Untitled Deck Flashcards

1
Q

What is validity?

A

Agreement between a test score or measure and the quality it is believed to measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is face validity?

A

Extent to which a measure appears to have validity; does not offer evidence to support conclusions drawn from a test; is not a statistical measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is content validity?

A

Determines if items on a test are directly related to what they are assessing; logical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the process of establishing content validity?

A

Define domain of test, select panel of qualified experts (NOT item writers), panel participates in process of matching items to domain, collect/summarize data from matching process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is criterion validity?

A

Using a current test to infer some performance criterion that is not being directly measured; supported by high correlations between test score and well-defined measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the process of establishing criterion validity?

A

Identify criterion and measurement method, identify representative sample, give test to sample and obtain criterion data, determine strength of relationship (correlation) between test score and criterion performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is predictive validity?

A

How well a test predicts criterion performance in the future.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is concurrent validity?

A

Assess the simultaneous relationship between a test and criterion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is validity coefficient?

A

The relationship between a test and the related criterion (r); extent to which the test is valid for making statements about the criterion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the result of cross validation?

A

The prediction will be worse; there will be more error in the prediction; fewer points will fall on the regression/prediction line, but could still have good predictive validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What should be checked when evaluating validity coefficients?

A

Check for restricted range on both predictor and criterion, review evidence for validity generalization, consider differential prediction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is construct validity?

A

Often measures things that aren’t directly observable; requires operational definition and description of relationships with other variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the process of establishing construct validity?

A

Assemble evidence about what a test means; each relationship that is identified helps to provide a piece of the puzzle of what the test means.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is convergent evidence?

A

Expect high correlation between 2+ tests that assess the same construct; not perfect (>0.90) means the tests are exactly the same if 1 or very close to 1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is discriminant/divergent evidence?

A

2 tests of unrelated constructs should have low correlations; discriminate between 2 qualities unrelated to each other. can drop items/create subscales

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is item writing guideline #1?

A

Define clearly what you wish to measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is item writing guideline #2?

A

Generate a pool of items; write 3-4 for every one you will keep to avoid redundant items in final test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is item writing guideline #3?

A

Avoid items that are exceptionally long, causing confusion/misleading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is item writing guideline #4?

A

Be aware of reading level (scale and test taker); usually want reading level at 6th grade.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is item writing guideline #5?

A

Avoid double-barreled items.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is item writing guideline #6?

A

Consider using questions that mix positive and negative wording to avoid response set.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is dichotomous format?

A

2 choice each question; requires absolute judgement; can promote memorization without understanding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is polychotomous format?

A

Has more than 2 options; probability of guessing correctly is lower; formula can be used to correct for guessing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are distractors?

A

Poor distractors hurt reliability and validity; rarely more than 3 or 4 work well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an issue with multiple choice questions?

A

Unfocused stem, negative stem, avoid irrelevant info in the stem, avoid unequal question length, negative options, clues to correct answer. keep correct option and distractors in the same general category

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Likert format?

A

Rate degree of agreement with statement; often used for attitude and personality scales; can use factor analysis. odd # have center evens do not. past 6 options cant discriminate between choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is test development step #1?

A

Review literature; what measures exist already, how can they be improved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is test development step #2?

A

Define the construct; what domain you’ll be sampling from.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is test development step #3?

A

Test planning and layout; find representative sample of items that represent that domain well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is test development step #4?

A

Designing the test; brief clear instructions manual/directors for administrators.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is item difficulty in test design?

A

If items are too difficult/easy, they will not discriminate between individuals; the test is not informative.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is item attractiveness in test design?

A

For personality tests; if test taker is likely to answer yes/true/agree, should be rephrased if more people would agree.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is test development step #5?

A

Item tryout; choose sample of individuals that match target population; initial has 1.5-2x more items than final test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is test development step #6?

A

Item analysis; people with high levels of characteristic should get high scores; should be a range of scores. item difficulty/attractiveness: # correct/marked true. difficulty should vary across test. item discrimination index: how well item discriminates bw high and low scorers on the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is test development step #7?

A

Building the scale; choose items with moderate difficulty, high discriminability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is test development step #8?

A

Standardizing the test; test used with large representative sample; same conditions and demographics as intended use. if sufficient reliability/validity calc percentiles etc, if not back to item writing/analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is item difficulty?

A

What % of people got item correct; most tests have difficulty between 0.3-0.7; optimal difficulty approx 0.625.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is item discriminability?

A

Determines whether people who did well on a particular item have also done well on the entire test. items that are too easy/hard wont disc well (too little variability)

39
Q

What is extreme group method?

A

Calculation of discrimination index compares those who did well to those who did poorly (top 27% vs bottom 27%).

40
Q

What is discrimination index?

A

P (upper group correct) - P (lower group correct); if the number is negative, the item should be removed. range is +1 to -1 aim for > +0.3

41
Q

What is a factor?

A

An unobserved (latent variable).

42
Q

What is factor analysis?

A

Data reduction technique to find the fewest number of distinct factors within a data set.

43
Q

What is factor loading?

A

Correlation between an individual item and newly found factors.

44
Q

What is the relationship between examiner and test taker?

A

threat to validity. affect test scores: examiners behavior, relationship stronger rapport higher score, supportive comments by the admin higher score, even subtle cues can be important. score not actually rep of the persons ability

45
Q

What is stereotype threat?

A

threat to validity. anxiety about how one will be eval and how one will perform. members of a stereotyped group pressure to disconfirm negative stereotypes. belief that intelligence is a fixed inherited traits can be changed growth mindset

46
Q

What are hypotheses causes of stereotype threat?

A

Depletes working memory; self-handicapping; stereotype threat leads to psychological arousal and distrust in performance.

47
Q

What are possible remedies for stereotype threat?

A

Shift demographic questions to end of test; tell test taker the test isn’t expected to show differences.

48
Q

What is the language of tests?

A

Many tests are highly linguistic, putting non-native English speakers at a disadvantage. translated texts must be professionally translated and validated but often incomplete/not validated introducing error, bias. valid if hold for those whom the testing language isnt native

49
Q

What is the importance of training test administrators?

A

Often requires a high level of training; standardization is an important part of test validity. research finds a minimum of 10 practice admin necessary to gain competence.

50
Q

What are expectancy effects?

A

Data can be impacted by what we expect to find; can be subtle and often unintentional. adds bias (error into assessment)

51
Q

What are the effects of reinforcing responses?

A

Test takers (particularly kids) work hard for approval/praise; reactions given to a given answer can influence future answers. reward (praise) improves IQ scores

52
Q

How do reinforcing responses violate standardized administration protocols?

A

Hurts testing ability; shifts away from measuring solely their own ability.

53
Q

What situations might legit call for adjustments to standard administration?

A

Learning disability, visual impairment, person is upset.

54
Q

What are the advantages of computer-assisted test administration?

A

Highly standardized; individual tailored sequential administration; precision of timing responses. releases human testers for other tasks, patience, control of bias

55
Q

What are the disadvantages of computer-administered tests?

A

Reading comprehension is worse on screen than on paper; can’t underline/cross things out/take notes. misinterpretation: still need to know clinical judgement gives context

56
Q

What are subject variables?

A

State of the subject can and does influence test performance; motivation and anxiety, illness.

57
Q

What is a standardized interview?

A

Predetermined set of questions; usually directive (largely guided and controlled by interviewer).

58
Q

What is an unstandardized interview?

A

Questions depend on client response; able to know what’s important to the client.

59
Q

What is a selective interview?

A

Identify qualifications and capabilities.

60
Q

What is a diagnostic interview?

A

Usually more standardized; assesses emotional/cognitive functioning.

61
Q

What is the role of an interview?

A

Some tests cannot be properly done without an interview; sometimes the interview is the test itself: selection for employment, diagnostic interviews

62
Q

What does it mean that interviews are reciprocal?

A

Human interactions; any time we interact, we impact each other.

63
Q

What is social facilitation?

A

We tend to act like those around us if interviewer acts defensive so will client. good interviewers remain in control and set the tone not reacting to clients tension/anxiety with more, remain relaxed confident calming effect on client

64
Q

What is effective interviewing?

A

More of an attitude than skill; warmth, body language, tone of voice, genuineness, acceptance, honesty, fairness

65
Q

How are interviewers rated poorly?

A

When seen as cold, defensive, uninterested, aloof, or bored.

66
Q

What responses should be avoided in interviews?

A

Judgmental/evaluative statements, probing statements, hostile/angry statements, false reassurance.

67
Q

What are effective responses in interviews?

A

Keep interaction flowing smoothly; use open-ended questions when possible. respond without interruption. urge/prompt to continue with “yes” “and” “bc”. verbatim playback, paraphrasing/restatement, empathy/understanding, summarizing/clarification

68
Q

What is verbatim feedback?

A

Repeat last responses exactly.

69
Q

Why use open-ended questions for effective responses?

A

Less structured; lets interviewee lead topic of interest/importance. requires client to prod something spontaneously.

70
Q

What is summarizing/clarification?

A

Pull together meaning across responses; goes just beyond what they said to tie things together ensure understanding of what they’re saying.

71
Q

What is paraphrasing/restatement?

A

similar to verbatim feedback. Captures the meaning; does not add anything additional; shows you’re listening.

72
Q

What is empathy/understanding in interviews?

A

May/may not be a reflection of what was said; infer and state emotions that were implied.

73
Q

What is involved in developing interviewing skills?

A

Understanding theory and research; supervised practice; constant self-evaluation am i communicating i understand?, what am i communicating non verbally?

74
Q

What is the halo effect?

A

Judge person during interview based on first impression; can impair objectivity.

75
Q

What is general standoutishness?

A

Judge on basis of one outstanding characteristic; prevents objective evaluation. make unwarranted infer based on the characteristic

76
Q

What are the characteristics of unstructured interviews?

A

Low reliability; no standardization; different answers based on interpersonal characteristics. ask diff questions, yet interviews tend to give fairer outcomes than other test (better validity with worse reliability)

77
Q

What are structured interviews?

A

Can have high levels of reliability; may limit content obtained during interview.

78
Q

intelligence?

A

Consistent correlation low SES and scores on all standardized intelligence tests; unlikely due to actual difference in intelligence.

79
Q

What are the three components of intelligence according to Binet?

A
  1. To find and maintain a definite direction and purpose. 2. The ability to make necessary adaptations. 3. To engage in self-criticism and adjustments in strategy.
80
Q

What is principal 1 of Binet’s theory?

A

can differentiate kids of different ages by their ability levels assess the mental abilities of different aged kids. found tasks that most kids of one age could do and few younger could (HIGH DISCRIMINABILITY of items)

81
Q

What is principal 2 of Binet’s theory?

A

was not concerned with individual elements of intelligence, expected high subtest/total test correlations (internal consistency)

82
Q

What is Spearman’s view on intelligence?

A

All intelligent behavior rests on a foundation of general mental ability (g); believed to be composed of several s factors. positive manifold (tests have positive correlations, g drives them)

83
Q

What is g in the context of intelligence?

A

Consistent with Binet’s initial approach; considered a predictor of performance. implies intelligence is best rep as a single score. performance on individual test: attributed to g (+ some unique variance)

84
Q

What was the 1905 Binet scale?

A

30 items increase in difficulty; low reliability due to low amount of items; no normative data. couldnt compare test scores to a normative group no validity evidence

85
Q

What was the 1908 Binet scale?

A

items grouped by age level (age scale) one score (almost all based on verbal ability), mental age-determined by performance compared to an age group

86
Q

What is the 1916 Stanford-Binet scale?

A

Introduced intelligence quotient (IQ); calculated as (MA/chronological age) * 100. when MA is less than choronological age IQ is < 100

87
Q

What was the problem with the 1916 Binet scale?

A

Max MA of 19.5; belief that MA ceased to improve after 16. max CA=16

88
Q

What was the 1937 Stanford-Binet scale?

A

Max CA 22 yrs 10 mo; improved scoring standards and instructions. improved standardization sample, created alternate equiv forms (to retake test)

89
Q

What were the problems with the 1937 Stanford-Binet scale?

A

Reliability differences; each age group had different SD of IQ scores. reliability difference (worse: young age, high IQ) each age group had diffrent SD of IQ scores (IQ scores across age groups couldnt be compared)

90
Q

What was the 1960 Stanford-Binet scale?

A

choose best from 2 forms, combined to one test (item tryout + item analysis) dropped old IQ calculation, standard score M=100 SD=16 IQ scores at all age ranges could be compared

91
Q

What was the 1972 Stanford-Binet scale?

A

1st time standardization sample had nonwhite participants.

92
Q

even in highly structured interviews

A

impressions made during rapport building can influence the eval

93
Q

interview as a test

A

method for gathering info, used to describe make predictions or both, reliability and validity are eval, each type has a defined purpose