URE 1-3 Flashcards
(262 cards)
1
Q
What is an example of analog-to-digital and digital-to-analog techniques?
A
Pulse code modulation (PCM) and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation.
2
Q
What converts analog signal information into an analog carrier signal?
A
Analog modulation.
3
Q
What converts analog signal information into a digital carrier signal?
A
Digital modulation.
4
Q
The information-carrying components that occur on either side of a carrier are called
A
sidebands.
5
Q
Amplitude modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is
A
twice that of the modulating signal.
6
Q
The upper sideband in a single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation is eliminated by
A
filtering.
7
Q
We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as
A
8 dB of improvement.
8
Q
The only basic waveform in nature is a
A
pure sine wave.
9
Q
A modulated waveform that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of
A
an amplitude modulation (AM).
10
Q
If 100 percent modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal, additional sidebands are generated. We identify these sidebands as what?
A
Splatter.
11
Q
The amount of deviation in a frequency modulation (FM) signal is directly proportional to the modulating signal’s
A
amplitude.
12
Q
The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the
A
amplitude of the modulating signal.
13
Q
What form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?
A
Binary-phase shift keying or bi-phase shift keying (BPSK).
14
Q
In quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) the radio frequency (RF) bandwidth for a quadriphase signal is what of that required by a bi-phase signal, given the same data rate.
A
half.
15
Q
What is the main advantage of differential phase shift keying (DPSK)?
A
It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal.
16
Q
Which of the following is not considered an analog modulation techniques?
A
pulse-code modulation (PCM).
17
Q
The form of pulse modulation in which the pulse is varied within a set range of positions is known as
A
pulse-position modulation (PPM).
18
Q
Quantized analog modulation is actually
A
analog-to-digital conversion.
19
Q
How many bits per character of a 16-step pulse-code modulation (PCM) system are used to describe the quantized analog sample?
A
4.
20
Q
The process of coding pulse code modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is
A
encoding.
21
Q
In Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), the transmitting multiplexer will put a bit or a byte from each of the incoming lines into a specifically allocated what?
A
time slot.
22
Q
The two major types of frame structures are
A
CCITT and low speed.
23
Q
The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is
A
time division.
24
Q
Wave-division multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmission by using different
A
wavelengths or lambdas.
25
The most common wave-division multiplexing (WDM) system uses how many wavelengths?
Two wavelengths.
26
Individual pulses within a digital signal are
bits.
27
What unit is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
Bits per second.
28
Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by
system timing faults.
29
Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are
synchronous, asynchronous, and isochronous.
30
Which option is a characteristic of synchronous data operation?
All data bits are the same length in time.
31
A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes
asynchronous operation.
32
In what type of signal is the information contained in the transition, and there is a transition from one state to the other only when a mark bit is sent?
Non-return-to-zero mark.
33
In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
Return-to-zero.
34
Which statement best describes an alternate mark inversion (AMI) signal?
A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.
35
Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to
maintain ones density standards.
36
Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?
Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.
37
The major difference between conditioned di-phase (CDI) and other schemes is the
voltage levels used for signaling the mid-bit transitions.
38
How many bits are in the D4 framing sequence?
12.
39
How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?
24.
40
What communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?
Tone dialing.
41
What communications information signal uses a continuous 350- and 440-Hz frequency pair?
Dial tone.
42
What communications information signal uses a signal cycled on and off for 0.5 second and contains the generation of a 480- and 620-Hz frequency pair?
Busy signal.
43
What communications supervisory signal uses a continuous application of direct current voltage for signaling?
Loop-start.
44
When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling?
Off-hook condition.
45
In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used to convey signaling information known as?
Bit robbing.
46
In what common channel signaling (CCS) mode are the messages relating to signaling between two points conveyed directly interconnecting these signaling points?
Associated mode.
47
What are the two principle weighting characteristics in use with telecommunication circuit noise?
CCITT posphometric and C-message.
48
While timing makes sure the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals, synchronization makes sure that the
receive equipment can find its place in the bit stream.
49
What term is associated with the delay or lag introduced in the application of voltage from one section to the next?
Latency.
50
Attenuation distortion is caused by
differing attenuation rates for the various frequency components comprising a voice frequency transmission.
51
Jamming a portion of the frequency spectrum is an example of
electronic attack.
52
The definition of electronic attack can be found in which publication?
Air Force Doctrine Document 2-5.1.
53
Any actions we take to protect our forces, facilities, and equipment for electronic action that can destroy or degrade our capabilities is considered
electronic protection.
54
Varying the pulse repetition frequency on a radar set is an example of
electronic combat.
55
Electronic warfare support includes devices such as
radar warning receivers and intelligence systems.
56
When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?
Voltage terminal.
57
When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations?
Display hold.
58
When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading fluctuates and a more accurate reading is desired?
Minimum/maximum (MIN/MAX).
59
When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested.
60
What principle of operation does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?
Radar.
61
Which push-buttons would you select to get 125-ohm (Ù) impedance on the time domain reflectometer?
50Ù and 75Ù.
62
What is the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer (TDR)?
Backscatter.
63
What are the two major sections of a bit error rate test (BERT) set?
Transmitter and receiver.
64
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
Receiver.
65
What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding?
Extended superframe.
66
When performing a bit error rate test (BERT), what determines the size of a test pattern segment?
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
67
What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity in violation of alternate mark inversion coding rules?
Bipolar violation.
68
On a breakout box, how many RS-232 key interface signals can be monitored and accessed individually?
12.
69
The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to
allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors.
70
What happens when more bits are added to a digital signal arranged in a sequence understood by the sender and receiver?
A code set is established.
71
How many possible symbols can 4 bits represent?
16.
72
In networking, a byte is identified as a/an
word.
73
What organization sets important computer networking wiring standards for residential and commercial network cabling?
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA).
74
What Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)/Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA) standard is used for commercially building telecommunications cabling?
568A.
75
Which of the following is an International Telecommunication Union (ITU) standardized format used for digital telecommunications services backbone system?
E-carrier.
76
There is a worldwide nonprofit association of technical professionals that promotes the development of standards called the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
77
A collection of standards for local area network (LAN) architectures, protocols, and technologies called Project 802 were developed by the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
78
The "parent" organization, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, for all other telecommunications organizations is the
International Telecommunication Union (ITU).
79
What organization is responsible for the X-series and V-series standards?
International Telecommunication Union Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-T).
80
Which series of standards are recommended for data transmission using the telephone network?
V.
81
The definition of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) reference model was a major contribution to networking made by the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
82
Within how many feet of the data communications equipment (DCE) connection does the
Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-232-C standard prescribes bipolar-voltage serial data
transmission?
50.
83
Which Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) interface standard has the ability to work in either balanced or unbalanced electrical circuits?
RS-530.
84
What transmission rates does Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-530 accommodate?
20 Kbps to 2 megabits per second (Mbps).
85
What two sublayers did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divide the Open System Interconnect (OSI) data link layers into?
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).
86
At what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
Presentation.
87
What Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer is closest to the end user?
Application.
88
In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?
Lowest layer.
89
Which information unit, whose source and destination are network-layer entities, uses connectionless network service?
Datagram.
90
What data communication protocol is used to govern the flow and format of information between systems?
Character-oriented.
91
In binary-synchronous protocol, what character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?
SYN.
92
What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?
Bit-oriented.
93
What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage?
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC).
94
A group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area is a
Local area network (LAN).
95
The interconnection of several networks in a city into a single larger network is a
Metropolitan area network (MAN).
96
What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances?
Wide area network (WAN).
97
What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate
over the public Internet?
Virtual private network (VPN).
98
Which type network enables users to share resources, files, and printers in a decentralized way?
Peer-to-peer.
99
What Network layer protocol provides information about how and where data should be delivered, including the data's source and destination addresses?
Internet protocol (IP).
100
Which Network layer protocol matches a known internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
101
Which Network layer protocol provides the internet protocol (IP) address for a device that knows its own Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
102
Which Transport layer protocol does not guarantee that packets will be received at all?
User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
103
Which Application layer protocol is used to send and receive files by way of transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
104
Which protocol is simpler than File Transfer Protocol (FTP) when transferring files between computers?
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).
105
Which Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation used to log on to remote hosts?
Teletype Network.
106
Which Application layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique internet protocol (IP) address to every device on a network?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
107
Which Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) is installed and communicating with the network?
Ping.
108
The physical address of any device on the network is a/an
Media Access Control (MAC) address.
109
What are the two parts to an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?
Network and host.
110
What is used on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network to determine which network a computer is on?
Subnet mask.
111
How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?
Seven.
112
How many bits are available for host bits on a Class B network using seven bits?
Nine.
113
What is not a recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)?
Re-address the entire network.
114
What mechanism allows for easier Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address allocations?
Auto configuration.
115
Which one of the following is not an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) transition approach?
Auto configuration.
116
Which Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) tunneling approach attempts to solve the issue of IPv6 to IP version 4 (IPv4), IP protocol 41 issue?
Teredo.
117
Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?
Teredo agent.
118
The combination transmitter/receiver device, in a single package, is called a
transceiver.
119
What device provides the physical, electrical, and electronic connections to the network media?
Network interface card (NIC).
120
What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong?
Physical and Data Link layers.
121
A repeater with more than one output port is a
hub.
122
What can be used to extend the size of a network?
Gateway.
123
What device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?
Switch.
124
The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called
latency.
125
Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
Router.
126
A router's strength is its
intelligence.
127
What is the oldest routing protocol?
Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
128
Which routing protocol does internet backbones use?
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
129
What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet, and vice versa?
Internet.
130
What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a local area network (LAN)?
LAN.
131
Virtual private networks (VPN) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
public network.
132
Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
Encapsulates data.
133
What cable discrepancies can a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect?
Kinks, opens, and corroded connectors.
134
What type of cable property changes does a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect to identify problems?
Impedance.
135
When using an optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action is suggested by most manufacturers to prevent false readings?
Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.
136
A cable scanner wire-map display identifies crossover and straight-through cables by
providing wiring maps at both ends of the cable.
137
What test equipment has the capability of diagnosing digital network and developing communications software?
Protocol analyzer.
138
Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
Filter.
139
What component of a protocol analyzer processes the frames based on the selected test and the user configuration inputs?
Central processing unit (CPU).
140
What protocol analyzer feature automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
Node discovery.
141
What protocol analyzer utility is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
Ping.
142
What protocol analyzer utility is used to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip?
Trace Route.
143
A Management Information Base (MIB) can be identified by either its object name or its object what?
Descriptor.
144
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) has three components: a managed device, an agent and a
Network Management System (NMS).
145
Which of the following is not a basic Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) command?
Get.
146
Which network management function provides the capability to initialize, operate and shut down managed devices?
Configuration.
147
Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network devices and provides statistical data about the network?
Performance.
148
The community name that is used with the network management systems (NMS) authenticates
simple network management protocol (SNMP) requests.
149
What defines the format and type of data in a network management system (NMS) report?
Report template.
150
What process provides the overall process to secure and protect our information networks?
Barrier Reef.
151
What defines traffic flow and is a basic protection mechanism on routers?
Access lists.
152
The World Wide Web (WWW) proxy provides three benefits: it conceals internal network configuration, provides a means to monitor and eliminate traffic to unofficial WWW sites, and
provides much faster access to the internet.
153
What is one of the primary functions of the Network Control Center (NCC), usually done in real time, and ensures the system is being operated within the parameters established by network security policy?
System monitoring.
154
What security posture permits everything that is not specifically blocked?
Open.
155
What security posture prevents everything that is not specifically authorized?
Default deny.
156
What is the first line of defense when gaining access to a laptop computer's operating system?
Logon identification and password combination.
157
Who has unrestricted access to system commands and data?
Supersusers.
158
What must be employed to ensure data integrity?
Check sums.
159
What method is approved for changing passwords through the use of remote access?
Strongly encrypted virtual private network.
160
An intrusion detection system (IDS) may miss attacks that bypass the firewall like application-based attacks and
tunneling.
161
What type of firewall can filter messages according to a set of rules for a specific application?
Proxy server.
162
What are the two vulnerability scanner examination techniques?
Passive and active.
163
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
weather effects.
164
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
Propagation medium.
165
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is
frequency.
166
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
22,300.
167
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
168
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
modulated.
169
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
Groundwave.
170
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.
171
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
a relatively wide range of frequencies.
172
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
laser light.
173
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the
primary rate interface (PRI).
174
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
23, 1.
175
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange system?
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
176
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
177
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
confidentiality, and integrity.
178
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
Subversion
179
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
180
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?
3.
181
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?
DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.
182
What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?
100,000.
183
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
CM and system load module (SLM).
184
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
DS-512.
185
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and trunk subscribers?
peripheral module (PM).
186
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.
187
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
cable vault.
188
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
189
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
Vertical bus.
190
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available
output channel.
191
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
Table control.
192
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
Pending order file.
193
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?
Journal file.
194
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?
Meridian mail user interface.
195
What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
196
Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?
R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision.
197
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
encoder.
198
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
199
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
MPEG-2.
200
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
8.
201
How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
Series of magnetic patterns.
202
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
electromagnet.
203
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
Playback.
204
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
minimizing video loss.
205
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
206
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
D1.
207
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?
Counter.
208
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
Effects keyer.
209
The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
210
The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
remote control of switcher transitions.
211
The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.
212
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
213
What is the beginning of a cable system called?
Head-end.
214
What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
Modulator.
215
What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
Trunk line.
216
What must a line of detection detect?
Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
217
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
218
The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to
facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
219
The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
220
What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?
AN/GSS-39.
221
What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).
222
What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?
EOL module.
223
Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
Passive infrared.
224
What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?
1.5 to 15 seconds.
225
Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?
15-75 feet.
226
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?
Analog.
227
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
300.
228
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
Sector reporting priority.
229
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
328 feet.
230
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
200 feet.
231
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is removed?
Tamper.
232
In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) remain operational?
4.
233
How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?
2.
234
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?
150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
235
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?
1200 Hz.
236
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
Beam break.
237
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?
Lowest possible.
238
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.
239
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
240
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?
Crypto.
241
If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks,
we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to
timing slips.
242
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can handle?
16.
243
How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?
16, 8.
244
For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto Interface Module's router normally acts as the
external router.
245
For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary?
CV-2048/8448-D.
246
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of.
2.
247
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC) equipment?
Internet.
248
What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
Gateway/client.
249
The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
Ku, Ka.
250
What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?
Military.
251
Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television settop converter box?
Video converter.
252
A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
253
Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval of
the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
254
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?
72.
255
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the
Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
Exception.
256
Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
preempted outages.
257
Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis?
Monthly.
258
If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
Quality control (QC).
259
The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the
"from" (sending) station.
260
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?
310-70-1 and 310-55-1.
261
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
National Communications System (NCS).
262
What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?
provisioning and restoration.
