Untitled Deck Flashcards
(295 cards)
1
Q
QUESTIONS
A
ANSWER
2
Q
What does the OXYGEN light on the CWP indicate?
A
That O2 system pressure is below 800 psi (+/- 35).
3
Q
The O2 gauge in the cockpit indicates ____________?
A
Fixed bottle pressure.
4
Q
How is O2 made available to the passengers?
A
The O2 pull knob must be ON (or pulled UP); lift the pax O2 valve on the F/O’s aft side panel.
5
Q
What is the normal charging pressure in the O2 bottle?
A
1850 psi.
6
Q
At what speed can the crew hatch be opened?
A
160 knots max.
7
Q
A reason to open the crew hatch inflight is ______?
A
Smoke removal.
8
Q
Which doors are connected to the warning system?
A
Crew hatch, Main cabin & Cargo door.
9
Q
What doors can be opened from the inside as well as the outside?
A
All of them.
10
Q
What supplies the pneumatic system?
A
HIGH or LOW pressure bleed air, alternately.
11
Q
Pneumatic air operates which systems?
A
Pressurization, air conditioning & boot de-ice.
12
Q
LP bleed air is the normal source for pneumatics. True or False?
A
True.
13
Q
When is the only time HP bleed air is automatically supplied?
A
When LP bleed air is insufficient. (Ng is <80%).
14
Q
What 5 things cause the HP bleed valve to close?
A
Bleed air from precooler is too hot (>288°C), HP switch selected OFF, Loss of Elec power, Ng is >80%, Fire handle is pulled.
15
Q
How do you open the HP valve after it closes for an over temp when the duct cools?
A
HP valve to RESET, then AUTO.
16
Q
What does the amber L/R HP HIGH light on the overhead panel mean?
A
The HP valve failed to close after being given a signal to close.
17
Q
The overhead HP HIGH light illuminates with what other light?
A
AIR COND light on the CWP.
18
Q
LP & HP bleed valves are electrically actuated. True or False?
A
False. They are pneumatically operated.
19
Q
Bleed valve switch on the A/C panel placed in AUTO means _________?
A
Valve automatically regulates air into the manifold as a function of altitude.
20
Q
What 6 things cause the LP bleed valve to close?
A
The pressure is too high (>43.5 psi), Bleed air temperature is too hot (>288°C), ACM discharge is too hot (>255°C), Fire handle is pulled, Bleed switch selected OFF.
21
Q
What indicates that the bleed valve failed to close after a signal was given?
A
The BLD FAULT light and the AIR COND light on the CWP illuminate.
22
Q
What indicates a bleed closed?
A
Overhead BLD CLOSED light plus AIR COND on CWP.
23
Q
BLD FAULT light may indicate: ________, ________, & _______.
A
The valve failed to close, Bleed pressure was too high (illuminates, then goes out when bleed valve closes), Bleed air temperature was too hot (illuminates and remains on, bleed valve closes).
24
Q
When does the BLD FAULT light extinguish?
A
When the temperature is below limits.
25
The main function of the precooler?
The precooler (RAM air heat exchanger) lowers the HP bleed air temperature. A separate flow through the precooler accomplishes LP bleed air cooling for use by pneumatic deice systems.
26
If ELEC power to the LP BLD valve fails, it fails to the __________ position.
Open. (HP valve fails closed).
27
How is it possible to interconnect the two bleed systems?
Via the cross valve (X VALVE) in the manifold.
28
The X VALVE may be opened inflight. True or False?
False. It is only for ground operations.
29
What is required to open the X VALVE?
Set these switch positions: X VALVE switch to OPEN, One bleed valve must be closed.
30
What indicates a hot bleed air leak?
Overhead BLD LEAK light illuminates, plus the amber AIR COND light on CWP.
31
Where is the hot air bleed air leak detection loop installed?
Between the engine nacelles and the X VALVE.
32
The overhead L/R DUCT OV TEMP light means?
The ACM compressor outlet is too hot (>225°C) or the duct temp is too hot (>82°C).
33
What 4 things cause the AIR COND light on the CWP to illuminate?
Bleed air temperature too hot, Bleed air leak, Bleed valve closed, LP/HP valve not closed after given a signal to close.
34
Will a bleed air leak close the LP bleed valve?
No. (Bleeds should be closed. If BLD AIR LEAK light fails to go out, an engine shutdown may be necessary).
35
The RECIRC FAN light indicates?
The fan is operating at <80%.
36
When will the RECIRC FAN light extinguish?
Once the fan speed increases over 80%.
37
What cools the RECIRC FAN?
BLD AIR.
38
When can the RECIRC FANs operate without BLD AIR?
During takeoff, up to acceleration altitude. (If the fan is left running without BLD AIR more than 10 min depending on OAT, a thermal switch will shut off the fan until the temp decreases and switch resets).
39
What is indicated by the AVIONICS VENT FAN light?
The vent fan has failed.
40
What does the CABIN PRESS light on the CWP mean?
Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft or differential pressure exceeds 7.5 psi.
41
The avionics vent fan draws air from the _______?
Cabin.
42
The FAULT light on the center console cabin pressure control panel indicates?
A system failure OR illuminates for 3 seconds during system self-test.
43
The AIR COND light on the CWP illuminates with any caution light except?
L/R RECIRC FAN.
44
What does the AUTO PILOT & FLIGHT DIRECTOR AUTO TRIM light on the CWP indicate?
The autopilot detects a failure in the elevator or rudder trim systems.
45
Will the autopilot operate if the Flight Director fails?
No.
46
Will the autopilot operate if the Flight Director is turned off?
Yes.
47
What is displayed during a GO-Around?
A pitch command of 6.4 degrees on the EADI.
48
When is half-bank inhibited?
In approach mode after APPR LOC/VOR capture.
49
What does 1/2 bank mode limit the bank angle to?
Reduces bank from 27 to 13.5 degrees in HDG & NAV mode.
50
Which modes on the MSP should not be selected in icing conditions?
VS & Climb. Only IAS should be used when climbing in icing conditions.
51
What actions turn the autopilot off?
A/P disconnect on the yoke, A/P switch on the center console, Operating pitch trim switches, Go Around buttons on the power lever.
52
What actions turn the yaw damper off?
A/P disconnect on the yoke, A/P disconnect on the center console, Go Around buttons on the power levers.
53
What does a flashing red box with the letters FD on the EFIS mean?
A failure of the flight director. (V bars also disappear).
54
What are the autopilot limitations?
Autopilot is not authorized: During takeoff below 500 ft or Acceleration Altitude, Speeds below 1.3 stall in HDG mode, In severe icing conditions, Altitude less than 50 ft below MDA on non-precision approaches, Altitude less than 50 ft below DH on an uncoupled ILS, Altitude less than 50 ft AGL on coupled ILS in VFR or better weather, Altitude less than 69 ft AGL on coupled ILS when weather is less than VFR.
55
What will automatically disengage the autopilot?
Stall warning, computer failure, or AP/YD failure detected.
56
What are the 4 separate parts of the electrical system?
Two 28v DC engine-driven generators, 115/26v AC inverter, Emergency DC power (lead-acid battery), Two AC wild frequency 115v engine-driven generators.
57
The AC wild 115v generators are used for ______?
Powering ice protection systems.
58
What drives each respective AC wild generator?
They are driven by the prop gearbox.
59
How are the DC generators cooled?
Via a fan on the ground and ram air when airborne.
60
What does an overhead GEN OV TEMP light mean?
The associated generator has overheated (150°C).
61
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R MAIN BUS light?
The associated MAIN BUS is not powered.
62
What AC power is lost when the L MAIN BUS is not powered?
Loss of the #1 or main 115/26v inverter (Right bus powers #2 inverter).
63
When does the L/R MAIN BUS light illuminate?
During engine start when the L/R GEN buses are not powered (ESS & MAINS load shed), When MAIN BUS relay has tripped due to a tripped generator.
64
What is indicated by the L/R GEN light?
The generator relay is open. The generator is disconnected from the GEN BUS and is offline.
65
The two starter generators are rated at ____ volts each.
28v DC.
66
How many alternators are on each engine?
One. Provides engine electrical power only (ESS).
67
How many generators are on each engine?
Two. A starter/generator and an AC wild generator.
68
What are the functions of the GCU (Generator Control Unit)?
Excites the field, Regulates voltage for control and protection of the DC system against faults, Controls the engine start cycle.
69
How does the GCU control & protect the DC system?
If generator parameters are not correct OR if the fire handle is pulled, the GCU cuts out the generator by opening the relay, which disconnects the generator from the associated GEN BUS.
70
The starter generators are rated at ___ amps each.
400 amps.
71
What are the starter generator amp limits?
600 amps for 5 minutes, then 400 amps.
72
How is the GEN field relay reset?
The respective switch is set to RESET.
73
To connect a generator to the GEN BUS, Ng must be above ____?
55% Ng (Starter cutout).
74
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R ESS BUS light?
The associated bus is not powered.
75
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R BAT light?
The associated battery relay is open.
76
What is indicated by the illumination of the L/R BAT lights?
The associated battery relays are open (Battery disconnected).
77
What is indicated by the illumination of the BAT HOT light?
The associated battery temperature is excessive (>71°C).
78
Is takeoff prohibited with the BAT HOT light on?
True. Takeoff is prohibited when the battery temperature is 67°C or higher.
79
Is takeoff prohibited when the BAT temperature exceeds 64°C?
True.
80
What is indicated by the NO BAT START light?
L or R battery temperature exceeds 57°C.
81
Is takeoff prohibited with a NO BAT START light on?
False, unless the battery temperature exceeds 64°C.
82
Does a battery temperature greater than 71°C automatically disconnect the battery?
Yes.
83
To read external power, the EXT PWR switch must be ON. True or False?
False. Voltage should be checked via the voltmeter before it is applied to the aircraft.
84
What does the blue EXT PWR AVAIL light indicate?
External power is available (at least 7v for the light to illuminate).
85
What does the white EXT PWR ON light indicate?
External power is ON, and the left battery bus is powered. (When EXT PWR is applied, it is the only source of power to the aircraft).
86
What does the EMER PWR light on the DC electrical panel indicate?
The EMERG PWR bus is unpowered OR the lead acid BAT emergency power is below 24v.
87
Can the 71°C (BAT HOT) thermal switch be overridden?
Yes. In an emergency, the BAT switch can be placed to OVRD, which assures power to the GEN bus.
88
What does the INVERTER light on the overhead AC panel indicate?
The selected inverter has failed OR the switch is in the OFF position.
89
What does the L/R AC GEN light on the overhead AC electrical panel indicate?
The associated AC generator has failed or dropped offline.
90
Will the CWP ELEC light come on with an L/R AC GEN light?
No. The CWP ICE PROT light will illuminate instead.
91
How many 24v batteries are on the Saab 340?
Three: One lead acid and two NiCad.
92
Does the BAT automatically disconnect with a BAT HOT light?
Yes.
93
What does the illumination of the green BUS TIE light mean?
The relay joining the left and right GEN buses is closed.
94
What are the three reasons the BUS TIE closes?
To connect the two main batteries, To supply the L/R GEN BUS when EXT PWR is ON, To supply 28v power to both L & R GEN BUS from only one generator during single engine operations.
95
What is the purpose of the BUS TIE over-current relay protection?
It protects the main distribution system in case of a short in the system.
96
The BUS TIE relay opens if the over-current exceeds _______?
800 amps.
97
Is there any time the 800 amp over-current relay can be exceeded?
Yes, during engine start.
98
Generators automatically disconnect when EXT PWR is applied. True or False?
True.
99
What five things can be powered by the EMERG BAT?
Master warning system, BUS TIE relay CONN function, Fire detection, Tailpipe hot detection, EMERG voltage indication.
100
During preflight, can all exterior lights be checked using BAT power? True or False?
False. Only the L fwd nav, R rear nav, and beacon function on BAT power.
101
What is required to close the Utility Bus relay?
At least two generators online OR external power.
102
Is EXT PWR connected to the R GEN bus via the BUS TIE relay?
Yes.
103
How is the battery compartment ventilated?
Via a fan on the ground and RAM air in flight.
104
Will external power de-energize the BAT relays?
Yes, unless the BAT switches are in OVRD (a maintenance-only function to charge them).
105
When a GEN relay closes, which bus is powered?
The associated GEN bus.
106
What are the three conditions for a GEN relay to close?
EXT PWR relay open, Engine start complete, GEN field reset.
107
Below what voltage does EXT PWR drop offline and the switch spring loads to OFF?
Approximately 10 volts.
108
What is the lowest EXT PWR voltage during engine start?
Approximately 7 volts.
109
During engine start, if EXT PWR drops offline, will the start continue?
Yes, it will continue on batteries.
110
The L BAT is connected to which bus?
The START BUS.
111
What bus charges the batteries?
Its respective GEN BUS with at least one generator online.
112
The R BAT is connected to which bus?
The R GEN BUS.
113
When does the EMERG BAT begin to power the EMERG BUS?
When the L BAT BUS drops below 24 volts.
114
What powers the EMERG Avionics Bus?
The EMERG BUS (powered via the L BAT BUS when the ESS AVION switch is ON, otherwise powered via the lead acid battery).
115
What items are powered by the EMER AVIONICS BUS?
VHF / COM 1 and standby horizon.
116
What is the minimum prop RPM to keep the AC Wild generator online?
About 1,000 RPM.
117
Why might you see an AC GEN light on during taxi out?
Prop RPM dips below 1,000 RPM.
118
Why is it called a "Wild" frequency AC system?
The frequency varies from 460 - 640 Hz due to prop RPM variations.
119
How do you reset an AC generator if prop RPM drops below 1,000 and the generator drops offline?
Resets are automatic when RPM increases to 1,000.
120
What six items are powered by the AC Wild GEN buses?
Pitot tubes, AOA sensors, OAT probe, Prop De-Ice, Windshield heat, Galley hot jugs.
121
Is the ENG intake anti-ice powered by the AC Wild GEN bus?
No. It gets its power directly off its respective AC Wild GEN.
122
What three conditions must be met for a battery relay to close?
BAT switches ON, EXT PWR OFF, BAT temperature below 71°C.
123
What indicates a malfunctioning generator?
Fluctuation, blinking, or complete loss of more than one EFIS display, WEU status light illumination, Low voltage can cause a loud squeal from the audio system REU.
124
When a GEN OV TEMP light comes on, does the generator automatically disconnect?
No. The affected generator must be manually taken offline (look for BUS TIE relay closure).
125
What does AVIONIC SMOKE on the CWP indicate?
Smoke has been detected in the Avionics Bay.
126
How long will the Avionic (or Cargo or Lav) smoke light stay on?
As long as the smoke condition exists.
127
How long will the L/R ENG FIRE light remain illuminated?
As long as the fire exists.
128
What does the L/R FIRE DET FAIL light on the CWP indicate?
A short circuit is detected in the fire loop on the related engine. The light will remain illuminated as long as the condition exists.
129
What actions are required to discharge either engine fire bottle?
Pull the fire handle and press the fire extinguisher switch to ON.
130
What does the overhead white CARGO EXTG light indicate?
Low pressure is detected in the respective bottle.
131
What kind of fire protection is available for the avionics rack?
A halon fire extinguisher in the cockpit (discharged into the avionics rack port behind the captain).
132
What kind of fire protection is available in the lavatory?
An automatically discharged halon fire extinguisher in the trash bin, discharged via a heat-sensitive blowout plug.
133
What is the minimum time between firing CARGO FIRE EXTG #1 and #2?
2 minutes (to prevent excessive pressure buildup within the compartment and risk blowout panel rupture, leaking halon into the cabin).
134
What is the normal wait time before firing CARGO FIRE EXTG #2?
25 minutes. Discharge of the second bottle within 25 minutes of the first increases fire suppression time to 60 minutes, compared to 40 minutes from bottle #1 alone.
135
When a cargo fire extinguisher is activated, will the CARGO EXTG light come on right away?
No, if the bottle is functioning normally. It can take 15 minutes for the white EXTG light to illuminate.
136
What happens when the fire handle is pulled?
Fuel valve closes, GEN relay opens, Bleeds close, Arms the squibs, Resets the WEU, Cancels the fire bell.
137
Can the right engine fire bottle be discharged into the left engine nacelle?
Yes, the bottles are connected via a manifold to allow selective discharge to either engine.
138
How many fuel pumps are on the Saab 340 and how are they powered?
Four: two engine-driven main pumps and two electrically-driven standby pumps.
139
What controls the electrical standby pumps?
Overhead switches and automatic switches in the Condition Levers (CLs).
140
How many ways can fuel quantity be checked?
Three: Cockpit fuel gauges, Refuel panel gauges, Wing tank dripsticks.
141
Which electrical bus powers the refueling panel?
The Hot Battery Bus.
142
What does the illumination of the L/R STBY PRESS light indicate?
The pump senses positive pressure in the fuel line (directly or via crossfeed).
143
What does the illumination of the L/R MAIN PRESS light indicate?
The associated main pump pressure differential is low (<6 psid).
144
What happens if a main pump fails or has low pressure?
The associated standby pump is actuated (providing the switch is in the normal AUTO position).
145
What supplies fuel to the engine during start?
The standby pump.
146
During engine shutdown, when the main pump pressure drops, does a CL actuated switch inhibit the standby pump auto-starting feature?
True.
147
What does the blue fueling light indicate?
The fueling/defueling panel is powered or the fueling/defueling valve is open.
148
Are the fuel gauges calibrated to show actual fuel remaining?
False. They show usable fuel remaining.
149
What does the L/R FUEL FILTER light indicate?
Fuel filter blockage, bypass impending.
150
Does "X FEED ON" indicate switch position or valve position?
Valve position.
151
Does "CONN VLV OPEN" indicate switch position or valve position?
Valve position.
152
How do you test a standby fuel pump?
By moving a Condition Lever (CL) to the start position (the associated green light should illuminate).
153
What does the L/R VALVE CLOSED light indicate?
The associated fuel valve is closed.
154
How many ways can you close a fuel shutoff valve?
One. Shutoff valves in the wing prior to the engine nacelle are powered by their respective BAT bus when the fire handle is pulled.
155
What does the L/R LOW LEVEL light on the fuel panel indicate?
The associated tank is below 300 lbs (±70 lbs).
156
What lights on the overhead fuel panel do not cause an amber FUEL light on the CWP?
FEED ON, CONN VLV OPEN, and L/R STBY PRESS.
157
What is the usable fuel quantity?
5,690 lbs.
158
Where are the standby fuel pumps located?
Inside each respective wing tank hopper.
159
Does the fuel vent also serve as an overflow?
True.
160
Can one standby pump supply enough fuel to operate both engines?
Yes.
161
How is fuel transferred between wings?
By gravity via the interconnect line.
162
Does the green STBY PRESS light indicate that the respective pump is on?
No, it only indicates that positive pressure is sensed at the pump inlet.
163
What causes the CWP HYDR light to illuminate?
The main reservoir is too hot (>116°C) or main/emergency accumulator pressure is low (<1,850 psi).
164
Why might the hydraulic fluid get too hot and trigger the CWP HYDR light?
Continuous pump operation.
165
What aircraft systems use hydraulic power?
Landing gear, Flaps, Brakes, Nose Wheel Steering.
166
Is the HYDR pump electrically driven?
True. It is powered by the L Main Bus in AUTO mode and by the L BAT Bus in OVRD mode (on later modified aircraft).
167
What systems can be operated with the emergency HYD hand pump?
Flaps, Landing gear, Brakes.
168
What triggers activation of the main HYD pump?
Landing gear operation or main accumulator pressure drops below 2,100 psi (with the pump switch in normal AUTO mode).
169
How many HYD accumulators are there?
Four (Main, EMERG, inboard brakes, outboard brakes).
170
What pressure is displayed on the accumulators in the nose wheel well?
The sum of the nitrogen precharge pressure plus pressure developed by the hydraulic pump (if any).
171
Which HYD accumulators have check valves?
The emergency, inboard brake, and outboard brake accumulators (all except the main accumulator, which supplies gear, flaps, brakes, and steering).
172
How does emergency landing gear extension use hydraulics?
Hydraulic pressure disengages the uplocks, allowing the gear to free fall into position.
173
What bus supplies power to the HYD pump in AUTO mode?
The L Main Bus.
174
Is there a circuit breaker for the HYD pump?
No, it is protected by a 200-amp fuse in the L Power Distribution Unit.
175
What pressurizes the main HYD reservoir?
An internal spring, backed up by emergency uplock accumulator pressure (to 35 psi in the reservoir).
176
The HYDR light on the CWP indicates low fluid quantity. True or False?
False. (It indicates only low main or emergency accumulator pressure or high temperature.)
177
Can the main hydraulic accumulator be pressurized by the hand pump?
Yes.
178
Can the emergency hydraulic accumulator be pressurized by the hand pump?
No.
179
Can the flaps be extended and retracted by the hand pump?
Yes.
180
Hydraulics are pressurized up to _____ psi on OVRD.
3,000 psi.
181
What systems are supplied with hydraulic pressure from the emergency accumulator?
Landing gear uplock release and main reservoir pressure to assist the spring.
182
Fluid pumped with the hand pump returns to the main reservoir. True or False?
True.
183
What ice protection systems use bleed air?
Boot de-ice, Engine splitter lip, Inlet guide vanes.
184
What is powered automatically when the first AC GEN comes online?
L/R pitot heat, L/R alpha vane (AOA), OAT probe.
185
What does the DE ICE OV TEMP light on the overhead ice protection panel indicate?
Bleed air to the boots is too hot (>150°C).
186
What does the TIMER light on the overhead ice protection panel indicate?
A pressure problem or a timer malfunction.
187
How do you test if the TIMER light results from a timer malfunction?
The TIMER light will extinguish if the W OUTBD button is pushed and will illuminate again when released.
188
What is the order of boot inflation when one cycle is selected?
Stabilizer, outboard wing, inboard wing, stabilizer.
189
How is boot inflation monitored?
Via the green indicator lights on the overhead ice protection panel (when the BOOT IND switch is on).
190
In CONT mode, how often do inflation boot cycles repeat?
Every third minute.
191
Will the boots inflate if LP and HP bleed valves are closed?
Yes, regulated, temperature-controlled air is sent directly to the boot distribution duct via a valve in each engine nacelle.
192
What does the L/R AIR VALVE light indicate?
The associated air valve is not properly positioned according to the switch selection.
193
What ice protection systems have a light on the flight status panel?
Engine Anti-Ice and Prop De-Ice.
194
What does the illumination of the L/R AC GEN light indicate?
The associated AC generator has dropped offline.
195
Can the right AC generator power the left intake heat?
False. Intake heat is the only thing that cannot be powered by the opposite side AC GEN.
196
The blue PROP DE-ICE light on the flight status panel will go out in case of a system failure. True or False?
True.
197
What is the time cycle for the props in NORM?
ON for 11 seconds, OFF for 79 seconds.
198
What is the time cycle for the props in MAX?
ON for 90 seconds, then OFF for 90 seconds.
199
The blue L/R ENG ANTI-ICE light on the flight status panel will go out in case of a system failure. True or False?
False. (It is indicative of switch position.)
200
What is the only item on the ice protection panel that is not powered by the AC wild system?
The standby pitot heat (24V).
201
How long must the standby pitot heat be on to reach full operating temperature?
5 minutes.
202
How long must the window heat be on to reach full operating temperature?
6 minutes.
203
How many phases of the 115v AC wild GEN output are required to power the pitot, alpha vane, and OAT?
One.
204
How many phases of the 115v AC wild GEN output are required to power the windshield heat?
Two.
205
How many phases of the 115v AC wild GEN output are required to power the prop heat?
All three phases.
206
What does the illumination of the L/R INTAKE light indicate?
A failure has occurred in the engine duct heating system. An intermittent INTAKE light may indicate operation in under-heat or over-heat conditions.
207
Emergency gear extension is by free fall or use of the hand pump. True or False?
True.
208
What does the anti-skid system need to function?
The anti-skid switch ON, landing gear handle down, and either power levers below flight idle or wheel speed in excess of 50 knots.
209
What is the touchdown brake protection feature?
It prevents brake application until 3 seconds after main gear compression or when wheel speed exceeds 50 knots.
210
At approximately what speed does the anti-skid system cut out?
20 knots.
211
What does the A-SKID INOP light on the CWP indicate?
A system fault or gear is down with the anti-skid switch OFF.
212
Which CWP light comes on if the gear is not down below 500 ft RA?
CONFIG.
213
What does the PARK BRK ON light on the CWP indicate?
The brake handle is pulled with pressure >1,700 psi.
214
Is it possible to set the brake without the CWP light coming on?
Yes. The brake will set with 1,500 psi, but the light will not illuminate until pressure reaches 1,700 psi.
215
Where is the anti-skid switch located?
On the hydraulic panel, center console.
216
Emergency gear extension and nose wheel steering are powered by what bus?
L & R BAT bus.
217
Nose wheel steering is ______ actuated and ______ operated.
Electrically actuated, hydraulically operated.
218
Which CWP light comes on with > flaps 15° and gear not down?
CONFIG.
219
What happens when you pull the EMERG LDG GEAR handle?
Hydraulic pressure from the emergency accumulator releases the uplocks, A path for hydraulic fluid is opened for the fluid to drain to the reservoir, Explosive bolts detonate and separate the main gear doors from the gear, which extends and locks via gravity, slipstream force, and springs.
220
What is powered by the EES (Engine Electrical System)?
DECU, Ignition exciters, Ng indication.
221
What is powered by the DECU (Digital Electronic Control Unit)?
Torque indication, ITT indication, Np indication, CTOT & APR functions, Bottom governing, Auto-ignition, 1572 PRPM overspeed drain valve.
222
Where does the EES get its power?
From the engine-driven alternator on the prop gearbox.
223
What are the three ways to feather the propellers?
Condition levers, Autocoarsen, Manual feather.
224
What are the four levels of prop overspeed protection?
Constant speed governor (set by oil pressure), Overspeed governor (dumps oil to lower RPMs), 1572 RPM overspeed (temporary DECU-controlled flameout, with auto relight), 110% Ng overspeed (HMU cuts off fuel, with no auto relight).
225
What are the indications of a failed DECU?
Zero torque, zero Np, and raw data ITT reading.
226
What other systems must be functioning for the APR function to operate?
Autocoarsen and CTOT.
227
What are the four functions of the HMU (Hydromechanical Unit)?
Metered fuel for base governing, Unmetered fuel for engine anti-ice/start bleed valve operation, 110% Ng overspeed protection fuel cutoff, Fuel cutoff via the condition levers.
228
When are you in bottom governing range?
When Condition Levers are at MIN, Power Levers are below flight idle (830-1040 RPM).
229
What is the constant speed governor range?
1150-1396 PRPM.
230
Why can't the prop be moved to unfeather when the prop oil is below 25°C?
Because the bottom governor won't engage unless the seal in the HMU has been warmed. Prop oil heats the fuel, which warms the seal on the torque motor servo piston, allowing it to expand. During this time, the bottom governor will not engage.
231
What happens if you lose the oil pressure in the prop control unit?
You get a fixed pitch prop.
232
What happens if you lose oil pressure in the prop control unit?
You get a fixed pitch prop.
233
What are the six amber lights on the overhead that are not associated with the CWP?
NO BAT START, X VLV OPEN, X FEED, CONN VLV OPEN, L RECIRC, R RECIRC (There are seven if you count the F/A CALL button too).
234
What indications will you see if the FI stop knob is inadvertently pulled during flight?
Both the amber and blue FI stop lights on the flight status panel will illuminate.
235
What causes the cabin emergency lighting system to illuminate?
A loss of power to the right main bus.
236
Using a high-pressure unit (HP) on the ground for cabin cool down is prohibited between which temperatures?
Between 0°C and 15°C.
237
What voltage will kick off the GPU?
Below 10v or above 31v.
238
What is the maximum time for starter engagement?
70 seconds, 30 of which may be motoring.
239
What are the maximum continuous power limitations?
ITT: 940°C, Torque (TQ): Green arc, Ng: Red line, Np: Red line.
240
What is the maximum ITT for engine start?
965°C.
241
What are the limitations for takeoff power with APR?
ITT: 940°C for 5 minutes OR 950°C for 2 minutes, Torque (TQ): Red line, Ng: Red line, Np: Red line.
242
What are the takeoff power limitations?
ITT: 917°C for 5 minutes OR 927°C for 2 minutes, Torque (TQ): Green arc, Ng: Green arc, Np: Red line.
243
What is the rough air penetration speed for the Saab 340?
Va = 190 kts up to FL210, Va = Vmo - 30 kts above FL210.
244
What is the maximum airspeed for flaps 7° or 15°?
175 knots.
245
What is the maximum airspeed for flaps 20°?
165 knots.
246
What is the maximum airspeed for flaps 35°?
140 knots.
247
What is the Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)?
29,000 lbs.
248
What is the Maximum Ramp Weight?
29,300 lbs.
249
What is the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW)?
28,500 lbs.
250
What is the Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)?
26,500 lbs.
251
During takeoff or landing, a pitch of how many degrees will cause a tail strike?
13 degrees.
252
What is the maximum operating altitude?
25,000 feet.
253
What are the minimum and maximum takeoff and landing altitudes?
Minimum: -1,000 feet, Maximum: 8,000 feet.
254
What is the minimum temperature for takeoff?
-55°C.
255
What is the maximum temperature for takeoff?
47°C at -1,000 to 1,500 ft pressure altitude, 33°C at 8,000 ft pressure altitude.
256
What are the runway slope limits for takeoff?
-2% to +1.5%.
257
What are the runway slope limits for landing?
-2% to +2%.
258
What is the maximum tailwind allowed?
10 knots.
259
What is the load limit with flaps UP?
+2.75g to -1.0g.
260
What is the load limit with flaps DOWN?
+2.0g to 0g.
261
What is Vlor (landing gear retraction speed)?
150 knots.
262
What is Vloe (landing gear extension speed)?
200 knots.
263
What is Va (maneuvering speed)?
180 knots.
264
What is Vmo (maximum operating KIAS)?
250 knots up to 16,000 ft, 232 knots at FL200, 210 knots at FL250.
265
What is Vmcl (minimum control speed in landing configuration)?
103 knots (B+ model), 106 knots (B model).
266
What is the maximum altitude for unpressurized flight?
10,000 feet.
267
What is the maximum cabin differential pressure?
7.5 psi.
268
What is the maximum cabin differential pressure in AUTO mode?
7.1 psi.
269
What is the maximum negative differential pressure?
-0.5 psi.
270
What is the maximum differential pressure for landing?
0.2 psi.
271
What is the maximum airspeed for windshield wipers on HIGH?
160 knots.
272
What is the maximum airspeed for windshield wipers on LOW?
130 knots.
273
What aircraft lights operate on the 5-minute timer?
Cargo and entry lights.
274
How do you test the bus tie?
With both engines running and both GENs online, select a GEN switch to OFF. The bus tie light should illuminate.
275
What part of the stall warning system is inhibited when the L/R STALL FAIL light comes on?
Stick pusher operation.
276
Are the trim tabs controlled mechanically?
No, they are electrically controlled.
277
When the trim switches on the yoke are activated, which elevator trim tab is actuated?
The left geared servo tab.
278
Can you pump down the flaps if no electrical power is available?
No, the flap selector valve to direct hydraulic fluid is electrically operated.
279
What is the problem if there is a loss of background color on the EADI and ATT? What should you do?
An AHRS failure has occurred. You should select XSIDE data.
280
If both EFIS tubes on the First Officer's side go dark, what has happened? What do you do?
A DPU (Display Processing Unit) failure has occurred. You should select DRIVE XFER on the First Officer's EFIS switch.
281
What items are on the EMERGENCY AVIONICS BUS?
VHF COMM #1, Standby ADI (Attitude Direction Indicator).
282
What is powered by the 115v/26v AC inverter?
(A♦ F ♦ R ♦ O ♦ G, 115v) ACARS, Flight data recorder, Radar stabilization, Overhead panel lights, GPWS plus VOR flags & RMI flags (26V).
283
What items are powered by the HOT BAT BUS? (Think "FEABLE RAT")
Fire handle, Engine fire bottle, AHRS backup power, BAT voltage indication, Lights (dome, cargo, entry), Extinguisher (cargo), Refueling panel, ACARS backup power, Time (clocks).
284
What items are powered from the EMERGENCY BUS? (Think "WEBALLS")
Warning system backup power, Emergency voltage indication, Bus tie relay connect function, Audio system backup power, L/R engine fire detection, L/R engine tailpipe hot detection, Standby instrument lighting.
285
What warnings are let through during Takeoff Inhibit mode? (Think "RGAP")
Red lights, Gust lock, Autocoarsen, Parking brake.
286
What do you need for the CTOT to work?
DECU (sends signal to the torque motor), Torque Motor (fuel injection to the CTOT valve beyond that selected by power levers), CTOT switch to "ON" or "APR," Power levers beyond 64° PLA (to arm CTOT).
287
What do you need for the APR to work?
DECU (regulates torque motor operations), Torque Motor (fuel injection for CTOT/APR functions), CTOT/APR switch to "APR," Power levers above 64° PLA (to arm APR), Autocoarsen ON (must be ON to send the engine failure signal and activate APR).
288
Ice formation on the engine scroll vanes is prevented by heating from what?
Hollow scroll vanes are heated with hot scavenge engine oil.
289
The manually controlled part of the pressurization system is completely ___________.
Pneumatic.
290
During flight, if you experience a loss of TRQ and PRPM gauge indications along with erratic raw temperature indication, what has happened?
A DECU failure has occurred.
291
At what speed is anti-skid inhibited?
20 knots (to avoid interference with braking and turns).
292
What causes an autocoarsen event in HIGH mode?
One engine TRQ > 50%, with the other < 50%, A difference of 25% TRQ between engines, P3 on the bad engine < 120 psi, with the power levers above 64° PLA.
293
What causes an autocoarsen event in LOW mode?
Ng > 55% on the good engine, Ng < 55% on the bad engine, Starter/Gen RPM < 60% on the bad engine.
294
What happens if the switch is turned off after an autocoarsen event occurs?
The propeller uncoarsens.
295
During flight, if you experience a loss of TRQ, Ng, and PRPM gauge indications, along with erratic raw temperature indication, what has happened?
A failure of the EES (Engine Electrical System) has occurred, which also results in a loss of DECU, as it powers it.
