Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What are the risk factors associated with GORD?

A

GORD is associated with the western lifestyle. Most clinicians believe that smoking, drinking, and overeating are contributing risk factors. Other risk factors include family history, old age, or a hiatus hernia.

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2
Q

What is the role of the lower oesophageal sphincter is GORD?

A

The lower oesophageal sphincter is the high pressure zone interposed between the high pressure area of the abdomen and the low pressure area of the thorax. In some patients with GORD, the lower oesophageal sphincter has no recordable tone, and therefor appears to be patulous. However, it is possible to have GORD and have normal tone, so the loss of tone appears to be caused by the GORD related damage. The damage may then act as a perpetuating factor.

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3
Q

What is the role of oesophageal peristaltic activity in GORD?

A

Many patients with GORD have disordered motility and do a poor job of clearing the reflux material. This may be a consequence, rather than a cause, of GORD.

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4
Q

What are some of the complications of GORD?

A

Rarely, GORD may lead to fibrosis and stricture formation.
It may also cause chronic blood loss and iron deficiency anaemia.
GORD may also cause squamous mucosa to be replaced with gastric columnar mucosa (Barret’s oesophagus). This can cause a loss of typical GORD symptoms, but increases risk of Adenocarcinoma. (A barret’s ulcer is an ulcer that develops in the columnar mucosa).

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5
Q

Reflux is associated with what type of hernia?

A

Whilst the two can exsist independently, reflux tends to occur in patients that have a sliding hiatus hernia and visa versa (a sliding hiatus hernia tends to occur in patients who have reflux). It is believed that the loss of the angle of entry between the oesophagus and stomach takes away an anatomical barrier that would otherwise stop reflux.

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6
Q

What is a sliding hiatus hernia?

A

In order to be classified as a ‘sliding hernia’ the viscus must form part of the wall of the hernial sac. In a sliding hiatus hernia, this is due to the ‘bare area’ (an area of the stomach that doesn’t have peritoneal covering).Thus when the gastrooesophageal junction slides up through the hiatus, there is a layer of peritoneum on the front and sides, but not on the back.

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7
Q

What is a paraoesophageal hiatus hernia?

A

A paraoesophageal hiatus hernia is also known as a rolling hiatus hernia.It occurs when the gastro-oesophageal junction stays in place, but there is a rolling up of the stomach in front of the oesophagus into the mediastinum. Rolling hernias can be asymptomatic, or they can be associated with pain and discomfort after meals, as well as episodes of acute pain associated with intermittent twisting of the stomach. Patients may present as an acute emergency with strangulation of the hernia.

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8
Q

What are the different types of hiatus henias and what is the main differences between the two?

A

There are sliding hiatus hernias, paraoesophageal hiatus hernias, and mixed hiatus hernias. In sliding hiatus hernias the gastrooesphageal junction moves, whereas the gastrooesphageal junction is fixed in paraoesophageal hernias. Sliding hernias are associated with GORD, paraoesophageal hernias are associated with pain and strangulation.

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9
Q

How do you treat GORD?

A
First line: Proton Pump Inhibitors (omeprazole, esomeprazole, pantoprazole), as well as elevation of the bed head, avoid late night eating, weightloss, and avoid aggravating foods.
H2 antagonists (ranitidine, cimetidine) can be added to PPI's to help alleviate nighttime symptoms.
Also consider surgical options.
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10
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of GORD?

A

Retrosternal burning after eating, bending down, or lifting heavy things. May be exacerbated by certain foods. May be worse when lying down, after ETOH, or overeating.
Regurgitation of gastric contents into mouth. May cause iron deficiency anaemia, recurrent halitosis, hoarseness of voice, or loss of tooth enamel.

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11
Q

What is the main surgical procedure used to treat GORD?

A

GORD can be treated surgically via a fundoplication. A funduplication is where the fundus of the stomach in drawn round behind the oesophagus and then is stitched to itself in front of the oesophagus. It is done laparscopically,

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12
Q

What are the complications of antireflux surgery?

A

The complications of antireflux surgery include dysphagia (occurs if the wrap is too tight). It is common for patients to be unable to burp after the surgery, leading to feelings of bloating. In some patients, the wrap breaks down and there is a return of reflux (15% of patients).

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13
Q

Describe the post op care after laparoscopic fundoplication.

A

Post op fluids are reintroduced immediately. A soft diet is then introduced when the patient can handle it. Discharge after 2-3 days. Advise patient to avoid lifting weights, or from doing anything that raises their intrabdominal pressure for 8 weeks.

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14
Q

What are the different types of benign oesophageal cancers?

A

Benign oesophageal cancers only make up 1% of all oesophageal cancers. The most common type is a leiomyoma (a cancer of the smooth muscle). Other types include papillomas, fibrovascular polyps. granulocellular tumours, adenomas, heamangiomas, neurofibromas, and lipomas.

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15
Q

What is the most common type of oesophageal cancer in the western world? What is the most common type of cancer in the world?

A

Adenocarcinomas (associated with GORD) are the most common type of cancer in the western world. Squamous cell carcinomas are the most common type in the world.
30% of patients with Barrett’s oesophagus have adenocarcinoma. There is a hypothesis that high rates of helicobacter pylori in the east are protective against GORD and therefore adenocarcinoma, however this is controversial.

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16
Q

What is the typical location of squamous cell carcinomas of the oesophagus?

A

Oesophageal Squamous Cell Carcinomas typically occur in the middle to lower oesophagus.

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17
Q

What is the typical location of an adenocarcinoma?

A

Adenocarcinomas typically occur in the cardia. However, with the rise in incidence of adenocarcinomas, they are now being seen in the lower oesophagus as well.

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18
Q

What are the different divisions of the Oesophagus?

A

Cervical Oesophagus (cricopharyngeus to thoracic inlet) = 18cm
Upper 1/3 thoracic Oesophagus (thoracic inlet to tracheal bifurcation) = 24 cm
Middle and Lower thirds of Thoracic Oesophagus (Tracheal bifurcation to stomach) = 40cm. The division between the two is halfway at 40cm.

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19
Q

What is the typical clinical presentation of Oesophageal Cancer?

A

Most patients are >50 years old and are male. They present with dysphagia with is rapid in onset, that first affects foods and then solids, progressing within a matter of weeks. Other symptoms include: regurgitation, weightloss, substernal pain, discomfort. If hoarseness is present then there is a recurrent laryngeal palsy from tumour infiltration.
Coughing or choking from aspiration is caused by vocal cord palsy, or the development of an oesophageal respiratory fistula.
NB: SCC’s of the oesophagus rarely bleed. If there is bleeding from the oesophagus, it is likely to be an adenocarcinoma of the gastrooesophageal junction.

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20
Q

How would you investigate a suspected oesophageal carcinoma?

A

Barium Swallow (identifies location and length of oesophageal narrowing, mucosal irregularity, dilatation of proximal oesophagus, and the ‘shouldering’ made by the upper border of the tumour.
Biopsy, brush cytology and application of Lugol’s iodine stain.
Bronchopsy can be used if the tumour is near the tracheobronchial tree.
Endoscopic ultrasonography to stage the tumour
CT and PET scan to identify mets.

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21
Q

How do you treat oesophageal cancer?

A

Treat early disease with surgical resection. if there is locally or regionally advanced disease, give chemo and radiotherapy, and then surgically resect if possible.
Surgical resection is contraindicated if there is infiltration of the aorta or tracheobronchial tree, or if there are distant nodes or metastases.

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22
Q

What is a Lewis-Tanner (Ivan Lewis) operation?

A

The Lewis Tanner (Ivan Lewis) operation is used for tumours in the middle and lower oesophagus. The stomach is mobilised via laparotomy (this affects the right gastric and right gastroepiploic arteries). A pyloroplasty or pylorotomy is performed to enhance gastric drainage. The oesophagus is then resected through a right thoracotomy. The stomach is delivered up into the thorax via the diaphragmatic hiatus to anastomose with the oesophagus through a right thoracotomy. For a type two or type three tumour that is around the gastro-oesophageal junction, an extended total gastrectomy with a distal oesophageal resection is performed.

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23
Q

What is a McKeown’s procedure?

A

McKeown’s procedure is used for tumours of the upper thoracic oesophagus. An oesophagectomy can be performed via a right thoracotomy. Then, simultaneous incisions can be made in the left cervical and abdominal areas. These incisions are used to prepare the stomach and deliver it up to the neck for anastomoses.

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24
Q

What are the two surgical procedures that are commonly used to treat oesophageal cancer?

A

The Lewis Tanner is used for tumours in the middle and lower oesophagus (most tumours). A McKeown’s is used for tumours of the upper thoracic oesophagus.
An endoscopic mucousectomy can be used for a shallow lesion.

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25
Q

What are the complications of surgery for an oesophageal tumour?

A

Pulmonary complications are the most common, followed by cardiac.
Pulmonary complications include atelectasis, pneumothorax, bronchopneumonia, pleural effusion, sputum retention, PE.
Cardiac complications include atrial arrhythmia, MI, cardiac failure. Other complications include anastomotic leakage, damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, damage to the tracheobronchial tree, wound infection, empyema, and intra- or post operative haemorrhage.

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26
Q

What are the various treatment choices for oesophageal cancers?

A

Non surgical: Conservative management, external beam radiation, chemoradiotherapy, palliative radiotherapy, brachytherapy and intraluminal radiotherapy. NB neo adjuvant or adjuvant therapy with surgery is not used.
Laser therapy.
Surgical: Lewis Tanner, McKeown’s procedure, or Endoscopic mucosectomy (used for early mucosal lesions)

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27
Q

Where do peptic ulcers classically occur?

A

Peptic ulcers classically occur in the first part of the duodenum, the angula incisura of the stomach (just before the pyloric sphinter), the lower end of the oesophagus in patients with GORD, the efferent limb of a gastroenterostomy, and inside a Meckel’s diverticulum if it has ectopic gastric mucosa.

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28
Q

What causes peptic ulcers?

A

Peptic ulcers occur when there is an imbalance between acid pepsin digestion, and the defence mechanism of the mucosa is disturbed. The main cause of peptic ulcer disease is helicobacter pylori (gram negative organism that lives in the antrum of the stomach), NSAID intake, reflux of bile into the stomach, and mucosal ischeamia. Peptic ulcers are also associated with Zollinger Ellison syndrome.

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29
Q

What is the stomach’s defence mechanism against acid pepsin ingestion?

A
  • Thick mucosal layer between the lumen and stomach epithelial surface.
  • Secretion of bicarbonate
  • Rapid turnover of mucosal cells
30
Q

What are stress ulcers?

A

Stress ulcers are single or multiple mucosal defects which can become complicated by upper GI bleeding during the physiological stress caused by serious illness. Ordinary peptic ulcers are commonly found in the gastric antrum and duodenum, whereas stress ulcers are found in the fundic mucosa and can be found anywhere between the stomach and proximal duodenum.

31
Q

What is a Cushing’s Ulcer?

A

A Cushing’s Ulcer is a gastric stress ulcer that occurs as a result of elevated intracranial pressure, often after head injury.
This is caused by increased acid production, and mucosal ischeamia, caused by splachnic hypoperfusion.

32
Q

What is a Curling’s Ulcer?

A

A Curling’s ulcer is an acute peptic ulcer of the duodenum resulting as a complication of severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischeamia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa.

33
Q

Where do most duodenal ulcers occur?

A

Most duodenal ulcers occur is the duodenal bulb. The duodenal bulb is the area of the duodenum that is closest to the stomach (~5cm). This part of the duodenum is in the direct path of the acid contents of the stomach. It is also before the alkaline pancreatic juice and bile have had a chance to enter (they come in the second part of the duodenum).

34
Q

What are some of the risk factors for duodenal ulcers?

A

Duodenal ulcers are more common than gastric ulcers. They occur in younger patients, and are more common in men. Duodenal ulcers are more common in patients with a family history of the condition, blood type ‘O’, high circulating pepsinogen, non secretors of blood group antigens in the saliva.

35
Q

What are the clinical features of a duodenal ulcer?

A

A patient with a duodenal ulcer typically presents with epigastric pain that is dull or burning in character. Pain typically starts several hours after a meal, may wake the patient at night, and is relieved by food and antacids. Nausea and vomiting may be present after an acute exacerbation but are not prominent features.
NB: patients with duodenal ulcers will locate the pain to the epigastrium with one finger, unlike patients with non-ulcer dyspepsia. Apart from mild tenderness in the epigastrium, patients with non ulcer peptic disease do not show any findings. The course of peptic ulcer disease will be relapsing remitting. There will be weeks of severe pain interspersed by months of remission.

36
Q

What are the various causes of dyspepsia?

A

Dyspepsia is caused by:

  • Duodenal ulcers
  • Non-ulcer dyspepsia
  • GORD
  • Gastric cancer
  • Gallstones.
37
Q

How do you investigate ulcer disease?

A
Barium meal (may show an ulcer crater)
Flexible Endoscopy (most accurate diagnostic method)
Detection of helicobacter pylori by:
-Serology
-Urea breath test
-Rapid urease breath test
-Antrum biopsy
38
Q

What is a Urea breath Test?

A

A urea breath test is when a patient is given urea that is tagged with carbon via their mouth. eg. C13 or C14. If H. Pylori are in the stomach, they produce urease. The urease converts urea into CO2 and ammonia. This is a gas and will be breathed out. Consequently, the tagged carbon will then be found in the breath.

39
Q

What is a Rapid Urease Test?

A

In a rapid urease test, antral biopsies are taken. The antral biopsies are then embedded into a dye containing urea and an indicator dye (neutral red). When there is H. Pylori, the urease will act on the urea to produce ammonia, which turns the dye red.
NB: proton pump inhibitors decrease the number of H pylori, reducing the efficacy of the test. This can be avoided by ceasing to take the medications weeks before your test.

40
Q

How do you treat duodenal ulcers?

A

Treatment of duodenal ulcers is mainly medical. Treatment options include:
-Antacids (aluminium causes constipation, magnesium causes diarrhoea).
-H2 receptor antagonists (ranitidine, cimetidine, famotidine). Ulcers heal after 6 weeks.
-Sucralfate is not absorbed. It forms a protective barrier over the ulcer. Ulcers heal after 6 weeks.
-Proton Pump inhibitors (eg. omeprazole, lansoprazole), better than H2 blockers, prevents and heals ulcers from NSAID use.
An important treatment option is H Pylori eradication. This is typically done using 1-2 weeks of quadruple therapy using a PPI, bismuth, tetracycline, and metronidazole, or triple therapy using a PPI, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin.
Surgical Treatment for duodenal ulcers is now confined to managing complications.

41
Q

What is Polya’s gastrectomy?

A

Acid is secreted from the fundus of the stomach. To reduce acid secretion in Polya’s gastrectomy, 2/3s of the patients stomach is resected. It generally makes them feel sick.

42
Q

What is a Truncal Vagotomy and drainage?

A

Gastric acid production may be decreased by dividing the vagus nerve, thus removing the vagal nerve stimulation of the parietal cells. It is good not to completely cut the vagal nerve, as it is then likely that you will also sever the motor supply to the gastric antrum, causing delayed emptying. A drainage operation (either a pyloroplasty or a gastroenterostomy) is required. A truncal vagotomy and drainage may result in diarrhoea due to the rapid transit of food through the stomach.

43
Q

What is a Vagotomy and Antrectomy?

A

In a vagotomy and antrectomy, the vagal nerve is divided to remove vagal stimulation of acid production, and the antrum is resected to remove the source of gastrin (gastrin also acts as a potent stimulator of gastric acid).

44
Q

What is the typical presentation of a gastric ulcer?

A

A gastric ulcer typically occurs in an elderly person from a low socioeconomic background who takes NSAIDs. They are less common than duodenal ulcers. Just like duodenal ulcers, gastric ulcers present with epigastric pain. The pain is exacerbated by food. Unremitting pain and weightloss are common. It is very difficult to distinguish between gastric ulcers, duodenal ulcers and gastric carcinomas. As a result, all gastric ulcers must be investigated by endoscopy and biopsy.

45
Q

What are the most common sites for gastric ulcers?

A

The most common sites for gastric ulcers include the lesser curvature, the antrum, and the angula incisura.

46
Q

How are gastric ulcers investigated.

A

A gastric ulcer may be investigated by a barium meal. However, ALL GASTRIC ULCERS MUST BE IX BY ENDOSCOPY AND BIOPSY to exclude gastric carcinoma. All gastric ulcers must have multiple biopsies taken from all four quadrants of the ulcer. After a course of treatment (even malignant ulcers may heal), a repeat endoscopy and biopsy is needed.

47
Q

How are gastric ulcers treated?

A
  • Remove NSAIDS
  • Eradicate H Pylori (Triple therapy; PPI, amoxicillin, and clarithromycin)
    -H2 blockers may be used.
    If complete healing doesn’t occur within 2-3 courses of medical therapy, then the ulcer may be cancerous and there should be surgical resection. The operation of choice for gastric ulcers is a Bilroth 1 Gastrectomy; the distal 1/2 of the stomach is removed.
48
Q

What are the complications of ulcer disease?

A

The complications of ulcer disease include bleeding, perforation, and gastric outlet obstruction.

49
Q

Discuss how complication of bleeding caused by peptic ulcer disease.

A

Peptic ulcer bleeds occur when an ulcer erodes an artery. Peptic ulcer bleeding is the most common cause of an upper GI bleed. It has a 10% mortality, but 85% of bleeding will stop spontaneously. Patients may:

  • Vomit fresh blood and clots (indicating torrential bleeding), or
  • Vomit coffee ground material (acid haematin resulting from the actions of gastric acid on Hb), or
  • Experience maleana (more common than vomiting)
  • May have a history of recent intake of NSAIDs or aspiring
  • May complain of dizziness, fainting, and postural hypotension (signs of hypotension)
  • May have tachycardia, sweaty palms, hypotension, agitation, and anxiety. These are all signs of shock and then they may need emergency blood replacement.
50
Q

How do you treat bleeding from peptic ulcer disease?

A

Admit to hospital. Insert two large bore cannulas, drawy blood for baseline tests and cross matching. Elderly patients with poor cardiac reserve, or patients with massive haemoptysis should be monitored with a central venous line that monitors their CVP. Identify the bleeding point. The patient should undergo gastroscopy within 24 hours.
The bleeding stops spontaneously in most patients. If it does not, bleeding can be controlled via endoscopic injection of adrenalin, or endoscopic injection of antisclerosals. Endoscopic contact thermal methods, such as a heat probe or multipolar extracoagulation can be used. If endoscopic haemostasis fails, surgery is indicated.

51
Q

What is the typical presentation of a perforated peptic ulcer?

A

Perforation occurs when an ulcer protrudes through the full thickness of the gut wall. Gastric or duodenal contents spill into the peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. More common in males.
10% of patients with peptic ulcer perforation have no previous history of dyspepsia. They experience:
-Sudden onset abdominal pain
-Generalised abdominal tenderness
-Guarding (board-like rigidity)
-Resonant note upon percussion above the liver due to air pockets over the liver
-Pain may be localised to the epigastrium if the infection is walled off.
- Free air under the diaphragm on an erect CXR.

52
Q

What is Right Paracolic Gutter Symdrome?

A

Right Paracolic Gutter Syndrome is when spillage from a perforated ulcer may track into the right paracolic gutter. It is often mistaken for appendicitis.

53
Q

How do you treat a perforated ulcer?

A
  • Parenteral opiates for pain relief
  • IV fluids
  • NG tube to decompress the stomach and avoid ongoing contamination
  • Operation should be performed straight away. A piece of omentum is sutured over the perforation to plug it. This is followed by a thorough lavage of the peritoneal cavity with copious amounts of warm saline to remove the exudate and food particles. Performed laparoscopically. If the patient is H pylori negative, an ulcer curing operation (eg. vagotomy and pyloroplasty, or a highly selective vagotomy) may be considered to prevent ongoing disease.
54
Q

What happens when an ulcer causes obstruction?

A

Chronic gastric or duodenal ulcers can cause gastric outlet obstruction by becoming inflamed or by causing fibrosis. The patient presents with reoeated vomiting of undigested food that is non-bile stained, weightloss, dehydration, dilated distended stomach. A sucession splash may be present after several hours after a meal (this is a splashing noise upon rocking the patients abdomen). Dehydration and vomiting may lead to severe fluid and electrolyte problems such as hypochloreamic alkalosis. Paradoxical aciduria may be present. NB: a gastric cancer may present in the same way.

55
Q

How do you manage gastric outlet obstruction caused by peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • Replace fluids and electrolytes
  • Insert irrigating NG tube. Decompress the stomach and lavage through a wide bore stomach tube.
  • Give IV omeprazole
  • Endoscopy to confirm dx
  • Surgically enlarge, bypass, or resect the obstruction.
56
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome?

A

Zollinger Ellison syndrome is a disease that is caused by the overproduction of Gastrin from a G cell tumour of the pancreas or duodenum. 2/3s of gastrinomas occur outside the pancreas. Most are malignant, though they can also be benign, Zollinger Ellison should be suspected when ulcers occur at unusual sites, such as the second part of the duodenum or jejunum. Diagnosis can be made by measuring the circulating gastrin. There will be no significant increase in gastrin after stimulation with pentgastrin.
Gastrin can also be measured by radioimmunoassay.

57
Q

What are the different types of gastric neoplasms?

A

Stomach cancer is the second most common malignancy worldwide. The most common type of gastric cancer are Adenocarcinomas (90% of all malignant stomach cancers). The other two cancers that can be seen are gastric lymphomas and GISTs.

58
Q

What are the risk factors for gastric adenocarcinomas?

A
  • Japanese
  • Elderly (>70yrs)
  • Male (M:F 2:1)
  • H pylori infection
  • High nitrate intake
  • Low intake of fruit and veg
  • Smoking
  • Increased salt intake
59
Q

Where are gastric adenocarcinomas most commonly located?

A

Gastric adenocarcinomas are most commonly located in the proximal third of the stomach. They used to be commonly found in the antrum of the stomach. However, the incidence of antral gastric adenocarcinomas has decreased over the years.

60
Q

What are the two different histological types of gastric cancer?

A

The two different types of gastric cancers are Intestinal type cancers and diffuse type cancers (there are also mixed cancers).The diffuse type of cancer is associated with abnormalities in the CDH1 gene. The CDH1 gene encodes the protein e-cadherin. Mutations of CDH1 are responsible for hereditary diffuse gastric cancer (HDGC).

61
Q

How do patients with gastric cancer present?

A

Patients with gastric cancer present with dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain, bloating and fullness, weightloss, vomiting. They may have bleeding and present with anaemia, however it is relatively uncommon for gastric tumours to present with heamatemesis.

62
Q

What investigations are ordered for gastric cancer?

A

The main diagnostic test is endoscopy. Once diagnosed, the next step is to stage the patient using helical CT scan. CT scanning is important to exclude hepatic metastases, and can be used to show gross nodal involvement. Laparascopy can also be used for staging (may discover smll volume hepatic or peritoneal disease).

63
Q

What are the surgical options available for treating gastric neoplasms?

A

If a patient has a T1 tumour, they may undergo endoscopic mucosal resection.
Potentially curable disease may be treated with surgical resection of the distal stomach, or the entire stomach. They may or may not do a lymph node dissection. After the resection, gastric continuity is restored with a Roux-en-Y type reconstruction that reduces the risk of bile reflux into the remaining stomach or oesophagus.
Gastric resection is associated with a 2-5% mortality, and a 20-30% chance of significant complications.

64
Q

What are the early complications from a gastric resection?

A

Early Comlications: Usual aneasthetic, cardiac, respiratory and wound complications. Specific complications include anastomotic leakage, fluid collections, abcesses, acute pancreatitis (after dissection of lymph nodes from the pancreas), prolonged nasogastric drainage or vomiting as sometime the gastric remnant does not drain well from mechanical obstruction or poor motility, and afferent loop obstruction.

65
Q

What are the late complications from a gastric resection?

A

Late complications: Reflux gastritis, oesophagitis, dumping syndromes, diarrhoea, and nutritional deficiencies, anaemia(due to loss of intrinsic factor), osteoporosis, and osteomalacia.

66
Q

Why does a gastric resection cause reflux gastritis?

A

Reflux gastritis is caused by a loss of the pylorus. There is easy passage of the alkali biliary and pancreatic fluid into the stomach. There is endoscopic evidence of gastritis in most patients who have had a loop jejunostomy as a reconstruction, but only a small proportion have significant symptoms. Medical therapy is not very effective, and some patients require surgery to divert the small bowel fluid from the stomach via a Roux-en-Y gastrojejunostomy.

67
Q

What is dumping syndrome?

A

Dumping syndrome refers to an array of gastrointestinal and vasomotor symptoms attributed to rapid gastric emptying. Symptoms include fullness, abdo pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, The vasomotor symptoms are due to rapid fluid shifts into the bowel lumen, and are typical of hypovoleamia. ‘Late’ dumping is due to an insulin after a meal that is then followed by reactive hypoglycaemia. The treatment of the dumping is dietary treatment. Patients need to eat small frequent meals, try to separate dry foods from liquids, and avoid simple sugars. The severity of the symptoms settles with time.

68
Q

How do you treat gastric cancer?

A
  • Gastric resection
  • Postoperative chemoradiotherapy
  • Neoadjuvant or adjuvant chemotherapy
  • Palliative management
  • Palliative stent insertion to relieve obstruction from cancer, but not remove the tumour.
69
Q

What are the salient features of a Gastric Lymphoma?

A

Gastric lymphomas account for 2-5% of all gastric neoplasms. They are generally B cell in origin, and generally comes from the Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue (MALT) than the lymph nodes. It is believed that the presence of MALT is a response to chronic infection with H. Pylori. MALT lymphoma can often be treated with eradication of H Pylori.

70
Q

What is a GIST?

A

GIST = Gastro Intestinal Stromal Tumours. They can be found anywhere along the GI tract, but mostly occur in the stomach. They are mesenchymal tumours that are thought to arise from the interstitial cells of Cajul. GISTS are elevated submucosal swellings that can ulcerate or bleed. GISTS can be malignant or benign.
80-90% of GISTS can be characterised by the molecule c-kit (CD117). This can be treated using immatinib.