Untitled Deck Flashcards

1
Q

What is the structure of DNA in prokaryotic cells?

A

Single chromosome (looped nucleus)

Prokaryotic DNA is typically circular and lacks a defined nucleus.

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2
Q

What is the structure of DNA in eukaryotic cells?

A

Many chromosomes in nucleus (46 in humans)

Eukaryotic DNA is linear and organized into multiple chromosomes.

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3
Q

What type of bond forms the backbone of DNA?

A

Phosphodiester linkage (covalently bonded)

The backbone consists of alternating phosphate and sugar groups.

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4
Q

What do nitrogenous bases in DNA represent?

A

The rungs of a ladder (hydrogen bonds)

The bases pair specifically (A-T and C-G) through hydrogen bonding.

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5
Q

What does the 3’ end of a DNA strand refer to?

A

Carbon 3 (has free hydroxyl group)

The 3’ end is critical for DNA replication and synthesis.

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6
Q

What does the 5’ end of a DNA strand refer to?

A

Carbon 5 (has free phosphate group)

The orientation of DNA strands is crucial during replication.

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7
Q

In what phase does DNA replication occur?

A

S phase of interphase

This phase ensures that each cell has a complete copy of DNA.

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8
Q

What is the semiconservative model of DNA replication?

A

Half of strand is new, half is old

This model was confirmed by the Meselson-Stahl experiment.

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9
Q

What was the Meselson-Stahl experiment designed to demonstrate?

A

DNA replication model

It showed that DNA replication is semiconservative.

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10
Q

What is the role of helicase in DNA replication?

A

Unwinds DNA by disrupting hydrogen bonds

This is essential for separating the strands for replication.

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11
Q

What do single-stranded binding proteins (SSB) do?

A

Keep separated DNA strands from reannealing

They prevent hydrogen bonds from forming between the strands.

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12
Q

What is the function of RNA primase in DNA replication?

A

Adds RNA primer to the 3’ end of both strands

This allows DNA polymerase to begin replication.

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13
Q

What is the role of DNA polymerase III?

A

Adds nucleotides to existing strand in 5’ → 3’ direction

It cannot initiate synthesis by itself, must have primer in place before it

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14
Q

What is the difference between the leading and lagging strands in DNA replication?

A

Leading strand has 1 primer, lagging strand has multiple primers

The lagging strand is synthesized in fragments known as Okazaki fragments.

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15
Q

What is the primary transcript in protein synthesis?

A

The RNA before any modifications, not ready to leave nucleus yet

Still has introns, no 5’ cap (modified guanine) or poly-A-tail

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16
Q

What are the three steps of transcription?

A

Initiation, Elongation, Termination

These steps occur in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells.

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17
Q

What modifications occur to mRNA before it leaves the nucleus?

A
  • 5’ capping
  • 3’ tailing
  • Removal of introns

These modifications protect mRNA and facilitate its export.

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18
Q

What is the role of tRNA in translation?

A

Carries specific amino acid and has an anticodon loop

The anticodon is complementary to the mRNA codon.

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19
Q

What are the three ribosome bonding sites?

A
  • A (acceptor) site
  • P (peptide) site
  • E (exit) site

Each site has a specific function in the translation process.

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20
Q

What happens when a stop codon enters the A site of the ribosome?

A

Translation terminates and polypeptide chain is released

Stop codons do not have complementary tRNAs and therefore don’t code for any amino acids

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21
Q

What is gene regulation?

A

Controls when and how genes are expressed

This is important for cellular efficiency and resource management.

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22
Q

What are housekeeping genes?

A

Genes that are constantly expressed

They are essential for basic cellular function.

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23
Q

What are the four levels of gene regulation?

A
  • Transcriptional
  • Post-transcriptional
  • Translational
  • Post-translational

Each level affects gene expression in different ways.

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24
Q

What is an operon?

A

Cluster of co-regulated genes in prokaryotes

Operons allow bacteria to regulate gene expression efficiently.

25
Q

What is the function of the Lac operon?

A

Codes for proteins involved in lactose metabolism

It is an inducible operon that is turned on when lactose is present.

26
Q

What is a point mutation?

A

Mistake affecting few nucleotides in a gene

It can lead to various outcomes, including silent, missense, or nonsense mutations.

27
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

Caused by insertion or deletion, misreads the sequence

It alters the reading frame of the genetic code.

28
Q

What are mutagens?

A

Substances that can change DNA

They can lead to mutations and can be natural or synthetic.

29
Q

What are restriction endonucleases?

A

Enzymes that cut double stranded DNA at specific sequences

They are used in genetic engineering and molecular cloning.

30
Q

What is the difference between sticky ends and blunt ends in DNA fragments?

A
  • Sticky ends: have hanging pieces of DNA
  • Blunt ends: straight vertical cut

Sticky ends are more useful for ligation in recombinant DNA technology.

31
Q

What is the sequence recognized by EcoRI?

A

GAATTC

EcoRI creates sticky ends by disrupting the bond between G and A on both strands.

32
Q

What is the sequence recognized by SmaI?

A

CCCGGG

SmaI creates blunt ends.

33
Q

What is the sequence recognized by HindIII?

A

AAGCTT

HindIII creates sticky ends.

34
Q

What is the main difference between sticky ends and blunt ends?

A

Sticky ends have hanging pieces of DNA; blunt ends have a straight vertical cut.

35
Q

What is recombinant DNA technology?

A

Combining genes of different organisms together to produce vaccines, hormones, or GMOs.

36
Q

What type of DNA is commonly used in recombinant DNA technology?

A

Plasmid DNA

Plasmids are small and separate from the bacterial chromosome.

37
Q

What are plasmids?

A

DNA molecules that can replicate independently of the bacterial chromosome.

38
Q

What is a vector in genetic engineering?

A

A DNA molecule used as a vehicle to carry a particular DNA segment into a host cell.

39
Q

What happens when human genes are inserted into plasmids?

A

They produce human proteins that can be purified and used for medical treatments.

40
Q

What is the first step in DNA cloning (production of proteins)

A

Cutting of plasmid and gene, and insertion of gene

41
Q

What enzyme is used to cut plasmids and genes in DNA cloning?

A

Restriction enzyme.

42
Q

What is the purpose of ligase in DNA cloning?

A

To join the fragments of DNA together.

43
Q

What is transformation in the context of DNA cloning?

A

Inserting plasmid back into bacteria.

44
Q

How is antibiotic selection used in DNA cloning?

A

To identify bacteria that have taken up the plasmid with antibiotic resistance.

45
Q

What is the role of T4 DNA ligase?

A

It can join sticky and blunt ends and is heat resistant.

46
Q

What is PCR?

A

Polymerase chain reaction, a method to make millions of copies of a particular DNA sequence.

47
Q

What are the three main steps of PCR?

A
  • Denaturation
  • Annealing
  • Extension
48
Q

At what temperature does denaturation occur in PCR?

49
Q

At what temperature does annealing occur in PCR?

50
Q

At what temperature does extension occur in PCR?

51
Q

What polymerase is used in PCR and why?

A

Taq polymerase because it is heat resistant.

52
Q

What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?

A

To separate DNA fragments based on size.

53
Q

How do DNA fragments move in gel electrophoresis?

A

With an electric current, moving towards the positive electrode.

54
Q

What happens to shorter DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis?

A

They move farther because they encounter less resistance.

55
Q

What is a DNA ladder?

A

A scale containing fragments of known sizes used to compare DNA fragment distances.

56
Q

What is the function of the running buffer in gel electrophoresis?

A

To help conduct electricity.

57
Q

What is the purpose of staining DNA in gel electrophoresis?

A

To make DNA fragments visible as dark bands.

58
Q

What is the main component used to make gel in gel electrophoresis?