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1
Q
  1. The engine generators and APU generator are rated at _____ KVA maximum continuous load.

A. 45
B. 50
C. 90
D. 200

A

A. 45
B. 50
C. 90
D. 200

C

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2
Q

The normal priority for supplying electrical power to the AC buses is

A. external power, engine generators, APU
B. APU, external power, engine generators
C. engine generators, external power, APU
D. engine generators, RAT generator, batteries

A

A. external power, engine generators, APU
B. APU, external power, engine generators
C. engine generators, external power, APU
D. engine generators, RAT generator, batteries

C

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3
Q
  1. The BATTERY BUS is normally powered by:

A. DC ESS bus.
B. DC bus 1 through a DC tie contactor.
C. DC bus 2 through a DC tie control relay.
D. DC ESS SHEd bus

A

A. DC ESS bus.
B. DC bus 1 through a DC tie contactor.
C. DC bus 2 through a DC tie control relay.
D. DC ESS SHED bus.

B

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4
Q

With total AC power loss, and airspeed above 50 KTS, an inverter is connected to the HOT BATTERY
bus and supplies AC power to the:

A. AC ESS bus
B. AC SHED bus
C. AC bus 1
D. AC bus 2

A

A. AC ESS bus
B. AC SHED bus
C. AC bus 1
D. AC bus 2

A

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5
Q
  1. An AC ESS FEED switch located on the overhead panel shifts the power source for the AC ESS bus
    from:
    A. AC bus 2 to AC bus 1.
    B. AC bus 1 to AC GRD/FLT bus.
    C. AC bus 1 to AC bus 2.
    D. AC BUS 2 to batteries via an inverter
A

A. AC bus 2 to AC bus 1.
B. AC bus 1 to AC GRD/FLT bus.
C. AC bus 1 to AC bus 2.
D. AC BUS 2 to batteries via an inverter

C

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6
Q
  1. When the aircraft airspeed is above 100 KTS, which AC bus can be powered by the emergency
    generator?

A. AC bus 1
B. AC bus 2
C. AC ESS bus
D. AC GRD/FLT bus

A

A. AC bus 1
B. AC bus 2
C. AC ESS bus
D. AC GRD/FLT bus

C

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7
Q
  1. The FASTEN SEAT BELT, NO PED, and EXIT signs come on automatically when the cabin altitude exceeds ______ feet, regardless of the respective switch position.

A. 9,550
B. 10,000
C. 11,300
D. 14,000

A

A. 9,550
B. 10,000
C. 11,300
D. 14,000

C

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8
Q
  1. Do not press the IDG DISCONNECT switch for longer than approximately ___ seconds to prevent
    damage to the disconnect mechanism.

A. 3 seconds
B. 8 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 12 seconds

A

A. 3 seconds
B. 8 seconds
C. 10 seconds
D. 12 seconds

A

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9
Q
  1. The BAT pushbutton FAULT indication will illuminate when:

A. the battery voltage is low.
B. the charging current is outside its limits.
C. the battery voltage is high.
D. both BAT pushbuttons are selected OFF.

A

A. the battery voltage is low.
B. the charging current is outside its limits.
C. the battery voltage is high.
D. both BAT pushbuttons are selected OFF.

B

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10
Q
  1. If one generator exceeds 100% of its rated output:

A. all galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.
B. the main galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.
C. the main galley is shed automatically, but the aft galley is still powered.
D. the galley pushbutton FAULT light will illuminate.

A

A. all galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.
B. the main galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.
C. the main galley is shed automatically, but the aft galley is still powered.
D. the galley pushbutton FAULT light will illuminate.
D

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11
Q
  1. On the A319/320, when operating with a single engine-driven generator on the ground or a single
    generator in flight :

A. all galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.
B. the main galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.
C. the main galley is shed automatically, but the aft galley is still powered.
D. the galley pushbutton FAULT light will illuminate.

A

A. all galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.
B. the main galley buses and in-seat power supplies are shed automatically.
C. the main galley is shed automatically, but the aft galley is still powered.
D. the galley pushbutton FAULT light will illuminate.

B

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12
Q
  1. The RAT & EMER GEN indicator on the EMER ELEC PWR panel illuminates a red FAULT indication
    when:

A. AC BUSES 1 & 2 are not powered and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical
power.
B. the AC ESS BUS is not powered and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power.
C. the RAT has been manually deployed using the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the
HYDRAULIC panel and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power.
D. the RAT has been manually deployed using the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the
HYDRAULIC panel and the emergency generator is not supplying hydraulic power.

A

A. AC BUSES 1 & 2 are not powered and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical
power.
B. the AC ESS BUS is not powered and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power.
C. the RAT has been manually deployed using the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the
HYDRAULIC panel and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power.
D. the RAT has been manually deployed using the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the
HYDRAULIC panel and the emergency generator is not supplying hydraulic power.

A

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13
Q
  1. If avionics smoke is detected, when the GEN 1 LINE pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR panel is
    selected OFF:

A. GEN 1 is completely isolated from the aircraft and the source of the smoke will be eliminated.
B. GEN 1 is completely isolated from the aircraft except for supplying the FADEC on each engine.
C. GEN 1 is completely isolated from the aircraft except for supplying one fuel pump in each wing
tank.
D. the GEN 1 load displayed on the ECAM ELEC page will read approximately 75% and the
source of the smoke may be eliminated.

A

A. GEN 1 is completely isolated from the aircraft and the source of the smoke will be eliminated.
B. GEN 1 is completely isolated from the aircraft except for supplying the FADEC on each engine.
C. GEN 1 is completely isolated from the aircraft except for supplying one fuel pump in each wing
tank.
D. the GEN 1 load displayed on the ECAM ELEC page will read approximately 75% and the
source of the smoke may be eliminated.

C

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14
Q
  1. The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) controls all of the following functions EXCEPT:

A. metering for optimal fuel efficiency.
B. start sequencing.
C. warning for exceeding an EGT limit warning after engine start. .
D. engine operating limits both in forward and reverse thrust.

A

A. metering for optimal fuel efficiency.
B. start sequencing.
C. warning for exceeding an EGT limit warning after engine start. .
D. engine operating limits both in forward and reverse thrust.
C

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15
Q
  1. FADEC computes the thrust rating limit based on

A. the gross weight and ambient air temperature.
B. the measured thrust lever angle.
C. the MCDU PERF or PROG page inputs.
D. pilot modification of the performance database.

A

A. the gross weight and ambient air temperature.
B. the measured thrust lever angle.
C. the MCDU PERF or PROG page inputs.
D. pilot modification of the performance database.

B

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16
Q
  1. Normally, FADEC is powered by:

A. a dedicated alternator independent of the aircraft electrical system.
B. aircraft power backed up by an emergency alternator in the event of an electrical failure.
C. its own inverter independent of the aircraft electrical system.
D. its own TRU independent of the aircraft electrical system.

A

A. a dedicated alternator independent of the aircraft electrical system.
B. aircraft power backed up by an emergency alternator in the event of an electrical failure.
C. its own inverter independent of the aircraft electrical system.
D. its own TRU independent of the aircraft electrical system.

A

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17
Q
  1. During an automatic start, FADEC will automatically abort the start in case of

A. hot start, start valve fault, no fuel flow.
B. hot start, no ignition, stalled start.
C. no ignition, no fuel flow, hot start.
D. no ignition, stalled start, no fuel flow.

A

A. hot start, start valve fault, no fuel flow.
B. hot start, no ignition, stalled start.
C. no ignition, no fuel flow, hot start.
D. no ignition, stalled start, no fuel flow.

B

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18
Q
  1. FADEC has three idle modes including:

A. flight idle, ground idle & reverse idle.
B. flight idle, modulated idle & reverse idle.
C. modulated idle, approach idle, reverse idle.
D. augmented idle, ground idle & reverse idle.

A

A. flight idle, ground idle & reverse idle.
B. flight idle, modulated idle & reverse idle.
C. modulated idle, approach idle, reverse idle.
D. augmented idle, ground idle & reverse idle.

C

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19
Q
  1. Automatic and manual starts are identical in all respects except pilot action is required to manually open
    the start valve by selecting the ENG MAN START pushbutton ON.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

B

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20
Q
  1. The ignition system :

A. consists of two rings of 16 igniters controlled by the HMU.
B. is manually initiated when the ENG MASTER switch is selected ON and automatically
terminated by FADEC at a predetermined N2 during normal engine starts.
C. consists of two independent circuits designated A & B which are alternated by FADEC at each
engine autostart.
D. provides automatic continuous ignition during automatic starts both in flight and on the ground.

A

A. consists of two rings of 16 igniters controlled by the HMU.
B. is manually initiated when the ENG MASTER switch is selected ON and automatically
terminated by FADEC at a predetermined N2 during normal engine starts.
C. consists of two independent circuits designated A & B which are alternated by FADEC at each
engine autostart.
D. provides automatic continuous ignition during automatic starts both in flight and on the ground.

C

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21
Q
  1. Thrust reverse deployment requires all the following EXCEPT:

A. at least one SEC detects deployment of the ground spoilers after touchdown.
B. a TLA reverse signal from at least one SEC.
C. left & right main gear compressed signal from the corresponding LGCIU.
D. one FADEC channel operating with its associated thrust lever reverse signal

A

A. at least one SEC detects deployment of the ground spoilers after touchdown.
B. a TLA reverse signal from at least one SEC.
C. left & right main gear compressed signal from the corresponding LGCIU.
D. one FADEC channel operating with its associated thrust lever reverse signal

A

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22
Q
  1. The thrust levers have:

A. 6 detents – TOGA, FLX, MCT, CLimb, IDLE, REVerse IDLE
B. 6 detents – TOGA, FLX/MCT, CLimb, IDLE, REVerse IDLE, MAX REVerse
C. 7 detents – TOGA, FLX, MCT, CLimb, IDLE, REVerse IDLE, MAX REVerse
D. 5 detents – TOGA, FLX/MCT, CLimb, IDLE, MAX REVerse

A

A. 6 detents – TOGA, FLX, MCT, CLimb, IDLE, REVerse IDLE
B. 6 detents – TOGA, FLX/MCT, CLimb, IDLE, REVerse IDLE, MAX REVerse
C. 7 detents – TOGA, FLX, MCT, CLimb, IDLE, REVerse IDLE, MAX REVerse
D. 5 detents – TOGA, FLX/MCT, CLimb, IDLE, MAX REVerse

D

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23
Q
  1. Continuous ignition is provided automatically when the Engine Mode selector is in the NORM position
    in all the following cases EXCEPT:

A. during normal engine starts.
B. engine flameout detected in flight.
C. the EIU fails.

A

A. during normal engine starts.
B. engine flameout detected in flight.
C. the EIU fails.

A

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24
Q
  1. During automatic engine start, selecting an Engine Master switch ON causes

A. the LP fuel valve to open and the HP valve opens at a preset N2.
B. the LP fuel valve to open and the HP valve opens at a preset time.
C. the LP fuel valve to open and the HP valve opens when the MAN ENG START pushbutton is
pushed.
D. both the LP and HP fuel valves to open immediately.

A

A. the LP fuel valve to open and the HP valve opens at a preset N2.
B. the LP fuel valve to open and the HP valve opens at a preset time.
C. the LP fuel valve to open and the HP valve opens when the MAN ENG START pushbutton is
pushed.
D. both the LP and HP fuel valves to open immediately.

A

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25
Q
  1. Which statement about the APU is true:

A. The APU has a dedicated fuel pump that supplies fuel from the left fuel manifold in the event
that tank boost pumps are not operating.
B. In the event of fire the APU will automatically shutdown and the extinguishers will discharge
both in flight and on the ground.
C. The APU supplies bleed air to the air conditioning and pneumatic systems by means of a
separate compressor up to 25,000 feet.
D. The APU can be started using aircraft batteries, external HP air, or normal aircraft power and the
start sequence is completely automatic.

A

A. The APU has a dedicated fuel pump that supplies fuel from the left fuel manifold in the event
that tank boost pumps are not operating.
B. In the event of fire the APU will automatically shutdown and the extinguishers will discharge
both in flight and on the ground.
C. The APU supplies bleed air to the air conditioning and pneumatic systems by means of a
separate compressor up to 25,000 feet.
D. The APU can be started using aircraft batteries, external HP air, or normal aircraft power and the
start sequence is completely automatic.
A

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26
Q
  1. Not counting the APU fuel pump, the A319 has a total of ______ main pumps:

A. 8
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

A

A. 8
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

C

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27
Q
  1. If the wing tank pumps fail, suction (gravity) feeding to the engines is possible from:

A. both the wing tanks and the center tank.
B. the center tank only.
C. the wing tanks only.
D. any tanks except the outer wing tanks.

A

A. both the wing tanks and the center tank.
B. the center tank only.
C. the wing tanks only.
D. any tanks except the outer wing tanks.

C

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28
Q
  1. Refueling is still possible even if external power and APU generated power are unavailable.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

A

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29
Q
  1. On the A319, with the MODE SEL switch in AUTO, the center tank pumps will do all the following
    EXCEPT:

A. run for two minutes after both engines are running.
B. will not run until slats are retracted in flight.
C. run for five minutes after the center tank is empty.
D. run for five minutes after the slats are extended.

A

A. run for two minutes after both engines are running.
B. will not run until slats are retracted in flight.
C. run for five minutes after the center tank is empty.
D. run for five minutes after the slats are extended.

D

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30
Q
  1. On the A319 fuel transfers from the outer cells to the inner cells of the wing tanks when either inner
    cell quantity decreases to:

A. 550 pounds.
B. 1,560 pounds.
C. 1,650 pounds.
D. 11,000 pounds.

A

A. 550 pounds.
B. 1,560 pounds.
C. 1,650 pounds.
D. 11,000 pounds.

C

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31
Q
  1. On the A319 normal fuel management in flight is to use fuel from:

A. the center tank first, then the wing tanks.
B. the wing tanks first, then the center tank.
C. the outer wing tanks first, then the center tank, then the inner wing tanks.
D. the center tanks first, then the outer wing tanks, then the inner wing tanks.

A

A. the center tank first, then the wing tanks.
B. the wing tanks first, then the center tank.
C. the outer wing tanks first, then the center tank, then the inner wing tanks.
D. the center tanks first, then the outer wing tanks, then the inner wing tanks.

A

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32
Q
  1. What indication would you see if the center tank has more than 550 pounds of fuel and the left or right
    wing tank has less than 11,000 pounds?

A. Amber lines across the last 2 digits of the respective Fuel Quantity Indicator (FQI).
B. FUEL IMBALANCE in the EWD Memos display.
C. FAULT in the MODE SEL pushbutton.
D. An amber box around the left or right wing tank fuel quantity indication.

A

A. Amber lines across the last 2 digits of the respective Fuel Quantity Indicator (FQI).
B. FUEL IMBALANCE in the EWD Memos display.
C. FAULT in the MODE SEL pushbutton.
D. An amber box around the left or right wing tank fuel quantity indication.

C

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33
Q
  1. The engine low pressure fuel valves are controlled by:
A. the engine MASTER switch. 
B. the ENGINE FIRE pushbutton. 
C. FADEC 
D. either A or B. 
E. either B or C
A 
A. the engine MASTER switch. 
B. the ENGINE FIRE pushbutton. 
C. FADEC 
D. either A or B. 
E. either B or C

D

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34
Q
  1. Once opened, the fuel transfer valves on the A319/320 are closed automatically:

A. at the next refueling operation.
B. at engine shutdown.
C. during steep descents.
D. when fuel transfer is complete.

A

A. at the next refueling operation.
B. at engine shutdown.
C. during steep descents.
D. when fuel transfer is complete.

A

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35
Q
  1. The fuel crossfeed valve is controlled by _________ motors.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

B

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36
Q
  1. Engine fire detection sensors are installed in all the following areas EXCEPT:

A. the fuel/oil heat exchanger
B. the pylon nacelle
C. the engine core
D. the fan section

A

A. the fuel/oil heat exchanger
B. the pylon nacelle
C. the engine core
D. the fan section

A

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37
Q
  1. Each engine fire detection system consists of:

A. two loops with six heat sensing elements each.
B. two loops with three heat sensing elements each.
C. three loops with two heat sensing elements each.
D. three loops with two heat sensing elements each and a Fire Detection Unit (FDU).

A

A. two loops with six heat sensing elements each.
B. two loops with three heat sensing elements each.
C. three loops with two heat sensing elements each.
D. three loops with two heat sensing elements each and a Fire Detection Unit (FDU).

B

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38
Q
  1. If both engine fire loops fail within ________ seconds of each other, a ____________ will occur.

A. 10 / FIRE warning.
B. 5 / FIRE DET FAULT
C. 5 / FIRE warning.
D. 10 / FIRE DET FAULT

A

A. 10 / FIRE warning.
B. 5 / FIRE DET FAULT
C. 5 / FIRE warning.
D. 10 / FIRE DET FAULT

C

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39
Q
  1. If any component of the fire detection system fails:

A. the ENG FIRE warning will trigger after a delay of 5 seconds.
B. a limited amount of fire protection remains available.
C. the ECAM will issue appropriate message(s).
D. on the ground, a horn will sound in the nose wheel compartment.

A

A. the ENG FIRE warning will trigger after a delay of 5 seconds.
B. a limited amount of fire protection remains available.
C. the ECAM will issue appropriate message(s).
D. on the ground, a horn will sound in the nose wheel compartment.

C

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40
Q
  1. If there is an APU fire in flight, the APU:

A. will automatically shut down but the fire bottle will discharge automatically.
B. will automatically shut down and the fire bottle must be discharged manually.
C. must be shut down manually and the fire bottle must be discharged manually.
D. must be shut down manually but the fire bottle will discharge automatically on shutdown.

A

A. will automatically shut down but the fire bottle will discharge automatically.
B. will automatically shut down and the fire bottle must be discharged manually.
C. must be shut down manually and the fire bottle must be discharged manually.
D. must be shut down manually but the fire bottle will discharge automatically on shutdown.

C

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41
Q
  1. Fire protection for the forward and aft cargo compartments includes:
    A. two extinguisher bottles; one for each compartment.
    B. one extinguisher bottle for the aft compartment only.
    C. one extinguisher bottle which can be discharged to either compartment.
    D. two extinguisher bottles which can be discharged to either compartment.
A

A. two extinguisher bottles; one for each compartment.
B. one extinguisher bottle for the aft compartment only.
C. one extinguisher bottle which can be discharged to either compartment.
D. two extinguisher bottles which can be discharged to either compartment.

C

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42
Q
  1. The engine fire extinguisher squib is armed when:

A. the AGENT DISCH light is illuminated.
B. the ENG FIRE pushbutton is illuminated.
C. the ENG FIRE pushbutton is pushed and released.
D. both fire loops fail within 5 seconds of each other.

A

A. the AGENT DISCH light is illuminated.
B. the ENG FIRE pushbutton is illuminated.
C. the ENG FIRE pushbutton is pushed and released.
D. both fire loops fail within 5 seconds of each other.

C

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43
Q
  1. CARGO SMOKE indicator will NOT illuminate SMOKE in red when:

A. both of the two channels of the detection system detect smoke.
B. at least one of two channels of the detection system detects smoke.
C. one of two channels of the detection system detects smoke and the SDCU finds that the other
channel is faulty.
D. extinguishing agent is accidentally discharged into the cargo compartment.

A

A. both of the two channels of the detection system detect smoke.
B. at least one of two channels of the detection system detects smoke.
C. one of two channels of the detection system detects smoke and the SDCU finds that the other
channel is faulty.
D. extinguishing agent is accidentally discharged into the cargo compartment.

B

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44
Q
  1. When the APU FIRE pushbutton is pushed and released, the:

A. APU fire extinguisher bottle is discharged.
B. HP fuel valve is closed.
C. APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.
D. APU FIRE warning activates accompanied by the CRC.

A

A. APU fire extinguisher bottle is discharged.
B. HP fuel valve is closed.
C. APU bleed and crossbleed valves are closed.
D. APU FIRE warning activates accompanied by the CRC.

C

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45
Q
  1. A DISCH light on either the ENGINE or APU AGENT pushbutton indicates:

A. the APU FIRE or ENG FIRE pushbutton has been pushed and released.
B. the extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.
C. A fault has occurred in the related fire bottle.
D. AC power has been lost to the related squib.

A

A. the APU FIRE or ENG FIRE pushbutton has been pushed and released.
B. the extinguisher bottle has lost pressure.
C. A fault has occurred in the related fire bottle.
D. AC power has been lost to the related squib.

B

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46
Q
  1. The GEN 1 LINE smoke light on the EMER ELEC PWR panel indicates

A. a fire caused by number 1 generator.
B. smoke in the avionics ventilation duct.
C. smoke in the cargo ventilation system.
D. IDG overheat.

A

A. a fire caused by number 1 generator.
B. smoke in the avionics ventilation duct.
C. smoke in the cargo ventilation system.
D. IDG overheat.

B

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47
Q
  1. Pneumatic air is supplied by intermediate-pressure (IP) or high-pressure (HP) engine bleed

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

A

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48
Q
  1. In flight, if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient:

A. engine power should be increased slightly by the pilot.
B. the engine speed will increase automatically.
C. push the HP pushbutton on the overhead panel.
D. optimum temperature control capability will be limited.

A

A. engine power should be increased slightly by the pilot.
B. the engine speed will increase automatically.
C. push the HP pushbutton on the overhead panel.
D. optimum temperature control capability will be limited.

B

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49
Q
  1. The HP bleed valve will close automatically in the event of low upstream pressure, excessive
    upstream pressure or when the bleed air valve is closed electrically.

A. True
B. False
C. Not true for all

A

A. True
B. False
C. Not true for all

A

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50
Q
  1. The crossbleed valve has two electric motors, one for the automatic mode and one for the
    manual mode.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

A

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51
Q
  1. The APU bleed air valve is

A. mechanically controlled and pneumatically operated.
B. electrically operated and pneumatically controlled.
C. electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
D. hydraulically operated and electrically controlled.

A

A. mechanically controlled and pneumatically operated.
B. electrically operated and pneumatically controlled.
C. electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
D. hydraulically operated and electrically controlled.

C

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52
Q
  1. The leak-detection system senses an overheat using a single loop in:

A. the pylons and APU.
B. the wings and pylons.
C. the wings and forward fuselage.
D. the pylons and forward fuselage.

A

A. the pylons and APU.
B. the wings and pylons.
C. the wings and forward fuselage.
D. the pylons and forward fuselage.

A

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53
Q
  1. The amber APU BLEED FAULT light illuminates for an APU:

A. overheat.
B. overpressure.
C. bleed leak.
D. shutdown.

A

A. overheat.
B. overpressure.
C. bleed leak.
D. shutdown.

C

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54
Q
  1. External air may be used to supplement low APU bleed pressure.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

B

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55
Q
  1. The AUTO position of the XBLEED selector opens the crossbleed if:

A. an engine bleed valve is open.
B. the APU bleed valve is open.
C. when engine start is selected.
D. if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient.

A

A. an engine bleed valve is open.
B. the APU bleed valve is open.
C. when engine start is selected.
D. if HP bleed air pressure is insufficient.

B

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56
Q
  1. If a fault exists, the amber FAULT light in the ENG BLEED will extinguish when the ENG
    BLEED pushbutton is selected off:

A. even if the fault still exits.
B. if the fault has disappeared.
C. after ECAM action is complete.
D. only for a bleed overheat.

A

A. even if the fault still exits.
B. if the fault has disappeared.
C. after ECAM action is complete.
D. only for a bleed overheat.

B

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57
Q
  1. Recirculation fans in the air conditioning system direct filtered cabin air to:

A. the mixing unit.
B. the pneumatic duct, upstream of the packs.
C. avionics compartment.
D. the aft cargo compartment.

A

A. the mixing unit.
B. the pneumatic duct, upstream of the packs.
C. avionics compartment.
D. the aft cargo compartment.

A

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58
Q
  1. If an air cycle machine fails, the affected pack:

A. is inoperative.
B. defaults to the last temperature selection.
C. is controlled by the opposite pack controller.
D. operates as a heat exchanger.

A

A. is inoperative.
B. defaults to the last temperature selection.
C. is controlled by the opposite pack controller.
D. operates as a heat exchanger.

D

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59
Q
  1. If both channels of a pack controller fail, pack outlet temperature:

A. will go to full cold.
B. remains at the prefailure temperature setting.
C. is fixed at a predetermined temperature.
D. is controlled to the average of the FWD CABIN & AFT CABIN zone selections.

A

A. will go to full cold.
B. remains at the prefailure temperature setting.
C. is fixed at a predetermined temperature.
D. is controlled to the average of the FWD CABIN & AFT CABIN zone selections.

C

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60
Q
  1. Should both channels fail in the zone controller:

A. temperature optimization is still available for that zone from another controller.
B. the packs deliver a fixed temperature (6 °F from Pack 1, and 5 °F from Pack 2).
C. the packs will control flight deck and cabin temperatures, fixed at 76°.
D. Pack 2 temperature will be the average of the FWD CABIN and AFT CABIN zone

A

A. temperature optimization is still available for that zone from another controller.
B. the packs deliver a fixed temperature (6 °F from Pack 1, and 5 °F from Pack 2).
C. the packs will control flight deck and cabin temperatures, fixed at 76°.
D. Pack 2 temperature will be the average of the FWD CABIN and AFT CABIN zone

B

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61
Q
  1. The lav/galley extract fan operates:

A. only on the ground.
B. only in flight.
C. continuously when electrical power is available.
D. only if galley power is available.

A

A. only on the ground.
B. only in flight.
C. continuously when electrical power is available.
D. only if galley power is available.

C

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62
Q
  1. If bleed air is being supplied by the APU or if one pack fails, pack flow will be _______
    regardless of the PACK FLOW selector position.

A. LO
B. NORM
C. MED
D. HI

A

A. LO
B. NORM
C. MED
D. HI

D

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63
Q
  1. An amber FAULT light in the HOT AIR pushbutton means:

A. a pack has failed.
B. a duct overheat has been detected.
C. insufficient HP bleed pressure.
D. a trim air valve has failed in the open position.

A

A. a pack has failed.
B. a duct overheat has been detected.
C. insufficient HP bleed pressure.
D. a trim air valve has failed in the open position.

B

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64
Q
  1. What happens to the outflow valve when the RAM AIR switch is selected ON?

A. The outflow valve opens if Dp (differential pressure) is less than 1 psi.
B. The outflow valve opens partially below 10,000 feet.
C. The outflow valve opens half way, immediately.
D. The outflow valve must be opened manually by means of the MAN V/S CNTL
toggle switch on the pressurization panel.

A

A. The outflow valve opens if Dp (differential pressure) is less than 1 psi.
B. The outflow valve opens partially below 10,000 feet.
C. The outflow valve opens half way, immediately.
D. The outflow valve must be opened manually by means of the MAN V/S CNTL
toggle switch on the pressurization panel.

A

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65
Q
  1. When either the BLOWER or EXTRACT switches is in OVRD, air from the air
    conditioning system is added to ventilation air.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

A

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66
Q
  1. How many motors drive the outflow valve?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

A

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

C

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67
Q
  1. During normal operations, the two cabin automatic pressure controllers alternate:

A. automatically when the LDG ELEV selector on the Pressurization panel is in the
AUTO position.
B. automatically after landing or if the operating controller fails.
C. automatically each time takeoff thrust – TOGA or FLX – is applied.
D. only if the MODE SEL pushbutton is selected to the MAN position for more than 10
seconds and then selected back to the AUTO position.

A

A. automatically when the LDG ELEV selector on the Pressurization panel is in the
AUTO position.
B. automatically after landing or if the operating controller fails.
C. automatically each time takeoff thrust – TOGA or FLX – is applied.
D. only if the MODE SEL pushbutton is selected to the MAN position for more than 10
seconds and then selected back to the AUTO position.

B

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68
Q
  1. If the lav/galley fan system fails:

A. cabin air is no longer recirculated to the mixing unit.
B. the outflow valve opens halfway to promote increased airflow.
C. cabin temperature defaults to a predetermined value.
D. the CAB FANS pushbutton on the overhead panel must be selected OFF.

A

A. cabin air is no longer recirculated to the mixing unit.
B. the outflow valve opens halfway to promote increased airflow.
C. cabin temperature defaults to a predetermined value.
D. the CAB FANS pushbutton on the overhead panel must be selected OFF.

C

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69
Q
  1. Manual pressurization control is selected:

A. automatically if both automatic controllers fail.
B. automatically in alternating sequence after each landing.
C. after selecting the DITCHING pushbutton to ON.
D. after selecting the MODE SEL pushbutton to MAN.

A

A. automatically if both automatic controllers fail.
B. automatically in alternating sequence after each landing.
C. after selecting the DITCHING pushbutton to ON.
D. after selecting the MODE SEL pushbutton to MAN.

D

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70
Q
  1. On the cargo heat control panel, selecting the AFT ISOL VALVE to OFF:

A. closes the inlet and outlet isolation valves and the trim air valve and stops the
extraction fan.
B. closes the pressure regulating valve and resets the fault circuit.
C. if smoke is detected, overrides control of the aft isolation valve by the fire protection
system to open it halfway to vent smoke overboard.
D. has no effect if smoke has not been detected.

A

A. closes the inlet and outlet isolation valves and the trim air valve and stops the
extraction fan.
B. closes the pressure regulating valve and resets the fault circuit.
C. if smoke is detected, overrides control of the aft isolation valve by the fire protection
system to open it halfway to vent smoke overboard.
D. has no effect if smoke has not been detected.
A

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71
Q
  1. In flight, the _______ on each wing are anti-iced with pneumatic bleed air.

A. slats
B. flaps
C. three outboard slats
D. both A & B

A

A. slats
B. flaps
C. three outboard slats
D. both A & B

C

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72
Q
  1. When a pneumatic leak is detected, the wing anti-ice valves

A. close automatically.
B. default to the open position.
C. default to the open position only if electrical power is lost.
D. remain in selected position until ECAM action is accomplished.

A

A. close automatically.
B. default to the open position.
C. default to the open position only if electrical power is lost.
D. remain in selected position until ECAM action is accomplished.

A

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73
Q
  1. When either engine anti-ice valve is open:

A. maximum N1 is increased and idle N1 is increased.
B. maximum N1 is reduced and idle N1 is increased.
C. minimum N1 is increased and idle N1 is reduced.
D. minimum N1 is reduced and idle N1 is reduced.

A

A. maximum N1 is increased and idle N1 is increased.
B. maximum N1 is reduced and idle N1 is increased.
C. minimum N1 is increased and idle N1 is reduced.
D. minimum N1 is reduced and idle N1 is reduced.

B

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74
Q
  1. Probe heat comes on automatically when:

A. the AC ESS bus is powered.
B. electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
C. at least one engine is running.
D. the main landing gear strut is not compressed.

A

A. the AC ESS bus is powered.
B. electrical power is applied to the aircraft.
C. at least one engine is running.
D. the main landing gear strut is not compressed.

C

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75
Q
  1. On the ground with the wing anti-ice switches selected “ON”, the wing anti-ice valves will:

A. open during a 30-second test sequence.
B. not open at any time.
C. open and stay open any time the switch is pushed to “ON”.
D. default open if electrical power is lost to the valve

A

A. open during a 30-second test sequence.
B. not open at any time.
C. open and stay open any time the switch is pushed to “ON”.
D. default open if electrical power is lost to the valve

A

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76
Q
  1. The FAULT light on the wing anti-ice switch indicates:

A. anti-ice valve position disagrees with the selected position.
B. low pressure is detected.
C. icing has been detected and the anti-ice valve is closed.
D. Either A or B.

A

A. anti-ice valve position disagrees with the selected position.
B. low pressure is detected.
C. icing has been detected and the anti-ice valve is closed.
D. Either A or B.
D

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77
Q
  1. The ECAM will display a WING A. ICE memo when wing anti-ice is selected “ON”.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

A

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78
Q
  1. A FAULT light on an engine anti-ice switch indicates the valve:

A. is closed.
B. position disagrees with ENG 1(2) pushbutton selection.
C. is open.
D. has failed while in transit and is partially open.

A

A. is closed.
B. position disagrees with ENG 1(2) pushbutton selection.
C. is open.
D. has failed while in transit and is partially open.

B

79
Q
  1. If electrical power is lost, engine anti-ice valves will _____ and wing anti-ice valves will _____ .

A. close, open
B. open, close
C. open, open
D. remain in the last commanded position, close

A

A. close, open
B. open, close
C. open, open
D. remain in the last commanded position, close

B

80
Q
  1. Passenger oxygen mask doors open automatically if the cabin altitude exceeds:

A. 9,550 ft.
B. 10,000 ft.
C. 11,300 ft.
D. 14,000 ft.

A

A. 9,550 ft.
B. 10,000 ft.
C. 11,300 ft.
D. 14,000 ft.

D

81
Q
  1. Passenger oxygen is supplied by:

A. individual high pressure bottles at each seat.
B. a single high pressure bottle in the lower fuselage.
C. chemical generators.
D. a PBE.

A

A. individual high pressure bottles at each seat.
B. a single high pressure bottle in the lower fuselage.
C. chemical generators.
D. a PBE.

C

82
Q
  1. Cockpit crew oxygen is supplied by:

A. a solid state chemical generator.
B. a single high-pressure cylinder.
C. individual high pressure bottles at each station.
D. a portable oxygen system

A

A. a solid state chemical generator.
B. a single high-pressure cylinder.
C. individual high pressure bottles at each station.
D. a portable oxygen system

B

83
Q
  1. The passenger oxygen system will provide a supply of oxygen for approximately:

A. 8 minutes
B. 13 minutes
C. 18 minutes
D. 23 minutes

A

A. 8 minutes
B. 13 minutes
C. 18 minutes
D. 23 minutes

B

84
Q
  1. Above ________, the cockpit crew oxygen masks will provide 100% oxygen, regardless of
    the position of the N / 100% selector.

A. 28,000 feet
B. 33,000 feet
C. 35,000 feet
D. 39,000 feet

A

A. 28,000 feet
B. 33,000 feet
C. 35,000 feet
D. 39,000 feet

C

85
Q
  1. A ______ disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage provides a visual indication of
    a thermal discharge.

A. green
B. red
C. yellow
D. amber

A

A. green
B. red
C. yellow
D. amber

A

86
Q
  1. Cockpit crew oxygen can be turned off from the cockpit?

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

A

87
Q
  1. The Crew oxygen Mask Microphone will be automatically deactivated when the mask is
    restowed in its box.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

B

88
Q
  1. The passenger oxygen masks can be automatically deployed at a high cabin altitude, or
    manually deployed by:

A. pressing the “PASSENGER SYS ON” indicator.
B. pressing the “MASK MAN ON” pushbutton.
C. the flight attendants, using the Manual Release Tool (MRT)
D. B or C

A

A. pressing the “PASSENGER SYS ON” indicator.
B. pressing the “MASK MAN ON” pushbutton.
C. the flight attendants, using the Manual Release Tool (MRT)
D. B or C

D

89
Q
  1. When does the flow of oxygen begin for the passengers?

A. When the door automatically opens.
B. When the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet.
C. When a mask is pulled towards the seat.
D. When the PASSENGER SYS ON indicator illuminates.

A

A. When the door automatically opens.
B. When the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 feet.
C. When a mask is pulled towards the seat.
D. When the PASSENGER SYS ON indicator illuminates.
C

90
Q
  1. In the event of loss of pressure in the green hydraulic system, fluid can be transferred from the yellow
    hydraulic systems.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

B

91
Q
  1. Which hydraulic systems have engine-driven pumps?

A. Green and blue
B. Green and yellow
C. Blue and yellow

A

A. Green and blue
B. Green and yellow
C. Blue and yellow

B

92
Q
  1. Which hydraulic systems have electric pumps?

A. Green and blue
B. Green and yellow
C. Blue and yellow

A

A. Green and blue
B. Green and yellow
C. Blue and yellow

C

93
Q
  1. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides hydraulic power to the _______ system.

A. green
B. blue
C. yellow
D. alternate brake

A

A. green
B. blue
C. yellow
D. alternate brake

B

94
Q
  1. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) will deploy automatically when:

A. AC buses 1 and 2 are not powered and airspeed is less than 100 kts.
B. AC ESS & DC ESS buses are not powered and airspeed is greater than 100 kts.
C. AC ESS & DC ESS buses are not powered and airspeed is greater than 140 kts.
D. AC buses 1 and 2 are not powered and airspeed is greater than 100 kts.

A

A. AC buses 1 and 2 are not powered and airspeed is less than 100 kts.
B. AC ESS & DC ESS buses are not powered and airspeed is greater than 100 kts.
C. AC ESS & DC ESS buses are not powered and airspeed is greater than 140 kts.
D. AC buses 1 and 2 are not powered and airspeed is greater than 100 kts.

D

95
Q
  1. With no electrical power available, the hand pump supplies yellow system hydraulic pressure to operate
    the:

A. normal brakes.
B. alternate brakes.
C. cargo doors.
D. emergency generator.

A

A. normal brakes.
B. alternate brakes.
C. cargo doors.
D. emergency generator.

C

96
Q
  1. The PTU activates automatically when the pump pressure output differential between the __________
    and __________ systems exceeds a predetermined value.

A. green, yellow
B. green, blue
C. yellow, blue

A

A. green, yellow
B. green, blue
C. yellow, blue

A

97
Q
  1. It is possible to pressurize the green hydraulic system on the ground via the PTU when the engines are
    not running.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

A

98
Q
  1. Pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the hydraulic panel will manually deploy the RAT and
    provide:

A. blue hydraulic power only.
B. blue hydraulic & electrical power.
C. electrical power only.
D. blue hydraulic power only to the flight controls.

A

A. blue hydraulic power only.
B. blue hydraulic & electrical power.
C. electrical power only.
D. blue hydraulic power only to the flight controls.

A

99
Q
  1. An ENG PUMP pushbutton FAULT light extinguishes when the ENG PUMP pushbutton is selected
    OFF except for which condition?

A. Reservoir low level
B. Reservoir low air pressure
C. Pump low pressure
D. Overheat

A

A. Reservoir low level
B. Reservoir low air pressure
C. Pump low pressure
D. Overheat

D

100
Q
  1. With the airplane on the ground and the blue electric pump switch in AUTO, the blue system pump will
    start operating automatically when:

A. one engine is running.
B. the parking brake is ON and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON.
C. the differential pressure between the green and blue systems is more than 500 psi.
D. electrical power is lost to the BSCUs.

A

A. one engine is running.
B. the parking brake is ON and only one ENG MASTER switch is ON.
C. the differential pressure between the green and blue systems is more than 500 psi.
D. electrical power is lost to the BSCUs.
A

101
Q
  1. The PTU FAULT light illuminates when the:

A. electrical power is lost to the PTU.
B. green or yellow system reservoir has low air pressure.
C. PTU has overheated.
D. PTU output pressure is less than 500 psi.

A

A. electrical power is lost to the PTU.
B. green or yellow system reservoir has low air pressure.
C. PTU has overheated.
D. PTU output pressure is less than 500 psi.

B

102
Q
  1. Normally, landing gear operation and monitoring is the primary responsibility of:

A. LGCIU 1 with LGCIU 2 as the backup.
B. LGCIU 2 with LGCIU 1 as the backup.
C. the LGCIUs which alternate primary/backup roles after each gear cycle.
D. the LGCIUs which alternate primary/backup roles after each touchdown.

A

A. LGCIU 1 with LGCIU 2 as the backup.
B. LGCIU 2 with LGCIU 1 as the backup.
C. the LGCIUs which alternate primary/backup roles after each gear cycle.
D. the LGCIUs which alternate primary/backup roles after each touchdown.

C

103
Q
  1. The ________ hydraulic system provides power for gear extension/retraction.

A. yellow
B. blue
C. green
D. alternate

A

A. yellow
B. blue
C. green
D. alternate

C

104
Q
  1. A safety valve shuts off the hydraulic power to the landing gear when airspeed is:

A. greater than 260 KIAS
B. greater than 230 KIAS
C. less than 260 KIAS
D. less than 230 KIAS

A 
A. greater than 260 KIAS 
B. greater than 230 KIAS 
C. less than 260 KIAS 
D. less than 230 KIAS 
A
105
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about the alternate brake accumulator is true?

A. The accumulator will maintain adequate parking brake pressure for at least 24 hours.
B. When landing on alternate brakes powered by accumulator pressure only, anti-skid is never
available.
C. The accumulator is automatically pressurized each time the ground crew opens and closes the
main cabin door.
D. Alternate brake accumulator pressure can be read directly from the lower ECAM (SD) display.

A

A. The accumulator will maintain adequate parking brake pressure for at least 24 hours.
B. When landing on alternate brakes powered by accumulator pressure only, anti-skid is never
available.
C. The accumulator is automatically pressurized each time the ground crew opens and closes the
main cabin door.
D. Alternate brake accumulator pressure can be read directly from the lower ECAM (SD) display.
B

106
Q
  1. Above 72 knots, autobraking is initiated by:

A. main landing gear strut compression.
B. thrust reverser deployment.
C. ground spoiler extension.
D. FADEC detecting idle thrust TLA after takeoff power was set for more than 10 seconds.

A 
A. main landing gear strut compression. 
B. thrust reverser deployment. 
C. ground spoiler extension. 
D. FADEC detecting idle thrust TLA after takeoff power was set for more than 10 seconds. 
C
107
Q
  1. The alternate brake system has the same capabilities as normal brakes EXCEPT:

A. anti-skid is inoperative.
B. autobrake is inoperative.
C. Both A and B.
D. the actual deceleration rate is 80% of the selected rate.

A 
A. anti-skid is inoperative. 
B. autobrake is inoperative. 
C. Both A and B. 
D. the actual deceleration rate is 80% of the selected rate.
B
108
Q
  1. When using the alternate brake system on accumulator pressure only, the accumulator supplies:

A. pressure to the green hydraulic system via the PTU.
B. at least seven full brake applications as indicated by the top of the green band (1,000 psi) on the
BRAKES sector of the triple indicator.
C. the alternate brake system and all other devices on the yellow hydraulic system except for the
cargo doors and the right reverser.
D. alternate brakes with anti-skid capability.

A

A. pressure to the green hydraulic system via the PTU.
B. at least seven full brake applications as indicated by the top of the green band (1,000 psi) on the
BRAKES sector of the triple indicator.
C. the alternate brake system and all other devices on the yellow hydraulic system except for the
cargo doors and the right reverser.
D. alternate brakes with anti-skid capability.
B

109
Q
  1. The steering tillers can steer the nose wheel up to _______ in each direction.

A. +/- 65
B. +/- 75
C. +/- 85
D. +/- 95

A

A. +/- 65
B. +/- 75
C. +/- 85
D. +/- 95

B

110
Q
  1. When using the rudder pedals for nose wheel steering, the steering angle starts to reduce above_______
    ground speed and progressively reduces to 0° at _______ .

A. 40 kts, 130 kts
B. 20 kts, 70 kts
C. 40 kts, 70 kts
D. 20 kts, 130 kts

A

A. 40 kts, 130 kts
B. 20 kts, 70 kts
C. 40 kts, 70 kts
D. 20 kts, 130 kts

A

111
Q
  1. The green DECEL light in each AUTO / BRK switch illuminates when the actual airplane deceleration is
    ________ of the selected rate.

A. 75%
B. 80%
C. 95%
D. 100%

A

A. 75%
B. 80%
C. 95%
D. 100%

B

112
Q
  1. The RED ARROW on the Landing Gear Selector Lever illuminates when:

A. the interlock mechanism that prevents retracting the gear while the aircraft is on the ground is
active.
B. the landing gear has been extended by means of the Emergency Gear Extension handle.
C. the LGCIU detects that the landing gear is not locked in the selected position.
D. the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration.

A

A. the interlock mechanism that prevents retracting the gear while the aircraft is on the ground is
active.
B. the landing gear has been extended by means of the Emergency Gear Extension handle.
C. the LGCIU detects that the landing gear is not locked in the selected position.
D. the landing gear is not locked down when the aircraft is in the landing configuration.

D

113
Q
  1. Extending the landing gear with the Emergency Gear Extension handcrank requires 3 clockwise turns of
    the handle which does all of the following EXCEPT:

A. shuts off hydraulic pressure to the gear.
B. open the gear doors.
C. automatically cycles to the standby LGCIU.
D. unlocks the gear which extends by gravity.

A

A. shuts off hydraulic pressure to the gear.
B. open the gear doors.
C. automatically cycles to the standby LGCIU.
D. unlocks the gear which extends by gravity.
C

114
Q
  1. The lights on the Landing Gear Indicator Panel will continue to operate even if both LGCIUs have failed
    as long as LGCIU 1 is supplied with electrical power.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False
A

115
Q
  1. The flight control surfaces are ______ controlled and _________ actuated.

A. electrically, hydraulically
B. mechanically, hydraulically
C. electrically, electrically
D. directly, proportionally

A 
A. electrically, hydraulically 
B. mechanically, hydraulically 
C. electrically, electrically 
D. directly, proportionally
A
116
Q
  1. Which computer normally controls operation of the elevators and horizontal stabilizer?

A. SEC 2
B. FAC 2
C. ELAC 2
D. SEC 1

A

A. SEC 2
B. FAC 2
C. ELAC 2
D. SEC 1

C

117
Q
  1. Sidesticks provide electronic commands to the flight control computers. If both sidesticks are operated
    simultaneously,:

A. both red arrows illuminate in the Side Stick Priority lights accompanied by the aural voice
message “DUAL INPUTS”.
B. both sidestick inputs are algebraically summed.
C. the first officer‟s input is overridden by the captain‟s input.
D. the first officer‟s TAKE OVER pushbutton is automatically inhibited.

A

A. both red arrows illuminate in the Side Stick Priority lights accompanied by the aural voice
message “DUAL INPUTS”.
B. both sidestick inputs are algebraically summed.
C. the first officer‟s input is overridden by the captain‟s input.
D. the first officer‟s TAKE OVER pushbutton is automatically inhibited.

B

118
Q
  1. Roll control is achieved by:

A. ailerons only.
B. one aileron assisted by the two outboard spoilers on each wing.
C. one aileron assisted by the four outboard spoilers on each wing.
D. one aileron assisted by the three middle spoilers on each wing.

A

A. ailerons only.
B. one aileron assisted by the two outboard spoilers on each wing.
C. one aileron assisted by the four outboard spoilers on each wing.
D. one aileron assisted by the three middle spoilers on each wing.
C

119
Q
  1. Whenever flaps are extended, the ailerons

A. are electrically centered.
B. are controlled by the damping actuator which becomes active.
C. droop 5 degrees.
D. remain at the existing deflection unless forced down by aerodynamic forces.

A

A. are electrically centered.
B. are controlled by the damping actuator which becomes active.
C. droop 5 degrees.
D. remain at the existing deflection unless forced down by aerodynamic forces.

C

120
Q
  1. If electrical power to a SEC fails:

A. the affected spoiler(s) automatically retract.
B. the three middle spoilers automatically retract.
C. the affected spoiler(s) remains in the last commanded position.
D. the affected spoiler(s) go to a lesser deflection due to aerodynamic forces.

A

A. the affected spoiler(s) automatically retract.
B. the three middle spoilers automatically retract.
C. the affected spoiler(s) remains in the last commanded position.
D. the affected spoiler(s) go to a lesser deflection due to aerodynamic forces.
A

121
Q
  1. If angle of attack protection is active or if flaps are in CONFIG FULL:

A. speed brake extension is inhibited.
B. the SPEED BRAKE lever moves to the RET position after ten seconds.
C. a green SPD BRK memo appears on ECAM.
D. an amber SPD BRK memo flashes on ECAM when managed thrust goes to idle.

A

A. speed brake extension is inhibited.
B. the SPEED BRAKE lever moves to the RET position after ten seconds.
C. a green SPD BRK memo appears on ECAM.
D. an amber SPD BRK memo flashes on ECAM when managed thrust goes to idle.
A

122
Q
  1. Should the active elevator actuator fail, elevator control is:

A. limited to dampening only.
B. maintained by the other actuator which becomes active.
C. maintained in a centered(streamlined) position.
D. limited to avoid excessive asymmetrical loads on the tail.

A

A. limited to dampening only.
B. maintained by the other actuator which becomes active.
C. maintained in a centered(streamlined) position.
D. limited to avoid excessive asymmetrical loads on the tail.
B

123
Q
  1. Two control surfaces that have mechanical back-up are:

A. elevator and rudder.
B. horizontal stabilizer and rudder.
C. speed brakes and rudder.
D. spoilers and rudder.

A

A. elevator and rudder.
B. horizontal stabilizer and rudder.
C. speed brakes and rudder.
D. spoilers and rudder.

B

124
Q
  1. Horizontal stabilizer trim automatically resets to zero degrees after landing.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

A

125
Q
  1. Should both FACs fail, maximum rudder deflection can be obtained after the _______ are extended.

A. flaps
B. slats
C. gear
D. ground spoilers

A

A. flaps
B. slats
C. gear
D. ground spoilers

B

126
Q
  1. Moving the RUD TRIM rotary switch with the autopilot engaged:

A. will trip the autopilot off if set to more than 10°.
B. has no effect on the rudder.
C. electronically resets the rudder actuator to zero trim.
D. will only trim up to the high-speed deflection limits

A

A. will trip the autopilot off if set to more than 10°.
B. has no effect on the rudder.
C. electronically resets the rudder actuator to zero trim.
D. will only trim up to the high-speed deflection limits
B

127
Q
  1. All of the following will activate the wing tip brakes EXCEPT:

A. asymmetry
B. mechanical overspeed
C. uncommanded movement
D. thermal runaway

A 
A. asymmetry 
B. mechanical overspeed 
C. uncommanded movement 
D. thermal runaway 
D
128
Q
  1. While on the ground in Normal Law, a sidestick roll deflection:

A. has a direct proportional relationship between sidestick deflection and deflection of the flight
controls.
B. is directly proportional to the load factor imposed on the aircraft, regardless of airspeed.
C. is interpreted as a roll rate request and positions ailerons and spoilers 2 through 5 to maintain a
constant bank angle.
D. will always result in the same roll rate response.

A

A. has a direct proportional relationship between sidestick deflection and deflection of the flight
controls.
B. is directly proportional to the load factor imposed on the aircraft, regardless of airspeed.
C. is interpreted as a roll rate request and positions ailerons and spoilers 2 through 5 to maintain a
constant bank angle.
D. will always result in the same roll rate response.
A

129
Q
  1. In flight, in Normal Law and with bank angle less than 3 °, pitch trim is:

A. manual with the autopilot not engaged.
B. automatic as long as the autopilot is engaged.
C. automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.
D. manual only for airspeed or configuration changes.

A

A. manual with the autopilot not engaged.
B. automatic as long as the autopilot is engaged.
C. automatic with or without the autopilot engaged.
D. manual only for airspeed or configuration changes.

C

130
Q
  1. With autopilot engaged, manual movement of the pitch trim wheel:

A. will disconnect the autopilot but not the ELACs.
B. will disconnect the autopilot and the ELACs.
C. requires manual trim when the autopilot is reengaged to resynchronize the ELACs.
D. has no effect since electrical control takes priority over mechanical (manual) control

A

A. will disconnect the autopilot but not the ELACs.
B. will disconnect the autopilot and the ELACs.
C. requires manual trim when the autopilot is reengaged to resynchronize the ELACs.
D. has no effect since electrical control takes priority over mechanical (manual) control
A

131
Q
  1. In Normal Law, elevator control changes from normal mode to alpha protection mode when the angle of
    attack is greater than:

A. alpha max
B. alpha prot
C. alpha floor
D. alpha lock

A

A. alpha max
B. alpha prot
C. alpha floor
D. alpha lock

B

132
Q
  1. When _________ is reached, as shown by indicated airspeed, TOGA thrust is provided regardless of
    thrust lever position.

A. alpha max
B. alpha prot
C. alpha floor
D. alpha lock

A

A. alpha max
B. alpha prot
C. alpha floor
D. alpha lock

C

133
Q
  1. In Direct Law, you would know to use manual pitch trim by:

A. the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” on the ECAM display.
B. the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” on the PFD.
C. the message “PROTECTIONS LOST” on the PFD display.
D. the message “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” on the ECAM display.

A

A. the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” on the ECAM display.
B. the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” on the PFD.
C. the message “PROTECTIONS LOST” on the PFD display.
D. the message “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” on the ECAM display.
B

134
Q
  1. With the A319 in Pitch Alternate Law, roll is in ____________ Law.

A. Direct
B. Normal
C. Alternate
D. Abnormal

A

A. Direct
B. Normal
C. Alternate
D. Abnormal

A

135
Q
  1. When the landing gear is extended, pitch alternate law:

A. remains the same.
B. degrades to pitch direct law.
C. degrades to pitch mechanical law.
D. remains in alternate law with low speed stability.

A

A. remains the same.
B. degrades to pitch direct law.
C. degrades to pitch mechanical law.
D. remains in alternate law with low speed stability.

B

136
Q
  1. When in Alternate Law, the low speed stability (nose down command) cannot be overridden by the
    sidestick.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

B

137
Q
  1. In the event of a complete loss of electrical flight control signals, the airplane reverts to:

A. Mechanical Backup
B. Abnormal Attitude Law
C. Abnormal Recovery Law
D. Direct Law

A

A. Mechanical Backup
B. Abnormal Attitude Law
C. Abnormal Recovery Law
D. Direct Law

A

138
Q
  1. In Mechanical Backup, hydraulic power is not required since the rudder pedals and pitch trim wheels are
    mechanically linked.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

B

139
Q
  1. Even in Alternate Law, a pilot cannot stall the airplane.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

B

140
Q
  1. Communications radios are controlled:

A. from any one of the three audio control panels (ACPs).
B. by the F/O
C. from any one of the two radio management panels (RMPs).

A

A. from any one of the three audio control panels (ACPs).
B. by the F/O
C. from any one of the two radio management panels (RMPs).
C

141
Q
  1. Only_____ is functional in the EMER ELEC CONFIG

A. RMP 3
B. RMP 1
C. RMP 1 and 3

A

A. RMP 3
B. RMP 1
C. RMP 1 and 3
B

142
Q
  1. The Flight Deck Voice Recorder will record on the ground:

A. automatically for five minutes after electrical power is supplied to the airplane.
B. when at least one engine is operating.
C. when the DFDR pushbutton on the pedestal is pressed.
D. Both A & B are correct.
E. Both B & C are correct.

A

A. automatically for five minutes after electrical power is supplied to the airplane.
B. when at least one engine is operating.
C. when the DFDR pushbutton on the pedestal is pressed.
D. Both A & B are correct.
E. Both B & C are correct.
D

143
Q
  1. When using the boom microphone, oxygen mask microphone, or hand microphone, the PA
    button must be pressed and held to use the PA system.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

A

144
Q
  1. The white SEL indicator on a Radio Management Panel illuminates when:

A. the RMP has failed.
B. the VHF has failed.
C. a transceiver associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP.
D. the SELCAL system has detected an incoming call.

A

A. the RMP has failed.
B. the VHF has failed.
C. a transceiver associated with one RMP is tuned by another RMP.
D. the SELCAL system has detected an incoming call.
C

145
Q
  1. With the INT/RAD switch on an Audio Control Panel in the INT position and the sidestick
    Transmit Switch in the RADIO (keyed) position, you will transmit on the:

A. interphone at all times when using the boom or oxygen mask microphone.
B. interphone except when using the boom or oxygen mask microphone.
C. radio selected by its transmission key on the Audio Control Panel.
D. radio selected by its reception knob on the Audio Control Panel.

A

A. interphone at all times when using the boom or oxygen mask microphone.
B. interphone except when using the boom or oxygen mask microphone.
C. radio selected by its transmission key on the Audio Control Panel.
D. radio selected by its reception knob on the Audio Control Panel.
C

146
Q
  1. The loudspeaker volume knob will control the loudness of the aural alert and voice
    messages.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False
B

147
Q
  1. The Flight Deck Handset is used for communication:

A. between the flight deck and flight attendants.
B. between the flight deck and ground personnel.
C. from the flight deck to the cabin.
D. on any transmission channel selected by the transmission key on ACP 1.

A

A. between the flight deck and flight attendants.
B. between the flight deck and ground personnel.
C. from the flight deck to the cabin.
D. on any transmission channel selected by the transmission key on ACP 1.
C

148
Q
  1. The Digital Flight Data Recorder:

A. stops immediately after touchdown when the main landing gear is fully compressed.
B. operates continuously as long as the aircraft is electrically powered.
C. operates continuously in flight whether or not the engines are running.
D. operates continuously as soon as the DFDR EVENT pushbutton on the pedestal is
pressed.

A

A. stops immediately after touchdown when the main landing gear is fully compressed.
B. operates continuously as long as the aircraft is electrically powered.
C. operates continuously in flight whether or not the engines are running.
D. operates continuously as soon as the DFDR EVENT pushbutton on the pedestal is
pressed.
C

149
Q
  1. Pressing the CVR ERASE pushbutton for two seconds erases the Cockpit Voice Recorder
    tape completely if:

A. the aircraft is on the ground
B. the parking brake is set
C. both A and B
D. either A or B

A 
A. the aircraft is on the ground 
B. the parking brake is set 
C. both A and B 
D. either A or B 
C
150
Q
  1. When the captain selects the EMER pushbutton ON on the CALLS panel, all of the
    following occur EXCEPT:

A. a pink light flashes at all area CALL panels in the cabin.
B. EMERGENCY CALL appears on all flight attendant panels.
C. three long buzzers sound on the flight deck.
D. a high-low chime (repeated three times) sounds through all loudspeakers.

A

A. a pink light flashes at all area CALL panels in the cabin.
B. EMERGENCY CALL appears on all flight attendant panels.
C. three long buzzers sound on the flight deck.
D. a high-low chime (repeated three times) sounds through all loudspeakers.
C

151
Q
  1. Which statement concerning the NAV key on the RMP is NOT correct?

A. NAV is pressed only when both FMGCs or both MCDUs inoperative
B. Normal radio communication is still available.
C. Normal autotuning of navaids is still available.

A

A. NAV is pressed only when both FMGCs or both MCDUs inoperative
B. Normal radio communication is still available.
C. Normal autotuning of navaids is still available.
C

152
Q
  1. The Electronic Instrument System presents data on ___ identical display units.

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

A 
A. 2 
B. 4 
C. 6 
D. 8 
C
153
Q
  1. The three Display Management Computers (DMCs):

A. acquire and process inputs from sensors and computers to generate the display images.
B. generate and display alert messages, aural alerts, and voice messages.
C. automatically update ACARS out & off/on & in messages.
D. control power switching to the EIS displays in an Emergency Power situation.

A

A. acquire and process inputs from sensors and computers to generate the display images.
B. generate and display alert messages, aural alerts, and voice messages.
C. automatically update ACARS out & off/on & in messages.
D. control power switching to the EIS displays in an Emergency Power situation.

A

154
Q
  1. The A319 has ___ Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRUs).

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

A

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6

B

155
Q
  1. Inertial reference position can be entered into the ADIRS prior to each flight:
A. on the ADIRS CDU. 
B. via either MCDU. 
C. automatically by the active DMC. 
D. Either A or B. 
E. Either A or C.
A 
A. on the ADIRS CDU. 
B. via either MCDU. 
C. automatically by the active DMC. 
D. Either A or B. 
E. Either A or C.

D

156
Q
  1. EGPWS aural and visual warnings are never inhibited.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

B

157
Q
  1. Flight Management Guidance Computers (FMGCs) have which two functions?

A. ECAM control and flight guidance
B. ECAM control and EIS management
C. Managed guidance and independent guidance
D. Flight guidance and flight management

A

A. ECAM control and flight guidance
B. ECAM control and EIS management
C. Managed guidance and independent guidance
D. Flight guidance and flight management

D

158
Q
  1. Three possible modes of FMGC operation are:

A. Level 1, Level 2, and Level 3.
B. dual, independent, and stand-by.
C. independent, primary, and secondary.
D. independent, single, and dual.Q

A 
A. Level 1, Level 2, and Level 3. 
B. dual, independent, and stand-by. 
C. independent, primary, and secondary. 
D. independent, single, and dual.Q
D
159
Q
  1. Each FMGC uses which inputs for position determination?

A. A weighted average of two IRS positions (IRS 1 and 2)
B. IRS average and GPS average
C. EPE and RNP
D. A hybrid IRS/GPS position

A

A. A weighted average of two IRS positions (IRS 1 and 2)
B. IRS average and GPS average
C. EPE and RNP
D. A hybrid IRS/GPS position

D

160
Q
  1. The two basic modes of flight guidance are:

A. slaved and coupled.
B. estimated and required.
C. manual and coupled.
D. managed and selected.

A

A. slaved and coupled.
B. estimated and required.
C. manual and coupled.
D. managed and selected.

D

161
Q
  1. The MANAGED mode of flight guidance is used for:

A. temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.
B. long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
C. lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected by the ADIRUs.
D. short-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as selected with the FCU.

A

A. temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.
B. long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
C. lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected by the ADIRUs.
D. short-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as selected with the FCU.
B

162
Q
  1. Both autopilots may be engaged and active in any phase of flight.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True
B. False

B

163
Q
  1. All navaids are normally autotuned by a(n):

DA. FMGC.
B. RMP
C. MCDU.
D. ADIRU.

A

A. FMGC.
B. RMP
C. MCDU.
D. ADIRU.

A

164
Q
  1. VOR data can be displayed on:

A. both NDs.
B. the DDRMI.
C. Both A and B.
D. Neither A nor B.

A

A. both NDs.
B. the DDRMI.
C. Both A and B.
D. Neither A nor B.

C

165
Q
  1. All of the following are used for FMGS radio position computation EXCEPT:

A. VOR/VOR
B. VOR/DME
C. ILS/DME
D. DME/DME

A 
A. VOR/VOR 
B. VOR/DME 
C. ILS/DME 
D. DME/DME 
A
166
Q
  1. Altitude alerting is automatically inhibited in flight when:

A. slats are extended with the landing gear selected down.
B. slats are retracted with the landing gear down.
C. on approach after glide slope captured.
D. Either A or C.

A

A. slats are extended with the landing gear selected down.
B. slats are retracted with the landing gear down.
C. on approach after glide slope captured.
D. Either A or C.

D

167
Q
  1. Radio Height is displayed on the PFD when:

A. below 2500’.
B. below 9200’.
C. the LOC or APPR pushbutton is pressed.
D. a Decision Height is selected on the PERF APPR page.

A

A. below 2500’.
B. below 9200’.
C. the LOC or APPR pushbutton is pressed.
D. a Decision Height is selected on the PERF APPR page.

A

168
Q
  1. Armed guidance modes are displayed on line 2 of the Flight Mode Annunciator in which color(s)?

A. Blue or magenta
B. Blue or green
C. White
D. Magenta or white

A

A. Blue or magenta
B. Blue or green
C. White
D. Magenta or white

A

169
Q
  1. Engaged guidance modes are displayed on line 1 of the Flight Mode Annunciator in which color(s)?

A. Green
B. Green or magenta
C. Blue
D. White

A

A. Green
B. Green or magenta
C. Blue
D. White

A

170
Q
  1. Information from ILS receiver number 1 is displayed on ______________ .

A. First Officer‟s PFD & Captain‟s ND.
B. Captain‟s PFD & ND.
C. First Officer‟s PFD & ND.
D. Captain‟s PFD & First Officer‟s ND.

A

A. First Officer‟s PFD & Captain‟s ND.
B. Captain‟s PFD & ND.
C. First Officer‟s PFD & ND.
D. Captain‟s PFD & First Officer‟s ND.

D

171
Q
  1. The ON BAT light on the ADIRS CDU illuminates:

A. only when all IRU’s are on battery power.
B. when an IRU fault is detected.
C. when one or more ADIRUs are supplied by airplane battery only.
D. when ADIRU1 has been replaced by ADIRU3 using EIS switching.

A

A. only when all IRU’s are on battery power.
B. when an IRU fault is detected.
C. when one or more ADIRUs are supplied by airplane battery only.
D. when ADIRU1 has been replaced by ADIRU3 using EIS switching.
C

172
Q
  1. In the event of failure of the AIR DATA function of ADIRU 1 or 2, the affected displays can be
    manually replaced by ADR 3 with the EIS :

A. ECAM/ND transfer selector.
B. AIR DATA selector.
C. ATT HDG selector.
D. EIS DMC selector

A

A. ECAM/ND transfer selector.
B. AIR DATA selector.
C. ATT HDG selector.
D. EIS DMC selector

B

173
Q
  1. If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU:

A. a FLX takeoff is still available, set power with the thrust levers.
B. the FMGS will enter R for you based on TAT.
C. a FLX takeoff is not available.
D. a FLEX TEMP NOT SET alert will sound when the TO CONFIG pushbutton is pressed.

A

A. a FLX takeoff is still available, set power with the thrust levers.
B. the FMGS will enter R for you based on TAT.
C. a FLX takeoff is not available.
D. a FLEX TEMP NOT SET alert will sound when the TO CONFIG pushbutton is pressed.

C

174
Q
  1. Pressing the ECAM EMER CANC pushbutton will :

A. cancel existing aural warnings for as long as they exist and cancel existing cautions (aural &
visual) for the rest of the flight.
B. cancel any existing warnings or cautions (aural & visual) for the rest of the flight.
C. cancel any warning or caution except for OVERSPEED and L/G NOT DOWN.
D. cancel any warning or caution except for PARK BRAKE ON and FLEX TEMP NOT SET.

A

A. cancel existing aural warnings for as long as they exist and cancel existing cautions (aural &
visual) for the rest of the flight.
B. cancel any existing warnings or cautions (aural & visual) for the rest of the flight.
C. cancel any warning or caution except for OVERSPEED and L/G NOT DOWN.
D. cancel any warning or caution except for PARK BRAKE ON and FLEX TEMP NOT SET.
A

175
Q
  1. During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation flow, before selecting batteries on, ensure a minimum
    of ____volts is displayed. If less, establish external power connection and charge for a
    minimum of ______ minutes.
A

25.5, 20

176
Q
  1. On the ECAM DOOR/OXY page, if oxygen pressure is LESS than _____ psi, the Minimum
    Flight Crew Oxygen Pressure table must be consulted.
A

1,000

177
Q
  1. During panel prep, select the BAT switches OFF then back to AUTO and check the ECAM
    ELEC page for a battery charging current of less than ______ amps, decreasing within
    _______seconds.
A

60, 10

178
Q
  1. On a First Flight of the Day, the ADIRS is aligned by placing the MODE selector in the
    OFF position for at least _____ seconds before switching to the ______ position. For all
    other flights the alignment procedure is the same, but the OFF position is selected for no more than
    ______ seconds.
A

10, NAV, 5

179
Q
  1. On a fresh ADIRS alignment, the maximum acceptable ground speed value displayed on
    the ND must be less than ______ knots.
A

5

180
Q
  1. Prior to engine start with the Parking Brake OFF, if the brake pedals are depressed fully,
    brake pressure displayed on the BRAKES and ACCU PRESSURE indicator should be:
    A. at the top of the green band.
    B. 2400 psi (nominal)
    C. 0
    D. 3000 psi (nominal)
A 
A. at the top of the green band. 
B. 2400 psi (nominal) 
C. 0 
D. 3000 psi (nominal) 
B
181
Q
  1. After engine start with the Parking Brake OFF, if the brake pedals are depressed fully, brake
    pressure displayed on the BRAKES and ACCU PRESSURE indicator should be:

A. at the top of the green band.
B. 2400 psi (nominal)
C. 0
D. 3000 psi (nominal)

A 
A. at the top of the green band. 
B. 2400 psi (nominal) 
C. 0 
D. 3000 psi (nominal) 
C
182
Q
  1. T.O. INHIBIT, displayed in magenta on the upper ECAM, means that selected low priority
    warnings/cautions are suppressed from:

A. 2 minutes after the second engine start until lift-off
B. T.O. power application until 1500‟ or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first.
C. 80 knots to thrust reduction altitude or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs
first..
D. lift-off to thrust reduction altitude or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first.

A

A. 2 minutes after the second engine start until lift-off
B. T.O. power application until 1500‟ or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first.
C. 80 knots to thrust reduction altitude or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs
first..
D. lift-off to thrust reduction altitude or 2 minutes after lift-off, whichever occurs first.

B

183
Q
  1. The Landing Checklist cannot be completed until ______ feet RA, when the ECAM LDG
    Memo appears. This should not be confused with the LDG INHIBIT, which appears below
    ______ feet RA to show that selected low-priority warnings/cautions are suppressed during
    landing.
A

2000, 750

184
Q
  1. The ILS pushbutton on the glareshield panel must be pressed to:

A. display ILS information on the PFD.
B. activate the ILS approach mode to capture both localizer and glideslope.
C. display ILS or RNAV approach information.
D. display the ILS deviation scales on the ND.

A

A. display ILS information on the PFD.
B. activate the ILS approach mode to capture both localizer and glideslope.
C. display ILS or RNAV approach information.
D. display the ILS deviation scales on the ND.

A

185
Q
  1. On arrival at the gate, the ADIRS drift check must be accomplished within ______
    minutes following aircraft stop. Regardless of navigation time, values for position drift of
    less than ______ miles and ground speed of less than ______ knots are within acceptable
    limits.
A

2, 5, 15

186
Q
  1. If a Flex Temp was not entered in the MCDU and the thrust levers are positioned in the
    FLEX detent:

A. a warning will be generated.
B. continue to move the thrust levers to TOGA and execute a max thrust takeoff.
C. pressing the TO CONFIG pushbutton prior to takeoff on will generate an alert.
D. A and B are both correct.
E. A and C are both correct.

A

A. a warning will be generated.
B. continue to move the thrust levers to TOGA and execute a max thrust takeoff.
C. pressing the TO CONFIG pushbutton prior to takeoff on will generate an alert.
D. A and B are both correct.
E. A and C are both correct.
D

187
Q
  1. A Flex thrust takeoff is allowed on a wet runway, but not allowed on a contaminated runway
    which is defined as ______ inch of standing water.
A

1/8

188
Q
  1. With the parking brake ON, do not exceed ________ % N1.
A

75

189
Q
  1. Prior to landing, the ENG MODE SEL should be set to the IGN mode:

A. during both precision and non-precision approaches in IMC.
B. if engine anti-ice has been selected ON to provide continuous ignition.
C. for contaminated runways.
D. never. This position is only used for engine starting.

A

A. during both precision and non-precision approaches in IMC.
B. if engine anti-ice has been selected ON to provide continuous ignition.
C. for contaminated runways.
D. never. This position is only used for engine starting.
C

190
Q
  1. On a non-precision approach, the autopilot will automatically disengage at ____ feet, if a
    MDA was entered on the MCDU APPR page or at ____ feet, if no MDA was entered.
A

DA-50, 400

191
Q

Elac

A

Pitch
Abnormal Attitudes
Roll
Aileron Droop
Autopilot Acquisition
Activates the Protections

192
Q

Sec

A

Pitch
Abnormal Attitudes
Roll
Speed Brakes
Spoilers

193
Q

FAC

A

Beta Target

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