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unit test #4 Flashcards

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1
Q

how does asexual reproduction occur

A

with one parent, mitosis or binary fission

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2
Q

how does sexual reproduction occur

A

with 2 parents, meiosis

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3
Q

frequency of mitosis occurrence vs. meiosis occurence

A

mitosis: many times throughout life cycle
meiosis: once throughout life cycle

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4
Q

offspring in mitosis vs. meiosis

A

mitosis: offspring identical to parent
meiosis: offspring unique from each other and parent

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5
Q

changes in gene combinations in mitosis

A

gene combos maintained, new variations through mutation

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6
Q

changes in gene combinations in meiosis

A

new gene combinations made every generation

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7
Q

genetic variation in mitosis vs. meiosis

A

mitosis: none
meiosis: genetic variation is generated

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8
Q

adaptation on offspring produced by mitosis

A

can adapt to environment as well as parent

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9
Q

adaptation of offspring produced by meiosis

A

may adapt to environment better than parent

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10
Q

what stage of mitosis is DNA replicated

A

synthesis

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11
Q

order of mitosis

A

G1, S, G2, PMAT, C

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12
Q

homologous chromosomes definition

A

chromosomes in pairs: one maternal one paternal

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13
Q

what do homologous chromosomes have in common

A

size, centromere location, order of genes

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14
Q

what do homologous chromosomes have in difference

A

alleles

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15
Q

in a sexually reproducing organism, zygote performs ____ to grow into adult

A

mitosis

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16
Q

in sexually reproducing organism, adult performs ____ to form gametes

A

meiosis

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17
Q

how are there a correct number of chromosomes in each generation

A
  • number of chromosomes in gametes must be reduced (half of diploid)
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18
Q

meiosis results in cells that have half the number of chromosomes as its parent, this is called….

A

reduction division

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19
Q

what are the male and female gonads

A

testes and ovaries

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20
Q

gametogenesis meaning

A

the ability to form gametes

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21
Q

gametogenesis in male vs female

A

male: spermatogenesis
female: oogenesis

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22
Q

cytoplasm division in sperm production

A

equal

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23
Q

cytoplasm division in egg production

A

unequal

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24
Q

motility of sperm vs egg

A

sperm: motile
egg: not motile

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25
Q

size/shape of sperm vs egg

A

sperm: long, small volume
egg: large spherical

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26
Q

food reserve in sperm vs. egg

A

sperm: small, enough to feed self
egg: large, enough for mitosis to form embryo

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27
Q

number of sperm vs. egg produced at once

A

sperm: many, often large numbers
egg: few, sometimes only 1

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28
Q

product of meiosis I

A

diploid germ cells split into 2 haploid cells

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29
Q

product of meiosis II

A

sister chromatids in 2 daughter cells separate forming 4 new haploid cells

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30
Q

what occurs during interphase

A
  • diploid cell
  • DNA = chromatin
  • G1: synthesis of cell components + growth
  • S phase: DNA replication–> 2 identical strands w centromere held tgt until anaphase II
  • G2: cell prepares for meiosis
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31
Q

what occurs during prophase I

A
  • nuclear membrane breaks down
  • spindle fibres form
  • DNA condenses into chromosomes
  • synapsis
  • crossing over
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32
Q

what occurs during synapsis

A

where homologous chromosomes pair up into tetrads
- genes of chromatids of homologous chromosomes align with each other

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33
Q

what occurs during crossing over

A

sections of chromosomes(chiasma) cut + exchanged b/w homologous chromosomes
- new combos of alleles created–> combos different from parent

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34
Q

what occurs during metaphase I

A
  • homologous chromosomes align at cell equator
  • independent assortment: orientation of each homologous pair is random
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35
Q

what occurs during anaphase I

A
  • homologous chromosomes separate and each chromosome moves towards opposite side of cell
  • kinetochores attach chromosomes to spindle fibre
    *sister chromatids NOT separated
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36
Q

what occurs during telophase I and cytokinesis

A
  • occurs simultaneously
  • new nuclei forms around chromosomes
  • DNA uncoils: chromosomes–>chromatin
  • spindle fibres break apart
  • left with 2 unique haploid cells
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37
Q

what occurs during prophase II

A
  • cells are haploid
  • DNA condenses
  • nuclear membrane breaks apart
  • spindle fibres form
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38
Q

what occurs during metaphase II

A
  • chromosomes align at equation in single file
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39
Q

what occurs during anaphase II

A
  • sister chromatids pull apart from each other and move to opposite pole of the cell
  • moved by microtubules
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40
Q

what occurs during telophase II and cytokinesis

A
  • occurs simultaneously
  • spindle fibres break apart
  • DNA uncoils: chromosomes–> chromatin
  • END with 4 unique haploid gamete
    cells
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41
Q

chromosome numbers of parent+daughter cells in mitosis

A
  • daughter cell = parent cell, same number of chromosomes
  • maintains genome
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42
Q

chromosome numbers of parent+daughter cells in meiosis

A
  • daughter cells = half number chromosomes of as parent
  • reduces genome
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43
Q

uses of mitosis

A

grow/maintain/fix cells and tissues

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44
Q

uses of meiosis

A

creates gametes for sexual reproduction

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45
Q

what is variation within a species called

A

intraspecies variation

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46
Q

what are the 4 ways in which intraspecies variation can develop

A
  1. mutation (change in DNA sequence)
  2. gene flow (movement of genes b/w organisms)
  3. meiosis (new gene combos)
  4. sexual reproduction (random fertilization b/w egg and sperm)
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47
Q

what are the 2 ways meiosis increases genetic diveristy

A

crossing over, independent assortment

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48
Q

chiasma meaning

A

location in which fragments of chromosome switch

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49
Q

recombinant chromosomes meaning

A

new combos of alleles created through meiosis (recombination)

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50
Q

bivalent meaning

A

pair of homologous chromosomes (tetrad)

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51
Q

how does independent assortment work

A
  • each bivalent (tetrad) aligns independently so daughter cells get diff mix of chromosomes
  • significant source of variation because 2^n possible different orientations in metaphase I and II combined
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52
Q

nondisjunction meaning

A

failure of chromosomes to separate correctly during anaphase I or II

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53
Q

what does nondisjunction result in

A

gamete cells with incorrect number of chromosomes–>zygote w/ incorrect # of chromosomes
- majority will be non-functioning egg/sperm
- most zygote/early embryo w/ incorrect # will not survive

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54
Q

what happens if nondisjunction occurs in anaphase I

A
  • one gamete receives 2 copies of chromosome while other gamete receives none
  • all resulting gametes after meiosis will have incorrect # of chromosomes
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55
Q

what happens if nondisjunction occurs in anaphase II

A
  • half of the final 4 gametes will have an incorrect # of chromosomes
  • other half will be unaffected
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56
Q

most common condition from nondisjunction

A

down syndrome
- has extra chromosome #21 (trisomy 21)
- not lethal however there are medical complications

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57
Q

why does nondisjunction in offspring increase with maternal age

A
  • older women have less proteins that help keep chromosomes tgt leading to instability of homologous chromosome pairs
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58
Q

trisomy meaning

A

organisms with one extra chromosome

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59
Q

monosomy meaning

A

organisms with one less chromosome

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60
Q

genetic conditions caused by nondisjunction

A
  • down syndrome (trisomy 21)
  • patau syndrome (trisomy 13)
  • klinefelter’s syndrome XXY (trisomy)
  • turner’s syndrom XO(monosomy X)
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61
Q

inheritance definition

A
  • a trait passed down from parent to offspring during reproduction
  • DNA is molecule of inheritance
62
Q

heredity meaning

A

the passing down of traits from one generation to another

63
Q

where are male gametes of flowers found

A

in pollen grains on flower anther (found in stamen)

64
Q

where are female gametes of flowers found

A

in ovules of flower ovary (found in carpel)

65
Q

cross-pollination definition

A

when one plant fertilizes another plant of the same species

66
Q

how can a gardener artificially cross-pollinate

A
  • using paintbrush, brush stamen of one flower
  • brush carpel of other flower
  • enclose flower in sealed container preventing other pollen from entering
67
Q

how did mendel discover the dominant and recessive traits

A
  • established 2 true-breed populations with 7 different traits
  • cross bred these population of each trait (ex. tall flower w/ short flower)
  • resultant plants were always identical to one parent
  • mendel allowed resultant plants to self-fertilize and found recessive trait had 1/4 chance appearance
68
Q

what 2 things did mendel conclude/identify

A
  • physical traits are determined by combos of what he had called “discrete heritable units” (now alleles)
  • identified independent assortment
69
Q

summary of alleles

A
  • diff versions of same gene
  • code for same type of protein
  • differ by a base/sequence/large section
  • new alleles can be generated by mutations which can form SNPs
  • alleles are dominant/recessive to each other
70
Q

genotype meaning

A

combinations of alleles for 2 copies of genes within diploid cells

71
Q

homozygous meaning

A

having 2 of the same alleles of a particular gene
homozygous dominant: 2 dominant alleles
homozygous recessive: 2 recessive alleles

72
Q

heterozygous meaning

A

having 2 different alleles of a particular gene

73
Q

phenotype meaning

A

observable/physical traits or characteristics of an individual

74
Q

what influences phenotype

A

both genes and environment

75
Q

what traits are only affected by genotype

A

ABO blood group, PKU disease, hemophilia

76
Q

what traits are only affected by environment

A

piercings, tattoos, scars

77
Q

what traits are affected by both environment and genotype

A

height, type II diabetes, tanning

78
Q

phenotypic plasticity meaning

A

refers to the fact that some genes can be turned on/off according to environment

79
Q

phenotypic plasticity in tanning

A
  • increase in sunlight: gene expression changes to increase synthesis of melanin
  • decrease in sunlight: gene turned off to decrease synthesis of melanin
80
Q

what is a punnet square representative of

A
  • mendelian inheritance
81
Q

autosomal meaning

A

gene located in autosome so males/females are equally affected

82
Q

autosomal dominant disease example

A

huntington’s disease

83
Q

autosomal recessive disease examples

A

cystic fibrosis, phenylketonuria (PKU)

84
Q

what are carriers

A

individuals who carry a gene but don’t express it in their phenotype

85
Q

how is phenylketonuria caused

A

mutation of PAH gene located on chromosome 12

86
Q

normal allele in PKU

A

codes for functioning phenylalanine hydroxylase, an enzyme that converts AA phenylalanine to another AA called tyrosine

87
Q

diseased allele in PKU

A

codes for non-functioning phenylalanine hydoxylase so phenylalanine from diet is not processed efficiently

88
Q

what occurs in phenylketonuria

A
  • phenylalanine accumulates, tyrosine is deficient
  • nerve cells in developing brain are very sensitive to phenylalanine levels so excessive amounts lead to brain damage
89
Q

current treatment for phenylketonuria

A
  • prevent foods with high phenylalanine content from entering diet from birth
  • PKU no longer causes intellectual and developmental disabilities in infants
90
Q

incomplete dominance definition + heterozygous phenotype

A

one allele doesn’t have complete dominance over other, traits blend

91
Q

codominance definition

A

two alleles that are equally dominant, simultaneous indepedant expression of both alleles

92
Q

what is the normal and mutated allele for sickle cell anemia

A

normal: Hb^A
mutated: Hb^B

93
Q

what is the inheritance pattern of sickle cell anemia

A

codominance

94
Q

possible genotypes and phenotypes of sickle cell anemia

A

Hb^A Hb^A –> normal RBCs
Hb^A Hb^B –> sickle cell trait (some sickle cells some normal RBCs)
Hb^A Hb^B –> sickle cell anemia (all sickle cells)

95
Q

limit to number of alleles of gene in population

A

no limit

96
Q

what gene have greatest number of alleles why?

A
  • immune response genes
  • 32000 known alleles in major histocompatibility complex
  • codes for glycoproteins that differentiate b/w self and non-self <– very important
97
Q

what is the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

A

group of genes on chromosome 6 that encode proteins that play key role in immune system

98
Q

gene pool meaning

A

all genes and various alleles within a population

99
Q

how many alleles can each person have

A

2, one from father one from mother

100
Q

how do genes with multiple alleles affect apple trees

A
  • each apple cultivar has unique combination of 2 alleles
  • prevents self pollination as 2 diff alleles are needed for pollination
101
Q

what do ABO genes code for

A

an enzyme that alters structure of glycoproteins on RBC membranes (antigens)

102
Q

what does allele I^A do

A

adds acetylgalactosamine to glycoprotein (A type blood)

103
Q

what does allele I^B do

A

adds galactose to glycoprotein (B type blood)

104
Q

what does allele i do

A

adds nothing to glycoprotein (O type blood)

105
Q

what antibodies will type A, type B, type AB and type O blood have

A

A: anti-B
B: anti-A
AB: none
O: anti-A and anti-B

106
Q

antigen meaning

A

proteins found on RBC molecules

107
Q

antibodies meaning

A

proteins in blood plasma that attach to corresponding antigens

108
Q

what is the rhesus factor

A
  • a protein on RBC that creates positive and negative blood types
  • controlled by D+ or D- alleles
  • pos: have rh antigens
  • neg: do not have rh antigens
109
Q

what is agglutination

A

the process that occurs if an antigen is mixed with corresponding antibody

110
Q

how does agglutination in the blood occur

A

when the antibodies in the blood correspond with antigens from foreign blood causing them to attach and the blood to clump together

111
Q

autosomes+ sex chromosomes in humans

A

autosomes: true homologous pairs (22 in humans)
sex chromosome: 23rd pair that determines sex

112
Q

what determines male sex determination

A

Y chromosome - without it, will always be phenotypically female

113
Q

what is the key gene on Y chromosome and what does it code for?

A

SRY gene –> codes for testis determining factor (TDF)

114
Q

what happens without a Y chromosome

A

gonads develop into ovaries by default which secrete oestradiol <– hormone causing development of female reproductive system

115
Q

what is klinefelter’s syndrome

A
  • XXY sex chromosomes
  • mostly male development with some female typical development
116
Q

intersex definition

A

someone born with reproductive/sexual anatomy that doesn’t fit typical definitions of male/female

117
Q

what are mosaic genetics

A

where have sex cells are XO and others are XY

118
Q

why are most sex linked genes found on X chromosome

A

-larger in size, more genes than Y so there’s a higher chance of mutation

119
Q

why do men have a higher chance of getting X chromosome based diseases

A
  • only have 1 X chromosome, so whatever allele that carries will be allele expressed while females have 2 X chromosomes
120
Q

normal vs. mutated hemophilia alleles

A

normal: provides instructions for making proteins for clotting process
mutated: code for altered/missing proteins that cannot effectively participate in blood clotting

121
Q

why can’t men be carriers of sex-linked genes

A

only have 1 X chromosome so it will be expressed, while females can be carriers with one altered copy of gene

122
Q

coagulation meaning

A

process where blood changes into solid state for clotting when blood vessels are damaged

123
Q

who can type A blood donate to + receive

A

donate: A, AB
receive: A, O

124
Q

who can type B blood donate to + receive

A

donate: B, AB
receive: B, O

125
Q

who can type AB blood donate to + receive

A

donate: AB
receive: AB, A, B, O

126
Q

who can type O blood donate to + receive

A

donate: A, B, AB, O
receive: O

127
Q

who can type Rh+ blood donate to + receive

A

donate: Rh+
receive: Rh+, Rh-

128
Q

who can type Rh- blood donate to + receive

A

donate: Rh+, Rh-
receive: Rh-

129
Q

who is the universal donor, why?

A

O-, no antigens

130
Q

who is the universal recipient, why?

A

AB+, no antibodies

131
Q

pedigree chart meaning

A
  • a diagram showing occurrence/appearance of phenotypes of particular gene through generations
132
Q

what to look for to determine an autosomal dominant pattern in pedigree chart

A
  • equally affected males + females
  • affected ppl in every generation
  • male to male transmission
  • EVERY affected child has affected parent
  • two affected parents have unaffected child
133
Q

what to look for to determine an autosomal recessive pattern in pedigree chart

A
  • equally affected males + females
  • skipped generations
  • appears in child but not in either parent
  • if both parents affected, all children will be affected
134
Q

what to look for to determine an x-linked dominant pattern in pedigree chart

A
  • all daughters of affected male will be affected
  • no male to male transmission
  • if homozygous dominant female, all children will be affected
135
Q

what to look for to determine an x-linked recessive pattern in pedigree chart

A
  • more common in males than females
  • all daughters of affected males are affected or carriers
  • no male to male transmission if mother is unaffected and not carrier
  • if affected mother + unaffected father, all sons will be affected
136
Q

polygenic meaning + examples

A

phenotype affected by two or more genes (ex. height, skin colour)

137
Q

effect of genes and environment on discrete phenotypes

A

influenced by one or few genes
not influenced significantly by environment

138
Q

examples of discrete phenotypes

A

blood type, pea plant size

139
Q

effect of genes and environment on continuous phenotypes

A

influenced by many different genes and influenced by environment

140
Q

examples of continuous phenotypes

A

human height, skin colour

141
Q

how is skin colour affected by alleles?

A

dominant alleles = increased melanin production
recessive alleles = reduced melanin production
- 169 gene affect human colouration

142
Q

how does melanin in skin colour work, what is it affected by?

A
  • melanocytes turn tyrosine–> melanin through complex process
  • more melanin produced when exposed UV light and decreases without UV light
  • affected by both UV exposure and genes
143
Q

negative effects of UV and how genes have adapted to it

A
  • mutations in DNA (cancer) <– may not be why genes adapted as they adapt to better produce offspring, however in many cases cancer doesn’t affect reproduction
  • UV degrades folic acid –> nutrient needed for development of fetuses
144
Q

positive effect of UV

A
  • needed for synthesis of vitamin D required for absorption of calcium into bones
145
Q

summary of histograms

A
  • represents distribution of quantitative data in single set
  • x: measurement
  • y: frequency
146
Q

summary of line/curve plot

A
  • compare quantitative data to quantitative data
  • x: quantitatively different groups
  • y: mean value of each data set
147
Q

summary of bar charts

A
  • compares qualitative data to quantitative data
  • x: qualitative groups
  • y: mean quantitative data for each qual data set
148
Q

summary of box and whisker plots

A
  • compare quantitative data in diff data sets
  • x: data sets to be compared
  • y: median value for each data set
149
Q

what does chi-squared test do

A
  • compare collected data with theoretically expected data
150
Q

what data is chi-squared test best used for

A
  • discrete and categorical data

sl biology (4 decks)

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