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H+S > Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet1 (3) > Flashcards

Untitled spreadsheet - Sheet1 (3) Flashcards

1
Q

What is evidence-based decision making (EBDM)?

A

Process for identifying and using most up-to-date (and relevant) evidence to inform decisions for individual patient problems

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2
Q

What does EBDM involve? (4 key aspects)

A
  • Patient preferences
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3
Q

Why is decision making in medicine important?

A
  • Doctors make decisions constantly
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4
Q

Why do we need EBDM?

A
  • Limited time to read
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5
Q

What are the different types of research studies and when are they each appropriate? (6 main types)

A
  • Cohort studies - prognosis, cause
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6
Q

What is the process of EBDM? (5 steps)

A
  1. Converting the need for information into an answerable question
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7
Q

What are the 4 steps in the approach to smoking cessation?

A
  1. Health education and general information to enhance motivation for quitting (light smokers)
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8
Q

What is antibiotic resistance?

A

Bacteria change so antibiotics no longer work in people who need them to treat infections

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9
Q

What are the reasons for the widespread use of antibiotics? (2 reasons)

A
  • Increase in global availability
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10
Q

What are some of the causes of antibiotic resistance? (5 causes)

A
  • Use in livestock for growth promotion
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11
Q

How can antibiotic resistance be prevented? (5 ways)

A
  • Using antibiotics only when prescribed by a doctor
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12
Q

Which factors influence infection? (5 main factors)

A
  • Infectious agents - ability to reproduce, survival, ability to spread, infectivity, pathogenicity
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13
Q

What are the most important infectious diseases in the UK? (9 diseases)

A
  • Diphtheria
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14
Q

What are the most important infectious diseases in developing countries? (4 diseases)

A
  • Pneumonia
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15
Q

What is surveillance?

A

Systematic collection, collation and analysis of data and dissemination of the results so that appropriate control measures can be taken

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16
Q

What is the purpose of surveillance? (3 main points)

A
  • Serve as an early warning system for impending public health emergencies
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17
Q

Which infectious disease are becoming more common in the UK and why?

A

Hospital acquired infections (e.g. MRSA, STIs, mumps)

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18
Q

Which infectious diseases are associated with exposure to healthcare?

A
  • Nosocomial infections
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19
Q

What can be done to reduce the risk of nosocomial infections? (3 main steps)

A
  • Prevention - hand washing, infection control programmes, advisory service, surveillance (mandatory for MRSA), sterilisation and decontamination of instruments
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20
Q

What is global health?

A
  • Health of global population
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21
Q

What is international health?

A

Health defined by geography (nation wealth), problems (e.g. infections, water sanitation), instruments (e.g. infection control aid), and a recipient and donor relationship

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22
Q

What are the major functions of global health? (4 key points)

A
  • To provide health-related public goods - research, standards, guidelines
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23
Q

What is the motivation for global health? (2 key aspects)

A
  • Increased awareness of global health disputes
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24
Q

What is the ‘90/10 gap’ (commission on health research for development - 1990)?

A

Less than 10% of worldwide resources devoted to health research were put towards health in developing countries, where over 90% of all preventable deaths worldwide occurred

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25
Q

What is the solution for the ‘90/10 gap’? (4 steps)

A
  • Regulation of the quality of imported food, medicines, manufactured goods, and inputs
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26
Q

What impact has travel and migration had on diseases seen in the UK? (5 impacts)

A
  • Help spread infectious diseases
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27
Q

What is WHOs definition of environment, in relation to health?

A
  • All the physical, chemical and biological factors external to a person, and all the related behaviours
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28
Q

What is an outbreak?

A

Sudden increase in occurrences of a disease in a community, which has never experienced the disease before or when causes of the disease occur in numbers greater than expected in a defined area

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29
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

Occurrence of a group of illnesses of similar nature and derived from a common source, in excess of what would be normally expected in a community or region

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30
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

Worldwide epidemic (outbreak -> epidemic -> pandemic)

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31
Q

How can we prevent epidemics? (5 steps)

A
  • Insure developing countries against the threat of a pandemic
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32
Q

What is the role of WHO in public health? (6 key aspects)

A
  • Providing leadership on matters critical to health and engaging in partnerships where joint action is needed
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33
Q

What general intervention strategies are possible for HIV/AIDS? (6 strategies)

A
  • Introduction of blood donor and product screening
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34
Q

What are the determinants of effective outcomes of intervention? (3 main determinants)

A
  • Economics - many developing countries can only spend a few dollars per annum per capita on healthcare
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35
Q

What are the current problems and issues?

A
  • Africa struggles against debt, trade restrictions and inadequate aid provisions
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36
Q

What are the public health objectives of vaccination? (7 objectives)

A
  • To reduce mortality and morbidity from vaccine preventable infections
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37
Q

What are the 2 most effective developments in healthcare to protect population health?

A
  • Clean drinking water
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38
Q

What factors influence the utility of immunisation/vaccination as an approach to disease prevention? (9 points)

A
  • Disease burden
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39
Q

What is required for a disease to be eradicate using vaccination? (3 requirements)

A
  • Where no other reservoirs of the infection exist in animals or environment
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40
Q

Give examples of diseases that have been eradicated

A
  • Smallpox
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41
Q

What is herd immunity?

A
  • Level of immunity in the population which protects the whole population
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42
Q

What is R0?

A
  • Basic reproduction rate
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43
Q

What factors affect R0? (3 main factors)

A
  • The rate of contacts in the host population
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44
Q

What is effective reproduction rate (R)?

A

Estimates the average number of secondary cases per infectious case in a population made up of both susceptible and non-susceptible hosts

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45
Q

What is the equation for effective reproduction rate?

A

R = R0x (x is the fraction of the host population which is susceptible e.g. half population is 0.5)

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46
Q

What is the equation for herd immunity?

A

H = (R0 -1) / R0

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47
Q

What is a susceptible population? (4 key points)

A
  • Any person who is not immune to a particular pathogen is said to be susceptible
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48
Q

What is WHOs role in vaccination?

A
  • Makes recommendations for countries on vaccination policy
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49
Q

List some international immunisation programmes

A
  • Expanded programme on immunisation (EPI)
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50
Q

How are new vaccination programmes implemented? (who, how and when)

A
  • Who - to protect the vulnerable, contain outbreak, eradicate disease
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51
Q

What is shared decision making and why is it important?

A
  • Conversation between patient and their health care professional to reach a health care choice together
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52
Q

What are the pros of vaccination? (8 points)

A
  • Can save lives
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53
Q

What are the cons of vaccination? (7 points)

A
  • Can cause serious and sometimes fatal side effects
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54
Q

What factors influence decision making? (6 factors)

A
  • Lifestyle
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55
Q

What is the population vs individual interest debate?

A
  • For the individual - protection by ‘herd immunity’ may be safest option as avoids risk of vaccine
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56
Q

Which websites can be used to find out if a person needs travel vaccines?

A
  • NHS fitfortravel
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57
Q

What are some of the free and private travel vaccines available?

A
  • Free - diphtheria, polio, tetanus, typhoid, hepatitis A, cholera
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58
Q

What factors should be consider when deciding to get travel vaccinations? (8 factors)

A
  • The country or countries you’re visiting
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59
Q

What are the 5 common cancers (incidence) in adult men and women in the UK (list in order)?

A
  1. Breast/prostate
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60
Q

What are the 5 most common causes of cancer mortality for adult men and women combined in the UK (list in order)?

A
  1. Lung
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61
Q

What are the most common cancers in children?

A

Leukaemias

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62
Q

What is the most common causes of cancer mortality in children?

A

Brain, CNS and intracranial tumours

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63
Q

How do the patterns of cancer in the UK differ from that seen in a developing country?

A

Mortality is higher in UK (29%)

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64
Q

What is the role of legal and lifestyle changes in reducing incidence and mortality of cancer? (3 main points)

A
  • Prevention - legal and lifestyle changes, vaccinations
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65
Q

What is meant by difficult (bad) news?

A

Bad/difficult news is defined as any news that drastically and negatively alters the patient’s (or their relatives) view of his or her future

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66
Q

What factors can affect the impact of news on a patient? (7 factors)

A
  • Institutionalised beliefs
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67
Q

What anxieties might health care professionals have about breaking bad news? (5 points)

A
  • Uncertainty about the patient’s expectations
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68
Q

What is the ABCDE method of breaking bad news?

A

A - Advanced preparation

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69
Q

What is the SPIKES method of breaking bad news?

A

S - Setting up

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70
Q

What emotions may a patient feel when they receive difficult news? (5 main emotions)

A
  • Grief
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71
Q

How can cancer change partner relationships? (6 changes)

A
  • Change in roles
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72
Q

What were the conclusions and consequences of the Eurocare-II report?

A
  • Despite limitations of the methodology, cancer survival in the UK in the 1980-90s was one of the worst in Europe
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73
Q

What were the conclusions and consequences of the Calman-Hine report (1995)? (6 points)

A

(The Calman-Hine report examined cancer services in the UK, and proposed a restructuring of cancer services to achieve more equitable level of access to high levels of expertise throughout the country.)

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74
Q

What are the Calman-Hine solutions?

A

There should be 3 levels of care:

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75
Q

What is a national service framework? (3 main points)

A
  • Set national standards and define service models for a service or care group
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76
Q

What are the main aims of the NHS cancer plan (2000)?

A
  • Save more lives
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77
Q

What are the 6 key areas for action in the cancer reform strategy (2007)?

A
  • Prevention - smoking, obesity, alcohol, etc.
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78
Q

Which cancers are screened for?

A
  • Cervical
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79
Q

What is the national cancer survivorship initiative?

A

Partnership with cancer charities, clinicians and patients, considered a range of approaches to improving services and support available for cancer survivors

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80
Q

What were the main outcomes from ‘Improving outcomes: A strategy for cancer (2011)’? (4 outcomes)

A
  • Prevention and early diagnosis - focus on lifestyle factors, screening, diagnostic tests
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81
Q

What are some of the inequalities experiences amongst cancer patients? (5 examples)

A
  • White cancer patients report a more positive experience than other ethnic groups
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82
Q

What are the outcomes from the independent cancer Taskforce (2015)? (6 outcomes)

A
  • Spearhead a radical upgrade in prevention and public health
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83
Q

What is body image?

A
  • Perceptions, thoughts, and behaviours related to one’s appearance
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84
Q

What is biographical distribution?

A
  • Chronic illness leads to a loss of confidence in the body
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85
Q

Give examples of diseases/symptoms/treatments/side-effects which affect body image (6 examples)

A
  • Scars
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86
Q

What is the importance of hair?

A
  • An important site for individual and group identity
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87
Q

What are the functions of the clinical record? (4 points)

A
  • Support patient care
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88
Q

What should be recorded in a clinical record? (7 key aspects)

A
  • Presenting symptoms and reasons for seeking health care
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89
Q

What are the differences between paper and electronic records?

A
  • Paper - continuous, portable, writer identified, legibility issues, must be dated and signed
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90
Q

What is the use of records in audit, research and management?

A
  • Support clinical audit
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91
Q

What is duty of care?

A

Legal obligation which is imposed on an individual requiring adherence to a standard of reasonable care while performing any acts that could foreseeable harm others

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92
Q

What is negligence?

A
  • Negligence is a failure to exercise the care that a reasonably prudent person would exercise in like circumstances
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93
Q

What are the 4 ethical principles?

A
  • Beneficence - duty to do good
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94
Q

What are the ethical theories? (3 main theories)

A
  • Consequentialism/utilitarianism - the correct moral response is related to the outcome or consequence of the act
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95
Q

How do you evaluate an argument? (2 steps)

A
  1. Get clear on the logical form of the argument
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96
Q

Why might an argument be invalid? (4 reasons)

A
  • Different premises may express different concepts
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97
Q

Why might an argument be unsound? (3 reasons)

A
  • Argument is invalid
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98
Q

What should be avoided in arguments? (5 points)

A
  • Straw man fallacy - simply ignoring the person’s actual position and substituting it for a distorted, exaggerated or misrepresented version of that position
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99
Q

What is a moral argument?

A
  • Seek to support a moral claim of some kind
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100
Q

What is a deductive argument?

A
  • Purely logic
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101
Q

What is an inductive argument?

A

Making an argument based on observation, more probable conclusions (seeing is believing but you may not have seen everything)

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102
Q

What are MDTs in cancer care and why are they needed?

A
  • Modern management of cancer - involves many disciplines, surgical and non-surgical, oncology
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103
Q

Who is in a cancer MDT (core and extended)?

A

Core (medical staff):

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104
Q

What are the functions of MDTs in cancer care? (6 key functions)

A
  • Discuss every new diagnosis of cancer within their site
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105
Q

What is sensitivity?

A
  • True positives
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106
Q

What is the equation for sensitivity?

A

Sensitivity = true positives / (true positives + false negatives)

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107
Q

What is specificity?

A
  • True negatives
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108
Q

What is the equation for specificity?

A

Specificity = true negatives / (true negatives + false positives)

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109
Q

What is a diagnostic test?

A

Any kind of medical test performed to aid in the diagnosis or detection of disease

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110
Q

What are the uses of diagnostic tests? (4 uses)

A
  • Diagnosis
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111
Q

How is sensitivity and specificity important in informing diagnosis?

A

The importance of a diagnostic accuracy testing is directly proportional to the tests potential to cause patient consequences and harm

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112
Q

What does true positive mean?

A

Test indicates disease when there is disease

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113
Q

What does true negative mean?

A

Test indicates no disease when there is no disease

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114
Q

What does false positive mean?

A

Test indicates disease when there is no disease

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115
Q

What does false negative mean?

A

Test indicates no disease when there is disease

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116
Q

What is positive predictive value?

A

The probability that subjects with a positive screening test truly have the disease

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117
Q

What is negative predictive value?

A

The probability that subject with a negative screening test truly don’t have the disease

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118
Q

What is the likelihood ratio?

A

The likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that the same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder

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119
Q

What is screening?

A

Systematic application of a test or inquiry, to identify individuals at sufficient risk of a specific disorder to warrant further investigation or direct preventive action, amongst persons who have not sought medical attention on account of symptoms of that disorder

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120
Q

What is the purpose of screening? (3 purposes)

A
  • Opportunities for primary prevention are limited
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121
Q

What is commonly screened for? (8 examples)

A
  • Cancer - colorectal cancer, breast cancer, cervical cancer
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122
Q

What are the limitations of screening?

A
  • Cost and use of medical resources on a majority of people who do not need treatment
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123
Q

What are the pros and cons of good screening?

A

Pros - early detection of disease means the risk of death or illness can be reduced for some people

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124
Q

What areas should be evaluated when deciding what should be screened for? (4 areas)

A
  • Condition - important? epidemiology, natural history of condition, detectable risk factor, latent period, cost-effective
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125
Q

What is sojourn time?

A
  • The duration of a disease before clinical symptoms become apparent but during which it is detectable by a screening test
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126
Q

What is length bias?

A

Overestimation of survival duration among screening-detected cases by the relative excess of slowly progressing cases

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127
Q

What are the consequences of length bias?

A
  • Diseases with a longer sojourn time are ‘easier to catch’ in the screening net
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128
Q

What is lead time bias?

A

Overestimation of survival duration among screen-detected cases (relative to those detected by signs and symptoms) when survival is measured from diagnosis

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129
Q

What are the consequences of lead time bias?

A
  • Survival is inevitably longer following diagnosis through screening because of the ‘extra’ lead time
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130
Q

What is over diagnosis bias?

A
  • Overestimation of survival duration among screen-detected cases caused by inclusion of pseudo disease - subclinical disease that would not become overt before the patient dies of other causes
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131
Q

What is PSA testing and what can cause elevated PSA?

A
  • Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) - protein produced by cells of the prostate gland
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132
Q

What are the advantages of PSA screening?

A
  • Can help detect tumours with no symptoms
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133
Q

What are the disadvantages of PSA screening?

A
  • Early detection may not reduce the chance of dying from prostate cancer
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134
Q

What are some of the impacts of incontinence on a patient?

A
  • Distress
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135
Q

What impact might chronic dialysis have on a patient?

A
  • Regular hospital admissions
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136
Q

What 4 sources are used when making a clinical decision?

A
  • Patient preferences
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137
Q

What is opportunity cost?

A
  • The loss of other alternative when one alternative is chosen
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138
Q

What is distributive justice?

A

How we distribute resources the are finite in a fair way

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139
Q

How can you decide ways to distribute healthcare? (5 factors)

A
  • QALY calculation
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140
Q

What is confidentiality?

A

Pledge of agreement to not divulge or disclose information about patients to others

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141
Q

Why is it important to maintain confidentiality? (6 points)

A
  • Improves trust between patient and doctor
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142
Q

When can confidentiality be breached?

A
  • Statute (law)
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143
Q

Name some statutes (laws) that oblige doctors to disclose information

A
  • Public Health Act 1984
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144
Q

Define patient safety

A

Coordinated efforts to prevent harm to patients cause by the process of health care itself

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145
Q

What is an adverse event/

A

Unintended event resulting from clinical care and causing patient harm

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146
Q

What is a near miss?

A

A situation in which events or omissions arising during clinical care fail to develop further

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147
Q

Describe the Swiss cheese model of accident causation

A

Although many layers of defence lie between hazards and accidents, there are flaws in each layer that, if aligned, can allow the accident to occur

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148
Q

What are the main causes of error at an individual and a system level?

A
  • Individual error - errors of individuals, blames individual for forgetfulness, inattention or moral weakness
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149
Q

What are active failures?

A
  • Unsafe acts committed by people in direct contact with the patient
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150
Q

What is latent error?

A
  • Develop over time until they combine with other factors or active failures to casein adverse event
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151
Q

What are the different types of errors? (3 types)

A
  • Knowledge based - such as forming wrong intentions or plans as a result of inadequate knowledge/experience
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152
Q

What are violations?

A
  • Deliberate deviation from some regulated code of practice or procedure
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153
Q

What are the types of violation? (4 types)

A
  • Routine - regularly performed shortcuts due to system, process or task being poorly designed or actions; may become tacitly accepted practice over time
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154
Q

What systems are in place in the NHS to try and prevent errors occurring? (3 systems)

A
  • National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA) 2001 - coordination of reporting and learning from mistakes that affect patient safety
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155
Q

How do we know if a hospital is safe?

A
  • Hospital mortality data
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156
Q

What situations are associated with an increased risk of error? (6 examples)

A
  • Unfamiliarity with the task
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157
Q

What should we do when adverse incidents occur? (5 steps)

A
  • Report it - incident reporting systems
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158
Q

Why do children go to A&E?

A
  • Accidental injury
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159
Q

Why are males more likely to die than females?

A
  • Higher suicide rates
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160
Q

What is the most common cause of external deaths in adolescents?

A

Traffic accidents (>50%)

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161
Q

Why does poverty increase the chance of getting ill?

A
  • Poor nutrition
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162
Q

Why does poor health increase poverty?

A
  • Reducing a family’s work productivity
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163
Q

What are the implications of chronic illness in children?

A
  • Affects physical, mental and social development
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164
Q

What conditions are screened for before birth? (3 main tests)

A

Antenatal screening tests identify major abnormalities

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165
Q

What tests are done neonatally? (2 tests)

A
  • Blood spot test - PKU, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, congenital hypothyroidism
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166
Q

What are the timings for screening and developmental surveillance?

A
  • Antenatal screening (12th week of pregnancy)
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167
Q

What is the purpose of the 6-8 week postnatal check?

A
  • Take history
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168
Q

What is looked for in the heart examination at the 6-8 week postnatal check?

A
  • Look for cyanosis, ventricular heave, respiratory distress, tachypnea
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169
Q

What is developmental dysplasia of hip (DDH)?

A

Ball and socket joint of hip doesn’t form properly - too shallow so femoral head is loose and can dislocate

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170
Q

What are the tests for developmental dysplasia of hip (DDH)?

A
  • Barlows test - flex and adduct hip then push hip posteriorly, positive test causes femoral head to slip out of the acetabulum
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171
Q

What are the normal vital signs of a healthy baby?

A
  • Respiratory rate - 30-60 breaths per minute
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172
Q

What immunisations should be given in the first year of life?

A
  • 8 weeks - 6-in-1 vaccine (1st dose), rotavirus vaccine (1st dose), MenB vaccine (1st dose)
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173
Q

What is puerperium?

A
  • Postnatal period
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174
Q

What are the main aims of antenatal care? (6 aims)

A
  • Monitor progress of pregnancy to optimise maternal and foetal health
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175
Q

Which key documents influence antenatal care provisions?

A
  • MBRRACE-UK (mothers and babies - reducing risk through audits and confidential enquiries across the UK)
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176
Q

What were the key themes of the national maternity review ‘Better births’? (7 themes)

A
  • Personalised care
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177
Q

What tests are done at antenatal visits? (3 main tests)

A
  • Physical examination - weight, BP, urinalysis
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178
Q

What are some of the risk factors for adverse outcomes to pregnancy?

A
  • Chronic or acute disease - may be complicated with pregnancy
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179
Q

What are the different forms of pregnancy loss? (4 types)

A
  • Spontaneous miscarriage - loss of pregnancy before 24 completed weeks of pregnancy
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180
Q

What is the MBRRACE-UK report (2014)?

A
  • Mother and Babies Reducing Risk through Audits and Confidential Enquiries across the UK
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181
Q

What are common causes of death in the postnatal period? (4 causes)

A
  • Infection
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182
Q

What physical health and wellbeing issues might a woman experience in the postnatal period? (9 examples)

A
  • Perineal care - infection, inadequate repair, wound breakdown/non-healing
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183
Q

What mental health problems may be experienced in the postnatal period?

A
  • 50-80% ‘The blues’ - very weepy over small things, time-limited, recovers very quickly, if it continues then begins o worry about postnatal depression
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184
Q

What was the main outcome of the Peel Committee Report (1970)?

A

Sufficient facilities should be made available for 100% of childbearing women to give birth in hospital

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185
Q

What are the risks associated with Caesarean section? (3 main risks)

A
  • General anaesthesia, danger of Mendelsohns’ syndrome (aspiration pneumonia), paralytic ileus
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186
Q

What is the medical model of birth?

A
  • Birth seen as a dangerous journey, only normal in retrospect, therefore assume the worst
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187
Q

What is the social model of birth?

A

Birth is seen as a normal physiological process which women are uniquely designed to achieve

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188
Q

What are some of the cultural issues during pregnancy?

A
  • Unintended pregnancy - delay in seeking prenatal care and having a premature baby, higher levels of stress and depression
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189
Q

What was the outcome of the Midwives’ Act (1902)?

A
  • Established normality in childbearing as the midwife’s role - refer to doctors as soon as abnormality occurs
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190
Q

What are the benefits of institutionalised childbirth? (5 points)

A
  • Standardisation of care
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191
Q

What ar the risks of institutionalised childbirth? (5 points)

A
  • Medicalisation
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192
Q

What is the role of doctors in welfare?

A
  • You must consider the safety and welfare of children and young people, whether or not you routinely see them as patients
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193
Q

What are the indicators of a successful breastfeed?

A
  • Baby - audible and visible swallowing, sustained rhythmic suck, relaxed arms and head, moist mouth, regular soaked nappies
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194
Q

What problems may occur with breastfeeding?

A
  • Nipple pain
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195
Q

What is ‘quality’ in relation to health care?

A

The extent to which health services for individuals and populations increase the likelihood of desired health outcomes and are consistent with current professional knowledge

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196
Q

Why is there a heavy emphasis on quality management in healthcare?

A

Quality management produces improved quality, reduced costs, increased productivity and an increased market share

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197
Q

Why is consumer protection necessary? (3 medical practice deficiencies)

A
  • Medicine has a weak evidence base
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198
Q

What data are available to improve patient safety? (3 sources)

A
  • Hospital episode statistics (HES) - details referring GP, procedures given, duration of stay and discharge/death, lack of basic national data in primary care
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199
Q

What is the summary hospital level mortality indicator (SHMI)?

A

The ratio between the actual number of patients who die within 30 days of discharge compared with the number that would be expected to die on the basis of average

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200
Q

What are the key consumer protection agencies? (3 main ones)

A
  • Care Quality Commission (CQC) - regulates ‘quality’ and financial performance of all health and social care providers, public and private, provides regulatory framework, license all providers of health and social care
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201
Q

Who enforces the NICE guidelines?

A
  • Royal colleges
202
Q

How can consumer protection be improved?

A
  • Appraisal by peers
203
Q

What is clinical governance?

A

A framework through which NHS organisations are accountable for continuously improving the quality of their services and safeguarding high standards of care by creating an environment in which excellence in clinical care will flourish

204
Q

What are the types of neglect? (4 types)

A
  • Physical neglect
205
Q

What are the signs of neglect? (7 examples)

A
  • Malnutrition, begging, stealing or hoarding food
206
Q

What are the 4 types of child abuse?

A
  • Physical abuse - deliberate aggressive actions on the child that inflict pain
207
Q

Who are the people involved in reproductive ethic debates? (3 main parties)

A
  • Parents - procreative autonomy, parents wishes regarding reproductive choice should be respected, state interference should be minimal
208
Q

What was the main outcome of the human fertilisation and embryology act (1990)?

A

A woman shall not be provided with fertility treatment services unless account has been taken of the welfare of any child who may be born as a result of the treatment (including the need of that child for a father)’

209
Q

What were some of the criticisms of the ‘welfare criterion’? (3 main criticisms)

A
  • Fertile couples don’t have to meet this criterion
210
Q

What was the main outcome of the human fertilisation and embryology act (2008)?

A

Continues to talk about a duty to take account the welfare of the child in providing fertility treatment (hence, welfare criterion remains) but replaces reference to ‘the need for a father’ with ‘the need for supportive parents’, thus valuing role of all parents

211
Q

What is the pro-life argument?

A
  • Abortion ends the life of a foetus.
212
Q

What is procreative autonomy?

A
  • To have control over one’s reproductive capabilities
213
Q

What did the abortion act (1967, amended 1990) state?

A

A person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion when pregnancy is terminated by a registered medical practitioner if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith:

214
Q

What are the arguments for assisted reproduction? (4 arguments)

A
  • Procreative autonomy
215
Q

What are the arguments against assisted reproduction? (7 arguments)

A
  • Involves destruction of embryos
216
Q

What is pre-implantation genetic diagnosis and what are the associated ethical issues?

A
  • Genetic profiling of embryos prior to implantation 9as a form of embryo profiling), and sometimes even oocytes prior to fertilisation
217
Q

What provisions, if any, should be made for doctors who conscientiously object - what are the 3 views?

A
  • Objections should always be respected - the autonomy of the medical provider is paramount, no-one should be made to do something that goes against their strongly held personal beliefs
218
Q

Which act says a 16 year old has full capacity?

A

The Family Law Reform Act of 1969

219
Q

What is Gillick competency?

A

Child (under 16) can consent to medical treatment if deemed competent by medical professional, without need for parental permission or knowledge

220
Q

What are Fraser guidelines?

A

Doctor can give contraceptive advice and treatment to a person under 16 if they are mature and intelligent, likely to continue to have sex, and if the treatment is in their best interests

221
Q

What should you do before conducting an intimate examination? (5 steps)

A
  • Explain to the patient why an examination is necessary and give the patient an opportunity to ask questions
222
Q

What is the role of the midwife in postnatal care? (7 key points)

A
  • Screening/identification of actual and/or ‘at risk’ patients
223
Q

What are the aims from NICE postnatal care up to 9 weeks after birth guidelines (2006, updated 2015)?

A
  • A documented, individualised postnatal care plan for every woman
224
Q

Who is in the pregnancy MDT? (7 roles)

A
  • Midwives
225
Q

What is the role of MDT postnatal care and support teams?

A

Postnatal care should be a continuation of the care the woman received during her pregnancy, labour and birth, and involve planning and regularly reviewing the content and timing of care, for individual women and their babies

226
Q

What are some of the barriers to MDT work?

A
  • Separate documentation
227
Q

What is the importance of research-informed practice? (5 points)

A
  • Personal experience is biased in various ways
228
Q

What is the research cycle?

A
  1. Identify a clinical problem
229
Q

What is the implementation gap?

A

Gap between scientific understanding and patient care

230
Q

What are the barriers to implementation of research-informed practice? (4 barriers)

A
  • Characteristics of the recommendations - easy to follow, compatible with existing norms, need for new skills, complexity of recommendations
231
Q

What is quality improvement (QI)?

A

Facilitate the uptake and continuing use of evidence-based policy and practice, focusing on recurrent problems within system of care to improve:

232
Q

What does quality improvement involve? (5 aspects)

A
  • Engage participants across organisational levels
233
Q

Give some examples of quality improvement initiatives

A
  • Revision of professional roles
234
Q

What makes a quality improvement initiative effective? (3 aspects)

A
  • Passive dissemination of information, such as distribution of educational materials or didactic lectures, is generally ineffective in driving change
235
Q

What is quality and outcomes framework (QOF)?

A
  • Annual reward and incentive programme detailing GP practice achievement results
236
Q

Does quality and outcomes framework work?

A
  • Improvements associated with financial incentives seem to be achieved at the expense of small detrimental effects on aspects of care that were not incentivised
237
Q

What was the aims of national commission for quality and innovation (CQUINs) 2014-15?

A
  • Friends and family test - incentivise high performing providers
238
Q

What is the incidence of falls in the elderly?

A
  • 35% of 65-79 year olds
239
Q

What are the possible consequences of falls?

A
  • Osteoporotic fractures
240
Q

What are the risk factors for falls?

A
  • Muscle weakness
241
Q

How can falls be prevented/decrease risk?

A
  • Increase activity - diversity of physical activity
242
Q

What doesn’t help reduce falls?

A
  • Brisk walking
243
Q

What is QALY?

A
  • Quality adjusted life year
244
Q

What is the cost of falls for the NHS each year?

A

£1.3 billion

245
Q

What is the cost of hip fractures for the NHS each year?

A
  • £12,000 per patient
246
Q

What is a common fracture in elderly people?

A

Fracture of the neck of femur

247
Q

What are the two types of fracture of the neck of femur?

A
  • Extracapsular - the bone outside the joint capsule breaks; fixed with sliding hip screw, intramedullary nail
248
Q

What is avascular necrosis?

A
  • Death of bone tissue due to lack of blood supply
249
Q

What is the main risk factor associated with increased risk of fracture?

A

Osteoporosis

250
Q

What are the risk factors for hip fractures? (10 examples)

A
  • Low bone mineral density (BMD) is associated with increased fracture risk
251
Q

How can hip fractures be prevented?

A
  • Fall prevention
252
Q

What is primary prevention?

A

Avoidance of disease before any signs or symptoms develop

253
Q

What is secondary prevention?

A

Avoidance of progression or later problems, signs or symptoms present

254
Q

What would be primary and secondary prevention be in relation to stroke?

A
  • Primary - no history of stroke or TIA
255
Q

What is the prevention paradox?

A
  • The majority of people who suffer a stroke are not at high risk of stroke (e.g. 75% have ‘normal’ blood pressure)
256
Q

What are the effects of targeting population for prevention?

A
  • Large potential benefit to community
257
Q

What are the effects of targeting high risk groups for prevention?

A
  • Larger potential benefit to individual
258
Q

Which group of people are at the highest risk from stroke?

A
  • people who have already had one - secondary prevention reduces risk in these people
259
Q

What medication is used for secondary prevention of strokes?

A
  • Ischaemic - clopidogrel, statins, anti-hypertensives, anticoagulant if AF
260
Q

What percentage of people who have strokes are under 50 years old?

A

<20%

261
Q

What is the incidence in strokes in men and women?

A
  • Men are at a 25% higher risk of having stroke and at a younger age compared to women
262
Q

What are the non-modifiable risk factors for stroke?

A
  • Age
263
Q

What are the modifiable risk factors for strokes? (6 factors)

A
  • High blood pressure - biggest risk factor
264
Q

What did the PROGRESS trial show?

A

Reducing blood pressure after stroke reduces risk of stroke recurrence

265
Q

What are the barriers for initiating medical therapies for conditions with no obvious symptoms? (6 barriers)

A
  • Misinformed
266
Q

What is a confounding factor?

A
  • Distortion of the relationship between an exposure and outcome due to shared relationship with something else
267
Q

How can we limit confounding factors and what are the effects? (4 strategies)

A
  • Restriction - limit the participants of your study who have possible confounders; means that you have less data and difficult with multiple confounders
268
Q

What is standardisation?

A

Way to limit confounding, often used to control for differences in age groups when comparing rates of disease in two populations with different age structures

269
Q

What is standardised mortality ratio (SMR)?

A

Ratio between the observed number of deaths in a study population to the number of expected deaths

270
Q

What is direct standardisation?

A

Required we know the age-specific rates of mortality in all populations under study

271
Q

What is indirect standardisation?

A

Only requires that we know the total number of deaths and the age structure of the study population

272
Q

Why do we have waiting lists?

A
  • There is a limitless demand for health, people can always ‘be more healthy’ which created high demand
273
Q

Why are waiting times important to patients? (5 examples)

A
  • The patient’s condition may deteriorate while waiting and in some cases the effectiveness of the proposed treatment may be reduced
274
Q

How can you measure waiting times? (3 methods)

A
  • Average waiting times (mean or median)
275
Q

What are the theories of NHS waiting lists?

A
  • The backlog - implies a need for occasional emergency injection of funds
276
Q

How can the NHS reduce waiting times? (4 methods)

A
  • Manage demand - ensuring each referral represents the most appropriate decision for the care of the individual patient
277
Q

What was the 2002-2008 policy ‘targets and terror’?

A
  • Performance management of Trusts and PCTs based on achievement of target waiting times
278
Q

What are the pros of ‘targets and terror’ policy?

A
  • No inpatients waiting longer than 3 months
279
Q

What were the cons of ‘targets and terror’ policy?

A
  • Sacrifice of professional autonomy - managers pressuring doctors, may be forced to treat les urgent due to waiting times
280
Q

What is possible criteria for priority on a waiting list? (6 examples)

A
  • Clinical urgency
281
Q

What are the social consequences of deafness?

A
  • Social impact - difficult to have conversations, isolation, intimacy issues, problems at work
282
Q

How can a stroke affect communication?

A
  • Aphasia (and sometimes dysphasia) - difficulty in the generation of speech and sometimes also in its comprehension
283
Q

What are the social consequences of speech and communication difficulties?

A
  • Not being able to express yourself clearly can be very isolating
284
Q

What areas can medico-legal implications occur in a person with epilepsy?

A
  • Determination of fitness to drive and other similarly dangerous activities
285
Q

What are the rules for whether people can drive with epilepsy?

A
  • Group 1 which applies to cars, motorbikes, and most other small vehicles - need to be seizure free for 12 months
286
Q

What are CAMs?

A
  • Complementary - non-mainstream practice is used together with conventional medicine
287
Q

What are the 5 big CAMs?

A
  • Acupuncture - fine needles are inserted at certain sites in the body for therapeutic or preventative purposes
288
Q

What is the underlying principle with CAMs?

A
  • Self-healing is triggered
289
Q

What percentage of CAMs are covered by the NHS?

A

10%

290
Q

What are the barrier to CAMs on the NHS? (5 main barriers)

A
  • Regulatory issues
291
Q

Why should CAMs be provided by the NHS? (5 arguments)

A
  • Patient choice
292
Q

Which complementary therapy is most used for MSK problems?

A

Osteopathy

293
Q

What is osteopathy used mainly to treat? (5 problems)

A
  • Back pain
294
Q

What do chiropractors mainly treat?

A
  • Back, neck and shoulder problems
295
Q

What is acupuncture used to treat?

A
  • MSK patients
296
Q

Why are people using acupuncture?

A

Effectiveness gap - a clinical area where available treatments are not fully effective or satisfactory for various reasons including lack of efficacy, adverse effects and acceptability to patients

297
Q

What is the evidence base for acupuncture?

A
  • Acupuncture correlated with physiological parameters i.e. with decreases in brain flow
298
Q

What are the criticisms of acupuncture?

A
  • Is the effect too small and not clinically relevant?
299
Q

What does the NICE guidelines state about acupuncture in lower back pain, osteoarthritis, and headaches?

A
  • Lower back pain - consider manual therapy, do not offer acupuncture
300
Q

What are the 5 categories for significant impaired decision making ability?

A
  • Lack of insight - person suffers from some disability but seem unaware of the existence of their disability
301
Q

Why is it important to support patients decision making? (5 reasons)

A
  • Patients generally happier if they can make decisions
302
Q

How might doctors assist patients in making decisions? (4 methods)

A
  • Using a different form of communication
303
Q

Which act are capacity determinants governed by?

A

Mental capacity act (2005)

304
Q

According to the mental capacity act, when does a person lack capacity?

A

A person lacks capacity if they are unable to:

305
Q

What are the 5 key principles of the mental capacity act?

A
  • Presumption of capacity - a person must be assumed to have capacity until proven otherwise; assumption can be over-ridden if shown to lack capacity for that decision at that time
306
Q

How many people in the UK have dementia?

A

Approximately 850,000 people

307
Q

How might dementia first present?

A
  • Patient noticing changes - forgetfulness, difficulty with names and finding the right word, embarrassment in social situations
308
Q

What is the impact of diagnosis of dementia on a patient?

A
  • Denial (with or without insight) - patient attributes all problems to old age, often accompanied by anger at the suggestion that there is anything wrong
309
Q

What determines the response of the patient to the diagnosis of dementia?

A
  • Insight and stage of illness - ability to remember and process information
310
Q

What is the impact of diagnosis on the carers?

A
  • Confirmation of something they have long suspected
311
Q

What determines the response of the carer to the diagnosis?

A
  • understanding of illness
312
Q

What are the benefits of diagnosis?

A
  • Know what it is that you are dealing with
313
Q

Describe the effect of dementia on the patient, spouse/partner, children and carers

A
  • Patient - loss of self-esteem, may find communication difficult, loss of independence and autonomy, change in social roles and relationships, impact on ADLs
314
Q

How much of the cost of dementia is paid by people with dementia and their families?

A

2/3 = £17.4 billion

315
Q

What percentage of carers don’t receive enough support?

A

43%

316
Q

Why are people with dementia at high risk of elder abuse? (3 main reasons)

A
  • More vulnerable
317
Q

What are examples of advanced care planning?

A
  • Advanced statement of wishes - wishes and preferences about treatment/care they would like (NOT legally binding hence can use best interests judgement)
318
Q

What are advanced directives?

A
  • Extends patient autonomy to apply in situations where they don’t have capacity as defined under the MCA 2005
319
Q

What are advanced directives valid and applicable?

A
  • Patient is 18+ - note MCA is for 16+ but only 18+ can refuse treatment
320
Q

What is Ulysses arrangement?

A

Advanced directive for bipolar disorder

321
Q

What are the pros of advanced directives?

A
  • Respect patient autonomy
322
Q

What are the cons of advanced directives?

A
  • Difficulty to verify if the patient’s opinion has changed since making AD
323
Q

What are some of the research atrocities in history?

A
  • Nazi medical experiments (Nuremberg trials)
324
Q

What is the Nuremberg Code (1947)?

A

The Nuremberg code resulted from the Nuremberg trials. It was an early code for research ethics principles, including:

325
Q

What is the Helsinki declaration (1964)?

A

Includes requirement that any human research is subject to independent ethical review and oversight by properly convened committee

326
Q

What are some research ethics principles? (6 examples)

A
  • Usefulness - valid, good method, hasn’t been done before, strong justification
327
Q

What is valid consent?

A

Voluntary, informed, patient is competent

328
Q

What does voluntary consent mean?

A
  • Not putting pressure on patients or volunteers
329
Q

What should patients be given to facilitate consent?

A
  • Information sheets
330
Q

What is confidentiality and why it is important?

A
  • Confidentiality is the state of keeping or being kept secret or private
331
Q

How can we increase the level of confidentiality?

A
  • Limit access to identifiable information
332
Q

What is an ethics committee?

A

Body responsible for ensuring that medical experimentation and human research are carried out in an ethical manner in accordance with national and international law

333
Q

Why do we need ethics approval? (5 reasons)

A
  • To protect participants
334
Q

When is ethics approval needed? (3 examples)

A
  • Research involves humans
335
Q

What are some of the types of research ethics committees?

A
  • NHS research ethics committees
336
Q

What does the human tissue act (2004) state about research?

A
  • Consent for storage and use of tissue for ‘scheduled purposes’ is required for tissues from living or deceased persons
337
Q

What percentage of deaths does CHD cause in the UK?

A
  • 29% men
338
Q

Why are the death rates falling from CHD?

A
  • Risk factors improved - fewer smokers, cholesterol better controlled, HTN controlled
339
Q

What is the effect of health inequalities on CHD?

A

Lower social class at higher risk - health behaviours

340
Q

What are the non-modifiable risk factors for CHD?

A
  • Elevated blood cholesterol
341
Q

What is risk?

A

The probability of an event in a given time period

342
Q

What is the equation for risk ratio?

A

Risk ratio = risk for exposed / risk for non-exposed

343
Q

What is the equation for risk difference?

A

Risk difference = Risk for exposed - Risk for non-exposed

344
Q

What is odds ratio?

A

A ratio of the odds of an event in an exposed group to the odds of the same event in a group that is not exposed

345
Q

What is the equation for odds ratio?

A

OR = ad/bc

346
Q

What is population attributable risk?

A

The risk of disease will increase as the exposure prevalence or relative risk increases

347
Q

What is the leading cause for cancer mortality?

A

Lung cancer

348
Q

What are the main risk factors associated with lung cancer?

A
  • Smoking
349
Q

What percentage of lung cancer cases are cause by smoking?

A

90%

350
Q

What is the second leading cause of lung cancer after smoking?

A

Radon

351
Q

What are the different types of lung cancer?

A
  • Small cell (13%)
352
Q

How many people in the world are infected with TB?

A

1/4 of the world population = approx. 2 billion people

353
Q

How many deaths per year does TB cause (million)?

A

1.5 million people (in 2020 according to WHO)

354
Q

What are the factors associated with recent increases in the prevalence of TB? (4 main factors)

A
  • Urban homelessness
355
Q

What time of year does TB incidence peak?

A

Spring/summer

356
Q

What can be done to address rising rates of TB?

A
  • Put more people on ART
357
Q

What is the prevention paradox?

A

A preventative measure that brings large benefits to the community offers little to each participating individual

358
Q

What are the pros of ‘high risk’ approaches to health promotion?

A
  • Appropriate to individual
359
Q

What are the cons of ‘high risk’ approaches to health promotion?

A
  • Screening is difficult
360
Q

What are the pros of ‘population’ approaches to health promotion?

A

Large potential as targeting many people

361
Q

What are the cons of ‘population’ approaches to health promotion?

A
  • Population paradox - small perceived individual benefit
362
Q

What are some examples of occupational lung disease?

A
  • Occupational asthma
363
Q

How have occupational health risks changed over time?

A
  • Better environmental control an health and safety - e.g. from mid 20th century with coal mining, etc.
364
Q

What is occupational asthma?

A

Like other types of asthma, it is characterised by airway inflammation, reversible airways obstruction, and bronchospasm, but it is caused by something in the workplace environment

365
Q

Give some examples of occupations that are at a higher risk for occupational asthma

A
  • Bakers
366
Q

What history would you expect from a patient with occupational asthma?

A
  • Symptoms worse at work and better away from work e.g. weekends and holidays
367
Q

Give some occupational causes of COPD

A
  • Coal mining
368
Q

What is pneumoconiosis?

A

Occupational restrictive lung disease caused bye inhalation of dust (coal dust, silica, asbestos)

369
Q

What is simple coal workers pneumoconiosis?

A
  • After around 10 years of coal mining, small nodules are present
370
Q

What are possible complications with coal workers pneumoconiosis?

A
  • Occurs in coal workers especially fi the coal they work with is heavily contaminated with silicates
371
Q

What is silicosis?

A
  • Occupational lung disease caused by inhalation of crystalline silica dust, and is marked by inflammation and scarring in the form of nodular lesions in the upper lobes of the lung
372
Q

What is siderosis?

A
  • Deposition of iron in tissue
373
Q

What is acute pneumonitis?

A
  • Acute inhalation of a substance that causes symptoms immediately
374
Q

What is hypersensitive pneumonitis?

A
  • Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction (immune complex deposition)
375
Q

What are some causes of hypersensitive pneumonitis?

A
  • Bird fancier’s lung - due to feathers and bird droppings
376
Q

What percentage of lung cancers in men are related to occupation?

A

10%

377
Q

What is asbestos?

A
  • A natural occurring silicate mineral
378
Q

What are the 2 types of asbestos fibres?

A
  • Serpentine - curly, white asbestos (relatively harmless), cleared with mucociliary escalator
379
Q

What is mesothelioma?

A
  • Cancer of the mesothelium almost inevitably caused by occupational exposure asbestos
380
Q

Where are claims submitted for compensation for occupational illness in the UK?

A

Disability benefits centre of benefits agency (DSS)

381
Q

What is decision analysis?

A

Systematic and quantitative way of making healthcare decisions e.g. when presented with two options

382
Q

What does decision analysis assume?

A
  • Decision process is logical and rational
383
Q

What are the stages ind decision analysis? (4-5 stages)

A
  1. Structure the problem as a decision tree - identifying choice, information (what is and is not known) and preferences
384
Q

What do squares and circles mean on decision trees?

A
  • Squares - indicated decision, represents choice between actions
385
Q

How do you calculate expected utility?

A

Expected utility = utility value x probability

386
Q

What is sensitive analysis?

A

Sensitive analysis explores what would happen if the probabilities or utility values were slightly different to the ones you are using - calculate effect of uncertainty on decision

387
Q

What are preference sensitive and probability sensitive decisions?

A
  • Preference sensitive - the person might feel strongly about the side effects of the treatment
388
Q

What are the benefits of using decision analysis to make decisions? (5 benefits)

A
  • Makes all assumptions in a decision explicit
389
Q

What are the negatives of using decision analysis to make decisions?

A
  • Probability estimates - required data sets to estimate probability may not exist; subjective probability estimates are subject to bias
390
Q

What is the ICF model of disability?

A

Functioning and disability are multi-dimensional concepts relating to:

391
Q

What is palliative care?

A
  • Active holistic care of patients with advanced progressive illness
392
Q

What are the goals of palliative care? (8 goals)

A
  • Improves quality of life
393
Q

Who is general palliative care given to?

A

Core aspect of care for all patients and their families with advanced disease by all health professionals

394
Q

Who is specialised palliative care for?

A

Patients (and carers) with unresolved symptoms and complex psychosocial issues, with complex end-of-life and bereavement issues

395
Q

Who provides specialised palliative care?

A
  • NHS - community/hospital clinic nurse specialist, some consultants, some inpatient units, macmillan
396
Q

What is end of life care?

A
  • Branch of palliative care - caring for people who are nearing the end of life
397
Q

What are some of the challenges for the future of palliative care?

A
  • Inequality of service provision and standards
398
Q

What is ‘total pain’?

A

Recognises pain as being physical, psychological, social and spiritual

399
Q

What are the different types of nurses involved in palliative care? (4 main types)

A
  • District nurse - primary health care team, community based, generic palliative care skills, ‘hands on’ nursing skills
400
Q

Where is the preferred place of death?

A
  • Most people wish to die at home
401
Q

What percentage of admission notes document the CPR decisions?

A

10%

402
Q

What percentage of in-hospital CPR is not appropriate?

A

40-50%

403
Q

What is DNACPR?

A

Do Not Attempt CPR - decision made and recorded in advance, applies to those present if a person subsequently suffers sudden cardiac arrest or dies

404
Q

What are Bowlby’s 4 stages of grief?

A
  • Numbness
405
Q

What are the symptoms of grief?

A
  • Sadness, anger, guilt, anxiety, loneliness, fatigue, helplessness, shock, yearning, numbness
406
Q

What is Warden’s tasks of mourning? (4 tasks)

A
  1. Accepting the reality of the loss e.g. come to terms with the person being ‘gone’
407
Q

What factors affect the severity of grief? (6 factors)

A
  • Closeness of relationship
408
Q

What is spirituality?

A

Umbrella term that includes religious/faith frameworks, but it also includes the meaning of life, purpose, sense of personhood

409
Q

How can religious beliefs impact on bereavement?

A
  • Belief in an afterlife - the continuing existence of the loved one and possibility of meeting up again
410
Q

What is pathological grief?

A
  • Extended grief reactions - getting stuck in one of the phases (normally each phase is about 6 months)
411
Q

What is the myth of the neutral therapist?

A
  • Idea that psychotherapists will ‘leak’ their personal views regardless of their intention
412
Q

What are CDSS?

A

Clinical decision support system - designed to aid clinician decision making

413
Q

What are the different types of CDSS?

A
  • Computerised
414
Q

What are some examples of CDSS? (4 examples)

A
  • Reminder systems - screening, vaccination, testing, medication use
415
Q

What are the effects of computer support on prescribing? (6 main effects)

A
  • Reduced time to achieve therapeutic stabilisation
416
Q

Do CDSS work?

A
  • Can improve practitioner performance in diagnosis, disease management, prescribing/drug dosing, rates of vaccination, screening, etc.
417
Q

What are patient decision aids?

A
  • Help patient understand probable outcomes of options
418
Q

What is the key issue with patient decisions aids?

A

No consensus on what information should be included in a patient decision aid

419
Q

What improves practice when using decision support? (4 examples)

A
  • Providing decisions support as part of the clinician workflow
420
Q

What are potential barriers to using CDSS? (4 examples)

A
  • Earlier negative experience of IT
421
Q

What are potential facilitators of CDSS?

A
  • Self-control of CDSS
422
Q

What is food poisoning?

A

Diarrhoea and vomiting with or without pain

423
Q

What are the major causes of food poisoning?

A
  • Not cooking food thoroughly (particularly meat)
424
Q

What are some microbial infections that cause food poisoning?

A
  • Bacterial - salmonella, campylobacter, shigella, C. difficile
425
Q

What are some toxins that cause food poisoning?

A
  • Bacterial toxins - clostridium perfringens, s. aureus, clostridium botulinum
426
Q

What are some chemicals that cause food poisoning?

A
  • Heavy metals
427
Q

What is the most common cause of food poisoning?

A

Campylobacter

428
Q

Describe the clinical picture of salmonella infection (transmission, incubation, symptoms)

A
  • Transmission - ingestion of contaminated food, faecal contaminations, person-person, infected animals
429
Q

Describe the clinical picture of staphylococcus aureus infection (transmission, incubation, symptoms)

A
  • transmission - contaminated food by skin/nasal flora
430
Q

Describe the clinical picture of cryptosporidium infection (transmission, incubation, symptoms)

A
  • Transmission - animal-human, person-person, contaminated water or land, associated with foreign travel
431
Q

Describe the clinical pictures of escherichia coli infection (transmission, incubation, symptoms)

A
  • Transmission - contaminated food, person-person
432
Q

Describe the clinical picture of norovirus infection (transmission, incubation, symptoms)

A
  • Transmission - faecal-oral route, environmental contamination, contaminated food and water
433
Q

Describe the clinical picture of clostridium perfringens infection (transmission, incubation, symptoms)

A
  • Transmission - contaminated cooked meat and poultry
434
Q

Describe the clinical picture of campylobacter infection (transmission, incubation, symptoms)

A
  • Transmission - raw/undercooked meat, unpasteurised milk, bird-pecked milk, untreated water, domestic pets with diarrhoea, person-person
435
Q

How can food poisoning be prevented?

A
  • Isolation
436
Q

What is ‘safe food’?

A

Food that will not cause harm to a person who consumes the food when it is prepared, stored and/or eaten according to its intended use

437
Q

What are concerns with food?

A
  • Food borne illness
438
Q

What does the public health act state about food poisoning?

A

Allows exclusions from work of people that pose increased risk of GI infection spread - children in nursery/pre-school, people who work with food, health and social care staff, people with doubtful hygiene

439
Q

What are some of the offences under the food safety act (1990)? (3 examples)

A
  • The sale of food that has been rendered injurious to health, is unfit for human consumption or is so contaminated that it would not be reasonable to expect it to be used for human consumption
440
Q

What is hazard analysis critical control point?

A
  • Analysis of the potential food hazards in a food business (e.g. microbiological, chemical & foreign matter contamination)
441
Q

What are the objectives in food poisoning outbreaks? (3 objectives)

A
  • Reduce the number of primary and secondary cases
442
Q

What are the investigations done in food poisoning outbreaks?

A
  • Preliminary phase - is there an outbreak? confirming the diagnosis, what is the nature and extent of the outbreak?
443
Q

What are outbreak outliers?

A
  • Outliers are cases at the very beginning and end that may not appear to be related
444
Q

What might outbreak outliers represent? (6 examples)

A
  • Baseline level of illness
445
Q

How can analytical epidemiological studies be useful to identify probable food source of outbreak?

A
  • Compare food history of ill and well persons
446
Q

Which GI cancers are prevalent in which populations?

A
  • Oesophageal - Middle East and Chine
447
Q

What dietary intake increase the risk of colorectal cancer?

A

Fat intake

448
Q

What is the evidence base for ‘5-a-day’?

A
  • Evidence from observational epidemiology that average fruit/veg intake of less than 200g associated with increased risk of cancer, but possibly little additional benefit beyond 400g/day
449
Q

Describe the relationship between beta carotene and cancer

A
  • Beta carotene found in fruit/vegetables
450
Q

What are the problems with measuring diet?

A
  • Random error - diet varies and difficulties in measurement, people don’t eat the same things everyday and individual consumptions vary significantly
451
Q

What are the different measures of diet?

A
  • Food disappearance data
452
Q

What are the pros and cons of food frequency qeustionnaires?

A
  • Pros - captures usual diet and less work to code/complete
453
Q

What are the pros and cons of diet diaries?

A
  • Pros - records diet as eaten (over limited period), better estimate of energy and absolute intake, more flexible
454
Q

What are the main dietary associations with cancer? (7 examples)

A
  • Oesophageal - alcohol, obesity
455
Q

What is the trend of alcohol consumption in the UK?

A
  • Per capita consumption in the UK is lower than many European countries
456
Q

What percentage of men and women have an alcohol use disorder?

A
  • 38% of men and 16% of women (16-64) have an alcohol use disorder (approximately 8 million people)
457
Q

Where is identification and brief advice (IBA) delivered?

A

Delivered in a range of setting - primary and secondary care but also community setting (pharmacies, community health-oriented events)

458
Q

What specialised treatment is available for alcohol problems? (4 examples)

A
  • CBT - common
459
Q

Which medical conditions are wholly attributable to alcohol?

A
  • Alcoholic liver disease
460
Q

What are some of the social consequences of alcohol consumption?

A
  • Death - declining since 2008
461
Q

What are effective, moderately effective and less effective policies for alcohol related health promotion?

A

More effective policies:

462
Q

What are the key UK departments involved in alcohol policy? (2 main departments)

A
  • Home office (focus on public disorder)
463
Q

What was the ‘alcohol strategy (2021)’?

A
  • Minimum unit price policy dropped, multi-buy promotion offers were not banned as suggested
464
Q

What is efficiency?

A
  • Target resources to those activities that give the greatest health gain for the money spent as this will maximise population health gain for the money spent as this will maximise population health gain
465
Q

What is allocative efficiency?

A

Investing in healthcare are interventions that are worthwhile

466
Q

What is technical efficiency?

A

Investing in health care interventions which make the best use of scarce resources

467
Q

What is equity in financing?

A
  • Geographic allocation of funding by weighted capitation
468
Q

What is the class equality/inequality in health care?

A

Evidence of social class equality in the use of primary care and social class inequality in the use of secondary care

469
Q

What is the concept of the ‘margin’?

A

The incremental change in resources (inputs and their cost) committed to an activity that produces an incremental change in effects (improved patient outcomes)

470
Q

Why is the margin important?

A
  • Incremental investments in an activity may be associated with diminishing returns
471
Q

Why do we need economic evaluation?

A
  • Values both inputs (opportunity costs) and outputs (health outcomes) of any intervention
472
Q

How do you measure cost?

A
  • Cost to NHS - NICE perspective, cost of drug, cost of delivery
473
Q

How do you measure benefit?

A

Health gain = increase in length + QoL

474
Q

What is cost-minimisation analysis?

A

Chooses cheapest option between treatments that have identical outcomes

475
Q

What is cost-effective analysis?

A
  • Costs and outcomes are combined into a single measures e.g. reduction in blood pressure
476
Q

What is cost-utility analysis?

A
  • Combines multiple outcomes into a single measure (QALY) using QoL instruments e.g. EQ5D
477
Q

What is cost-benefit analysis?

A

Puts cost and benefit into monetary/numerical terms, e.g. how much is the 3 months gained worth to the patient?

478
Q

When can cost-effectiveness analysis be used?

A
  • If the outcome measures are just clinical
479
Q

What are the levels of resource allocation decisions?

A
  • Macro (societal) level - regarding health funding vs education or funding of certain drugs
480
Q

What are the arguments for and against age-based rationing being applied to macro-level resource allocation decisions?

A
  • For - treatment and care of elderly people is very costly so ‘cost-effective’ argument might require resources elsewhere
481
Q

Describe the Fair-innings argument (1997)

A
  • Older people had a long life already, therefore fairer to divert resources to younger people
482
Q

What are the contraindications to the Fair-innings argument?

A
  • treating on the basis of need might mean older people don’t receive lower priority
483
Q

What are the arguments for and against age-based rationing being applied to micro-level resource allocation decisions?

A
  • For - age should be relevant because older people are less likely to respond to treatment and have a poorer prognosis in general due to increased complication risk
484
Q

What is age discrimination?

A

Unjustifiable difference in treatment based solely on age

485
Q

What is the difference between direct and indirect age discrimination?

A
  • Direct - direct difference in treatment based on age, cannot be justified
486
Q

What is the GMC and laws view on age discrimination?

A
  • GMC - must not unfairly discriminate against patients or let views about patient affects decisions
487
Q

How do calculate QALY?

A
  • Assign a utility value (0-1) to a state of health and then multiply by the number of years expected to live in this state
488
Q

What leads to utilitarian justification?

A

QALYs focus on overall likely outcomes of resource allocations

489
Q

What type of healthcare do you have when the cost per QALY is low/high?

A
  • Low - high priority, efficient health care
490
Q

What are the arguments for QALY-based assessments?

A
  • Maximises healthcare based on quality and quantity of life
491
Q

What are the arguments against QALY-based assessments?

A
  • Difficulties in measuring - how do you measure quality or value or life? who makes the decisions? introduces bias
492
Q

What is relationship between age and QALY?

A
  • The older you are the fewer QALYs you will gain due to lower life expectancy & co-morbidities
493
Q

What body appraises medical technologies in pounds per QALY?

A

NICE

494
Q

What is PICO?

A

Population

495
Q

What are the 3 discrete steps in critical appraisal?

A
  • Are the results of the study valid?
496
Q

What is study validity and what should you look for?

A

Study validity is the believability or credibility of the results

497
Q

What are the different types of results?

A
  • Therapy - look at relative risk reduction, absolute risk reduction, odds ratio, number needed to treat, confidence intervals
498
Q

How should you apply the results of a critical appraisal?

A
  • How similar are the patients to the study to your patient?
499
Q

What do randomised control trials look at?

A

Look at new treatment, often a drug - compares to current gold standard or placebo

500
Q

How is randomisation done?

A
  • Enveloped

H+S (2 decks)

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