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4N 7-Level CDCs > Unit Review Exercises > Flashcards

Unit Review Exercises Flashcards

1
Q

What is one classification of equipment whose life expectancy is at least 5 years?

A

Medical Investment

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2
Q

When assuming custodial responsibility, when should you sign the custody receipt/locator listing?

A

Only after the inventory has been performed and all corrective actions documented

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3
Q

When do you submit an AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, for a piece of equipment that needs replacing?

A

When the need for new equipment is identified

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4
Q

Which equipment management list indicates each specific item the custodian has assigned to accept responsibility?

A

Custody receipt/locator

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5
Q

How many days does it normally take for an equipment turn-in or transfer to be processed?

A

5

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6
Q

One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for how many minutes

A

60

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7
Q

The description of the workload, associated conditions, a grade and skill level table, approved variances, and a processes analysis summary is the definition of a manpower

A

Standard

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8
Q

A funded manpower requirement is defined as a

A

Validated and allocated requirement

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9
Q

What is a manpower requirement?

A

A statement of manpower needed to complete a job, workload, mission, or program

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10
Q

Information found in which document provides a clear picture of the manning positions within a medical treatment facility (MTF)

A

Unit manpower

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11
Q

What is the numeric code that identifies a particular task that may include an alpha prefix or suffix?

A

AFSC

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12
Q

What annotates special experience and training not otherwise reflected in the classification system?

A

Special Experience Identifier (SEI)

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13
Q

Each position in the unit manning document (UMD) is displayed over fiscal quarters. When does the fiscal year start and end?

A

1 Oct through 30 Sep

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14
Q

Who authorizes a change to manpower requests?

A

Resource Management Office

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15
Q

SSgt Johnson is constantly working from one project to another and is unable to bring his units current status in line with the future goals of the organization. What will help you bridge the time span between where your unit is today and where the unit will be in the future?

A

Planning

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16
Q

TSgt Smith has recently been assigned as the NCOIC of a clinic. She has a firm grasp of the organizations goals. There is other information TSgt Smith can use to align the units progression to meet the organization’s goals. TSgt Smith can incorporate…

A

Historical unit data with planning to determine the unit’s progression to meet the organization’s goals

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17
Q

SSgt Mays is the shift leader of the special care unit and works 8-hour day shift. SSgt Mays is constantly stressed, overwhelmed, and always has a “hot” project or suspense that needs to be met. What prioritizing tool could SSgt Mays use to make more efficient use of his time?

A

Budget each level of priority having no more than 10% of A priorities, then evenly split B and C priorities.

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18
Q

What priority category must be completed by the end of the duty day?

A

Urgent

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19
Q

What categoring priority must be addressed within the next two days?

A

Category B immediate

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20
Q

Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule?

A

Nurse managers and NCOICs

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21
Q

What reference and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule?

A

AFI, Operating Instructions (OI), and local guidance

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22
Q

Considering factors affecting duty schedules, the inpatient surgical intensive care scheduler should have open lines in communication with other inpatient units to

A

Relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads

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23
Q

Who determines and assigns an immediate supervisor to a newly assigned Airman?

A

Flight NCOIC or Element NCOIC

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24
Q

The sponsor’s job is to

A

Welcome the new arrival to the base, and to help make the relocation process easier for all involved

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25
Q

What document contains complete information regarding education and training for an AFSC?

A

CFETP

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26
Q

When upgrading to a 7-skill level, what is the minimum number of months needed in training?

A

12

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27
Q

What is the overall objective of the retraining program?

A

Balancing the career force of each AFSC needed

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28
Q

The Air Force enlisted professional military education (EPME) is a time-in-service (TIS) based model that ensures

A

Targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the Continuum of Learning (CoL) across an enlisted Airman’s career

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29
Q

When you receive an initial formal school graduate, to evaluate the effectiveness of the training received you use information in

A

The CFETP and the proficiency codes

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30
Q

In the Aerospace Medical Service Journeymen field, what are the methods by which training is completed?

A

Formal courses and on-the-job training

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31
Q

In the Aerospace Medical Service Journeymen field, the effectiveness of training involves monitoring what key areas?

A

Career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency

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32
Q

When referring to tasks applicable to the member’s duty section, which document would you need?

A

Master Task List (MTL)

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33
Q

When new personnel arrive to your duty section, which document would you initiate to maintain a 100-percent task coverage of all training requirements?

A

Master Training Plan (MTP)

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34
Q

When there are approved changes to the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), who is the approval authority?

A

US Air Force Surgeon General

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35
Q

What Air Force Training Record (AFTR) component is used to document training progression involving skills and tasks?

A

623a

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36
Q

Who is mandated to have an active training record within Air Force Training Record (AFTR)?

A

E-9 and Below

37
Q

Which document below is maintained in the user file of the Air Force Training Record (AFTR)?**

A

AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluations

38
Q

Why is AHLTA forecasted to replace all functions of CHCS?

A

CHCS is primarily used for scheduling appointments and for some order entry procedures. In the future, AHLTA will take over all CHCS functions with added ability to code each patient visit. Overall, AHLTA means shorter waits for improved use of medical and professional resources, and significant improvement in the quality of patient care.

39
Q

To what extent is AHLTA used for patient care?

A

It is used for all aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding

40
Q

What tri-service initiative was created by the Military Healthcare System (MHS) to standardize electronic documentation of inpatient care?

A

Integrated Inpatient Product Team

41
Q

How does the Integrated Inpatient Product Team (IIPT) initiative aim to streamline documentation?

A

Standardizes and optimizes the use of best practices, minimize training, decrease variance.

42
Q

What is the purpose of the individual medical readiness (IMR) software?

A

An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness, physical examination standards, and clinical preventative services standards

43
Q

The purpose and outcome of individual medical readiness (IMR) objectives are to

A

Provide “real-time” medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals and primary care managers (PC

44
Q

What does IMR status RED represent?

A

Immunizations missing or out of date [PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4. Lab requirements are missing. Deployment-limiting profile]

45
Q

What does IMR status GREEN represent?

A

immunizations complete and up to date. [PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1or 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.]

46
Q

Re-engineering primary care services known as primary care optimization (PCO) and the need to recapture patient care from the private sector are being completed through

A

Population Health Management

47
Q

What tool is used to assist PCMs in managing care for their enrolled population?

A

Health Evaluation Assessment Review

48
Q

To assess, monitor and encourage the demand for needed prevention services in the immunity are the goals for what kind of population health management?

A

Demand

49
Q

The demand management concept is based on what foundation?

A

Teaching patients about prevention

50
Q

Who is eligible for TRICARE Prime?

A

Active duty military and family members of an active duty sponsor

51
Q

The Health Evaluation Assessment Review (HEAR) survey provides what specific information about the population’s health?

A

Patient’s health risks and needs

52
Q

What classifies health care financing for the poor?

A

Medicaid

53
Q

With which Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) does Region 2, the Mid-Atlantic area of the US, have a contract to manage TRICARE?

A

Humana

54
Q

Which is the most common choice for eligible beneficiaries?

A

TRICARE Prime, Extra, standard

55
Q

When was TRICARE for Life made available?

A

1 Oct 2001

56
Q

What is one of the key features of TRICARE Prime?

A

No enrollment fee for active duty members and their families

57
Q

What was the former name of TRICARE standard?

A

Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS)

58
Q

Under TRICARE Standard, what are the allowable costs for outpatient care for both active duty families and all other beneficiaries?

A

80 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 75 percent for retirees, their families, and all other eligible beneficiaries

59
Q

A 45-year old patient presents to the ED with pain to her extremities. She complains that the pain is worse at night. Which type of neuropathy does she have?

A

Peripheral

60
Q

What additional risk factors contribute to diabetic neuropathy?

A

High blood pressure

61
Q

Which of the following is a type of neuropathy and a brief description of it?

A

Peripheral Neuropathy; can cause either pain or loss of feeling in the toes, feet, legs, hands and arms

62
Q

Why is it important for all diabetic patients to perform daily foot care?

A

Blisters and sores appear on the numb areas of the foot because the pressure or injury goes unoticed

63
Q

Why do you suction a tracheostomy tube?

A

Remove secretions from the lower respiratory air passage

64
Q

When an unconscious patient is unable to breathe on their own, what is established?

A

Endotracheal tube

65
Q

When you convert the units 0.001g, it would equal to one

A

Milligram

66
Q

What are the benefits of ensuring medication reconciliation is completed?

A

Avoiding medication errors

67
Q

When you gather supplies to approximate a wound, what can be used in place of sutures or staples?

A

Skin closure strips

68
Q

Why is the primary intention closure used when a surgical incision is made?

A

Little tissue loss or damage

69
Q

In reference to doing a closure, what is a digital block?

A

A nerve block that anesthetize the finger

70
Q

A patient checks into your clinic for same day surgery. What can you do to improve your customer service skills and make the patient feel at ease?

A

Build rapport and make a good first impression

71
Q

You notice a patient looking lost at the main entrance of the hospital. You approach and ask if he needs assistance. The patient proceeds to complain about a previous visit with their provider. When attempting to resolve this issue, at what level should you initiate resolution?

A

Lowest

72
Q

How are customer needs assessed?

A

Customer evaluation

73
Q

Why is building rapport at your job important?

A

Builds harmonious relationship with patients

74
Q

What should you do if you cannot solve the patient’s problem?

A

Find someone in the organization who can

75
Q

Why do you let the provider know if a QRS complex is wider than three blocks?

A

Because of a possible heart block

76
Q

Why do you need to know if your patient is dehydrated or on drugs prior to performing an EKG?

A

It could influence the QT interval

77
Q

What is the first node that generates an electrical impulse that travels through the right and left atrial muscles?

A

Sinoatrial

78
Q

Why is the reploarization of the atria not seen on an EKG?

A

Electrical activity of the ventricle is more powerful

79
Q

What are likely causes of extrinsic mechanisms of arrhythmias?

A

Heat Exhaustion

80
Q

Which is a responsibility of the Physical Evaluation Board Liaison Officer (PEBLO)?

A

Counseling members or next of kin on the PEB findings and recommended disposition as documented on AF Form 356

81
Q

What is the intent of the assignment limitation code?

A

Protect members from being placed in an environment where they may not receive adequate medical care for a possible life threatening condition and to prevent the assignment of non-worldwide qualified personnel to overseas locations

82
Q

Which is a responsibility of the MEB clerk?

A

Schedules cases for board hearings

83
Q

What two things determine a member’s security clearance?

A

AFSC and assignment

84
Q

When are medical standards applied?

A

Every visit an AD or ARC member makes it to your clinic

85
Q

Which conditions are not eligible for referral to the disability evaluation system?

A

Unfitting

86
Q

What is a recommendation resulting from a medical evaluation, which, if applied explicitly, limits or restricts an airman’s ability to perform primary and/or additionally assigned duties, deploy (mobility), or participate in fitness activities?

A

Duty Limiting

87
Q

What is the maximum number of days that the AF Form 469, Duty limiting Condition Report and AF Form 422, Notification of Air Force Member’s Qualification Status is good for?

A

365

88
Q

An airmen should be referred to the Deployment Availability Working Group (DAWG) if a mobility restriction goes over how many days?

A

90

4N 7-Level CDCs (1 decks)

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