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UPCAT General Science Flashcards

1
Q

What is the suffix for alkane compounds?

A

-ane

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2
Q

Define alkyl groups in alkanes.

A

Alkyl groups are side-chains derived by removing one hydrogen atom from alkanes.

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3
Q

How are alkyl groups named?

A

By changing the -ane ending of the parent alkane to -yl.

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4
Q

What do you do in step 1 of naming alkanes?

A

Locate the parent chain by finding the longest continuous chain.

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5
Q

How do you handle two chains of equal length in naming alkanes?

A

Choose the one with more branch points as the parent chain.

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6
Q

Explain step 2 in naming alkanes.

A

Number the carbon atoms in the parent chain for the lowest position numbers of substituents.

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7
Q

What do you do in step 3 of naming alkanes?

A

Identify substituents and the carbon atoms they are attached to.

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8
Q

How do you name a compound in step 4 of alkane naming?

A

Arrange substituents alphabetically with position numbers before the parent name.

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9
Q

When do you use prefixes di-, tri-, tetra- in alkane naming?

A

When the same alkyl group occurs more than once as a substituent.

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10
Q

How are prefixes such as cyclo, neo- treated in alphabetizing substituents?

A

They are included in alphabetizing; use hyphens to separate prefixes.

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11
Q

What are the components of a nucleotide?

A

Nitrogenous base, sugar moiety, phosphate group

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12
Q

Differentiate between monosaccharides and disaccharides.

A

Monosaccharides have one unit, disaccharides have two units of monosaccharide.

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13
Q

Explain the role of cellulose in plants.

A

Cellulose provides a supporting framework for plants.

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14
Q

What are scalar quantities in physics?

A

Quantities expressed by magnitude only, e.g., mass, time.

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15
Q

Define vector quantities in physics.

A

Quantities expressed by magnitude and direction, e.g., force, velocity.

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16
Q

What is a resultant vector?

A

The sum/difference of two or more vectors with the same effect.

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17
Q

What is the main function of stomates in a leaf?

A

Stomates serve as entry points for carbon dioxide and exits for water vapor.

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18
Q

What happens to guard cells when water moves out of them?

A

Guard cells become flaccid, and the stomal pore closes.

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19
Q

How does a plant suffer if transpiration is faster than root water absorption?

A

Plant tissues suffer from water deficit, causing the plant to wilt.

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20
Q

Define Photosynthesis using the given equation?

A

Photosynthesis is: 6 CO2 + 6 H2O -> C6H12O12 + 6 O2.

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21
Q

Explain Respiration using the given equation.

A

Respiration is: C6H12O12 + 6 O2 -> 6 CO2 + 6 H2O.

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22
Q

What is Plant Taxonomy and its key components?

A

Plant Taxonomy is the classification, nomenclature, and identification of plants based on hierarchical categories known as taxa.

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23
Q

Describe the hierarchy of taxa in Plant Taxonomy.

A

Taxa are arranged hierarchically from species to genus to family and finally to the kingdom.

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24
Q

What is the smallest taxonomic unit in Plant Taxonomy?

A

The smallest taxonomic unit is the species.

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25
Q

What is the scientific name of a plant composed of?

A

A plant’s scientific name is a binomial, consisting of a genus name and a specific epithet.

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26
Q

What is Genetics and its main focus?

A

Genetics is the study of heredity and variation, focusing on traits passed down through generations.

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27
Q

Explain the process involved in heredity and variation according to Genetics.

A

Cell division plays a significant role in heredity and variation, especially in passing down genetic information.

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28
Q

Define Dominant Allele in Genetics terms.

A

Dominant Allele is an alternative trait that is expressed in the phenotype.

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29
Q

Explain the Law of Dominance in Genetics.

A

The Law of Dominance states that only dominant alleles are expressed in the phenotype.

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30
Q

What is law of Incomplete Dominance in Genetics?

A

The Law of Incomplete Dominance states that two alleles are incompletely expressed, resulting in a blended trait.

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31
Q

What is the genotype of the F1 progeny in complete dominance?

A

Heterozygous (Rr)

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32
Q

In complete dominance, what is the phenotype of the F1 progeny with the dominant allele R?

A

Round

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33
Q

Define complete dominance in terms of gene expression.

A

One allele completely masks the expression of the other.

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34
Q

Explain the genotypes of the parents involved in a testcross to determine F1 heterozygosity.

A

Homozygous recessive (rr) and heterozygous (Rr)

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35
Q

What is the genotypic ratio resulting from a testcross between F1 (Rr) and homozygous recessive (rr) parents?

A

1 Rr : 1 rr

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36
Q

In a dihybrid cross, how do gene pairs segregate during meiosis?

A

Independently of each other.

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37
Q

What ratio did Mendel observe in the F2 generation of his dihybrid cross?

A

9:3:3:1 (round yellow : wrinkled yellow : round green : wrinkled green)

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38
Q

What method is used to determine genotypic ratios in the F2 progeny?

A

Punnett Square or Checkerboard method.

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39
Q

Explain the molecular composition of chromosomes in terms of genes.

A

Chromosomes carry genes which are fragments of DNA.

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40
Q

What is the role of DNA in transferring biological information?

A

DNA transmits information from parent cells to daughter cells and between generations.

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41
Q

Describe the process of replication in terms of DNA molecules.

A

Replication creates two identical DNA molecules from a parent DNA.

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42
Q

What general processes does the central dogma of molecular biology consist of?

A

Replication, transcription, and translation.

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43
Q

How is information transferred from DNA to proteins?

A

Through transcription and translation processes.

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44
Q

What are the three components of the central dogma of molecular biology?

A

DNA, RNA, and Proteins.

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45
Q

What term describes changes in genetic materials that are heritable?

A

Mutation.

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46
Q

Define deletion in terms of genetic materials.

A

Refers to removal of a segment of base pairs.

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47
Q

What are the Group 1 elements known as?

A

Alkali metals

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48
Q

Which group includes elements like calcium and magnesium?

A

Group 2 - Alkaline earth metals

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49
Q

Which group contains elements such as chlorine and fluorine?

A

Group 17 - Halogens

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50
Q

What do periods represent in the periodic table?

A

Horizontal rows

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51
Q

What pattern or trend is repeated in elements belonging to a period?

A

Properties show a repeated trend in the next period

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52
Q

Which group forms ions with a +1 charge?

A

Group 1

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53
Q

What is the charge of ions formed by elements in Group 16?

A

-2

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54
Q

Which group typically forms ions with a +3 charge?

A

Group 13

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55
Q

Why do noble gases usually not form ions?

A

They are generally stable with full valence electron shells

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56
Q

How many elements are gases at room temperature?

A

11

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57
Q

Name the four elements that are liquids at 25°C.

A

Hg, Br, Ga, Cs

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58
Q

What is the expected state of Francium (Fr) if prepared in large quantities?

A

Liquid

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59
Q

Define atomic size or radius in terms of a period (left to right).

A

Decreasing

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60
Q

How does ionization energy change down a group (top to bottom)?

A

Decreasing

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61
Q

What property decreases as you move across a period from left to right?

A

Cation size

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62
Q

Describe the trend in metallic character down a group.

A

Increasing

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63
Q

What does electronegativity indicate as you move across a period?

A

Increases

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64
Q

Explain the concept of covalent radius.

A

Half the distance between identical atoms in a covalent bond

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65
Q

How is metallic radius defined in a solid metal?

A

Half the distance between atoms in contact in the crystalline solid

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66
Q

What is the definition of ionization energy?

A

Energy needed to remove an electron from a gaseous atom or ion

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67
Q

Define affinity for electrons in terms of an atom or ion.

A

Tendency to attract additional electrons

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68
Q

What does electronegativity measure in relation to shared electrons?

A

Attraction of an atom for shared electrons

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69
Q

How do metals typically react with oxygen gas?

A

Forming basic oxides in water

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70
Q

Give an example of a common binary covalent compound.

A

H2O (Water)

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71
Q

What is the naming rule for binary covalent compounds regarding metallic elements?

A

Name the more metallic element first

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72
Q

What are the three quantum numbers describing an electron’s orbital?

A

The three quantum numbers are n, l, and ml.

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73
Q

How many electrons can an orbital hold and what must their spins be?

A

An orbital can hold 2 electrons with opposite spins.

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74
Q

What is the principal quantum number (n) and what positive values can it take?

A

The principal quantum number (n) represents the main energy level and can take values of 1, 2, 3, and so on.

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75
Q

How does the size of an orbital change as the principal quantum number (n) increases?

A

As n increases, the orbital becomes larger.

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76
Q

What is the azimuthal quantum number (l) and its possible values?

A

The azimuthal quantum number (l) relates to the shape of the orbital and ranges from 0 to n-1 for each n.

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77
Q

Explain the relation between l values and orbital shapes using the letter designations.

A

The values of l correspond to different orbital shapes: 0-s, 1-p, 2-d, 3-f.

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78
Q

What is the magnetic quantum number (ml) and its possible values?

A

The magnetic quantum number (ml) ranges from -l to l, including zero.

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79
Q

Describe the concept of degenerate orbitals.

A

Degenerate orbitals are orbitals that have the same energy levels.

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80
Q

What is the electron spin quantum number (ms) and its possible values?

A

The electron spin quantum number (ms) can be +1/2 or -1/2.

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81
Q

Explain the Pauli Exclusion Principle.

A

The Pauli Exclusion Principle states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same set of quantum numbers.

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82
Q

Define electronic configuration and ground state electronic configuration.

A

Electronic configuration describes how electrons are arranged in an atom, with ground state being the lowest energy arrangement.

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83
Q

What is the Aufbau Principle and how does it determine electron filling order?

A

The Aufbau Principle states that orbitals are filled in order of increasing energy, following the (n+l) rule.

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84
Q

Explain Hund’s Rule of Multiplicity and its application in electron arrangement.

A

Hund’s Rule states that electrons singly occupy degenerate orbitals before pairing, maximizing the number of like spins.

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85
Q

What are the key points to remember when writing electronic configurations?

A

Remember the Aufbau Principle and Hund’s Rule, filling orbitals in order of increasing energy and maximizing like spins in degenerate orbitals.

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86
Q

Summarize Dobereiner’s Law of Triads and its significance in early classifications.

A

Dobereiner’s Law suggested that the average combining weight of elements in a triad was the central member’s value.

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87
Q

Explain John Newlands’ Law of Octaves and its limitations.

A

Newlands’ Law stated that every eighth element had similar properties, although some positions were forced and didn’t accommodate all elements.

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88
Q

Describe Meyer’s and Mendeleev’s contributions to the development of the periodic table.

A

Meyer’s Atomic Volume Curve and Mendeleev’s Periodic Law laid the groundwork for the modern periodic table by observing periodic trends and predicting new elements.

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89
Q

What is the Modern Periodic Law and how does it relate to elements?

A

The Modern Periodic Law states that the properties of elements are functions of their atomic numbers, guiding their arrangement in the periodic table.

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90
Q

Explain the concept of groups in the periodic table.

A

Groups in the periodic table are vertical columns where elements have similar properties.

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91
Q

What is the formula for displacement under constant velocity?

A

Δx = vt

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92
Q

Calculate the displacement when v = 20m/s and t = 2s.

A

Δx = 40m

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93
Q

Define Uniform Accelerated Motion.

A

Motion with constant acceleration.

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94
Q

What are the variables used in Uniform Accelerated Motion?

A

Vf, Vo, a, t, X, Xo

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95
Q

Find the acceleration of a cyclist given Vf = 4m/s, Vo = 2m/s, and t = 2s.

A

Acceleration = 1 m/s^2

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96
Q

Explain Freefall motion.

A

One-dimensional motion influenced only by gravity (-9.8m/s^2).

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97
Q

What is the gravitational acceleration in Freefall?

A

g = -9.8m/s^2

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98
Q

Calculate the velocity of a ball after 5 seconds of freefall.

A

Vf = -49m/s

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99
Q

How far does a mango fall after 0.5 seconds of freefall?

A

ΔY = -19.6m

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100
Q

Define Projectile Motion.

A

Curved motion influenced by gravity, a combination of uniform motion, and freefall.

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101
Q

What are the conditions of Projectile Motion throughout the flight?

A

Neglecting air resistance, horizontal and vertical motions are independent, and more.

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102
Q

Where is a stone after 2 seconds with Vx = 10m/s, dy = 200m?

A

Find dx after 2s.

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103
Q

When does a stone hit the ground after being thrown from a tower?

A

Time to hit the ground.

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104
Q

What is the stone’s speed just before hitting the ground?

A

Speed before impact.

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105
Q

What distinguishes plant cells from fungal and animal cells?

A

Presence of cellulosic cell walls, plastids, and large vacuoles.

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106
Q

What are ergastic substances found in plant cells?

A

Non-living inclusions like crystals and starch.

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107
Q

Name the three major plant cell types.

A

Parenchyma, collenchyma, and sclerenchyma.

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108
Q

Describe the characteristics of parenchyma cells.

A

Usually large, thin-walled, and extremely variable in shape.

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109
Q

What differentiates collenchyma cells from other plant cell types?

A

Primary cell walls thickened irregularly by cellulose and pectin.

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110
Q

How are sclerenchyma cells characterized?

A

Thick primary cell wall with heavy lignified depositions.

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111
Q

What are meristematic tissues composed of?

A

Immature cells and regions of active cell division.

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112
Q

Name the three types of permanent plant tissues.

A

Epidermis, periderm, and vascular tissues (xylem and phloem).

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113
Q

What is the function of xylem in plants?

A

Transport water and minerals upward from the roots.

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114
Q

What is the primary function of phloem in plants?

A

Transport food materials throughout the plant.

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115
Q

Describe the characteristics of a root in plants.

A

Typically underground, serves for anchorage, and water absorption.

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116
Q

Differentiate between fibrous and taproot systems.

A

Fibrous is found in monocotyledons, taproot in dicotyledons.

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117
Q

What distinguishes a stem by the presence of?

A

Nodes where leaves are born and internodes between nodes.

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118
Q

What functions do leaves serve in a plant?

A

Photosynthesis and transpiration.

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119
Q

What gives leaves their green color?

A

Chlorophyll.

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120
Q

What is the main function of a flower according to the text?

A

Representing the reproductive structure of an angiosperm.

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121
Q

Describe what a fruit is in the context of a plant.

A

Ripened ovary protecting and dispersing seeds.

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122
Q

What processes precede fruit development in plants?

A

Pollination and fertilization.

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123
Q

Where does photosynthesis primarily take place in plants?

A

Chloroplasts in the leaves.

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124
Q

Explain the concept of transpiration in plants.

A

Loss of water in vapor form through stomates on leaf surfaces.

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125
Q

Define erosion and lithification.

A

Erosion is the wearing away of the earth’s surface. Lithification is the process of turning sediment into rock.

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126
Q

Explain the difference between weather and climate.

A

Weather refers to daily atmospheric conditions, while climate describes long-term temperature and precipitation patterns.

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127
Q

List the gases found in the atmosphere and their percentages.

A

Nitrogen (78%), Oxygen (21%), Other gases (water vapor, CO2, O3)

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128
Q

Describe the layers of the atmosphere and their characteristics.

A

Troposphere (lowest temperature, where life exists), Stratosphere (contains ozone), Mesosphere, Ionosphere, Exosphere

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129
Q

What causes the movement of air known as winds?

A

Uneven temperature and pressure in the atmosphere.

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130
Q

Explain the definition of Ecology.

A

Ecology is the study of how living things interact with their environment.

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131
Q

Differentiate between biotic and abiotic ecological factors.

A

Biotic factors are living, while abiotic factors are nonliving but essential to organisms.

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132
Q

Define Population, Community, Ecosystem, and Biomes.

A

Population - group of same species, Community - different populations together, Ecosystem - living things interacting with environment, Biomes - area with climate-based communities.

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133
Q

Discuss the probable origin of the solar system according to the Nebular Theory.

A

The solar system originated from a rotating gas and dust cloud composed of hydrogen, helium, and heavier elements.

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134
Q

Explain the differences between the Ptolemaic Theory and the Copernican Theory.

A

Ptolemaic Theory: Earth stationary, planets revolve around it. Copernican Theory: Sun at center, planets revolve around the sun.

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135
Q

Name and describe the characteristics of the different planets in our solar system.

A

Mercury - rocky, cratered; Venus - thick cloud cover; Earth - liquid water, life; Mars - polar ice caps, dominant volcanoes; Jupiter - Great red spots; Saturn - many rings; Uranus - Rotates on the side; Neptune - Great dark spot.

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136
Q

Differentiate between asteroids, meteoroids, and comets.

A

Asteroids - objects smaller than planets. Meteoroids - smaller than asteroids. Comets - frozen materials and rocky bits.

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137
Q

Define Inertia.

A

Inertia is the tendency of an object to resist a change in its state of motion.

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138
Q

What is the formula for momentum?

A

p = mv, where p is momentum, m is mass, and v is velocity.

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139
Q

State Newton’s Third Law of Motion.

A

Whenever one object exerts a force on a second object, the second object exerts an equal and opposite force.

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140
Q

Explain the Law of Conservation of Momentum.

A

The total momentum of an isolated system remains constant if no external forces act on it.

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141
Q

What determines the weight of an object?

A

Weight is the force acted upon an object due to gravity.

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142
Q

What is impulse in physics?

A

Impulse is a vector quantity equal to the product of force and time and is associated with a change in momentum.

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143
Q

State Newton’s Second Law of Motion.

A

The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass.

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144
Q

What is the naming convention for oxyacids ending in -ate?

A

Name of the form ic acid (e.g. sulfate -> sulfuric acid).

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145
Q

Provide an example of an oxyanion ending in -ite and its corresponding oxyacid name.

A

Example: SO32- sulfite, oxyacid: H2SO3 sulfurous acid.

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146
Q

List the names of some common polyatomic anions.

A

Including Hydroxide, Nitrate, Peroxide, Nitrite, Cyanide, Acetate, Azide, Chromate.

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147
Q

State the stoichiometry concept for balancing chemical equations.

A

Use correct formulas, adjust coefficients (not subscripts), balance elemental forms, H, and O last.

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148
Q

Define Stoichiometry in chemical reactions.

A

Quantitative study of reactants and products in a chemical reaction.

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149
Q

Explain the Mole Method in stoichiometry.

A

Interpret stoichiometric coefficients as the number of moles of each substance.

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150
Q

How is molar mass defined in chemistry?

A

Mass in grams of 1 mole of a substance, numerically equal to atomic mass.

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151
Q

State the ways of expressing the mole in chemistry.

A

By number of particles, mass (using molar mass), by volume (using molar volume at STP).

152
Q

What is the percentage composition of a compound based on weight?

A

Percentage of each element’s weight in 100g of the compound.

153
Q

Define Empirical Formula in chemistry.

A

Formula with lowest whole number subscripts showing compound composition.

154
Q

Define molarity.

A

Molarity is moles of solute per liter of solution.

155
Q

What is the formula for mass percent or weight percent?

A

(g solute/g solution) x 100%

156
Q

Explain the concept of supersaturation in solutions.

A

Supersaturation occurs when a solution contains more solute than it should at a given temperature.

157
Q

What is the formula for mole fraction?

A

Mole fraction, X = moles of a component / moles of solution = moles solute / (moles of solute + moles of solvent)

158
Q

How is molality defined?

A

Molality (m) is moles of solute per kilogram of solvent.

159
Q

How does pressure affect the solubility of gases in liquids?

A

Higher pressure leads to higher solubility of gases in liquids.

160
Q

Explain the relationship between temperature and solubility for solid solutes and liquid solvents.

A

For endothermic dissolutions, higher temperature increases solubility; for exothermic dissolutions, higher temperature decreases solubility.

161
Q

Describe how dilution is achieved in solutions.

A

Dilution is prepared by adding more solvent to a concentrated solution, following the formula M1V1 = M2V2.

162
Q

Define colligative properties of solutions.

A

Colligative properties depend on the amount of solute, not the nature of the solute, including vapor pressure lowering, boiling point elevation, freezing point depression, and osmotic pressure.

163
Q

What is osmotic pressure, and how is it calculated?

A

Osmotic pressure is the pressure required to stop osmosis, calculated as π = MRT (where π = osmotic pressure, M = molarity, R = gas constant, T = temperature in Kelvin).

164
Q

According to the Arrhenius definition, how are acids and bases defined?

A

Acids increase [H+] and bases increase [OH-] when dissolved in water.

165
Q

Explain the Bronsted-Lowry definitions of acids and bases.

A

Acids are proton donors, bases are proton acceptors according to Bronsted-Lowry definitions.

166
Q

What are monoprotic and polyprotic acids?

A

Monoprotic acids donate 1 mole of H+ per mole of acid, whereas polyprotic acids donate more than 1 mole of H+ per mole of acid.

167
Q

Define Scientific Method step 3.

A

Formulating a hypothesis.

168
Q

What is the Independent Variable?

A

Variable changed by the experimenter.

169
Q

Explain Control group.

A

Opposite of Experimental group.

170
Q

What is the purpose of a hypothesis?

A

To propose the answer to a scientific question.

171
Q

Describe a Scientific law.

A

A description of a natural occurrence observed multiple times.

172
Q

Explain the purpose of a Model in science.

A

Help visualize occurrences and unobservable objects.

173
Q

What system is used in scientific measurements?

A

Metric system.

174
Q

What does SI stand for in measurements?

A

International System of Units.

175
Q

How do you calculate significant digits in a measurement?

A

Sum of certain digits + one certain digit (0 or 5).

176
Q

What are the base quantities in SI units?

A

Mass, Length, Time, Amount of Substance, Temperature, Electric current, Luminous intensity.

177
Q

Explain Lithosphere.

A

Solid part and largest portion of the earth.

178
Q

Define Hydrosphere.

A

Liquid part covering about 71% of the earth’s surface.

179
Q

Describe Metamorphic rocks.

A

Rocks changed due to heat and pressure.

180
Q

What are Sedimentary rocks formed from?

A

Deposited fragments or particles of other rocks.

181
Q

What is the term for the mass of blastomeres forming a hollow fluid-filled cavity?

A

Blastocoel

182
Q

In frogs, what are the large cells below the blastocoel called?

A

Macromeres

183
Q

What are the two distinct cell types in a blastocyst?

A

Inner cell mass and trophoblast

184
Q

What do the extra-embryonic membranes amnion and chorion arise from?

A

Trophoblast

185
Q

What term describes the stage of embryonic development where extensive cell movements rearrange cells?

A

Gastrulation

186
Q

Which germ layer gives rise to the organs of the circulatory system?

A

Mesoderm

187
Q

What does the ectoderm give rise to in the developing embryo?

A

Epidermis, sense organs, and nervous system

188
Q

Which germ layer gives rise to the organs of the digestive system?

A

Endoderm

189
Q

What is a key event during neurulation?

A

Formation of the neural tube

190
Q

What do the early stages of the brain formation involve?

A

Neural tube and three brain regions

191
Q

What is the primary concept in ecology and the most important functional unit?

A

Ecosystem

192
Q

What does ecology predominantly study in relation to organisms?

A

Relationship with the environment

193
Q

Ecosystems include which elements that influence one another?

A

Plants, animals, and physical environment

194
Q

What happens during a solar eclipse?

A

The moon covers the sun from the Earth’s view.

195
Q

Describe a lunar eclipse.

A

The sun covers the moon during a lunar eclipse.

196
Q

Define scientific method.

A

A systematic process of gaining information.

197
Q

Explain the role of the independent variable in an experiment.

A

It is the variable changed by the experimenter.

198
Q

What is weathering?

A

A process that breaks rocks into smaller pieces.

199
Q

Describe the greenhouse effect.

A

Process where infrared radiation is absorbed by water vapor and carbon dioxide.

200
Q

What are metamorphic rocks?

A

Rocks that change constitution due to pressure and heat.

201
Q

Explain the concept of hypothesis.

A

An educated guess made for scientific investigation.

202
Q

Define control group in an experiment.

A

Sample group that doesn’t receive treatment.

203
Q

Calculate the equivalent volume of 10,000 L of air in cubic millimeters.

A

10,000,000,000 cubic millimeters.

204
Q

How many grams of tar does a person consume in a week if they smoke 20 cigarette sticks containing 40 mg tar each?

A

5.6 grams of tar.

205
Q

What is the distance in kilometers to the nearest star to the sun if it is 2.52 x 10^13 miles away?

A

4.05 x 10^13 kilometers.

206
Q

Differentiate between revolution and rotation.

A

Rotation is spinning on an axis, while revolution is orbiting.

207
Q

Explain the lack of atmosphere on Mercury compared to Earth.

A

Mercury’s lack of atmosphere may be due to its small size.

208
Q

Define biology.

A

The study of living systems and life processes.

209
Q

Define standard cell potential.

A

Standard cell potential is the voltage associated with a cell under standard conditions.

210
Q

Explain the relationship between energy, charge, and cell potential.

A

Energy (J) = charge (C) x cell potential (V)

211
Q

What happens when E0 cell is positive in a reaction?

A

A positive E0 cell indicates a spontaneous process.

212
Q

How are reactants and products affected in terms of ΔGo at equilibrium?

A

ΔGo = 0 at equilibrium

213
Q

State the relationship between reduction potential and tendency to undergo reduction.

A

Higher reduction potential implies a higher tendency to undergo reduction.

214
Q

Explain the function of an electrolytic cell.

A

An electrolytic cell uses electrical energy to cause a non-spontaneous chemical reaction.

215
Q

What occurs at the anode in an electrolytic cell?

A

Oxidation occurs at the anode.

216
Q

Describe the process at the cathode in an electrolytic cell.

A

Reduction occurs at the cathode.

217
Q

Explain the flow of electrons in an electrolytic cell.

A

Electrons flow from the anode to the cathode.

218
Q

Define corrosion in the context of chemistry.

A

Corrosion is the conversion of metal to its metal oxide.

219
Q

What is the study of carbon and its compounds known as?

A

Organic chemistry.

220
Q

Differentiate between alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes based on their bonds.

A

Alkanes have all single bonds, alkenes have a double bond, and alkynes have a triple bond.

221
Q

What distinguishes aromatic compounds from aliphatic compounds?

A

Aromatic compounds are cyclic derivatives while aliphatic compounds are open-chain.

222
Q

Name three oxygen-containing organic compounds.

A

Alcohols, ethers, and carboxylic acids.

223
Q

Explain the IUPAC system in naming alkanes.

A

The IUPAC system names alkanes based on the number of carbon atoms in the chain.

224
Q

What does the term ‘HYPERVALENT ATOM’ refer to?

A

An atom that could accommodate more than the octet due to low-lying d-orbitals.

225
Q

Define ‘Resonance’ in the context of Lewis Structures.

A

The use of two or more Lewis Structures to represent a molecule or ion.

226
Q

How is the ‘true structure’ of a molecule determined in Resonance?

A

It is the average or the ‘hybrid’ of the resonance structures.

227
Q

What is ‘Formal Charge’ used for in evaluating Lewis structures?

A

To evaluate non-equivalent Lewis structures by comparing valence electrons, nonbonding electrons, and bonds.

228
Q

Explain the concept of ‘VSEPR Theory’.

A

It determines molecular geometry by minimizing electron pair repulsions.

229
Q

What are the steps for using the VSEPR Theory?

A
  1. Draw Lewis structure, 2. Count electron pairs, 3. Arrange to minimize repulsions, 4. Determine positions of atoms.
230
Q

What is the governing principle behind the ‘Geometry or Shape of Molecules’?

A

It is governed by the VSEPR Theory which minimizes electron pair repulsions.

231
Q

What is the structure of a molecule with the notation ‘AX2E2’?

A

It is a Bent or V-shaped molecule which is polar.

232
Q

When do molecules exhibit bond polarity?

A

Bond polarity results from a net dipole moment in a molecule.

233
Q

What type of forces are Interactions among molecules according to IMFA?

A

Intermolecular Forces of Attraction (IMFA) are interactions between molecules (not within).

234
Q

Explain ‘London Dispersion Forces’ in terms of intermolecular forces.

A

They are relatively weak forces among noble gas atoms and non-polar molecules.

235
Q

What is ‘Polarizability’ in the context of London Dispersion Forces?

A

It is the ease with which a dipole can be induced in an atom or molecule.

236
Q

Describe ‘Dipole-dipole Forces’.

A

They are exhibited by polar molecules and are stronger than London Dispersion Forces.

237
Q

Define Kw in terms of [H3O+] and [OH-].

A

[H3O+] [OH-] = 1.0 x 10^-14

238
Q

What is the formula for calculating pH?

A

pH = -log [H3O+]

239
Q

List some examples of strong acids.

A

HCl, HBr, HI, HClO4, HNO3

240
Q

According to Lewis’s definition, what is an acid?

A

A substance that can accept an e- pair

241
Q

Explain the concept of Titration.

A

Gradually adding one solution to another until complete reaction.

242
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasselbach equation used for?

A

Calculating pH of a buffer solution

243
Q

Describe Chemical Equilibrium.

A

State where forward and backward reactions occur at equal rates.

244
Q

What does the equilibrium constant Keq indicate?

A

The extent of a chemical reaction at equilibrium

245
Q

State Le Chatelier’s Principle.

A

Equilibrium shifts to counteract imposed changes.

246
Q

How does adding a reactant affect equilibrium?

A

Increases concentration, shifts equilibrium

247
Q

Define a compound in chemistry.

A

A compound is two or more elements chemically combined in a definite proportion.

248
Q

What are the structural units in ionic compounds?

A

The structural units in ionic compounds are cations and anions.

249
Q

Explain the electrical conductivity of ionic compounds in their solid state.

A

In their solid state, ionic compounds are non-conducting.

250
Q

Describe the properties of covalent molecular compounds.

A

Covalent molecular compounds have low melting points and are non-conducting.

251
Q

What type of structural units occupy the lattice points in covalent network substances?

A

Covalent network substances have atoms as structural units.

252
Q

Explain the melting point of covalent network substances.

A

Covalent network substances have very high melting points.

253
Q

Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.

A

Homogeneous mixtures are uniform, while heterogeneous mixtures have non-uniform properties.

254
Q

What are the three physical states of matter?

A

The three physical states of matter are solid, liquid, and gas.

255
Q

Define extensive properties of matter.

A

Extensive properties depend on the amount of material observed.

256
Q

Explain the concept of intrinsic properties of matter.

A

Intrinsic properties are inherent to the substance and do not change.

257
Q

What are physical properties of matter?

A

Physical properties are characteristics observed without changing identity or composition.

258
Q

Give an example of a chemical change.

A

An example of a chemical change is the rusting of iron.

259
Q

What types of chemical reactions include the formation of a bigger compound?

A

Synthesis/combination reactions involve formation of a bigger compound.

260
Q

Describe a physical change in matter.

A

A physical change involves a change in phase or state without changing composition.

261
Q

How does a system at equilibrium respond to the addition of a component?

A

Shift away from the added component.

262
Q

What happens when a reactant or product is removed from a system at equilibrium?

A

The system will shift toward the removed component.

263
Q

What effect does changing the volume of a gaseous system have on the system?

A

The system responds by reducing its own volume, decreasing the total number of gaseous molecules.

264
Q

What is the effect of adding an inert gas to a gaseous system at constant volume?

A

Increases total pressure without affecting concentrations or partial pressures of reactants or products.

265
Q

How does the equilibrium shift in response to added energy (heat)?

A

Shifts to the direction which consumes the added energy.

266
Q

What is the role of a catalyst in a chemical reaction?

A

Speeds up both forward and backward reactions without changing the equilibrium amounts.

267
Q

What is activation energy?

A

The threshold energy that must be overcome to produce a chemical reaction.

268
Q

According to the Law of Thermodynamics, what happens to energy in a system?

A

Energy can be converted from one form to another but not created nor destroyed.

269
Q

What occurs in a spontaneous process according to the Second Law of Thermodynamics?

A

There is always an increase in the entropy (disorder) of the universe.

270
Q

What can a ΔG value of less than 0 represent in a process?

A

The process is spontaneous.

271
Q

How should you waft fumes toward your nose for safety?

A

With a cupped hand

272
Q

What is the recommended method for adding concentrated acid to water?

A

Always add the acid to the water with stirring.

273
Q

How should you read a colorless liquid’s meniscus?

A

Read the lower meniscus at eye level.

274
Q

When does a measurement have trailing zeros as significant digits?

A

Final zeros after a decimal point.

275
Q

How many significant figures does 706.3 mm have?

A

4 significant figures.

276
Q

What type of numbers have an unlimited number of significant figures?

A

Exact numbers.

277
Q

What must be done with the sum or difference in addition and subtraction?

A

Should have the same decimal places as the least precise number.

278
Q

In multiplication and division, what determines the number of significant figures in the result?

A

The factor with the least number of significant figures.

279
Q

How should numbers be rounded off when exceeding significant figures?

A

Round off to the proper number following specific rules.

280
Q

What does accuracy measure in chemistry?

A

Refers to the nearness of a value to the actual value.

281
Q

How is precision measured in the context of chemistry?

A

By indication of the agreement among different measurements.

282
Q

Define matter in scientific terms.

A

Anything that has mass, occupies space, and has inertia.

283
Q

What is a pure substance?

A

Homogeneous matter with fixed composition and distinct properties.

284
Q

What is a pure substance composed of only one type of atom?

A

Element.

285
Q

What is the atomic number Z defined as?

A

Number of protons in the nucleus of an atom.

286
Q

Define isotopes.

A

Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons.

287
Q

Explain the concept of atomic mass for an element.

A

Weighted average of atomic masses of naturally occurring isotopes.

288
Q

What is the difference between cations and anions?

A

Cations lost electrons equal to the charge, anions gained electrons equal to the charge.

289
Q

According to the odd-even rule, what makes a nuclide more likely to be stable?

A

An even number of neutrons and protons.

290
Q

What are the magic numbers in terms of stability of nuclides?

A

Specific numbers of protons or neutrons making isotopes more stable.

291
Q

Explain the concept of half-life in nuclear chemistry.

A

The time required for half of radioactive nuclei in a sample to undergo decay.

292
Q

Describe the process of fusion in nuclear chemistry.

A

Combining nuclei of lighter elements to form heavier nuclei.

293
Q

What characterizes gamma emission in radioactive decay?

A

High-energy photons emitted, with no change in mass or atomic number of the nucleus.

294
Q

Who suggested that a magnetic field affects a cathode ray?

A

Thomson

295
Q

What did Thomson’s experiment suggest about atoms?

A

An arrangement of positive and negative charges

296
Q

What did Thomson measure the charge to mass ratio of the electron to be?

A

-1.76 x 10^8 C/g

297
Q

What did Robert Millikan determine the charge of an electron to be?

A

-1.6 x 10^-19 C

298
Q

According to Rutherford’s model, where is most of the mass and all the positive charges located in an atom?

A

Centered in the nucleus

299
Q

Who identified the positively charged particle and named it the proton?

A

Goldstein

300
Q

According to Bohr’s model of the atom, how do electrons move around the nucleus?

A

In certain circular orbits

301
Q

According to the Quantum Model, in what way is the energy of an electron quantized?

A

Energy levels are discrete

302
Q

What principle states a limitation on our knowledge of a particle’s position and momentum?

A

Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle

303
Q

What is the primary characteristic used to describe a wave’s behavior?

A

Wavelength

304
Q

Define atomic spectra.

A

Discontinuous spectra with limited colored lines specific to elements

305
Q

What does each element have that serves as its unique atomic fingerprint?

A

Distinctive line spectrum

306
Q

Define Specific Heat Capacity (Cp).

A

The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1g of a substance by 1°C.

307
Q

What is the formula for heat capacity (S)?

A

S = m * Cp, where S is heat capacity, m is mass, and Cp is specific heat capacity.

308
Q

Explain the equation for calculating the amount of heat, Q.

A

Q = m * Cp * ΔT, where Q is heat, m is mass, Cp is specific heat capacity, and ΔT is temperature change.

309
Q

How do you determine if a process is endothermic based on Q?

A

If Q is positive, the process is endothermic.

310
Q

What is the definition of a calorimeter?

A

A closed container used to measure heat changes.

311
Q

What happens in the Anode of an Electrochemical Cell?

A

Oxidation occurs at the Anode.

312
Q

Explain the concept of Disproportionation Reaction.

A

It involves the same substance being both oxidized and reduced in a reaction.

313
Q

Define Oxidizing Agent (Oxidant).

A

The Oxidizing Agent accepts electrons in a redox reaction.

314
Q

What is the definition of Oxidation State?

A

A concept to track electrons in redox reactions following specific rules.

315
Q

Describe the role of the Cathode in an Electrochemical Cell.

A

Reduction occurs at the Cathode.

316
Q

Define displacement.

A

Displacement is the change in position of an object, representing the straight line path between starting and end points.

317
Q

What is the difference between distance and displacement?

A

Distance is the total path length traveled by a body, while displacement is the change in position of an object.

318
Q

Explain the Pythagorean Theorem in the context of vectors.

A

In vectors acting at right angles, the Pythagorean Theorem is used to find the resultant vector by mathematically adding the components.

319
Q

Describe the Component Method in vector addition.

A

The Component Method involves adding x and y components of vectors acting on different directions to find the resultant vector.

320
Q

What is uniform motion? Provide an equation to represent it.

A

Uniform motion is motion with constant velocity represented by the equation Δx = vt, where Δx is displacement, v is velocity, and t is time.

321
Q

Explain the concept of speed and velocity.

A

Speed is a measure of how fast an object travels, while velocity is the rate of motion with direction.

322
Q

Define acceleration.

A

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity over time.

323
Q

What organelle is known as the ‘powerhouse of the cell’?

A

Mitochondrion

324
Q

Which organelle serves as the site of photosynthesis in plants and algae?

A

Chloroplast

325
Q

What is the primary function of ribosomes in a cell?

A

Protein synthesis

326
Q

What does the Endoplasmic Reticulum serve as in a cell?

A

Channels for material transport

327
Q

What is the main function of the Golgi apparatus in cellular processes?

A

Selection and packaging of cellular materials

328
Q

What is the ‘suicidal bag’ organelle in a cell called?

A

Lysosome

329
Q

Define diffusion in cell transport.

A

Movement from high to low concentration

330
Q

What theory states that all living things are made up of cells?

A

Cell Theory

331
Q

What molecules serve as sources of building materials in cells?

A

Proteins

332
Q

What is the function of centrioles in dividing cells?

A

Cytokinetic purposes

333
Q

Describe mitosis in cell reproduction.

A

Division of somatic cells

334
Q

Explain the concept of osmosis.

A

Diffusion of molecules across permeable membrane

335
Q

What are the building blocks of fats/lipids?

A

Fatty acids and glycerol

336
Q

How do prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells?

A

Lack membrane-bound organelles

337
Q

What do cells require for active transport?

A

Expenditure of energy

338
Q

How are ionic compounds named?

A

Write the name of the cation first, followed by the name of the anion.

339
Q

In naming ionic compounds, what prefixes are not used?

A

Prefixes are not used to indicate the number of ions present.

340
Q

What is the Stock System of Nomenclature used for?

A

To indicate the charge of the cation in ionic compounds.

341
Q

What are hydrates in the context of ionic compounds?

A

They are compounds containing water molecules along with ions.

342
Q

How are hydrates named differently from other ionic compounds?

A

The name includes ‘hydrate’ with a Greek prefix for water molecules.

343
Q

What is the CROSS-OVER RULE in writing formulas of ionic compounds?

A

Subscripts are chosen to make the net charge zero.

344
Q

How are binary acids named?

A

As hydro ____ic acid, replacing the stem of the nonmetal.

345
Q

What differentiates naming conventions of HF in solution and pure HF?

A

In solution: hydrofluoric acid; pure: hydrogen fluoride.

346
Q

How are oxyacids derived from oxyanions named?

A

The name is derived from oxyanion name with a change in suffix.

347
Q

Define predation.

A

Predation is a relation where the predator benefits and the prey is harmed.

348
Q

What are the three components of a food chain?

A

Producers, consumers, and decomposers.

349
Q

Explain Liebig’s Law of Minimum.

A

It states growth depends on the least available nutrient.

350
Q

What does Shellford’s Law of Tolerance state?

A

Organisms can live within a range of conditions.

351
Q

What is the main focus of chemistry?

A

Studying matter, its properties, structure, and changes.

352
Q

Name the five branches of chemistry.

A

Analytical, physical, inorganic, organic, biochemistry.

353
Q

What is the scientific method?

A

A systematic approach in investigating nature.

354
Q

Differentiate between qualitative and quantitative observations.

A

Qualitative is general; quantitative involves measurements.

355
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

An educated guess to explain an observation.

356
Q

Explain the purpose of experimentation in the scientific method.

A

To test if the hypothesis is the problem’s answer.

357
Q

Define empirical formula.

A

Empirical formula gives the simplest whole-number ratio of atoms in a compound.

358
Q

Explain the concept of molecular formula using an example.

A

Molecular formula provides the actual number of each element in a molecule. Example: Glucose - C6H12O6.

359
Q

Define chemical stoichiometry.

A

Chemical stoichiometry is the quantitative relationship between reactants and products in a reaction.

360
Q

What is percent yield in a chemical reaction?

A

Percent yield is the actual amount of product obtained compared to the theoretical amount, expressed as a percentage.

361
Q

Explain the concept of limiting reactant.

A

Limiting reactant is the reactant that gets fully consumed and determines the maximum amount of product formed.

362
Q

What is a chemical bond?

A

A chemical bond is the force that holds atoms together in a molecule.

363
Q

Define bond length in a covalent bond.

A

Bond length is the distance between the nuclei of two covalently bonded atoms.

364
Q

Differentiate between polar and nonpolar covalent bonds.

A

Polar covalent bonds have unequal electron sharing, while nonpolar covalent bonds share electrons equally.

365
Q

What is an ionic bond?

A

Ionic bond involves the transfer of electrons from a metal to a nonmetal forming ions.

366
Q

Explain the concept of Lewis structure.

A

Lewis structure uses electron dot symbols to represent atoms, molecules, or ions based on the octet rule.

367
Q

Define collision.

A

Collision - any string interaction between two bodies that lasts a relatively short time.

368
Q

What are the two types of collision?

A

Elastic and inelastic collision.

369
Q

Explain elastic collision.

A

After the collision, the objects are still separated from each other.

370
Q

Describe inelastic collision.

A

After the collision, the objects move as one unit.

371
Q

Define work and provide the formula for it.

A

Formula: W = F * Δx.

372
Q

When does a force do no work?

A

A force does no work if it is perpendicular to the displacement.

373
Q

What is the formula for gravitational potential energy?

A

PE = m * g * h

374
Q

Explain elastic potential energy.

A

Energy stored on an elastic material due to its stretching or compressing.

375
Q

What is the formula for kinetic energy?

A

KE = 0.5 * m * v^2

CETs (2 decks)

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