Upgrade Test Flashcards
Which areas of the aircraft are unpressurized?
C.) Radome, nose gear bay, packs, main wheel bay, tail cone.
The temperature of each aircraft zone is optimized by what means?
D.) A TRIM AIR valve.
Under what conditions should the PACK FLOW selector be set to LO?
A.) With a low passenger load to reduce bleed air demand and improve fuel efficiency.
The PACK FLOW selector is set to NORM and yet the ECAM display shows PACK FLOW to be high. How is this possible?
C.) HI flow is automatically selected regardless of PACK FLOW sel position because air is only being supplied by the APU.
What does the safety valve protect against?
D.) Cabin differential pressure from getting too high or too low.
Having manually set the LDG ELEV, the cabin altitude is:
B.) Still controlled automatically through the outflow valve.
In AUTO, the cabin differential pressure is normally controlled by :
D.) The OUTFLOW valve.
The safety valves are:
D.) Fully automatic and cannot be controlled manually.
By moving the MAN V/S CTL to this position:
A.) The cabin altitude is raised by opening the outflow valve.
Which ECAM key would you choose to access the ventilation information?
C.) PRESS
With the BLOWER and the EXTRACT pb switches in OVRD, what happens to the ventilation system?
B.) The system goes into smoke configuration and the blower fan stops.
The blue LOC is in the armed mode.
A.) True
A/THR in white mean it is:
C.) Active.
The thrust delivered by the A/THR is already at MAX CLB thrust. Is it possible to obtain some additional thrust?
C.) Yes, my moving the thrust levers forward from the CL detent.
According to this display:
C.) The speed is managed by the FM.
During the takeoff phase:
A.) SRS mode will provide guidance to maintain V2+10 kts (minimum) as a speed reference up to acceleration altitude.
According to this FMA:
B.) The A/THR is off, the aircraft is on the localizer and the G/S is armed.
How can you get the mechanics attention when he is outside the aircraft?
A.) Use the MECH pb switches on the CALLS panel which sounds an external horn.
During pre-flight you have to check the CVR. The parking brake is on. How would you begin the test?
A.) A.
How do you erase the CVR?
A.) Press the CVR ERASE pb when the aircraft is on the ground with the parking brake set.
With AUDIO SWITCH knob in the CAPT 3 position, the Captain uses the acoustic equipment on ACP 3.
A.) True
You enter a dark cockpit, what action is necessary before checking the battery voltages?
D.) You have to check that both batteries are set to off.
According to these indications, which statement is true?
B.) Both battery voltages are above the minimum 25.5V.
If the battery voltages are below the minimum, how do you charge them?
B.) You have to check that the BAT pushbuttons are on and switch the external power to on.
After having switched the external power to ON, you get the following indications. What do they mean?
D.) On the ground these indications are normal when the engines are not running.
Take a look at the ECAM. Now that the IDG oil temperature has cooled, the IDG can be reconnected by pushing the IDG pb.
B.) False
The master warning and caution has come on. You notice the red FAULT light on the EMER ELEC PWR panel. How do you interpret this indication?
A.) The EMER GEN is not yet supplying the system.
You want to open the cabin door. While lifting the control handle the white light comes on. What does this mean?
C.) The slide is still armed.
With the EMER GEN on line, how would you expect the ELEC page to look?
C.
There is no other way to deploy the overwing escape slide if it fails to deply automatically after opening the emergency exit.
B.) False
In this given situation if somebody opens the left forward door from the outside the slide will not deploy.
A.) True
If the oxygen masks fail to deploy automatically they :
B.) Can be deployed by pressing the MASK MAN ON pb on the overhead panel.
Can the APU FIRE test be done using battery power only:
A.) Yes
While carrying out the APU FIRE test on battery power only you see the indications at the right. Is the test successful?
A.) Yes
According to the indications on the right:
B.) One fire detection loop for engine 1 has failed. Fire detection for both engines is still available.
With reference to cargo compartment fire extinguishing with two fire bottles which statement is true:
D.) Both B and C
How many actuators are provided to control the ailerons and how many hydraulic sources supply those acctuators:
A.) 2 hydraulic, 4 actuators
The message WING TIP BRK ON appears on the E/WD. What does it mean:
A.) A hydraulic device locks the flaps in their present position.
Are there any control surfaces with a mechanical backup:
C.) Yes, the THS and the rudder.
Given the scenario displayed at right what will happen next:
The left SPLR 3 will be retracted, the right SPLR 3 will be inhibited to prevent asymmetry.
In normal law, if one side stick is rapidly pulled full back, can the aircraft’s maximum allowable “G” load be exceeded:
D.) No, the load factor limitation overrides the side stick commands to avoid excessive “G” loads.
According to the indications at the right, if you release the side stick now:
A.) The bank angle will automatically retun to 33 degrees.
In Normal Law what is the maximum bank angle you can reach with the side stick fully deflected:
D.) 67 degrees
According to the indications at right wich flight control law is active:
C.) Direct
According to the indications at right:
D.) No protection is triggered.
According to the indications at right:
B.) The Alpa Floor protection has automatically set TOGA thrust.
According to the display at right which statement is correct:
C.) All the pumps are on but no fuel is being used.
What does the message CTR TK FEED mean at right:
C.) At least one center tank pump is delivering fuel to the engines.
What do the amber lines across the last two digits of the fuel quantity mean at right:
B.) The fuel quantity indication in inaccurate.
After engine shutdown what are your actions to close the fuel transfer valves:
C.) No action is required. The valves will close automatically during the next refueling.
How has the fuel been transferred from the out to the inner tanks:
D.) The transfer valves have been opened automatically by the low level sensor in the inner tank.
Why do the center tank pumps stop automatically when the slats are extended for takeoff:
C.) To ensure that the engines are fed from the wing tanks for takeoff.
What is the minimum fuel quantity for takeoff:
B.) 3300 lbs
In the situation depicted the right inner tank fuel is unavailable for the rest of the flight:
B.) False
You have not started the engines but the cargo door is being operated; which HYD page at right depicts this:
C.) C
To power the BLUE hydraulic system the RAT can be deployed
C.) By lifting the cover and pushing the RAT MAN ON pb.
Which is the correct indication at right when the RAT is powering the BLUE system:
D.) D
What is the normal pressure on the hydraulic system:
C.) 3000 psi
During start up when is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized:
C.) Automatically after the first engine start.
Which statement below is correct:
A.) The PTU enables the GREEN and YELLOW systems to pressurize each other when the differential pressure is greater than 500 psi.
Which key on the ECAM control panel should be pressed to get information about the anti-ice system:
A.) A (bleed)
What is the normal indication on the BLEED page at right given the anti-ice panel selection below:
D.) D
Given the indications on the right:
B.) The left wing anti-ice valve has failed to close.
With reference to the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb which of the following statements is true:
D.) Window heating comes on automatically after first engine start.
If one engine anti-ice system fails the second one takes over and provides anti-icing for both engines:
B.) False
In the event of an electrical power supply loss:
A.) The engine anti-ice valves will open automatically.
Which ECAM memo display would you expect to see with the anti-ice selection below:
C.) C
What is the maximum speed limit for operating the windshield wipers:
D.) 230 kts
Which color coding on. The EFIS screens indicates that crew awareness is required:
B.) B.
What does a pulsing green indication mean on the SD:
A.) An ADVISORY, the parameter is about to reach a limit.
What does the green arrow at the bottom of the status page at right indicate:
C.) It means that there is more STATUS information to be seen.
The Dislay Unit (DU) has failed. You want to see the DOOR/OXY page on the lower DU, how would you do this:
A.) Press and hold the DOOR key on the ECP.
The upper Display Unit (DU) has failed. How would you get the ECAM system pages to appear on the CA’s ND:
D.) Move the ECAM/ND XFR to CAPT.
Which key on the ECP was pressed to cancel the NAV 2 ILS FAULT:
B.) B (Emergency Cancel)
What is wrong with the FO’s EFIS in the display at right:
C.) The FD should be on.
At what speed can the slats safely retract as displayed on the right:
C.) 191 kts
What is the maximum speed to further extend the flaps as displayed at the right:
C.) 175 kts.
What is the meaning of the 9000 in the blue at the top of the altitude scale displayed at right:
A.) It is the FCU selected altitude.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the display at right:
D.) The track to PAS is 108 and the estemated time crossing PAS is 14:30Z.
What does the NW STRG DISC memo at the right mean:
A.) The nosewheel stearing has been disconnected by the ground crew.
You are ready to taxi and apply pedal brakes to release the PARK BRK; the BRAKES pressure fall to zero:
B.) This is normal; the indicator only displays Alternate (yellow) brake pressure.
There are two triangles for each gear on the ECAM WHEEL page; what do they represent:
B.) Each triangle represents the gear position detected by on of the two LGCIUs.
How do you interpret the indications on the right:
B.) All the gear are down and locked as detected by LGCIU 2. One green gear triangle indication is enough to confirm that the gear is down and locked.
How do you interpret the green arc shown over wheel 2 at right:
A.) It indicates the hottest brake with a temperature greater than 100 degrees.
What triggers the AUTO/BRK operation in MED after landing:
B.) Ground spoiler extension after a short delay.
Which indication confirms that the control of the oxygen mask doors has been activated:
B.) B
With the oxygen crew supply switched off, which ECAM indication would see:
A.) A
During the automatic start sequence of ENG 2, you notice that only igniter B is powered. Is this normal?
D.) Yes, igniters are used alternately for engine start.
After takeoff the A/THR will not become active until:
A.) The thrust levers are placed in the CLIMB position.
You are at the start of decent and the green N1 arc is diplayed showing the new thrust demand. When does this happen?
D.) Whenever there is a power change with auto thrust engaged.
A few seconds after selecting reverse, the amber REV indication changes to green. What does this mean?
B.) The reversers are now fully deployed.
During engine start the amber FAULT light on the ENG MASTER panel comes on. This indicates:
A.) The automatic start sequence has been aborted.
During a manual start, what function does the FADEC carry out?
Passive monitoring of the start sequence, to close the start valve and cut off the ignition on the ground.
You are performing a take off with the thrust levers at the FLEX position. Is the A/THR now active?
B.) False
You are in the middle of a manual engine start. What are you looking for when you select ENG MASTER 2 ON?
The fuel used is reset, both igniters are powered and fuel flow is indicated.
During ground maneuvering what part of the A321 aircraft is the obstacle clearance constraint:
C.) Tail
When the A321 ECON FLOW pb is ON the airflow is 80% of normal but will automatically increase to 100% if the temperature demand requires more air flow. With single-pack operation or with the APU supplying bleed air 120% of normal flow will be provided.
A.) True
