arresting system?
Twelve.
(601) Which mobile aircraft arresting system installation method requires the fabrication of a
cruciform foundation?
Concrete off-runway.
(601) Which type of anchoring system do you use when installing the mobile aircraft arresting
system on a soil surface?
K/M.
(601) Which type of anchoring system do you use when installing the mobile aircraft arresting
system on asphalt that is more than 6 inches thick?
Moil.
(602) What is the proper fill level for the mobile aircraft arresting system hydraulic power unit
reservoir, and at what frequency do you check it during operation?
2 inches below the top of the filler neck; every 50 hours.
(602) What is the recommended method for cleaning the oil cooler on the mobile aircraft arresting
system hydraulic power unit?
Compressed air.
(602) During operation, the engine oil in the mobile aircraft arresting system hydraulic power unit
is changed every
25 hours.
(602) What size steel cable do you use on the mobile aircraft arresting system trailer winch when
it requires replacement?
The same size the winch was supplied with originally.
(602) Lubricate the tape sheaves on the mobile aircraft arresting system trailer after every
60 arrestments.
(603) After the TAG installs the 1000ft crossbar, what is the next step?
Install the approach lights.
(603) When leveling and aiming a PAPI unit, what do you do first?
Level the unit from side to side by adjusting the unit’s two front knobs.
(603) What is the final step in installation of the PAPI units?
Adjust the tilt switch so that the bubble is in the middle.
(603) What is the first step of installing the taxiway lights?
Place two lights and isolation transformers at the beginning of the taxiway for taxiway exit
lights.
(603) How do you begin the procedure to install the emergency airfield lighting system
obstruction lights?
Install the batteries into the fixture.
(603) Which of the following steps is done first when installing the generator and regulator?
Establish a common ground for the generator, regulator, and control panel.
(604) When performing an open circuit test on the regulator, what is the next step after turning the
circuit breaker off?
Remove the male-to-male adapter cable from the output current plugs.
(604) What is the last step in activating the emergency airfield lighting system from the control
panel?
Set the strobe control switch to 1–18 or 19–36.
(605) When performing a short circuit test on the emergency airfield lighting system regulator,
what is the next step after turning the intensity selector switch to low?
Turn the intensity selector switch to medium.
(605) When replacing a lamp on a runway edge light, how do you remove the lamp from its base?
Grip the lamp by its ceramic base and pull straight up.
(605) What is the procedure to remove the red lens from an obstruction light?
Loosen the screws holding the lens in place, turn it to the right and pull it straight up.
(605) Which of the following is a step in the process of changing out a lamp in a strobe unit?
Short the capacitors.
(606) What generator is used for emergency backup of facilities that are mission essential, such as
communications centers and command posts?
MEP 006A.
(607) Besides conductor size, what is another important factor to consider when reducing voltage
drop in an electrical circuit?
Circuit distance.
(607) You have a #8 AWG stranded copper conductor with 0.778 ohms of resistance for each
1,000 feet of length. If you run that cabling 100 feet between the power plant and the load, what
would the total resistance be?
0.1556 ohms.
(608) The bus bar for two paralleled generators must be large enough to carry
the output of the larger generator.
(608) What is the first step you perform when placing a generator back into service?
Open circuit breakers and start largest generator.
(608) The emergency (battle short) switch bypasses all of the following relays except the
over speed relay.
(609) When you operate in extremely cold climates, what must you do to prevent the battery from
freezing when you add water?
Immediately mix the fluid by charging the battery.
(609) During which type of climatic condition could vibrations cause chafing and fraying of the
generator wiring?
Extreme heat.
(610) Which of the following is not a major component of the basic expeditionary airfield
resources interior tent lighting system?
Secondary B-panel.
(610) How many light streamers does each basic expeditionary airfield resources tent receive?
Two.
(610) What action ensures rapid reinstallation of the basic expeditionary airfield resources tent
lighting system?
Placing components into their proper storage containers.
(611) What is the maximum length the remote area lighting system can be?
1,500 feet.
(611) How many light masts come with the remote area lighting system?
13.
(611) For a fully operational remote area lighting system, you can establish automatic operation
by positioning the override switch to
AUTO.
(611) At what frequency do you inspect the remote area lighting system structure for corrosion?
Semiannually.
(612) What is the output rating of the diesel generator on the telescoping floodlight set?
7 kW.
(612) What is the biggest advantage of the telescoping floodlight set over the remote area lighting
system?
Production of its own power.
(612) What are the size and type of lamps used on the telescoping light set portable light stands?
500-watt quartz.
(612) For proper operation, you need to keep the telescoping floodlight set generator output
between
233 and 247 VAC.
(612) What is the full height of the telescoping floodlight set trailer tower?
30 feet.
(612) During operation under dusty conditions, how often must you clean the air filter in the
generator on the telescoping floodlight set?
Every 8 hours.
(613) The reverse osmosis water purification unit requires a power supply that is capable of
providing
120/208 VAC.
(613) On the reverse osmosis water purification unit, which pump motor does the 90-amp circuit
breaker number 1 protect?
Reverse osmosis.
(613) Where is the reverse osmosis water purification unit ground rod stored?
On the control panel.
(613) Before performing maintenance on the reverse osmosis water purification unit, you should
open all drains and vents.
(614) Which contingency asset requires two dedicated secondary distribution centers (SDC) to
meet its high load demands?
Basic expeditionary airfield resources kitchen.
(614) Which major component of the basic expeditionary airfield resources kitchen electrical
system not only acts as a distribution point, but also provides circuit protection?
Primary distribution box.
(614) What is the frequency of inspection of the basic expeditionary airfield resources kitchen
electrical system when it is in operation?
Weekly.
(615) What is the primary distribution voltage of the basic expeditionary airfield resources
(BEAR) electrical system?
4,160 VAC.
(615) What type of termination is used on the primary distribution center for the input and output
cables?
Load-break elbows.
(615) A total of how many generators can be installed on the line side of the primary distribution
center?
Four.
(615) How many sets of individual feeder circuits are on the load side of the primary distribution
center?
Six.
(615) Power is distributed from the primary distribution center main bus, to the six individual
branch circuits, through arc strangler disconnect switches and a fuse assembly that is rated at
200 amps.
(615) What is the conductor size and insulation value of the basic expeditionary airfield resources
high-voltage electrical cable?
1/0, 5 kV.
(615) You should bury primary cables to a depth of at least
18 inches.
(615) You inspect operational primary distribution center grounds
monthly.
(615) One important thing to do before performing maintenance on the secondary distribution
center is to
ensure all power is removed.
(616) What basic expeditionary airfield resources asset is used as the main distribution point for
secondary circuits?
Secondary distribution center.
(616) To operate a secondary distribution center directly from a mission essential power generator
instead of from the primary distribution system, you must
engage the manual transfer switch.
(616) How many 120/208 volts alternating current output circuits can the secondary distribution
center provide?
Sixteen.
(616) Which power distribution panel is associated with the tent extendible modular personnel
tent?
25 kW.
(616) The purpose of the secondary distribution center (SDC) high-temperature override switch is
to
allow bypassing of the main breaker shunt trip mechanism.
(617) During deployments to locations where low voltage will be used for a short time, what can
you do to ground the system if the ground rod cannot be driven into the earth?
Bury the ground rod in a horizontal trench that is 18 inches deep.
(617) What mixture of salt and water normally increases the conductivity of the soil that is in
contact with a ground rod?
Three pounds of salt per one gallon of water.
(617) Two expedient grounding techniques are the expedient ground pipe and the expedient
ground
trench.
(618) The type I tent extendible modular personnel tent lighting kit receives its power from
a lighting distribution box.
(618) The type II lighting kit consists of a junction streamer, two light streamers, and
an exterior light streamer.
(618) Where do you place the exterior light streamer?
In the tent vestibule.
(619) What is the total capacity of a transformer bank that is in an open delta connection?
57.7 percent of the original bank.
619) When you make expedient repairs to the interior wiring of a facility,
use as much of the existing undamaged wiring as possible.
(620) What is the power requirement for a fully operational aeromedical staging facility?
200 kW.
(620) The transportable blood transshipment center is normally collocated with
a contingency hospital (CH).
(620) What is the primary operating voltage required for the chemically hardened air management
plant system?
208 VAC, three-phase, 50/60 Hz.
(621) How much power is required to operate a small shelter system?
12 kW.
(621) What supplies the power to light- and general-purpose receptacle circuits in the medium
shelter system?
Four 20-amp ground fault circuit interrupter breakers.
(621) Where are the general-purpose receptacle circuits positioned in the medium shelter system?
Four feet high at every other arch.
(622) What is the electrical rating for the deployable power generation and distribution system
primary distribution center?
4,160 VAC, 200 amps.
(622) The deployable power generation and distribution system secondary distribution center
secondary voltage is rated at
120/208 VAC.
(622) In the deployable power generation and distribution system, what provides mission essential
power during initial setup?
Tactical quiet generator set.
(623) The power unit provides three modes of operation: manual start, automatic, and
economizing.
(623) What device allows remote control in all the deployable power generation and distribution
system operations?
Laptop computer.
(623) If the operation selector on the primary switching center is blocking the switching action
you are trying to perform, what step must you take?
Rotate the operation selector out of the way.
