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EAWS! > Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet1 > Flashcards

Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet1 Flashcards

1
Q

Objects of First Aid

A

Prevent further injury, infection, and loss of life

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2
Q

Four methods to control bleeding

A

Direct Pressure, elevation, pressure points, tourniquet as last resort.

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3
Q

Pressure point

A

Point on the body where a main artery lies near the skin surface and over a bone.

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4
Q

Amount of pressure points

A

11

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5
Q

Location of pressure points

A

Temple, jaw, neck, collar bone, inner upper arm, inner elbow, wrist, upper thigh, groin, knee, ankle

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6
Q

First degree burn

A

Produces redness, warmth and mild pain

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7
Q

Second degree burn

A

Causes red, blistered skin and severe pain

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8
Q

Third degree burn

A

Destroys tissue, skin and bone in severe cases. Sever pain may be absent due to nerve endings being destroyed

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9
Q

Open/Compound fracture

A

Broken skin with bone protrusion

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10
Q

Closed/Simple fracture

A

Broken bone without skin break

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11
Q

Electric shock

A

When a person comes in contact with an electric energy source

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12
Q

Indications of airway obstruction

A

Inability to talk, grasping and pointing to the throat, exaggerated breathing efforts, skin turning bluish color

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13
Q

Heat exhaustion

A

Serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart and lungs. Body temperature may be high. Sweating profusely

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14
Q

Heat Stroke

A

Breakdown of sweating mechanism of the body. Unable to eliminate excessive body heat buildup.

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15
Q

Hypothermia

A

General cooling of the whole body caused by low temperature, cold moisture, snow or ice. Breathing is slow and shallow

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16
Q

Superficial frostbite

A

Ice crystals form on the upper skin layers after exposure to 32 degrees or lower

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17
Q

Deep frostbite

A

Ice crystals form in the deeper tissue

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18
Q

How many types of shock

A

5

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19
Q

Septic shock

A

Bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins.

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20
Q

Anaphylactic shock

A

Sever hypersensitivity or allergic reaction

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21
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

When the heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to the body

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22
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

Severe blood and fluid loss, which makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to the body.

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23
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

Spinal cord injury

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24
Q

Purpose of CPR

A

To “buy time” until normal heart function is restored

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25
Q

Steps for CPR

A

C/A/B Circulation/Airway/Breathing

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26
Q

1st step in survival chain

A

Recognition/activation of CPR

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27
Q

2nd step in survival chain

A

Chest compressions

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28
Q

3rd step in survival chain

A

AED/defibrillator

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29
Q

4th step in survival chain

A

Rapid defibrillation

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30
Q

5th step in survival chain

A

Effective advanced life support (EMT’s, ambulance)

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31
Q

6th step in survival chain

A

Integrated post-cardiac arrest care

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32
Q

ORM

A

Systematic, decision-making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources

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33
Q

1st step of ORM

A

Identify

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34
Q

Identify ORM

A

Begin with an outline or chart of the major steps. Then conduct a preliminary hazard analysis by listing all of the hazards associated with each step.

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35
Q

2nd step of ORM

A

Assess

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36
Q

Assess ORM

A

Determine the associated degree of risk in terms of probability and severity

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37
Q

3rd step of ORM

A

Make Risk Decisions

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38
Q

Make Risk Decisions ORM

A

Develop risk control options. Start with the most seriosu risk first and select controls that will reduce the risk to a minimum consistent with mission accomplishment. Decide if benefit outweighs the risk

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39
Q

4th Step of ORM

A

Implement Controls

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40
Q

Implement Controls ORM

A

Used to eliminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk

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41
Q

5th Step of ORM

A

Supervise

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42
Q

Supervise ORM

A

Conduct follow-up evaluations of controls to make sure they remain in place or have the desired effect.

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43
Q

Class A Mishap

A

$2,000,000 or more in damage; an injury or illness resulting in a fatality or permanent total disability

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44
Q

Class B Mishap

A

$500,000 or more but less than $2,000,000 in damage; an injury or illness that results in permanent partial disability; 3 or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized

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45
Q

Class C Mishap

A

$50,000 or more but less than $500,000 in damage; a non-fatal injury that causes loss of time beyond the day or shift it occurred (5 or more lost workdays beyond the date of injury)

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46
Q

PPE program

A

Established as a last line of defense in case of equipment breakdown, failure, or misuse.

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47
Q

Examples of PPE

A

Cranials, eye protection, hearing protection, gloves, foot protection

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48
Q

NBC Environment

A

Deliberate or accidental employment or threat of NBC weapons attack with other CBR materials.

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49
Q

Chemical Warfare

A

Employment of chemical agents that are intended for use in military operations to kill, seriously injure, or incapacitate personnel due to the physiological effect.

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50
Q

Types of chemical Agents

A

Nerve, Blister, Blood, Choking

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51
Q

Nerve Agent

A

Liquid casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions rather than tissue

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52
Q

Example of Nerve Agent

A

Sarin, Tabun, SOMAN, VX

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53
Q

Blister Agents

A

Liquid or solid casulaty agents that can cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues which often results in temporary blindness or death.

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54
Q

Example of Blister Agent

A

Distilled Mustard, Lewisite, Phosgene Oxime, Levinstein Mustard

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55
Q

Blood Agents

A

Gaseous casualty agents that attack the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream.

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56
Q

Example of Blood Agent

A

Hydrogen Cyanide, Cyanogen Chloride, Arsine

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57
Q

Choking Agents

A

Gaseous or liquid casulaty agents with initial symptoms that include; tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache.

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58
Q

Example of Choking Agents

A

Phosgene and Diphosgene

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59
Q

M9 Chemical Agent Detector Paper

A

Detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red or reddish color, does NOT detect chemical agent vapors

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60
Q

Atropine/2-PAM-chloride Auto Injector

A

Specific therapy for nerve agent casualties, issued for intramuscular injection

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61
Q

Biological Warfare

A

Use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces.

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62
Q

Two types of Biological Warfare

A

Pathogens, Toxins

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63
Q

Examples of pathogens

A

bacteria, rickettsia, viruses, fungi, protozoa and prions

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64
Q

Toxin Categorization

A

Based on the organism that produce them or the physiological affects on humans.

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65
Q

Toxin grouping by source

A

Mycotoxins (from fungi), bacterial, algal, animal venoms and plant toxins

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66
Q

Toxin grouping by physiological effects

A

Neurotoxins, cytotoxins, enterotoxins and dermatoxins

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67
Q

IPE for cbr

A

MCU-2P with components; Advanced chemical protective garment (ACPG); Protective gloves and liners; Protective overboots and laces; Skin decon kit

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68
Q

Basing for employment of IPE

A

Increasingly stringent levels of MOPP

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69
Q

Radiological Warfare

A

Deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death of all life

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70
Q

High Altitude Air Burst

A

Excess of 100,000 feet, with ionosphere disruptions and EMP

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71
Q

Non surface airburst

A

Vacuum created collects debris and severe blast damage resulting in radiation fallout

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72
Q

Surface Burst

A

Worst fallout from touching the surface

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73
Q

Shallow underwater burst

A

Small fireball and blast wave, causes large waves and water contamination

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74
Q

Deep underwater burst

A

Less visual effects but greater contaminated water.

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75
Q

Ready-shelter stations

A

Just inside the weather envelope. Provide minimum shielding and allow crew to remain close to battle stations.

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76
Q

Deep-Shelter stations

A

Low in the ship and near the centerline. Provide maximum shielding from radiation, but far from battle stations

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77
Q

DT-60 Dosimeter

A

Non-self reading high range casualty dosimeter.

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78
Q

Range of DT-60

A

0-600 Roentgens

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79
Q

MOPP

A

Mission Oriented Protective Posture

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80
Q

MOPP definition

A

Management tool that is used to coordinate the use of systems and equipment in Chemical or Biological environments

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81
Q

MOPP level 0

A

Issue IPE, accessible within 5 minutes

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82
Q

MOPP level 1 Afloat

A

JSLIST, Mask, Gloves readily accessible

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83
Q

MOPP level 1 Ashore

A

Don protective equipment, M9 tape

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84
Q

MOPP level 2 Afloat

A

Mask carried, decon supplies staged.

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85
Q

MOPP level 2 Ashore

A

Don overboots

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86
Q

MOPP Level 3 Afloat

A

GQ, install filters, don over boots

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87
Q

MOPP Level 3 Ashore

A

Fill canteens, activate decon stations

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88
Q

MOPP Level 4 Afloat

A

Don mask/hood, gloves, circle william, countermeasure washdown

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89
Q

MOPP Level 4 Ashore

A

Gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loop between legs and secure to web belt

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90
Q

Primary duty of Firefighting

A

Saving lives

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91
Q

Secondary duty of Firefighting

A

Extinguish fires and limit damage to aircraft, shipboard, and airfield installed equipment/structures.

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92
Q

Fire Triangle

A

Heat, fuel, and oxygen

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93
Q

Fire tetrahedron

A

Heat, fuel, oxygen, and chemical chain reaction

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94
Q

Extinguish a fire

A

Remove any element of fire tetrahedron

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95
Q

How many classes of fires

A

4

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96
Q

Alpha Fire

A

Combustible materials that produce ash (wood, cloth, textiles, paper)

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97
Q

Extinguishing Alpha

A

Water, or AFFF

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98
Q

Bravo Fire

A

Flammable liquid substances (Gasoline, jet fuel, oil)

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99
Q

Extinguishing Bravo

A

AFFF, Halon, PKP, CO2

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100
Q

Charlie Fire

A

Energized or non-energized electrical fires

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101
Q

Extinguishing Energized Charlie

A

CO2, Halon, PKP, H20 in fog patterns with minimum 4ft distance

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102
Q

Extinguishing de-energized Charlie

A

Treat as A, B or D fire

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103
Q

Delta Fire

A

Combustible metals (Mg, Titanium)

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104
Q

Extinguishing Delta Fire

A

H20 in large quantities in high velocity fog

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105
Q

AFFF

A

Aqueous Film Forming Foam

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106
Q

Chemical in AFFF

A

Synthetic fluorocarbon surfactant material

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107
Q

Shipboard concetrate for AFFF

A

6%

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108
Q

Water

A

Cools aircraft fuselage, ordnance, batteries and provide sheat shield

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109
Q

Chemical in Halon

A

Bromochlorodifluoromethane

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110
Q

Properties of Halon

A

Colorless, faintly sweet smelling, electrically nonconductive gas. Inhibits chain reaction

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111
Q

Weights for CO2

A

15lb portable, and 50lb wheeled

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112
Q

Properties of CO2

A

Colorless, odorless gas, 1.5x heavier than air. Displaces oxygen

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113
Q

Chemical in PKP

A

Potassium Bicarbonate

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114
Q

Properties of PKP

A

Breaks combustion chain, does not offer reflash protection

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115
Q

Required flight line PPE

A

Safety shoes (steel toed), Cranial, Protective goggles, Leather gloves

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116
Q

How many airfield components are there

A

10 airfield components

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117
Q

Runways

A

Paved areas used for takeoff and landing

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118
Q

Threshold markings

A

Parallel stripes at end of runways 12ft wide x 150ft long

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119
Q

Overrun Area

A

Paved or unpaved sections for aborting or overshooting aircraft

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120
Q

MA-1 Overrun Barrier

A

Stops tricycle landing gear for aircraft with no tail hooks (always on standby)

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121
Q

Emergency shore based recovery equipment

A

For stopping in the shortest distance possible to minimize injury or damage

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122
Q

Taxiways

A

Move between parking aprons, runways, and airfields

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123
Q

Parking Apron

A

Open paved areas used for parking, servicing and loading aircraft (flight line)

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124
Q

Compass Calibration Pad

A

Magnetically quiet paved area where aircraft compass is calibrated (compass rose)

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125
Q

Runway Numbering System

A

Numbered in relation to magnetic heading rounded off to nearest 10 degrees

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126
Q

Airfield rotating beacon

A

Sub-par weather conditions used locate airport. Rotates clockwise (2 white lights and 1 green light)

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127
Q

Main hazards of flight deck

A

Jet intakes, exhaust, rotors and propellers

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128
Q

PPE for Flight deck

A

Safety shoes (steel toed), Jersey, Cranial, Goggles, Leather gloves

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129
Q

How many color jerseys are there

A

7 colored jerseys

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130
Q

Yellow Jerseys

A

Aircarft handling officer, flight deck officer, catapult officer, air bos’n, arresting gear officer, plane director, co, xo

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131
Q

White Jerseys

A

Safety, Air transport officer, landing signal officer, plane inspectors, medical, chaplain

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132
Q

Brown Jersey

A

Plane captains

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133
Q

Blue Jerseys

A

Aircraft handling and chock crewman, Elevator operators

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134
Q

Green Jerseys

A

Catapult and arresting gear personnel, Squadron matinenance, Helicopter landing signal enlisted-man and photographers

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135
Q

Red Jerseys

A

Crash, EOD, Ordnance

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136
Q

Purple Jerseys

A

Fuel crew

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137
Q

PKP Coaming

A

12” red stripe with white 3” lettering

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138
Q

PKP Symbol

A

18” Circle with red 5” lettering

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139
Q

Saltwater Coaming

A

18” red stripe with yellow 3” lettering

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140
Q

Saltwater Symbol

A

18” red triangle with yellow lettering

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141
Q

CO2 Coaming

A

12” red stripe with white 3” lettering

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142
Q

CO2 Symbol

A

18” white circle with 5” red lettering

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143
Q

AFFF Coaming

A

18” green stripe with white 3” lettering

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144
Q

AFFF Symbol

A

18” green square with white 3” lettering

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145
Q

Bomb Jettison Symbol

A

4” red and yellow with 12” black fascimile of bomb

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146
Q

Steam Smothering

A

18” black stripe with 3” white lettering

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147
Q

Procedure for grounding aircraft

A

Ground then to aircraft

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148
Q

Windshield flight voltage

A

Up to 100,000 volts

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149
Q

Initial tie down

A

Up to 45 knots. 6 chains

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150
Q

Normal weather tie down

A

Up to 45 knots, 9 chains

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151
Q

Moderate weather tie down

A

46 to 60 knots, 14 chains

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152
Q

Heavy weather tie down

A

Above 60 knots, 20 chains

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153
Q

Types of tie down

A

TD-1A and TD-1B

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154
Q

Emergency Stop

A

Mandatory signal for fixed wing

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155
Q

Wave off or hold

A

Mandatory signal for helicopters

156
Q

Max towing speed

A

5mph or speed of slowest walker

157
Q

Personnel required for movement of aircraft

A

6-10 total personnel

158
Q

Move Director

A

Overall responsible for assembling move crew, ensuring they are qualified, pre move briefing, and safe movement

159
Q

Brake Rider

A

Conducts pre-move inspection of brakes

160
Q

Chock Walker

A

Removes, carries, and installs wheel chocks. Always alert to chock if necessary

161
Q

Safety Observer

A

Responsible for ensuring that aircraft is ready to tow and ample clearance is available. Positioned at wing tips and tail

162
Q

Tractor Driver

A

Safe and slow movement from hook up to final parking. Responsible to move director

163
Q

FPCON

A

Force Protection Conditions

164
Q

How many conditions for FPCON

A

5 Conditions

165
Q

FPCON Conditions

A

Terrorist threat level. Capability to penetrate existing physical security. Risk of terror attack. Asset’s ability to execute it’s mission if attacked. Protected asset’s criticality to their missions

166
Q

Who sets FPCON

A

Commanders at any level, Mandatory when declared.

167
Q

Who cancels FPCON

A

The commander who issued the order

168
Q

FPCON Normal

A

General global threat of possible terrorist activity exists

169
Q

FPCON Alpha

A

Increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against (sustained indefinitely)

170
Q

FPCON Bravo

A

Increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists

171
Q

FPCON Charlie

A

Incident occurs or intelligence is received indicated some form of terrorist activity likely

172
Q

FPCON Delta

A

Applies in immediate area where a terrorist attack has occured or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location is IMMINENT

173
Q

DEFCON

A

Defense readiness condition

174
Q

Who developed DEFCON

A

Join chiefs of staff, unified and specified combatant commands

175
Q

How many levels of DEFCON

A

5 DEFCON levels

176
Q

DEFCON 5

A

Normal peacetime readiness

177
Q

DEFCON 4

A

Normal, increased intelligence or strengthened security

178
Q

DEFCON 3

A

Increase in force readiness above normal

179
Q

DEFCON 2

A

Further increase in readiness, less than max

180
Q

DEFCON 1

A

Maximum force readiness

181
Q

NAMP

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program

182
Q

Objective of NAMP

A

Achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards with optimum use of manpower, material, facilities, and funds.

183
Q

Maintenance Officer (MO)

A

Head of Maintenance department.

184
Q

Responsibilities of MO

A

Responsible to CO for accomplishment of mission. Also coordinate air wing training plan to ensure billet requirements, personnel identification and assignments are satisfied

185
Q

Aircraft Maintenance Officer (AMO)

A

Assistant head of the maintenance department

186
Q

Responsibilities of AMO

A

Assists the MO in performance of duties and keeps the MO fully informed of matters concerning the department. Coordinates temporary assigned duty personnel, inspects spaces, acts of AO in absence, manages SE training

187
Q

Responsibilities of Maintenance/Material Control Officer (MMCO)

A

Overall production and material support of department. Coordinates and monitors the department workload while maintaining liaison with supporting actives and supply. Prepares and publishes the MMP

188
Q

Responsibilities of MMCPO

A

Senior enlisted adviser for maintenance. Reports to MO and advises CO in all matters affecting aircraft operations, maintenance, and department personnel. Directs all maintenance on day-to-day basis

189
Q

Responsibilities of Quality Assurance Officer (QAO)

A

Ensures personnel assigned to perform QA receive continuous training in inspecting, testing, and quality control methods applicable to their area of assignment.

190
Q

Responsibilities of Material Control Officer (MCO)

A

Supply corps officer for deployable squadron to handle finances and material requisition

191
Q

O Level Maintenance

A

Perfomed by operating unit on day-to-day basis. Mission is to maintain assigned aircraft and equipment in full mission capable status

192
Q

I Level Maintenance

A

Enhance and sustain the combat readiness and mission capability by providing support at the lowest cost

193
Q

D Level Maintenance

A

Performed by FRC to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems. Also performed on material requiring major overhaul or rebuilding

194
Q

2 Types of Maintenance in NAMP

A

Rework and Upkeep

195
Q

How many types of Upkeep Maintenance

A

7 types of Upkeep

196
Q

Turnaround Upkeep

A

Between flights, good for 24 hours with no flights or other maintenance

197
Q

Daily Upkeep

A

Inspect for defects at greater depth, Valid for 72 hours

198
Q

Special Upkeep

A

Scheduled inspection with prescribed interval

199
Q

Examples of Special Upkeep

A

7, 28 days; 50, 100 hours; 10, 100 arrestments; 5,000 rounds fired

200
Q

Conditional Upkeep

A

Conditional maintenance at unscheduled events or as result of specific overlimit condition

201
Q

Phase Upkeep

A

Divides total scheduled maintenance into smaller packages

202
Q

Acceptance Upkeep

A

Performed when accepting newly assigned aircraft or SE

203
Q

Transfer Upkeep

A

When transferring aircraft or SE

204
Q

Rework Maintenance

A

Performed at D-level

205
Q

RCM

A

Reliability centered maintenance

206
Q

RCM process

A

Ensures that assets continue to do what their users require

207
Q

Management

A

Effecient attainment of objectives

208
Q

Maintenance

A

All actions taken to retain material in a serviceable condition or to restore it to serviceability

209
Q

Difference between Maintenance control and production control

A

Level of maintenance. Maintenance control is O-level. Production control is I-level.

210
Q

MMP

A

Monthly maintenance plan

211
Q

Purpose of MMP

A

Provide scheduled control of the predictable maintenance workload. Distributed at 25th of each month for 0-level and 1st for I-level

212
Q

Aircraft Logbook

A

Hard bound record equipment, inspections, removal items, and installed equipment

213
Q

Sections of logbook

A

Non-aging record, flight time, inspection records, repair rework, technical directive, miscellaneous history, preservation record, etc..

214
Q

QA

A

Relatively small group of highly skilled personnel

215
Q

QAR

A

Quality Assurance Representative

216
Q

QAR define

A

Maintenance personnel assigned to QA; certify work has been personally inspected by them and is in accordance with instructions

217
Q

CDQAR

A

Collateral Duty QAR

218
Q

CDQAR define

A

Assigned to work centers. Same qualifications as QAR. May be assigned on temporary or permanent basis

219
Q

CDI

A

Collateral Duty Inspector

220
Q

CDI define

A

Inspect all work and comply with QA inspections. Spot check all works in progress

221
Q

Programs managed by QA

A

CTPL, Maintenance/division safety

222
Q

CTPL

A

Central Technical Publications Library

223
Q

CTPL define

A

Central source of up-to-date information for use by all personnel in performance of their work

224
Q

Maintnenace department/divison safety

A

Overall responsibility for maintenance safety. Assist in overall coordination of total safety effort.

225
Q

QA Audit Program

A

Assessment of effectiveness of programs managed within the Maintenance Department. Serve as an orderly method of identifying, investigating, and correcting deficiencies on scheduled/unscheduled basis

226
Q

How many types of Audits does QA perform

A

3 Audits

227
Q

Special Audit

A

Evalutes specific maintenance tasks, processes, procedures and programs

228
Q

Workcenter Audits

A

Semi-annual to evaluate overall quality performance of each WC

229
Q

Program Audits

A

Evalutes specific programs to systematically identify deficiencies and to determine adequacy of tech pubs and instructions

230
Q

ACSP

A

Aircraft confined space program

231
Q

Objective of ACSP

A

Ensure a safe environment when working on equipment

232
Q

NAMDRP

A

Naval Aviation Maintenance Reporting Program

233
Q

NAMDRP purpose

A

Assists with the reporting of substandard workmanship, improper QA procedures, and deficiencies in material and pubs. Maintained by QA

234
Q

NATOPS

A

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

235
Q

NATOPS Overview

A

Positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in aircraft mishaps

236
Q

NATOPS Establish Date

A

1961

237
Q

Amount of Aircraft lost in 1950

A

776 (2 per day or 54 major misshapes per 10,000 hours)

238
Q

What decreased mishaps

A

Angled flight deck (1954), Technical inititatives, and standardization programs

239
Q

Mishaps in 1961

A

19 major misshapes per 10,000 hours

240
Q

Mishaps in 1970

A

9 major mishaps per 10,000 hours

241
Q

Current rate of mishaps

A

2 per 10,000 hours

242
Q

Establishment date of NAMP

A

1959

243
Q

FRS establishment date

A

1961

244
Q

Establishment of NATOPS

A

1961

245
Q

How many NATOPS standardizations

A

5 standardizations

246
Q

Types of NATOPS Standardization

A

Wheels must be chocked and parking brake set before engine start; intake screens used; check and defod area; plane tie down when start-up by non pilot; fire extinguishers in immediate area

247
Q

Warning

A

Operating procedure that may result in injury or death

248
Q

Caution

A

Operating procedure that may result in damage to equipment

249
Q

Note

A

Operating procedure that MUST be emphasized

250
Q

Shall

A

Mandatory procedure

251
Q

Should

A

Recommended procedure

252
Q

May

A

Optional procedure

253
Q

Will

A

Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of procedure

254
Q

COMNAVAIRLANT

A

First character “a-m”; second charater “a-z”

255
Q

COMNAVAIRPAC

A

First character “n-z”; second character “a-z”

256
Q

CNATRA

A

First character “a-g”; no second character

257
Q

14 November 1910

A

First take off from ship (USS Birmingham CL 2) by Eugene Ely

258
Q

8 May 1911

A

Birthday of Naval Aviation

259
Q

20 June 1913

A

Ens. William Billingsly was first aviation death from B-2 near Annapolis, MD.

260
Q

22 October 1917

A

MIT course with 14 men enrolled for inspector school, predecessor to modern QA

261
Q

20 March 1922

A

The Jupitor was re-commissioned to Navy’s first carrier the USS Langley

262
Q

10 March 1948

A

FJ1 Fury jet made first carrier landing on USS Boxer (CV 21)

263
Q

7-8 May 1942

A

Coral Sea. Worlds first Carrier v. Carrier battle. One Japanese carrier damaged, USS Lexington sunk, USS Yorktown damaged. Japan never again threatened Australia

264
Q

3-5 June 1942

A

Midway. Turning point of Pacific war. Japan - 3 carriers and 11 battleships USA - 3 carriers no battleships. USA sunk 3 carriers first day and 4th the second day. USA USA USA! Japan lost control of pacific

265
Q

13-15 November 1942

A

GuadalCanal. Five sullivan died with 700 others on the USS Juneau thus implementing family separation of ships

266
Q

Acceleration

A

Change of speed and/or velocity of matter with relation to time

267
Q

Speed

A

Rate of movement in terms of distance measured with allotted time

268
Q

Velocity

A

Quick or speed of an object in a given time and direction

269
Q

Newtons First Law

A

Inertia. An object at rest remains at rest until acted upon by an outside force

270
Q

Newtons Second Law

A

Force. An object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved

271
Q

Newtons Third Law

A

Action and Reaction. Every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

272
Q

Bernoulli’s Principle

A

When fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing of the tube, the speed of the fluid passing through is increased and pressure decreased.

273
Q

Bernoulli’s Principle for Flight

A

As relative wind strikes the leading edge of the airfoild, the flow will split. Since the upper surface has curve the flow is disrupted. Lift is accomplished by the difference in airflow across the airfoild

274
Q

Lift

A

Force that acts in the upward direction to support the aircraft.

275
Q

Weight

A

Force of gravity acting downward

276
Q

Drag

A

Force that holds an aircraft back.

277
Q

Thrust

A

Acts in the forward direction

278
Q

Longitudinal Axis

A

Reference line running down center of aircraft

279
Q

Lateral Axis

A

Reference line running parallel to the wings

280
Q

Vertical Axis

A

Reference line running from top to bottom of aircraft

281
Q

Ailerons

A

Roll. Longitudinal Axis

282
Q

Elevators

A

Pitch. Lateral Axis

283
Q

Rudder

A

Yaw. Vertical Axis

284
Q

Cyclic Stick

A

Roll/Pitch. Tilts the plane forward/aft/sideways.

285
Q

Tail Rotor

A

Yaw. Counteracts torque of main rotor by increasing/decreasing amount of horizontal thrust the tail rotor produces. Movement about the vertical axis

286
Q

Flap (leading/trailing edge)

A

Creates extra lift by lengthening top section of wing

287
Q

Spoiler

A

Decreases wing lift by destroying smooth air flow. Creates more predictable landing glidescope

288
Q

Speed Brakes

A

Hinged/Moveable control surfaces used for reducing speed of aircraft

289
Q

Slats

A

Movable control surfaces attached to leading edge of wing. Improves lateral control handling characteristics

290
Q

Collective

A

Moving the main and tail rotor by collective increasing angle of attack to achieve lift

291
Q

Angle of Attack

A

Angel at which airfoil or fuselage meets a flow of air. Measured in units

292
Q

Autorotation

A

Allows a helicopter to land safely from altitude without using engine power.

293
Q

Basic aircraft hydraulic system

A

Reservoir to hold fluid - Pump to provide flow - Tubing to transmit fluid - Selector valve to direct flow - Actuating unit to convert fluid pressure into useful work

294
Q

Shock Strut Assembly

A

Absorbs the shock that would be sustained by aircraft

295
Q

Tires

A

Allows aircraft to roll easily

296
Q

Wheel Brake Assembly

A

Used to slow/stop the aircraft

297
Q

Retracting and Extending Mechanism

A

Necessary hardware to electrically or hydraulically extend and retract the landing gear

298
Q

Side Struts and Supports

A

Provides lateral strength/support for landing gear

299
Q

NALCOMIS

A

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

300
Q

NALCOMIS Purpose

A

Provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing users to report required information. Significantly reduce administrative burden and produces up-to-date status information necessary for maintenance

301
Q

OOMA

A

Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity

302
Q

OIMA

A

Optimized Intermediate Maintenance Activity

303
Q

OOMA Foundation Tier

A

Maintenance subsystem - Material subsystem - Flight subsystem - Platform software interface - CM/Logs and records subsystem

304
Q

OOMA define

A

Management tool that provides essential, real time information on a continuing basis through VEDs

305
Q

OOMA status providers

A

NMCS/PMCS status - Flyable discrepancies - Non-aircraft related discrepancies - ALSS status - SE status - Mission Mounted Equipment (MME) status

306
Q

Maintenance control responsibilities

A

Monitor current aircraft/SE status - Maintain cognizance of incomplete maintenance - Take actions necessary for reporting data - Ensures that aircrew initiates a WO for each discrepancy - Review, update and approve all WOs - When corrective action is completed they review, approves or reject. - MAF Initiation, ensures a MAF is initiated for each discrepancy

307
Q

JCN

A

9 character alphanumeric code used for data collection

308
Q

Type Maintenance

A

Prefilled based on type of WO

309
Q

Type WO

A

Two character code that describes the type of maintenance

310
Q

Accumulated Job Status History

A

History of WO from start to finish

311
Q

Worker Hours

A

Includes workers name, tools used, QA/CDI that inspected them and the hours worked.

312
Q

Workcenter

A

Identifies workcenter responsible

313
Q

Work Unit Code

A

Numeric or alpha-numeric code that identifies system/subsystem malfunction

314
Q

How many types of work orders

A

10 types

315
Q

DM

A

Discrepancy Maintenance

316
Q

TS

A

Troubleshooting

317
Q

CM

A

Cannibalization Maintenance

318
Q

AD

A

Assist Maintenance

319
Q

FO

A

Facilitate other Maintenance

320
Q

CL

A

Conditional look Phase

321
Q

CF

A

Conditional fix Phase

322
Q

SX

A

Special inspection one workcenter

323
Q

SC

A

Special inspection Control

324
Q

TD

A

Technical Directive

325
Q

OIMA define

A

Provides the capability to manage maintenance and supply functions and processes at the intermediate level. Done by allowing users to enter, collect, process, store, review, and report information required.

326
Q

How many data points are used

A

13 data points

327
Q

Data Accuracy uses

A

Analyze high system failures/man hours - Identify desirable product improvements - Analyze inspection requirements - Adjust component scheduled removal intervals - Improve I-level repair capabilities - Identify failed items under warranty - Establish realistic manning factors - Determine and justify modifications and engineering changes - Establish equipment reliability factors - Determine tooling and equipment requirements - Predict probable failures through analysis - Determine status of compliance with mission readiness type TDs - Monitor aircraft readiness trends in support of congressional and joint service intiatives

328
Q

Amount of Local data uses

A

10

329
Q

Local data uses

A

High man-hour operating equipment - Man hours lost to cannibalization and remove of items - Areas with skill or training deficiencies - Efficient or inefficient use of available manpower - Items with high failure rates - Inadequate troubleshooting - Reasons for ground/inflight aborts - High usage items - Status of TD compliance - Sarranted item failure and repair

330
Q

How many naval core capabilities

A

6 core capabilities

331
Q

Forward Presence

A

Establishes maritime forces in regions throughout the world.

332
Q

Deterrence

A

Preventing wars is as important as winning wars. Being superior scares people

333
Q

Sea Control

A

Protects the ability to operate freely at sea

334
Q

Power Projection

A

The ability to project from the sea

335
Q

Maritime Security

A

The maintenance of security at sea and the mitigation of threats short of war.

336
Q

Humanitarian Assistance/Disaster Relief

A

A human obligation and a foundation of human character

337
Q

How many types of Aviation Communities

A

13 communities

338
Q

Helicopter Sea combat

A

HSC. Perform rescue, logistics, mine countermeasures, search and rescue

339
Q

Helicopter Maritime Strike

A

HSM. Primary roles of antisub/antisurface warfare

340
Q

Helicopter Training

A

HT. Provides basic and advanced training of students

341
Q

Tactical Electronic Warfare

A

VAQ. Tactically exploit, suppress, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic systems

342
Q

Carrier Airborne Early Warning

A

VAW. Provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft

343
Q

Fleet Composite

A

VC. Provides air services for the fleet

344
Q

Strike Fighter

A

VFA. Employed for both fighter and attack missions

345
Q

Patrol

A

VP. Antisub, antisurface, reconnaissance and mining

346
Q

Fleet Air Reconnaissance

A

VQ. Electronic warfare support including search, interception, recording, and analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy

347
Q

Aircraft Logistics Support

A

VRC. Transport personnel and supplies for carrier onboard delivery

348
Q

Training

A

VT. Basic and advanced training for students

349
Q

Air Test and Evaluation (VX/VXE)

A

Test and evaluate operational capabilities of new aircraft

350
Q

HAZMAT

A

Any material that may pose a substantial hazard to human health or the environment when purposefully released or accidentally spilled

351
Q

HAZMAT Inspections

A

Stowage lockers inspected weekly and quarterly

352
Q

Material Safety Data Sheet

A

MSDS. Technical bulletins containing information about the HAZMAT

353
Q

How many categories of HAZMAT

A

6 categories

354
Q

Types of HAZMAT

A

Flammable or combustible materials - Aerosol containers - Toxic materials - Corrosive materials - Oxidizing Materials - Compressed gases

355
Q

Authorized Use List

A

AUL. Current inventory of HAZMAT used for local acquisition and use

356
Q

Training for HAZMAT

A

All hands. Types of HAZMAT in their work area/ship - What HAZWASTE is and how to dispose - How to read and interpret hazard warning labels - What an MSDS is - Emergency procedures

357
Q

Disposal of HAZWASTE

A

Disposed based on category

358
Q

Restrictions of HAZWASTE

A

Containerized only in approved containers for shore disposal - Petroleum fluids must be separate from synthetic fluids - PPE is required

359
Q

Steps for HAZMAT spill response

A

Discovery - Notification - Initiation of Action - Evaluation - Containment - Damage Control - Dispersion of Gases/vapors - Cleanup and decon - Disposal - Certification for re-entry - Follow up reports

360
Q

Type 1 Maintenance Hangar

A

Carrier Aircraft. 235’ wide by 85’ deep

361
Q

Type 2 Maintenance Hangar

A

USMC Aviation. 110’ deep by 325’ wide

362
Q

Type 3 Maintenance Hangar

A

Designed for land based patrol and large transport aircraft. 165’ deep by 165’ wide

363
Q

Red line in Hangar

A

Divides hangar from maintenance work centers. Must be kept clear at all times

364
Q

Other items in hangar

A

Portable CO2 Fire extinguishers - Aircraft electrical system with cords for external power - Hangar doors - Aircraft grounding points

365
Q

Hangar Protection Requirements

A

Low level AFFF system with low-profile nozzles - Closed head water only overhead sprinkler system - Optical detection system for AFFF activation - Appropriate drainage to limit pooling - Draft curtains to prevent cooling of sprinkler heads for earlier detection

366
Q

Costs of false activation

A

$80,000

367
Q

Reasons for costs of false activation

A

Damage to aircraft - Cost to recharge system - Cost of run off retention - Cost of AFFF removal - Associated manpower expenses

368
Q

CVN Hangar Bays

A

110’ wide by 685’ long and 25’ overhead clearance. Doors can be closed in 18 seconds to isolate fires. Hangar bay one and two have aircraft elevators on the starboard side. Hangar bay three has two of both sides

369
Q

Procedure for grounding aircraft

A

Ground then to aircraft

370
Q

Windshield flight voltage

A

Up to 100,000 volts

371
Q

Initial tie down

A

Up to 45 knots. 6 chains

372
Q

Normal weather tie down

A

Up to 45 knots, 9 chains

373
Q

Moderate weather tie down

A

46 to 60 knots, 14 chains

374
Q

Heavy weather tie down

A

Above 60 knots, 20 chains

375
Q

Types of tie down

A

TD-1A and TD-1B

376
Q

Procedure for grounding aircraft

A

Ground then to aircraft

377
Q

Windshield flight voltage

A

Up to 100,000 volts

378
Q

Initial tie down

A

Up to 45 knots. 6 chains

379
Q

Normal weather tie down

A

Up to 45 knots, 9 chains

380
Q

Moderate weather tie down

A

46 to 60 knots, 14 chains

381
Q

Procedure for grounding aircraft

A

Ground then to aircraft

382
Q

Windshield flight voltage

A

Up to 100,000 volts

383
Q

Initial tie down

A

Up to 45 knots. 6 chains

384
Q

Procedure for grounding aircraft

A

Ground then to aircraft

385
Q

Windshield flight voltage

A

Up to 100,000 volts

386
Q

Up to 45 knots tie die

A

Initi

387
Q

Procedure for grounding aircraft

A

Ground then to aircraft

EAWS! (3 decks)

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