Unit Review 1-4 Flashcards by Diego Marquez

(001) As a supervisor, prior to assigning individuals their work duties, you should

a. erase all tasks in the individual’s on-the-job training (OJT) records.
b. evaluate the individual’s OJT records.
c. train the individual on the task.
d. perform a task evaluation.

b. evaluate the individual’s OJT records.

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(002) When assigning unit numerical designations for USAF organizations, which priority focuses
on preserving units that trace their heritage to the original (pre-1939) Air Force formations?

a. First.
b. Second.
c. Third.
d. Fourth.

a. First.

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(002) Who is responsible for organizing the Air Force?

a. Secretary of Defense (SECDEF).
b. Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).
c. Chief of Staff of the Air Force (CSAF).
d. Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower, Personnel and Services (AF/A1).

b. Secretary of the Air Force (SAF).

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(003) What type of manpower standard is typically developed for a function that deviates
significantly from the norm?

a. Air Force standards.
b. Command standards.
c. Single location standards.
d. Geographically-separated unit standards.

c. Single location standards.

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(003) A detailed manpower listing reflecting authorizations or slots by work center is a unit

a. manpower listing.
b. manpower document.
c. personnel management listing.
d. personnel management roster.

b. manpower document.

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(003) Which manpower document is produced and administered at the base level and provides a
means to monitor unit manning and controlling incoming and intra-unit assignments?

a. Unit manpower listing.
b. Unit manpower document.
c. Unit personnel management listing.
d. Unit manpower personnel roster!

d. Unit manpower personnel roster!

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(004) How many years of experience fitting aircrew helmets, oxygen masks, and working with
aviator flight equipment must civilian personnel performing equipment inspection and
maintenance duties possess?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

C. 3.

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(004) When the performance work standard (PWS) or statement of work (SOW), new or revised,
contain aircrew flight equipment (AFE) services, who must review and approved them prior to
their implementation?

a. MAJCOM AFE functional manager (FM).
b. Training pipeline manager.
c. Career field manager (CFM).
d. Aircrew flight equipment superintendent.

a. MAJCOM AFE functional manager (FM).

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(005) What is the underlying purpose of a composite tool kit (CTK) program?

a. Save time when working with tools.
b. Keep equipment in good condition.
c. Eliminate foreign object damage.
d. Help keep facilities clean.

c. Eliminate foreign object damage.

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(005) What instruction covers the management of a composite tool kit (CTK) program?

a. TO 32-1-101, Maintenance & Care of Hand Tools.
b. AFI 11-301, Aircrew Flight Equipment (AFE) Operations.
c. AFI21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
d. AFI10-601, Mission Needs and Operations Requirements Guidance and Procedures.

c. AF 21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance

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(005) The master inventory list (MIL) remains valid until

a. one year after the initial inspection.
b. the monthly inspection.
c. personnel change.
d. the contents change

d. the contents change.

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(005) When, if ever, may consumables, such as halocarbons, be placed in composite tool kits
(CTK)?

a. If they are identified on the master inventory list (MIL) as consumables.
b. If they are unable to leak and cause damage to the CTK.
c. If they are used up completely before the end of the day.
d. At no time, consumables may never be placed in a CTK.

a. If they are identified on the master inventory list (MIL) as consumables.

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(005) How often should a comprehensive inspection of all composite tool kit (CTK) be
completed?

a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Annually.

d. Annually

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(006) Within aircrew flight equipment (AFE), who is tasked to manage the time compliance
technical order (TCTO) program to ensure satisfactory integration of AFE with aircrew recovery
systems?

a. AFE quality assurance (QA).
b. AFE superintendent.
c. Flight equipment officer (FEO).
d. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

a. AFE quality assurance (QA).

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(006) Once the development process flow has produced a time compliance technical order
(TCTO), who receives and date stamps the TCTO?

a. Wing plans office.
b. Quality assurance (QA),
c. Technical order distribution account (TODA).
d. Wing plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D) section.

b. Quality assurance (QA).

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(006) Time compliance technical order (TCTO) kits are not necessary for

a. urgent action TCTOs.
b. routine action TCTOs.
c. emergency action TCTOs.
d. condition or inspection TCTOs.

d. condition or inspection TCTOs.

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(007) Who is responsible for ensuring at least one 1P071 (or civilian equivalent) is appointed to
fill the aircrew flight equipment (AFE) quality assurance (QA) inspector position?

a. Wing commander.
b. Group commander.
c. Squadron commander.
d. AFE superintendent.

b. Group commander.

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(007) The results of no-notice quality assurance (QA) inspection must be documented

a. on locally developed forms.
b. on AF IMT Form 2420.
c. in the Flight Equipment Records Management System (FERMS).
d. in the Aircrew Flight Equipment Quality Assurance Program (AFEQAP)

d. in the Aircrew Flight Equipment Quality Assurance Program (AFEQAP).

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(008) As a minimum expectation, what percentage, if any, of post-flight equipment requires
quality control inspection (QCI)?

a. 100.
b. 50.
c. 10.
d. 0.

d. 0

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(008) How are in-process inspections (IPI) documented?

a. On AF IMT Form 2420.
b. On locally developed forms.
c. In the Flight Equipment Records Management System (FERMS).
d. In the Aircrew Flight Equipment Quality Assurance Program (AFEQAP).

b. On locally developed forms.

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(009) What is the single largest factor in generating a quality aircrew flight equipment (AFE)
technician?

a. Hands-on training.
b. Upgrade training.
c. Proper training.
d. Refresher training.

c. Proper training.

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(009) The Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) consists of how many main parts?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

b. 2.

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(009) Which part and section of the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) identifies
career field progression information, duties and responsibilities, training strategies, and career
field path?

a. Part I, section A.
b. Part II, section A
c. Part I, section B.
d. Part IlI, section B.

c. Part I, section B

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(009) Where is the proficiency code key located?

a. CFETP.
b. STS.
c. MTP.
d. MTL.

b. STS.

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(009) When documenting training, what do you use to indicate the individual can perform the task without assistance and meets local demands for accuracy, timeliness, and correct use of procedures? a. Qualified. b. Ready. c. Go. d. Signed off.

c. Go.

(009) Which Part of the Career Field and Training Plan (CFETP) is mandatory in individual Training records? A. Part I. B. Part Il. C. Part III. D. Part IV

B. Part Il.

(009) In the proficiency code chart, the subject knowledge scale values consist of a. lower case letters. b. upper case letters. c. numbers and lower case letters. d. numbers and upper case letters.

b. upper case letters.

(010) What document is used to expand a section in the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)? a. Job Qualification Standard (JQS). b. Career development course (CDC). c. Training Business Area (TBA). d. Specialty training standard (STS).

a. Job Qualification Standard (JQS).

(010) What document provides a list of all tasks performed in a work center? a. Qualification Training (QT). b. Master training plan (MTP). c. Master task list (MTL). d. Job Qualification Standard (JOS).

c. Master task list (MTL).

(011) Who approves the Air Force master lesson plans (AFMLP) used to conduct aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT)? a. 361 TRS/TRR. b. Lead mission designator series (MDS) major command (MAJCOM). c. Air Education and Training Command (AETC) AFE functional manager (FM). d. Aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES).

b. Lead mission designator series (MDS) major command (MAJCOM).

(011) How frequently must the group flight equipment officer (FEO) or aircrew flight equipment (AFE) superintendent review the AFE master lesson plans and instructor lesson plans? a. Annually. b. Semiannually. c. Quarterly. d. Monthly.

a. Annually.

(012) Which publication establishes specific requirements and applies to all aircrew flight equipment continuation training instructors (AFECTI), aircrew, and personnel who fly? a. AFI 11-301 b. AFI 90-821. c. AFI 91-201. d. AFI 91-202.

a. AFI 11-301.

(012) Which aircrew flight equipment continuation training (AFECT) course is specifically for those members flying in non-ejection seat aircraft? a. LL01. b. LL02. c. LL03. d. LL04.

c. LL03.

(012) Aircrew flight equipment instructors (AFECTI) must meet minimum formal training requirements and be assigned using guidelines established by their respective a. unit NCOICs. b. DOD directives. c. major commands. d. group commanders.

c. major commands.

(012) Who controls and manages the wing's aircrew flight equipment (AFE) formal supplemental course allocations? a. Unit NCOICs. b. DOD directives. c. Major commands. d. Group flight equipment officer (FEO) or AFE superintendent (AFES).

d. Group flight equipment officer (FEO) or AFE superintendent (AFES)

(013) Which items may be purchased using cost per flying hour (CPFH) funds? a. Flight jackets. b. Clip/knee boards. c. Helmet bags. d. Flight gloves.

D. Flight gloves

(013) What method is used to determine if an item is eligible for Air Force Cost Analysis Improvement Group /cost per flying hour (AFCAIG/CPFH) funding? a. Maintenance. b. Operations. c. Decision-tree. d. Consumable.

c. Decision-tree.

(014) When budgeting resources, authorizations are the a. maximum essential quantity required to accomplish your assigned AF mission or to accomplish your duties. b. minimum essential quantity required to accomplish your assigned AF mission or to accomplish your duties. c. minimum allowable quantity you would normally need to perform your mission. d. maximum allowable quantity you would normally need to perform your mission.

b. minimum essential quantity required to accomplish your assigned AF mission or to accomplish your duties.

(014) What system does Air Force policy mandate to be used for the development, validation, and use of equipment allowances, authorizations, accountable records, reports, and related management products? a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS). b. Flight Equipment Records Management System (FERMS). c. Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS). d. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

a. Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS).

(014) Which allowance source code (ASC) applies to unit type code (UTC) or mobility commitment? a. A b. B. c. C. d. D.

a. A

(014) Which allowance standard is used for aircrew flight equipment base use items? a. A. b. B. C. C. d. D.

b. B.

(015) The R-14, customer authorization and custody receipt listing (CA/CRL) serves as a custody receipt when signed by the a. custodian. b. commander. c. custodian and commander. d. primary and alternate custodians.

c. custodian and commander.

(016) In reference to the time change item (TI) budgeting and procurement process, which publication describes the types of time change items that require annual forecasts? a. TO 00-5-1. b. TO 00-5-15. c. TO 00-20-9. d. AFI 11-301. Volume 1.

c. TO 00-20-9.

(010) The primary method of time change items budgeting forecast submission is the a. AFTO Form 2430. b. AFTO Form 2420. c. AFTO Form 223. d. AF Form 602.

c. AFTO Form 223.

(016) What time frames do time change items forecasts use as a break out? a. Daily. b. Monthly. c. Quarterly. d. Annually.

c. Quarterly.

(016) Who determines the need for additional forecast data to assure assets are available to meet replacement requirements? a. Item managers. b. Cost center managers. c. Career field managers. d. Work center supervisors.

a. Item managers.

(016) How frequently are life-sustaining items forecasted? a. Daily. b. Monthly. c. Quarterly. d. Annually.

d. Annually.

(016) When forecasting for conventional munitions, what category is used for aircrew flight equipment (AFE) munitions used as build-up to support new aircraft or aircrew? a. A. b. D. c. K. d. T.

d. T

(017) Who is authorized to submit a requirement to start the acquisition process? a. Aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or flight equipment officer (FEO). b. Major commands level staff. c. Supervisors. d. Anyone.

b. Major commands level staff.

(017) Within aircrew flight equipment (AFE), who is authorized to negotiate or agree to buy an item from a company? a. Aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or flight equipment officer (FEO). b. Major commands. c. Supervisors. d. Anyone.

b. Major commands.

(017) Acquisition requirements that explain the deficiency, impact, and proposed solutions are usually documented on which form? a. AF Form 600. b. AF Form 601. c. AF Form 1067. d. AF Form 1068.

c. AF Form 1067

(017) Upon completion of a new item acquisition process, who usually purchases an initial stock for the Defense Logistics Agency (LA), base supply and the shops that will use the item? a. Air Force Life Cycle Management Center/Human Systems Division (AFLCMC/WNUS). b. Air Force Institute of Technology (AFIT). c. Air Force Life Cycle Management Center/Aircrew Performance Branch (AFLCMC/WNUV). d. Air Force Research Laboratory (AFRL).

c. Air Force Life Cycle Management Center/Aircrew Performance Branch (AFLCMC/WNUV).

(018) Which technical order details the deficiency reporting process? a. 00-5-1. b. 00-5-15. c. 00-20-9. d. 00-35D-54.

d. 00-35D-54.

(018) At most bases, who performs the function of screening point? a. Originating unit. b. Base supply. c. Item manager. d. Technical order distribution office or quality assurance.

d. Technical order distribution office or quality assurance.

(019) A report of survey (ROS) is mandatory if a. the time becomes unserviceable due to fair wear and tear. b. an item is disassembled for component parts or is salvaged. c. hand tools or other items over $100 unit cost are lost. d. property is lost in combat operations.

c. hand tools or other items over $100 unit cost are lost.

(019) In which circumstance is a report of survey (ROS) not mandatory? a. Property loss in combat operations. b. Supply system records are adjusted more than $2,500 for pilfer-able items. c. Supply stock records are adjusted more than $16,000 for uncontrolled or non-pilfer-able items d. Controlled or sensitive items have been damaged or destroyed, unless exempted by AFMAN 23-220.

a. Property loss in combat operations.

(019) If the item does not require a report of survey (ROS), when may you voluntarily pay for property that was lost, damaged, or destroyed? a. If they item value is $500 or less. b. If they item value is $1,500 or less. c. If they item value is $2,500 or less. d. You cannot voluntarily pay for items.

a. If they item value is $500 or less.

(020) Who should periodically inspect aircrew flight equipment work centers to ensure that contamination of breathing equipment is at an absolute minimum? a. Quality assurance (QA) representatives. b. Flight surgeons office representatives. c. Flight equipment officer (FEO) d. Unit commanders.

b. Flight surgeons office representatives.

(020) What temperature range, degrees Fahrenheit (F), should aircrew flight equipment work centers maintain? a. 65 to 75. b. 68 to 75. C. 68 to 80. d. 65 to 85.

b. 68 to 75.

(020) At least how frequently should heel and chair marks or other discoloration of the floor be removed in an aircrew flight equipment facility? a. Daily. b. Weekly. c. Monthly. d. Quarterly.

c. Monthly.

(021) Which malfunction on the parachute is caused by excessive opening forces? a. Broken lines. b. Line(s) over. c. Full inversion. d. Partial inversion.

a. Broken lines.

(022) What is the most common type of Air Force mishap? a. Ground. b. Aircraft. c. Chemical. d. Environmental.

a. Ground.

(022) A timely mishap investigation relies upon a. prompt notification b. mishap witnesses. c. corrective action. d. safety standards.

a. prompt notification.

(022) A primary focal point for all safety related matters is the a. unit commander. b. wing safety office. c. immediate supervisor. d. unit safety representative.

d. unit safety representative.

``` (022) Which class of mishap does not involve USAF operations, but results in injuries to USAF military personnel or property damage? ``` a. On-duty. b. Off-duty. c. Reportable. d. Non-reportable.

b. Off-duty

(022) If a Department of Defense (DOD) aircraft is destroyed, this is considered which mishap classification? a. Class A. b. Class B. c. Class C. d. Class D.

a. Class A.

(022) Which mishap classification is assigned for suffers of a nonfatal injury that requires them to lose work time beyond the day or shift on which the mishap occurred? a. Class A. b. Class B. c. Class C. d. Class D

C. Class C

(022) What classification of mishaps results in injuries that only require first-aid treatment and results in no lost days from work? a. Class A. b. Class B. c. Class C. d. Class D.

d. Class D.

``` (022) The preliminary report for a class A or B off-duty ground mishap must be initiated how soon after the accident? ``` a. By the 2nd duty day. b. By the 3rd duty day. c. Within 10 calendar days. d. Within 30 calendar days.

a. By the 2nd duty day.

``` (023) Which course prepares aircrew flight equipment (AFE) personnel for service on a safety investigation board (SIB) or accident investigation board (AIB)? ``` a. Aircrew Flight Equipment Program Manager's. b. Aircrew Flight Equipment Deployed Leadership. c. Life Science Equipment Investigation. d. Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) Airframe and Power plant (A&P).

c. Life Science Equipment investigation

(024) Immediately following a physiological incident, what minimum action should you take, as the qualified aircrew flight equipment (AFE) craftsman, with regard to the worn AFE? a. Inspect all worn equipment items. b. Clean and photograph the equipment. c. Verify all data on inspection records. d. Mark the bayonet receivers with a permanent marker

d. Mark the bayonet receivers with a permanent marker.

(024) Any aircrew flight equipment failure or malfunction contributing to a physiological mishap must be documented in the formal report and in the a. Safety bulletin. b. Air Force Safety Automated System (AFSAS), c. Flight equipment records management system (FERMS). d. Aircrew flight equipment quality assurance program (AFQAP).

b. Air Force Safety Automated System (AFSAS)

(024) Which mishap classification is used for physiological events? a. Class B. b. Class C. c. Class D. d. Class E.

d. Class E

(025) What enables force providers to identify units that have, or can quickly develop, the capabilities requested by theater commanders? a. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART). b. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). c. Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS). d. Posture Analysis Tool (PAT).

c. Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS).

(025) Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRS) measures readiness to provide needed capabilities for missions as expressed by the organization's a. unit type code (UTC). b. mission essential task (MET), c. posturing analysis tool (PAT). d. designed operational capability (DOC) statement.

b. mission essential task (MET).

(026) The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) is designed to a. function as a detailed information management system. b. be used as an input for performance appraisal of a unit or unit commander. c. count all conceivable variables regarding personnel, training, and logistics. d. provide a broad assessment of unit status based on unit's ability to execute its mission(s).

d. provide a broad assessment of unit status based on unit's ability to execute its mission(s).

(026) Who designs and develops Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) measurement criteria to provide valid assessments regarding unit readiness? a. Unit commanders. b. Wing commanders. c. Career field managers (CFM). d. Functional area managers (FAM).

d. Functional area managers (FAM).

``` (027) Who reports on the inventory and status of aircraft in Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)? a. Operations units. b. Maintenance units. c. Major commands. d. Mission support units. ```

b. Maintenance units.

(027) Where are all AF designed operational capability (DOC) statements centrally located? a. Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART). b. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). c. Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS). d. Posture Analysis Tool (PAT).

c. Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS)

(027) How frequently must the major command, field operating agency or direct reporting unit command reporting organizations, and the measured commander review designed operational capability (DOC) statements? a. Weekly. b. Monthly. c. Quarterly. d. Annually.

d. Annually.

(027) Changes to the unit designed operational capability (DOC) statements must be completed within how many days? a. 30. b. 60. c. 120. d. 180.

b. 60.

(028) On which network or portal does the air and space expeditionary reporting tool (ART) reside? a. Nonsecure internet protocol routing network (NIPRNET). b. Secure internet protocol routing network (SIPRNET). c. Air and space expeditionary force network (AEFNET). d. Air Force Portal.

b. Secure internet protocol routing network (SIPRNET).

(028) On which network or portal does the air and space expeditionary reporting tool (AK I) training site reside? a. Nonsecure internet protocol routing network (NIPRNET). b. Secure internet protocol routing network (SIPRNET). c. Air and space expeditionary force network (AEFNET). d. Air Force Portal.

a. Nonsecure internet protocol routing network (NIPRNET).

(028) Air and space expeditionary reporting tool (ART) complements readiness data reported in a. Time Phased Force Deployment Data (TPFDD) library. b. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). c. Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRRS). d. Posture Analysis Tool (PAT).

b. Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

``` (028) Who is responsible for associating, tracking, and managing personnel and equipment in unit type codes (UTC) and assigning them to the proper aircrew equipment flight (AEF)? ``` a. Flight chief or superintendent. b. Flight commander. c. Unit commander. d. Wing commander.

c. Unit commander.

(028) How frequent all Air Force and Air Force gained units must submit and update unit type code assessments every a. 180 days. b. 90 days. c. 60 days. d. 30 days.

d. 30 days.

``` (029) Who is responsible for matching postured unit type code (UTC) requirements to unit manpower document (UMD) authorizations? ``` a. Wing commanders. b. Group commanders. c. Unit commanders. d. Functional area managers (FAM).

d. Functional area managers (FAM).

(030) What is the responsibility of a pilot unit when preparing for deployments? a. Developing and maintaining standard manpower and logistics details. b. Establishing equipment load list only. c. Establishing manning standards only. d. Establishing the production goals.

a. Developing and maintaining standard manpower and logistics details

(030) Who is responsible for physically building, weighing, and measuring each increment of cargo when developing and maintaining standard unit type code (UTC) logistics details (LOGDET)? a. Pilot units. b. Non-pilot units. c. Unit deployment managers. d. Aerial Port personnel.

a. Pilot units.

(030) What security classification, if any, is applied to unit type code (UTC) logistics details (LOGDET)? a. Secret. b. None. c. Classified according to the classification of the manpower force detail. d. Classified according to the classification of the UTC mission capability (MISCAP).

b. None.

(031) What tool enables users to view unit type codes (UTC), logistic details (LOGDET), manpower detail, and mission capability (MISCAP) statements? a. Posture analysis tool (PAT). b. Air and space expeditionary force unit type code tool (ART). c. CAPES analysis and feasibility tool (AFT). d. Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK).

d. Manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK).

(031) How frequently is the manpower and equipment force packaging (MEFPAK) updated? a. Monthly. b. Quarterly. c. Semiannually. d. Annually.

a. Monthly.

(032) Which Air Force instruction is used to develop an installation deployment plan (IDP)? a. AFI 10-402. b. AFI 10-403. c. AFI 10-404. d. AFI 10-405.

b. AFI 10-403.

(032) Who or which deployment work center is the installation commander's representative during all deployments? a. Unit deployment manager (UDM). b. Deployment control center (DCC). c. Installation deployment officer (IDO). d. Cargo deployment function (CDF).

c. Installation deployment officer (IDO).

(032) Who or which deployment work center provides overall control, direction, and supervision of large-scale exercises? a. Unit deployment manager (UDM). b. Deployment control center (DCC). c. Installation deployment officer (IDO). d. Cargo deployment function (CDF).

b. Deployment control center (DCC).

(032) Which deployment work center is not part of the installation deployment officer's (IDO) activation process? a. Logistic readiness unit (LRU). b. Cargo deployment function (CDF). c. Personnel deployment function (PDF). d. Personnel readiness unit (PRU).

d. Personnel readiness unit (PRU).

(032) In which stage of the deployment process is the plan executed at the deployed location a. Site survey. b. Mobilizing. c. Deployment. d. Employment.

d. Employment.

(033) How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain? a. 5,000. b. 7,500. c. 10,000. d. 25,000.

b. 7,500.

(033) How many individuals must be used to move a 463L pallet a short distance by hand safely? a. 3. b. 4. c. 5. d. 6

d. 6.

(033) Which guidance explains the exception for only using an Internal Singable Unit (ISU) container? a. AFI 10-403. b. AFI 10-244. c. AFI 11-302. d. AFI 25-101.

d. AFI 25-101.