Unknowns 4 Flashcards

1
Q

The Customer Order Protection Rules requires firms to:

A

Protect customer orders in the pre-market

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2
Q

After a customer purchases restricted stock in the open public market, the stock:

A

Is no longer restricted and is not subject to volume limits under Rule 144

Once restricted stock is sold in the open market, the stock is no longer subject to the holding period or volume restrictions under Rule 144.

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3
Q

Which of the following persons is responsible for supervising an assistant representative?

A

At a non-OSJ branch, a principal or representative designated by the member

A member firm is required to designate one or more appropriately registered principals in each OSJ branch, including the main office, and one or more appropriately registered representatives or principals in each non-OSJ branch office, with authority to carry out the supervisory responsibilities assigned to that office by the member. All general securities representatives, limited securities representatives, and assistant representatives require supervision.

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4
Q

A Nasdaq market maker’s registration will be terminated if the market maker:

A

Fails to enter a quote within five business days after the market maker’s registration becomes effective

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5
Q

How can BD and journalist have a violation of industry rules regarding recommendations?

A

A payment made by a broker-dealer to a journalist for the purpose of publicizing its recommended securities without the release of any research or information about the securities is considered a deceptive practice and a violation of industry rules.
All retail communications that include a recommendation must have a reasonable basis and (if applicable) must include:

The price at the time of the recommendation (for an equity security)
Whether the member firm makes a market or intends to buy or sell the recommended security for its own account (acts in a principal capacity)
Whether the member firm or any associated person that’s directly or materially involved in the preparation of the content has a financial interest in any security of the issuer being recommended and the nature of the financial interest, unless the extent of the financial interest is nominal
Whether the member was the manager or co-manager of any of the issuer’s securities offerings within the last 12 months
Information supporting the recommendation or at least the offer to provide such information
Retail communications or correspondence cannot refer to past specific recommendations of the member firm that were or would have been profitable to any person unless the following information is provided.

A list of all recommendations for the same type of security for the past year (longer periods may be discussed if they’re listed consecutively and include the last year)
The name of each security recommended, the date and nature of each recommendation (whether it was a buy, hold, or sell), the date and the price at the time of the recommendation, as well as the price or price range on which any recommendation was to be acted

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6
Q

All clearing and carrying agreements between clearing and introducing firms must specify all of the following functions and responsibilities, EXCEPT the process of

A

Splitting commissions between the two firms

Under SRO rules all clearing and carrying agreements between clearing and introducing firms must specify the functions and responsibilities of each party. At a minimum, the agreement must specify the following.
The process of opening, approving, and monitoring customer accounts
The extension of credit
Maintenance of books and records
The receipt and delivery of funds and securities
The safeguarding of funds and securities
Customer confirmations and statements
The acceptance of orders and execution of transactions
Whether for purposes of the SEC Net Capital Rules and the Securities Investor Protection Act, all clients are considered to be customers of the clearing member (not the introducing firm).

How commissions and other types of compensation are split between the two firms are contractual business arrangements and are not required to be included in clearing arrangements.

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7
Q

Why are proxy statements provided to shareholders?

A

if shareholders would be voting on the M&A transaction.

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8
Q

The initial hold that’s placed on an account which is believed to be the subject of financial exploitation will expire by:

A

o protect an account from financial exploitation, a broker-dealer may place an initial hold on transactions or disbursements of 15 business days from the date it was first placed. If an internal review supports a reasonable belief that the account is subject to financial exploitation, the hold can be extended for an additional 10 business days. If the firm’s belief is that the potential still exists for financial exploitation, the hold can be extended an additional 30 business days. This amounts to a hold extending a total of 55 business days.

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9
Q

A broker-dealer with a net capital exceeding $12,000,000 must have a minimum fidelity bond coverage of:

A

$5,000,000
For member firms whose net capital exceeds $250,000, FINRA has a table of required coverage, with a maximum of $5,000,000 for member firms whose net capital requirement exceeds $12,000,000.

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10
Q

A broker-dealer purchases stock from a customer at a net price of 19.00. At the time of the purchase, the broker-dealers market for the stock is 19.35 - 19.85, and the inside market is 19.60 - 19.85. The percentage markdown is:

A

The markdown is 60 cents. This is determined by subtracting the price received by the customer (19.00) from the inside bid of 19.60, yielding .60, which is divided by 19.60, for a markdown of 3.06%.

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11
Q

On an annual basis, a corporation will be considered a Real Estate Investment Trust (REIT) if it meets the following test.

A
  • At least 95% of its gross income is derived from real-estate (such as rental income), interest from mortgages, dividends and interest.
    -Of that 95%, at least 75% must be derived solely from real-estate-related activities.
    -no more than 5% of income may be derived from non-real estate business.
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12
Q

carrying agreements for both fully disclosed and omnibus accounts must be submitted to FINRA?

A

prior to becoming effective.

Broker-dealers that do not clear their own transactions are known as introducing firms. These introducing firms use the services of a clearing or carrying firm to process trades and perform other operational services. Many introducing firms operate through a clearing firm on a fully disclosed basis. This means that information about each of the customers of the introducing firm will be transmitted to the clearing firm. There can also be introducing/clearing relationships that are not fully disclosed. In this case, the introducing firm does not provide the clearing firm with any details regarding the individual clients. Instead, the firm uses a single account that is specifically designated by the clearing firm as being for customers of an introducing firm. The carrying firm is required to submit to FINRA for prior approval any agreement for the carrying of accounts, whether on an omnibus or fully disclosed basis, before such agreement may become effective. The carrying firm is also required to submit to FINRA for prior approval any material changes to an approved carrying agreement before such changes may become effective.

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13
Q

If a broker-dealer’s quote for a stock is $10.30 - $10.35 and the stock’s inside market is $10.33 - $10.35, which of the following customer limit orders must the broker-dealer display?

A

A limit order to sell at $10.34

The Limit Order Display rule requires a broker-dealer to display any order that improves the broker-dealer’s quote. A limit order to sell at $10.34 is one cent lower (i.e., better) than the broker-dealer’s offer of $10.35 and therefore must be displayed. Orders that match a broker-dealer’s quote (e.g., buy limit at $10.30), are only required to be displayed if the broker-dealer is at the inside market. In this question, the broker-dealer’s bid of $10.30 is not the inside bid, which is $10.33.

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14
Q

A master limited partnership (MLP) has which of the following characteristics?

A

In order for a business to qualify as a master limited partnership (also referred to as a publicly traded partnership), it must meet the following two tests:
the interests in the partnership must be traded on an established exchange (e.g., the NYSE or Nasdaq) or readily tradable in the secondary market, and
at least 90% of its gross income must be derived from qualified income, such as investments in real property, mineral or natural resources, commodities, interest, and dividends.
An MLP doesn’t pay dividends and all of its profits and losses are allocated among its investors.

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15
Q

A broker-dealer receives a written customer complaint concerning a registered representative who recently left the firm to join another broker-dealer. Which of the following would be LEAST relevant?

A

Sending a copy of the complaint to the RR

A broker-dealer might receive a written customer complaint after an RR has left the firm. Even if an RR is no longer registered, the RR is subject to regulatory jurisdiction for at least two years after his registration is terminated. Updating U4 and U5 forms are relevant if answers to any questions have changed on Forms U4 and U5 since an amendment to these forms must be filed within 30 days. Forms U4 and U5 both ask questions concerning whether a person has been the subject of a written complaint. Keeping a record of the complaint is relevant since written complaints must be kept for a period of four years, and notifying the new broker-dealer is relevant since the new firm would need to inform the RR of the written customer complaint. There is no requirement to send a copy of the complaint to the RR.

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16
Q

An account opened under the Uniform Gifts to Minors Act will contain the Social Security number of:

A

the minor

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the supervision of real-time communication through social networking sites?

A

This communication is regulated in a manner that’s similar to correspondence.

According to FINRA, social media sites (e.g., Instagram, Facebook, Twitter, and LinkedIn) can be used to promote products or services of a broker-dealer. Real-time communication through social media site is supervised in a manner that’s similar to correspondence. In other words, the communication is subject to review and supervision, but doesn’t require principal approval prior to use. In addition, the communication is NOT required to be filed with FINRA.

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18
Q

The Consolidated Tape aggregates data from Network A and Network B. What does the information from Network A represent?

A

The Consolidated Tape reports trading data across multiple exchanges. The data included on Network A is for trades involving stocks that are listed on the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE) regardless of where the trades occur. Network B is trading data from the NYSE American (formerly AMEX) and the regional exchanges.

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19
Q

What goes into an unsponsored ADR?

A

unsponsored ADRs are created without cooperation from the foreign issuer and trade over-the-counter in the United States.
Sponsored ADRs are created with cooperation from the foreign issuer and trade on U.S. exchanges

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20
Q

What are a valid reasons for the carrying firm to protest an account transfer?

A

An account title mismatch is a valid reason to protest a transfer. If the basic account information such as tax ID number, account title, or account number does not match the information on record at the carrying firm, the carrying firm may protest the transfer

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21
Q

What is the maximum fine that may be levied by a self-regulatory organization (SRO) if an RR is found guilty of unauthorized trading?

A

Unlimited

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22
Q

In order to be eligible for portfolio margin, a client must:

A

A portfolio margin client must be approved for uncovered writing. There are no specific financial standards and no experience level that must be met. If a customer wants to trade unlisted derivatives, the customer must maintain equity of at least $5,000,000 at all times.

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23
Q

According to Regulation FD, when making a purposeful disclosure of non-public information, Rule 100(b)(2) provides an exclusion for disclosure made to any of the following

A

Comms with ppl who owes the issuer a duty of trust or confidence (i.e., a temporary insider, such as an attorney, investment banker, or accountant)
Comms made to ppl who agree to maintain the information in confidence.
Disclosures to an entity whose primary business is the issuance of credit ratings, provided the information is disclosed solely for the purpose of developing a credit rating and the entity’s ratings are publicly available

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24
Q

The issuer of a security that’s publicly traded on a national securities exchange must notify FINRA of which distributions events? When?

A

According to the SEC, all stock or cash dividends, rights offering, or forward or reverse splits must be disclosed to FINRA 10 days prior to the record date, not prior to the ex-date.

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25
Q

Promissory notes are being sold by a corporate issuer to institutional investors in a block trade. If the maturity of these securities is six months, which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

The promissory notes are most likely not considered securities.

A promissory note is similar to other debt securities. If the maturity exceeds 270 days (nine months), the SEC typically considers the note to be a security. When promissory notes are defined as securities, they’re either subject to or exempt from SEC registration. For example, promissory notes sold in a private placement are exempt from registration.

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26
Q

Under the TRF reporting rules, an order-entry firm

A

Under the TRF rules, the order-entry side of the transaction must do one of the following.
Enter a version of the trade within 20 minutes of execution using the OE function on Nasdaq Workstation II
Accept market-maker trade entries on the TRF through ACT Trade Scan within 20 minutes of the execution
Decline incorrect market-maker trade entries on the TRF through ACT Trade Scan or cancel trade entries, when necessary

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27
Q

A broker-dealer using the alternative standard of calculating its minimum net capital must maintain

A

Some broker-dealers may elect to be governed by an alternative net capital requirement. This requirement is based on the aggregate debit items and requires net capital of $250,000 or 2% of the aggregate debit items, whichever is greater.

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28
Q

When an issuer is testing the waters under a Regulation A offering, there must be a minimum of how many days between the use of a solicitation statement and the first sale of securities?

A

Under Regulation A, issuers will often test the waters in order to get a sense of market interest before committing to the costs involved in filing an offering statement. Although general solicitation and advertising may be used prior to filing an offering statement with the SEC, there must be no fewer than 20 days between the use of solicitation material and the first sale of securities.

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29
Q

If a customer wishes to open an account as a guardian, the member firm would need:

A

A copy of the court appointment

A guardian is a court-appointed fiduciary who is instructed by the court to handle the affairs of a person who is legally disabled based on age, or physical or mental incapacity. Before opening a guardian account, a member firm must obtain a copy of the legal documentation appointing the guardian. Guardian accounts are not necessarily limited to children, so UGMA documentation is not always a requirement. The account owner (the disabled or underage person) may not legally give investment discretion to the guardian.

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30
Q

How often can Form 144 be filed with the SEC?

A

Form 144 is filed when restricted or control stock is to be sold. Once the form is filed, a person may sell the stock during a 90-day period. If the person wants to sell additional shares, he must wait until the initial 90-day period has ended before filing an additional Form 144.

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31
Q

The Special Reserve Bank Account is used:

A

To satisfy customer protection concerns
Rule 15c3-3 is the Customer Protection Rule and requires the broker-dealer to establish a Reserve Bank Account for the protection of customers. Essentially, the Reserve Bank Account consists of customer-related items found on the credit side of a broker-dealer’s trial balance, such as customer credit balances, fails to receive for the accounts of customers, securities loaned for the accounts of customers, and money borrowed using customer stock as collateral. The broker-dealer is required to segregate cash in an amount equal to the value of these items and is allowed to subtract from the amount required to be on deposit cash equal to the value of certain debit items found on the trial balance. Among these items are securities borrowed for the accounts of customers and customer-secured debit balances.

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32
Q

If a broker-dealer’s quote for a stock is $50.52 - $50.59 and the stock’s inside market is $50.55 - $50.56, which of the following customer limit orders must the broker-dealer display?

A

A limit order to sell at $50.56
The Limit Order Display rule requires a broker-dealer to display any order that improves the broker-dealer’s quote. A limit order to sell at $50.56 is lower (i.e., better) than the broker-dealer’s offer of $50.59 and therefore must be displayed. Orders that match the broker-dealer’s quote (e.g., buy limit at $50.52, sell limit at $50.59), are only required to be displayed if the broker-dealer is at the inside market. In this question, neither the broker-dealer’s bid nor offer is at the inside market, which is $50.55 - $50.56.

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33
Q

when, as, and if issued securities

A

trades before certificate is ready for delivery
delivery is determined by the National Uniform Practice Committee. If the Committee fails to set a delivery date, delivery may be made by the seller to the buyer on one day’s written notice.
For securities that are being distributed by a syndicate or selling group, settlement is on the date the syndicate or selling group contracts are settled. These types of trades DO NOT bypass the DTCC system prior to settlement.

34
Q

A rating system including the ratings buy, hold, or accumulate is:

A

Permissible if the firm describes each rating adequately

A firm may use any reasonable language to represent its recommendations, as long as the firm adequately explains the rationale and basis for each rating category. Members must also include a description of what each rating means practically to investors.

35
Q

According to industry rules, the managing underwriter must disclose all of the following information to FINRA or the exchange

A

it intends to:
* effect syndicate short covering transactions,
* impose a penalty bid
* or place a stabilizing bid
the name of the security, the stock symbol, type and number of shares being offered, date and time of the pricing, names of the managing underwriter and syndicate members (but NOT the selling group members) and, if applicable, the beginning and ending of the Regulation M restricted period. These records must be maintained for three years. Broker-dealers may not pay another party to buy, or pay another party to solicit others to buy, securities of the same issuer on the exchange

36
Q

You have just been informed by your syndicate manager that your firm will be participating in a follow-on offering of an OTC equity security for which your firm is a market maker. As the principal in charge of the trading department, you would:

A

Withdraw your quote immediately

A member firm participating in a distribution of an OTC equity security is required to withdraw its quotations during the Regulation M restricted period. Passive market making, and filing for excused withdrawal status, would only be applicable for a registered Nasdaq market maker.

37
Q

If a principal discovers that his firm is in possession of counterfeit securities, which of the following choices describes an appropriate action?

A

a report must be filed within one day of discovery with the agent of the issuer, the FBI, and the SIC (Securities Information Center).

38
Q

When preparing a fairness opinion that will be distributed to public shareholders, regulators require that all existing conflicts of interest be revealed. These conflicts may include:

A

Current or prior relationship between the author of the opinion and any party to the transaction
Compensation due to the broker-dealer that prepares the report if the compensation is contingent on the deal closing
The amount of compensation is not required to be disclosed, only that the broker-dealer will receive compensation.

39
Q

A broker-dealer may satisfy the information requirement of SEC Rule 15c2-11 (OTC filing) by having in its possession any of the following

A

A prospectus filed with SEC in effect for less than 90 days
A Regulation A offering circular, effective within the preceding 40 days
The issuer’s latest Form 10-K and all subsequent Form 10-Qs and Form 8-Ks (and the issuer must be current in its filings)
For foreign securities, financial information filed with the SEC during the issuer’s last fiscal year under Rule 12g3-2(b) or
16 specified items of information about the issuer, which must be reasonably current in relation to the day the quotation is published.
A Regulation D offering memorandum will not satisfy the information requirement.

40
Q
A

FINRA describes prohibited terms and conditions within the Corporate Financing Rule. Some of the prohibited arrangements include:
Reimbursement for miscellaneous expenses
Reimbursement for salaries of investment banking personnel
Commissions paid by an issuer to a member firm prior to the commencement of the public sale of the securities being offered
The payment of any compensation by the issuer to a member firm in connection with an offering that was not completed
The receipt of a security, warrant, or option that has a duration exceeding five years and has more favorable terms than those that were offered to the public

41
Q
A

A copy of the court appointment of the guardian is necessary. To open a partnership account, a copy of the partnership articles should be obtained. In the case of an account for an estate, documentation should be obtained that shows the executor or administrator is properly authorized. Many new account forms contain UTMA/UGMA accounts as one of the standard ownership choices, making additional documentation unnecessary.

42
Q
A

Although all of these activities are violations, the specific activity described in this question refers to marking the close. This activity is an attempt to push the closing price of the stock up or down based on the net position of the firm, in order to get a favorable mark to market, which is used to compute margin and net capital requirements. Painting the Tape is a technique whereby individuals acting in concert repeatedly sell a security to one another without actually changing ownership of the securities. This is intended to give an impression of increased trading volume. The regulators consider this to be a type of manipulation. Front running is trading ahead of a client’s order. Rogue trading is holding unauthorized proprietary positions.

43
Q
A

In response to an issuer’s corporate action (dividends and stock splits), the Nasdaq Market Center Execution System will take the following actions concerning adjustments for open orders and quotes.
All bid and offer quotes will be purged from the system.
All orders shall be cancelled in the event of a reverse stock split.
Sell orders will not be adjusted automatically by the system and should be modified by the market participant that entered the order.
Buy orders will automatically be adjusted by the system depending on the corporate action taken by the issuer. For example, in the case of a cash dividend, the order would be adjusted downward by the amount of the cash dividend, unless the order was marked “DNR” (do not reduce).

44
Q
A

When making a passive market, a firm that’s involved in a distribution cannot enter a bid or effect a purchase at a price that exceeds the highest independent bid on Nasdaq. In a falling market, when the last independent bid drops below that of a passive market maker, the passive market maker may maintain its bid until its purchases have reached or exceeded the lesser of two times the minimum quotation size for that security or the passive market maker’s remaining daily limit. If twice the minimum quotation size is executed, the passive market maker must drop its bid to or below the highest independent bid. If its daily purchase limit is reached first, it must withdraw from the market for the rest of the day. In a rising market, a passive market maker may raise its bid when the best independent bid rises, but is not required to do so.

45
Q
A

Under CIP rules, financial services companies may use documentary methods, non-documentary methods, or both, to verify identities. A valid driver’s license or passport may not be required since other government-issued identification forms may be acceptable as identity documentation. Financial services companies may use non-documentary means when customers present expired government-issued identification, or if no documents are obtained. Examples of non-documentary methods include obtaining a financial statement, checking references with other financial institutions, comparing identity information with a consumer reporting agency or other public database, and contacting the customer. Checking a non-independent source (e.g., personal references provided by the customer) is not an acceptable method of verifying the customer’s identity.

46
Q

Which of the following issuers is permitted to use pay-as-you-go registration?

A

WKSI

47
Q

Which of the following choices BEST describes what makes an investor accredited and able to purchase a Regulation D offering?

A

Income, net worth, sophistication, and suitability

Although an investor’s accreditation status is typically based on annual income of at least $200,000, or a net worth of at least $1,000,000, FINRA has provided guidance making clear that a broker-dealer must undertake a suitability determination when recommending Regulation D offerings to a customer and that the accredited investor determination is only a small part of that analysis. The ability to understand the investment’s risks and reward potential, as well as suitability, is also of primary importance.

48
Q

Form U6

A

Regulators, states, and/or jurisdictions use Form U6 to report disciplinary actions against RRs and/or firms. FINRA also uses Form U6 to report final arbitration awards against RRs and/or firms.

49
Q
A

Under the Taping Rule, if the firm reduced its staff levels below the threshold levels within 30 days of notification by the FINRA, it would not be subject to the rule.

50
Q
A

Under the safe harbor provisions of Rule 10b-18, an issuer should limit its purchases for that security to no more than 25% of the average daily trading volume (ADTV) on any single day.

51
Q

Under Regulation M, which of the following are the minimum standards for a stock to be classified as actively traded?

A

ADTV of at least $1 million and public float of at least $150 million

52
Q

Under SEC Rule 144, a holding period does NOT apply if the securities are being sold:

A

If the restricted securities are held by the estate of a deceased individual who’s not affiliated with the issuer, the holding period under Rule 144 is waived. If the deceased is affiliated with the issuer, the normal holding period is applicable. If securities received are the result of a stock dividend, split, or conversion of restricted securities, the holding period will be considered to have started on the day the original securities were acquired.

53
Q
A

Clearing broker-dealers are required to file both FOCUS Report Part I and Part II, as well as an unaudited Statement of Financial Condition. However, an Early Warning notice is filed when the ratio of aggregate indebtedness-to-net capital exceeds 12-to-1.

54
Q

A registered person who’s employed by a member firm has been arrested for a misdemeanor involving bribery. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

This event is most likely required to be disclosed to the firm, but is NOT required to be disclosed on the person’s Form U4.
Since the person has been arrested, but has not yet been charged with a crime, this offense is not required to be disclosed on Form U4 or to FINRA. As an in-house rule, most firms require notification if a registered person has been arrested for any offense.

55
Q

A stock is sold short on the ex-dividend date. Which of the following would receive the cash dividend?

A

The lender of the stock

When an investor sells short, the broker-dealer executing the short sale borrows the stock on behalf of the investor. Since the stock was sold short on the ex-dividend date, the owner (lender) and not the buyer of the stock is entitled to the cash dividend. Remember, for the buyer of the stock to be entitled to the cash dividend, the purchase must be made prior to the ex-dividend date.

56
Q

MPIDs

A

A member firm that is registered as a market maker in a specific security must have its own two-sided firm quote. This is known as its Primary MPID. A FINRA member firm may have additional displayable or non-displayable supplemental MPIDs. The non-displayable (nonattributable) quotes or orders are posted anonymously through Nasdaq’s NSDQ. Supplemental MPID quotes may be one-sided and are not subject to unexcused withdrawal penalties. Trades should be reported using the same MPID as the quote. They may not be used for passive market makers or stabilizing bids.

57
Q

ECNs

A

Electronic communication networks (ECNs) are securities trading systems that are designed to anonymously match buyers with sellers. These systems can be used by both institutional and retail investors. One of the benefits of ECNs is that they offer immediate automatic execution if a matching buy or sell order can be found on the system. ECNs don’t allow investors to trade directly with one another; however, they do allow subscribers (e.g., broker-dealers) to use these systems to execute orders that they receive from their clients.

58
Q

An issuer that has previously filed for bankruptcy is planning on raising capital. Included with the filing of the registration statement are audited financial statements within the last 12 months. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A

Under SEC rules, one of the ways a company is defined as an ineligible issuer is if it filed for bankruptcy within the past three years. However, ineligibility will terminate if the issuer files a registration statement or annual report, with audited financial statements. The issuer could conduct either a best-efforts or firm-commitment underwriting.

59
Q
A

A firm’s business continuity plan should discuss the impact of a significant disruption on the firm’s counterparties, banks, and business constituents (i.e., businesses with which it has an ongoing commercial relationship). The plan should also provide for regulatory reporting and alternative physical locations from which employees may continue working. The plan does not need to state the home addresses of any of its employees.

60
Q

Rule 10b-18 defines a block trade as any trade with a value of

A

$200,000 or more, or a trade of 5,000 shares or more with a value of at least $50,000.

61
Q

Reg T for cash account payment

A

T+3

62
Q

Reg T for security transactions

A

T+1

63
Q

An anti-money laundering compliance program of a broker-dealer is required to include each of the following

A
  • designation of a compliance officer who is responsible for the program (there is no requirement that this person hold any FINRA designation)
    an ongoing employee training program
    an independent audit function to test (stress testing) the program’s effectiveness.
64
Q

Types of DPPs

A

Corporations, general partnerships, and limited partnerships

65
Q

For market makers, the maximum net capital requirement based on the number of markets made is

A

$1 million. Generally, the price of the security is taken into account.
Shares that are priced greater than $5: 400 x $2,500 = $1 million
Shares that are priced less than or equal to $5: 50 x $1,000 = $50,000
However, the net capital rule puts a $1 million limit on market making activities.

66
Q

requirement of an arbitration hearing

A

Requirements for arbitration include that records pertaining to the case or issue are at hand and filing fees are paid by the party that initiates the claim. There’s no requirement to have pertinent records submitted prior to the hearing. Depositions are not a part of the arbitration procedure. Also there’s no requirement for a broker-dealer to provide all of its trading/customer records.

67
Q
A

According to SEC Rule 14e-5, in a tender offer, a covered person cannot purchase the common stock or convertible securities of the same issuer during the period that the tender is open. A covered person is an issuer or individual that’s making the tender offer, with the investment bank acting as the dealer-manager in the transaction. The dealer-manager is typically a broker-dealer. The SEC has created a number of exemptions to permit firms to transact their regular business during the tender offer period. Some of the exempt activities include:
Purchases by the dealer-manager or its affiliates on an agency basis
Purchases on a principal basis, provided the dealer-manager and its affiliates are not market makers
Purchases by an affiliate of the dealer-manager if the affiliate maintains and enforces written policies and procedures that are designed to prevent the flow of information (i.e., information barriers) and the purchases are not made to facilitate the tender offer
Buying shares in the capacity of a market maker and buying convertible debt or equity for the proprietary trading desk are not permitted.

68
Q

If a member of a syndicate (other than the manager) effects a stabilizing bid:

A

The firm is required to notify the manager within three business days of any stabilizing transaction

69
Q

A due bill is used if a trade occurs:

A

Before the ex-dividend date, with delivery made after the record date

A due bill is evidence that a dividend is due to a buyer of stock, but will be paid to a seller instead. An individual who buys stock prior to the ex-dividend date is entitled to the dividend. For the buyer to receive the dividend, the transaction should settle either on or prior to the record date; therefore the transfer agent will recognize that there’s a new owner of record. However, if the seller fails to deliver the stock by the record date, the transfer agent will not be aware of the identity of the new buyer and will still have the original owner listed as the holder of record. In this case, the dividend will be delivered to the seller. When the seller delivers the stock, he will attach a due bill as evidence that the dividend will be turned over to the buyer when it’s paid.

70
Q

A broker-dealer that is an executing firm in a prime-brokerage arrangement must maintain a minimum net capital of:

A

A broker-dealer that is an executing firm in a prime-brokerage arrangement must maintain a minimum of $1,000,000 in net capital.

71
Q

A broker-dealer is also a bank that serves as the paying agent for a corporation’s bonds. If the corporation intends to issue more bonds, the broker-dealer may use the information it possesses regarding the ownership of the bonds to solicit securities transactions:

A

If directed by the issuer

In order to use confidential, non-public information obtained in the capacity of a fiduciary, to solicit securities transactions, a broker-dealer must first obtain the consent of the issuer. (11306)

72
Q

Exceptions to the Limit Display Rule

A

One of the exceptions to the Limit Order Display Rule is a request by a customer not to have the order displayed. Another exception involves block-size orders (those for at least 10,000 shares or $200,000 in market value). If the broker-dealer does not display a limit order due to a customer request, documentation of the request is not mandated but is highly recommended.

73
Q

For a supervising principal of a member firm, which of the following persons are subject to industry rules which regulate the opening of an account at another member firm?

A

The principal’s spouse and minor children
industry rules regarding accounts of employees or partners of other member firms also apply to an employee’s spouse and minor children. In addition, the rule also applies to an individual’s account in which an employee of the brokerage firm has control and contributes material financial support to the individual.

74
Q

Settlement of an equity trade is

customer payment in cash or margin account is

A

Settlement is one business day after the trade date (i.e., T + 1)

Payment is required by no later than three business days after the trade (i.e., T + 3)

75
Q

Which are able to receive a discount when purchasing shares of a mutual fund?

A

-MF company employees get a discount or reduced sales charge.
-Employees of a BD that signed a selling agreement with the fund

76
Q

Who is liable for untrue statements and material omissions that are contained in a registration statement which is filed with the SEC?

A

-All who signed the registration statement
-Every director or partner of the issuer at the time of the filing
-Every accountant, engineer, or appraiser who is named as having prepared or certified any part of the registration statement
-Every underwriter of the security

77
Q

BD discovers stock is lost or missing but doesn’t suspect it stolen. It must report the incident to SIC

A

on the third business day

(2 days to find it and report on 3rd day)

78
Q

Discretionary accounts

A

Acct reviewed frequently
Concern is churning - excessive trading - check investment objective first, then number and size of transactions

79
Q

Discretionary order

A

client has NOT specified one of A’s: asset, amount, and action that MAKES it discretionary!

All three A’s with time/or price discretion is a not-held order!

80
Q

How many days to resolve a transfer discrepancy with ACAT?

A

5 business days