Untitled Deck Flashcards

1
Q

What is a contract?

A

A legally binding agreement between two or more parties.

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2
Q

What is a bilateral contract?

A

Both parties take on an obligation.

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3
Q

What is a unilateral contract?

A

One party assumes an obligation, can be made to the whole world.

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4
Q

What is the difference between an offer and an ITT?

A

Offer is part of the negotiations; ITT is merely an indication of a willingness to start negotiations.

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5
Q

What can form a contract when accepted?

A

An offer can form a contract when accepted; an ITT cannot.

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6
Q

What are examples of ITT?

A

1) Ad in a newspaper (Partridge)
2) Shop window (Fisher v Bell)
3) Self-service shop (Pharmaceutical society of GB)
4) Auctions (Harris)
5) Requests for information.

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7
Q

What are examples of an offer?

A

1) Vending machine - makes the offer
2) Giving of information (Harvey v Facey).

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8
Q

What are ways to end an offer?

A

1) Lapse of time
2) Revocation
3) Rejection
4) Counter-offer
5) Death of offeror
6) Death of offeree.

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9
Q

What is required for acceptance?

A

Acceptance has to be positive and unqualified.

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10
Q

What constitutes a counter-offer?

A

If the offeree attempts to vary the terms, this is then a counter-offer (Hyde v Wrench).

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11
Q

What is a request for information?

A

Not a counter-offer, does not terminate the offer and it is still open to acceptance (Stevenson v Mclean).

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12
Q

What are the forms of acceptance?

A

1) Words: can be said or written
2) Conduct: general silence or inaction is not acceptance, a positive act is needed.

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13
Q

What is the significance of specified methods of acceptance?

A

Only acceptance by specified methods will be binding (Tin v Hoffman).

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14
Q

What are the methods of communication of acceptance?

A

1) Conduct
2) Postal rule
3) Electronic.

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15
Q

What is executed consideration?

A

Completed consideration.

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16
Q

What is executory consideration?

A

Consideration which has not yet been completed.

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17
Q

What must consideration be?

A

Need not be adequate but it must be sufficient; must be real, tangible and have some actual value (Chappell).

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18
Q

Is past consideration valid?

A

Past consideration is not good consideration.

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19
Q

Who must provide consideration?

A

Must move from the promisee; a person cannot sue or be sued under a contract unless they have provided consideration for it.

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20
Q

What is performing an existing duty?

A

Merely doing something you are already bound to do is insufficient consideration for a new contract.

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21
Q

What is privity of contract?

A

A person not party to a contract cannot sue or be sued under it.

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22
Q

What is the intention to create legal relations?

A

Parties must intend the agreement to be legally binding.

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23
Q

What is presumed in commercial agreements regarding ITCLR?

A

ITCLR is presumed to exist (McGowan).

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24
Q

What is presumed in social agreements regarding ITCLR?

A

ITCLR is presumed not to exist.

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25
Q

What is a condition in a contract?

A

A major term that goes to the root of the contract; a breach has serious consequences.

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26
Q

What are warranties in a contract?

A

Minor terms within a contract.

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27
Q

What are innominate terms?

A

Looks to the effect of the breach and whether the party was deprived of the whole benefit of the contract.

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28
Q

What does discharge of contract deal with?

A

Deals with the end of the contract.

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29
Q

What is complete performance?

A

Must be ‘complete and exact.’

30
Q

What is a frustrating event?

A

Before the contract can be completed, an event occurs which makes completion impossible (Paradine).

31
Q

What is the doctrine of frustration?

A

If it is impossible for the contract to be completed as the subject matter has been destroyed (Taylor); radical change in circumstances (Krell v Henry).

32
Q

When may frustration not apply?

A

1) Self-induced (Maritime)
2) Contract becomes less profitable/difficult to perform (Davis)
3) ‘Event’ was a foreseeable risk.

33
Q

What are fixed damages?

A

Parties may fix the sum needed to be paid if there is a breach into the contract (Cavendish).

34
Q

What are equitable damages?

A

Awarded where damages would be inadequate.

35
Q

What does s9 imply?

A

Implies a term in every contract that goods will be of satisfactory quality.

36
Q

What does s9(2) state?

A

What a reasonable person would consider satisfactory given the price, description etc.

37
Q

What does s9(3) cover?

A

Fitness for all common purposes.

38
Q

What are the exceptions to s9(4)?

A

Does not apply if:
1) Defect drawn to consumers attention
2) Consumer makes an examination before purchasing
3) Defect would have been revealed by a reasonable examination.

39
Q

What does s10 state?

A

If a consumer makes it known to a trader a particular purpose, the goods must be fit for that purpose (Baldry).

40
Q

What does s11 cover?

A

Goods as described; match description (Beale).

41
Q

What does s20 provide?

A

Short term right to reject.

42
Q

What does s23 provide?

A

Right to a repair/replacement.

43
Q

What does s24 provide?

A

Right to a price reduction or a final right to reject.

44
Q

What are exclusion clauses?

A

Term that limits liability for a breach of contract.

45
Q

What are the controls on exclusion clauses?

A

1) Rules relating to the incorporation of the clause
2) Construction of the clause
3) Unfair contract terms act 1977
4) Consumer Relations Act 2015.

46
Q

What are vitiating factors?

A

Defects in a contract, may operate to invalidate an otherwise validly formed contract.

47
Q

What is a void contract?

A

As if the contract never existed.

48
Q

What is a voidable contract?

A

A party can continue with the contract if it is to their benefit.

49
Q

What is misrepresentation?

A

A false/untrue statement made by one party which induces the other to enter into the contract.

50
Q

What constitutes a false/untrue statement?

A

Anything that influences another party’s decision (Spice Girls); must be a statement, not silence (Fletcher).

51
Q

What is a statement of material fact?

A

Statement of fact, not opinion (Bissett).

52
Q

Who must make the misrepresentation?

A

Made by a party to the contract; no misrepresentation where the statement is made by a 3rd party.

53
Q

What must the statement do in misrepresentation?

A

Must be a statement that induces the other party.

54
Q

What is fraudulent misrepresentation?

A

Intentionally lied or is reckless as to its truth; made a statement they know to be untrue (Derry).

55
Q

What is innocent misrepresentation?

A

Person believed the statement was the truth.

56
Q

What is negligent misrepresentation?

A

Careless as to the truth of the statement.

57
Q

What is economic duress?

A

Entering a contract as a result of financial threats; a contract made where one party is forced into it should not be valid.

58
Q

What does s49 imply?

A

Implies a term that a trader will perform a service with reasonable care and skill.

59
Q

What does s52 state?

A

A trader will perform the service within a reasonable time.

60
Q

What does s55 provide?

A

Right to a repeat performance.

61
Q

What does s56 provide?

A

Right to a price reduction.

62
Q

What is an actual breach?

A

1) Poor performance
2) Work done badly or goods that are substandard
3) Non-performance.

63
Q

What is a breach of condition?

A

When a condition is breached, V may terminate the contract if they wish (Poussard).

64
Q

What is a breach of warranty?

A

V may sue only for damages and the contract continues (Bettini).

65
Q

What is anticipatory breach?

A

Occurs when a party gives notice in advance that they will not be performing the contract; C can either sue immediately or wait until the time for performance (Hochester).

66
Q

What are the remedies for breach?

A

1) Repudiation
2) Damages.

67
Q

Who is a trader?

A

‘A person acting for purposes relating to the persons trade.’

68
Q

Who is a consumer?

A

‘An individual acting for purposes outside the individuals trade’; a company cannot be a consumer as they are not an individual.

69
Q

What is the purpose of damages?

A

Compensate the claimant for damages suffered as a result of the breach; damages put the claimant back in their position pre-contract.

70
Q

What is the Hadley test for damages?

A

1) Objective test according to what loss is a natural consequence of the breach
2) Subjective; specific knowledge of potential losses in the minds of both parties.