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Volume 3 Power Generation and Distribution Systems > URE Questions > Flashcards

URE Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How is a cycle of events completed in a four-stroke Diesel engine?

A. Four piston strokes and two crank shaft revolutions.
B. Four piston strokes and one crank shaft revolution.
C. Two piston strokes and two crank shaft revolutions.
D. Two piston strokes and one camshaft revolution.

A

A. Four piston strokes and two crank shaft revolutions.

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2
Q

What causes the piston speed to slow down causing the power stroke to end?

A. The intake valve closing as the piston reaches the top.
B. The exhaust valve opening as the piston nears the bottom.
C. The turbocharger turbine slowing with the loss of exhaust gas.
D. The flywheel limiting the crankshaft movement slowing the piston.

A

B. The exhaust valve opening as the piston nears the bottom.

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3
Q

What helps to remove any exhaust gases during the engines exhaust stroke?

A. The piston coming up with the intake valve closed.
B. The intake valve starting to open at the end of the stroke.
C. The intake valve starting to close at the beginning of the stroke.
D. The piston coming down with both intake and exhaust valves closed.

A

B. The intake valve starting to open at the end of the stroke.

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4
Q

Before using diesel fuel, what must be done to help ensure sediment and debris do not clog the fuel system?

A. Use a strainer to sift out any large deposits.
B. Allow the fuel to sit for several hours before using it.
C. Use a pressure-feed system to avoid disrupting the fuel.
D.pass the fuel through the engine fuel filters before servicing.

A

B. Allow the fuel to sit for several hours before using it.

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5
Q

What is the purpose of the manually-actuated knob on the engines fuel transfer pump?

A. Remove air from the fuel lines that block fuel flow.
B. Provide addition pressure to operate the fuel injection pump.
C. Operate the engine when the fuel injection pump is defective.
D. Remove fuel from the fuel lines for servicing the fuel system.

A

A. Remove air from the fuel lines that block fuel flow.

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6
Q

How does the governor actuator control the amount of fuel delivered to the cylinders?

A. Signals from the magnetic pickup open or closed the fuel filter valve.
B. It sends signals to the governor controller to operate the fuel transfer pump.
C. The magnetic pickup sends voltage to the actuator to be fully open or fully closed.
D. It operates the fuel injection pump throttle by signals from the governor controller.

A

D. It operates the fuel injection pump throttle by signals from the governor controller.

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7
Q

When the propylene glycol in the engine’s coolant is exposed to heat and air, it

A. Boils very rapidly.
B. Produces lactic acid.
C. Creates phosgene gas.
D. Loses freeze protection.

A

B. Produces lactic acid.

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8
Q

The engine’s coolant is circulated to the radiator when the

A. Environmental control system operates.
B. Engine starts, operating the water pump.
C. Thermostats start opening at 180 degrees Fahrenheit.
D. Oil cooler thermostat opens at 212 degrees Fahrenheit.

A

C. Thermostats start opening at 180 degrees Fahrenheit.

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9
Q

What BEST describes how an engines starter motor works to start the process of combustion?

A. The starter drive gear meshes with the flywheel and turns it.
B. The starter motor spins the crankshaft to start piston operation.
C. The starter motor signals the magnetic pickup to turn the flywheel.
D. The starter drive gear meshes with the fuel injection pump to operate it.

A

A. The starter drive gear meshes with the flywheel and turns it.

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10
Q

How does the MPP know the engine has reached a sufficient speed during engine startup?

A. A contact closes at 400 RPMs to signal the MPP to stop cranking.
B. The starter solenoid deenergizes when the governor controller relay signals the MPP.
C. An overrunning clutch drive in the starter signals the MPP it is operating fast enough.
D. A contact closes at 1800 RPMs and signals the MPP to slow starter operation.

A

A. A contact closes at 400 RPMs to signal the MPP to stop cranking.

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11
Q

How does the MPP shut down the Diesel engine?

A. It energizes a compression release to stop the pistons
B. It deenergizes the governor controller to stop fuel flow.
C. It sends a stop signal to the electronic speed switch relay.
D. It signals the governor controller to stop the starter motor.

A

B. It deenergizes the governor controller to stop fuel flow.

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12
Q

How does the engine’s oil pressure switch operate?

A. It opens when the oil pressure falls and closes when the engine stops.
B. It opens on engine startup and remains open during engine operation.
C. It closes during engine operation and opens to signal a low oil pressure.
D. It closes on engine startup and remains closed for 30 seconds after shutdown.

A

B. It opens on engine startup and remains open during engine operation.

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13
Q

What actions should occur when the engine temperature reaches 220 degrees Fahrenheit?

A. The coolant thermostats should close.
B. The radiator dampers should start opening.
C. The engine should shut down because of high temperature.
D. The oil cooler should close to help cool the oil in the engine.

A

C. The engine should shut down because of high temperature.

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14
Q

The main circuit breaker in the engine’s generator control panel will protect the generator from excessive current by

A. Tripping, isolating the generator from its output.
B. Closing, allowing excessive current to discharge.
C. Closing, opening fuses in the start battery circuit.
D. Tripping, separating commercial and standby power.

A

A. Tripping, isolating the generator from its output.

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15
Q

What operates the elapsed time meter on the engine’s generator control panel?

A. The start battery circuit.
B. The output of the generator.
C. Fuel pressure from the injection pump.
D. Oil pressure from the oil pressure switch.

A

B. The output of the generator.

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16
Q

Why is an external power source needed in order for a generator to produce voltage?

A. The external power source grounds the collectors and slip rings.
B. The external power source creates a magnetic field in the stator.
C. The conductors need an external power source to rotate the armature.
D. The generator needs an external power source to power the cooling blower.

A

B. The external power source creates a magnetic field in the stator.

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17
Q

How does the voltage regulator and voltage adjust rheostat change the output voltage of the generator?

A. It flashes the exciter field when it loses its residual voltage charge.
B. It meters the right amount of DC voltage into the exciter.
C. It adjusts the resistance of the conductors in the main rotor to change speed.
D. It changes the polarity of the neutral conductor in the wye-connected output.

A

B. It meters the right amount of DC voltage into the exciter.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the MAF power system?

A. Distribute DC power to the missile and other loads.
B. Distribute AC power to the LCC.
C. Generate and distribute AC power to the LFSB.
D. Generate and distribute DC power to the LCEB.

A

B. Distribute AC power to the LCC.

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19
Q

The MAF commercial power main circuit breaker is used to

A. Isolate commercial power form the power line protection assembly.
B. Protect site equipment loads if commercial power current is excessive.
C. Remove power from the launch facility distribution box in an emergency.
D. Connect and disconnect commercial power to the launch support building.

A

C. As long as commercial power is connected.

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20
Q

What wing 4 and 5 LCC has 10 storage batteries connected in series-parallel?

A. Any primary LCC.
B. Wing command post LCC.
C. Alternate command post LCC.
D. Squadron command post LCC.

A

A. Any primary LCC.

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21
Q

What is the major difference between the wing 1 and wings 3/5 MAF DEU?

A, the wing 1 engine produces 100 kilowatts more power.
B. The wing 3/5 engine is a four-cylinder, two-stroke engine.
C. The wing 1 engine operates 400 revolutions per minute faster.
D. The wing 3/5 engine powers the above and below ground portions.

A

A. The wing 1 engine produces 100 kilowatts more power.

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22
Q

How are the storage batteries configured at ALL wing 1 LCC?

A. 12 batteries connected in series.
B. 16 batteries connected in series.
C. Six pairs of batteries connected in series-parallel.
D. Eight pairs of batteries connected in series parallel.

A

D. Eight pairs of batteries connected in series parallel.

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23
Q

At wing 3 and 5 LF, primary power passes through a primary power filter before entering the launcher to

A. Remove any EMP induced during a nuclear attack.
B. Protect site equipment from excessive current in commercial or standby power.
C. Prevent stray RFI from interfering with electronics.
D. Keep EMI from interfering with the buck boost transformer.

A

C. Prevent stray RFI from interfering with electronics.

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24
Q

In the wing 1 LF power system, the LDC panel contains circuit breakers for the

A. LDB panel.
B. Brine Chiller.
C. Sump pump SP-103.
D. Maintenance receptacles.

A

B. Brine chiller.

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25
Q

What statement describes a purpose of the battery charger alarm set group in the LF power system?

A. Connect and disconnect emergency backup power when needed.
B. Distribute power from the diesel electric unit to the distribution box.
C. Alert the missile combat crew when LF security has been compromised.
D. Convert the output of the motor generator to 28 VDC.

A

C. Alert the missile combat crew when LF security has been compromised.

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26
Q

What component installed on the MAF motor generator is NOT installed on the LF motor generator?

A. AC motor.
B. DC motor.
C. 400 Hertz AC generator.
D. 60 Hertz AC generator.

A

D. 60 Hertz AC generator.

27
Q

When the D-box connects ordnance devices to test loads, this means

A. The missile is ready for launch signals.
B. Emergency backup power is sufficient.
C. The SCS key is installed.
D. The monthly weapon systems test is being conducted.

A

C. The SCS key is installed.

28
Q

The Wings 3 and 5 main bus transfer switches in the ASU are

A. Used for monitoring commercial power.
B. Electrically positioned, mechanically held.
C. Powered by 120 VAC.
D. Not adjustable; they must be replaced when defective.

A

B. Electrically positioned, mechanically held.

29
Q

The MPP batteries consist of

A. One 24 volt battery.
B. Four 6 bolt batteries connected in series.
C. Two 12 volt batteries connected in series.
D. Two 24 volt batteries connected in series-parallel.

A

C. Two 12 volt batteries connected in series.

30
Q

What does the RSU give the missile combat crew the ability the ability to do?

A. Transfer the site from commercial to standby power.
B. Operate the diesel electric unit without connecting standby power.
C. Change the MPP mode of operation.
D. Contact a team on site via the SIN line.

A

A. Transfer the site from commercial to standby power.

31
Q

How does a transzorb protect the MPP from voltage spikes and power surges?

A. It will pulse a contractor coil to disconnect power.
B. It will short internally, opening a fuse to remove the spike.
C. It will ground a metal oxide variant or, causing it to blow open.
D. Its resistance increases as current increases, opening the circuit.

A

B. It will short internally, opening a fuse to remove the spike.

32
Q

What is the purpose of diode CR30 in the ASU?

A. Keeps the MPP batteries from draining when the Diesel engine cranks.
B. Isolates commercial and standby power so only one can be connected to site at a time.
C. Sends a pulse to connect or disconnect primary power when its base is biased.
D. Allows the MPP batteries to help the diesel start batteries during cranking.

A

A. Keeps the MPP batteries from draining while the Diesel engine cranks.

33
Q

What action(s) does the MPP take when the MANUAL push button is pressed?

A. Starts the diesel and initiates GMR-5.
B. Disconnects commercial power, starts the diesel and connects standby power.
C. Lights MANUAL and initiates a GMR-3 indicating standby power is good.
D. Monitors standby power and disconnects commercial if it meets connect limits.

A

A. Starts the diesel and initiates GMR-5

34
Q

What CAN happen at a MAF if the motor generator start switch is NOT pressed during motor generator startup?

A. The distribution box will not be able to distribute DC power from the motor generator.
B. The MPP will disconnect commercial power.
C. The motor generator will start up on DC from the batteries.
D. The MPP will not be able to connect standby power after start up.

A

B. The MPP will disconnect commercial power.

35
Q

What condition must standby power meet for the MPP to connect it to site?

A. Line-to-neutral voltage between 111 and 132 VAC.
B. The voltage of one phase within 20 VAC of the average of all phases.
C. Frequency less than 58 Hz for more than two seconds.
D. Frequency less than 67 Hz, but greater than 62 Hz.

A

A. Line-to-neutral voltage between 111 and 132 VAC.

36
Q

What will happen if standby power was connected to site and the phase sequence was incorrect?

A. All electrical equipment will operate backwards causing equipment damage.
B. Three-phase motors will operate backwards, causing equipment damage.
C. The MPP will disconnect standby power.
D. The MPP will automatically connect commercial power.

A

B. Three-phase motors will operate backwards, causing equipment damage.

37
Q

What action will the MPP take if commercial power does not meet connect limits for 45 seconds after setting the MPP power switch to ON?

A. It will perform an auto reset.
B. COML PWR AVAIL will flash.
C. It will initiate a transfer to standby power.
D. It will continue monitoring for four minutes and 45 seconds.

A

C. It will initiate a transfer to standby power.

38
Q

If standby power has been connected for three hours following a commercial power lockout, what will happen if commercial power still does not meet connect limits after three hours?

A. The site will transfer to emergency battery power until commercial power meets limits.
B. A GMR-5 will report indicating a commercial power failure.
C. The tree-hour time will be extended in one hour increments until commercial power meets limits.
D. After three hours, the MPP will begin the diesel’s cool down period.

A

C. The three-hour time will be extended in one hour increments until commercial power is restored.

39
Q

After commercial power fails three times in a 30 minute period, what action will the MPP take?

A. It will lockout commercial power and transfer to standby power.
B. As long as commercial power meets connect limits, the MPP will automatically reconnect it.
C. It will automatically enter TEST mode and intimate a transfer to standby power for one hour.
D. Emergency battery power will operate the site until commercial power is restored.

A

A. It will lockout commercial power and transfer to standby power for a minimum of three hours.

40
Q

How does the MPP perform a periodic exercise of the DEU?

A. Operates the DEU unloaded for 30 minutes every 30 days.
B. Starts the DEU and connects standby power for 60 minutes every 30 days.
C. Activates the remote start unit and operates the DEU for 3 hours every 30 days.
D. Masks commercial power to force a transfer to standby power for 60 minutes every 30 days.

A

B. Starts the DEU and connects standby power for 60 minutes every day.

41
Q

Once standby power connects after the TEST push button has been pressed, how long until the DEU shut down?

A. 30 minutes and a five-minute cool down.
B. 45 minutes and a 15-minute cool down.
C. Until another mode of operation is selected.
D. Until standby power is acceptable for five minutes.

A

A. 30 minutes and a five-minute cool down.

42
Q

No other mode of operation can be selected on the MPP if it is operating in

A. AUTO
B. TEST
C. MANUAL
D. DEU DISABLE

A

D. DEU DISABLE

43
Q

What MPP indicator will continue to flash if it was flashing at the start of a lamp test?

A. RESET
B. DEU BATTERY
C. SYSTEM CHECK
D. COML PWR FAIL

A

C. SYSTEM CHECK

44
Q

What indication will cause the COML PWR FAIL indicator to flash?

A. Commercial power phases reversed.
B. Commercial power voltage out of tolerance.
C. Commercial power cannot be connected to site.
D. Commercial power cannot be disconnected form site.

A

A. Commercial power phases reversed.

45
Q

When the DEU BATTERY and STBY PWR FAIL indicators illuminate, what VDC does that indicate the diesel start batteries are?

A. Below 19 VDC.
B. Below 27, but above 24 VDC.
C. Below 22.5 , but above 19 VDC.
D. Below 24, but above 22.5 VDC.

A

C. Below 22.5, but above 19 VDC.

46
Q

What action does the MPP take when the NON REQD DEU RUN indicator illuminates?

A. Enters MANUAL mode since it is running unloaded.
B. Attempts to reconnect standby power in AUTO mode.
C. Enters TEST mode to keep the DEU from running unloaded.
D. Attempts to disconnect standby power when RESET is pressed.

A

C. Enters TEST mode to keep the DEU from running unloaded.

47
Q

What condition could cause the ENG OVERSPEED, STBY PWR FAIL, and DEU INHIBITED indicators to illuminate on the MPP?

A. Governor actuator failed to reposition during diesel startup.
B. Standby power main circuit breaker tripped during diesel operation.
C. Electronic speed switch, switch #2 closed during diesel non-operation.
D. Electronic speed switch, switch #1 failed to close during diesel start-up.

A

B. Standby power main circuit breaker tripped during diesel operation.

48
Q

What condition could cause the the FUEL DAY TANK LOW and STBY PWR FAIL indicators to illuminate on the MPP?

A. Diesel immersion heater fails to shut down.
B. 60 inches of fuel remains in the fuel day tank.
C. Fuel leak detected around the underground storage tank.
D. High-side contacts of the water temperature switch gage closed.

A

C. Fuel leak detected around the underground storage tank.

49
Q

What does the site code input tell the MPP?

A. At what missile wing it is installed.
B. What missile site designator it is installed in.
C. Which modifications have been done to the site.
D. Whether it is installed in a launch facility or missile alert facility.

A

A. At what missile wing it is installed.

50
Q

What component does the MPP’s standby power failure output keep energized to keep the GMR-5 from reporting?

A. K2 in the distribution box.
B. K1 in the launch control center.
C. K2 in the automatic switching unit.
D. K1 in the launcher equipment room.

A

D. K1 in the launcher equipment room.

51
Q

What condition would cause a STBY PWR FAIL indicator to illuminate on the MPP with no accompanying indicators?

A. The crank solenoid output fails to start the Diesel engine.
B. The low lube oil pressure input is lost during diesel non-operation.
C. The crank cutout input is received when the diesel was not cranking.
D. The standby power on read back input is received when no pulse was sent.

A

C. The crank cutout input is received when the diesel was not cranking.

52
Q

The MPP will indicate a flashing SYSTEM CHECK indicator and a STBY PWR FAIL if the

A. Standby power failure output is 24 VDC.
B. MPP issues the solenoid output, but the engine fails to start.
C. Crank solenoid output circuit opens, losing monitor voltage.
D. Diesel start battery input falls to 22.5 VDC.

A

C. Crank solenoid output circuit opens, losing monitor voltage.

53
Q

The fuel leak detection monitor system’s sump sensor is designed to

A. Determine if the storage tank level is low.
B. Determine if the storage tank is overfilled.
C. Detect leaks in the diesel fuel supply and return lines.
D. Detect leaks between the double-walled fiber glass system.

A

C. Detect leaks in the diesel fuel supply and return line.

54
Q

When refueling the underground storage tank, an alarm will activate at the monitor panel if the tank level exceeds

A. 50 to 60 percent of tank capacity.
B. 75 to 80 percent of tank capacity.
C. 85 percent of tank capacity.
D. 90 percent of tank capacity.

A

D. 90 percent of tank capacity.

55
Q

What is the purpose of the manual fuel transfer pump in the launch facility (LF) diesel fuel system?

A. Transfer fuel from the day tank to the engine in an emergency.
B. Remove fuel from the day tank to check for water accumulation.
C. Pump fuel through the Y-type strainer during periodic inspections.
D. Transfer fuel from the storage tank to the day tank in an emergency.

A

D. Transfer fuel from the storage tank to the day tank in an emergency.

56
Q

Why must the sump pump SP103 NOT be operated in HAND without water covering the pump intake?

A. Without water, the sump discharge will lose pressure.
B. If the seals are deteriorated, the pump cannot move water.
C. Water cools the pump motor, thus it could overheat and burn up.
D. An alarm indication will be initiated to the missile combat crew.

A

C. Water cools the pump motor, thus it could overheat and burn up.

57
Q

What would happen if check valves were not installed between the SP103 and SP102 sump pumps?

A. Water from the SP102 pit will not pump topside.
B. Water from the SP103 pit will pump into the SP102 pit.
C. Water from the SP103 pit will pump in front of the launcher closure.
D. Water from the SP104 will empty into the SP102 and SP103 sump pits.

A

B. Water from the SP103 pit will pump into the SP102 pit.

58
Q

When the wing 1 sump pump SP102 is operating in AUTO mode, it will stop operating when water clears the

A. Alarm probe, causing R1 to energize.
B. Stop probe, causing R1 to deenergize.
C. Start probe, causing M1 to deenergize.
D. Common probe causing R2 to deenergize.

A

B. Stop probe, causing R1 to deenergize.

59
Q

In the wing 3 sump pump sp102 system, what should happen when the water level rises to 24 inches in the sump pit?

A. The low level and high level float switches should be closed.
B. The low level float switch is open because the water is too low.
C. Both float switches are closed and water is contacting the alarm probe.
D. The low level float should be closed, but the high level float switch is open.

A

A. The low level and high level float switches should be closed.

60
Q

In the wing 3 sump pump SP102 system, what causes relay R3 to energize?

A. When relay R4 deenergizes and contacts R4A opens.
B. Water contacting the high level probe, grounding the relay.
C. When the motor starter energizes, closing the R3A contacts.
D. Water contacting the low level float, energizing the motor starter.

A

B. Water contacting the high level probe, grounding the relay.

61
Q

What will likely result if the SP102 sump pump motor is seized?

A. The motor windings will short out.
B. The pump will cavitatie and not pump water.
C. The motor starter will energize, but not operate.
D. The circuit breaker will trip from excessive amps.

A

D. The circuit breaker will trip from excessive amps.

62
Q

What condition indicates the SP102 sump pump motor windings are open?

A. 120 VAC line-to-neutral.
B. 120 VAC between two phases.
C. A very high resistance reading between two phases.
D. Approximately 4 ohms of resistance line-to-neutral.

A

C. A very high resistance reading between two phases.

63
Q

What will happen in the Wing 1 SP102 sump pump system if the R2 relay contacts fail to reposition?

A. The motor starter cannot deenergize when water clears the common probe.
B. The alarm will continue to report without water contacting the alarm probe.
C. The holding circuit will not setup and the pump will shut down immediately.
D. The operating light on the control panel will not illuminate when the pump runs.

A

B. The alarm will continue to report without water contacting the alarm probe.

64
Q

Before operating the sump pump SP102 in HAND, how can you verify water is covering the pump intake from the control panel?

A, Open the SP102 sump pit to verify the presence of water.
B. Dump your eyewash water into the air conditioner drain.
C. Check voltage in the control panel on the probes/switches.
D. If motor starter M1 is energized, you can assume there is water.

A

C. Check voltage in the control panel on the probes/switches.

Volume 3 Power Generation and Distribution Systems (1 decks)

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