Unit Questions Volume 1

Question 1

Who is responsible for developing an operating instruction (OI) to specify tool accountability procedures?

a. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) fuels distribution or operations superintendent.
b. Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent.
c. Fuels maintenance supervisor.
d. Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

Answer 1

b. Vehicle fleet manager or vehicle maintenance superintendent.

Question 2

The Vehicle Maintenance Flight Materiel Control section point of contact (POC) coordinates with applicable supervisors or their designees to update and perform inventories on composite tool kits (CTK) on all these occurrences except

a. initial issue.
b. quarterly.
c. semi-annually.
d. when responsible individual is transferred and a new one is assigned.

Answer 2

b. quarterly.

Question 3

Who ensures tools and precision measurement equipment assigned to composite tool kits (CTK) are scheduled for calibration and certification?

a. Vehicle maintenance superintendent.
b. Vehicle management flight materiel control section.
c. Vehicle fleet manager.
d. Technician assigned to CTK.

Answer 3

b. Vehicle management flight materiel control section.

Question 4

Type III, IV and V hydrant systems will be flushed at least

a. monthly.
b. quarterly.
c. semiannually.
d. annually.

Answer 4

a. monthly.

Question 5

When performing a hydrant flushing operation, ensure the loop is flushed

a. with a minimum of twice the line volume.
b. using a minimum of 2,000 gallons of product.
c. until a sump sample is obtained.
d. for at least 30 minutes.

Answer 5

a. with a minimum of twice the line volume.

Question 6

When obtaining quantity readings with the automated tank gauge (ATG) tank control unit, which key must you press first when switching between tanks?

a. ESC.
b. NEXT.
c. TANK.
d. ENTER.

Answer 6

c. TANK.

Question 7

Approximately how long will the nitrogen supply last when an automated tank gauging (ATG) tank control unit (TCU) displays an alarm indicating the supply has dropped below 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?

a. One week.
b. One month.
c. Three months.
d. Six months.

Answer 7

b. One month.

Question 8

When performing a periodic cryotainer inspection, which items listed in Technical Order (TO) 37C2–8–1–116WC–1 should you complete?

a. All items.
b. All items preceded by an asterisk (*).
c. All items listed under the “Periodic Inspection” heading.
d. All items followed by an ampersand (&).

Answer 8

b. All items preceded by an asterisk (*).

Question 9

What action, if any, should be taken if a commercial delivery operator does not provide a Department of Defense (DD) Form 250 with a liquid oxygen (LOX) shipment?

a. No action is required.
b. Contact Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA) for disposition instructions.
c. Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.
d. Notify the fuels management team (FMT) and obtain an odor sample.

Answer 9

c. Inform the fuels service center (FSC) and await further guidance.

Question 10

Which of the following cryotainer valves should be in the open position before starting a liquid nitrogen (LIN) receipt?

a. Vent valve.
b. Service valve.
c. Fill/drain valve.
d. Pressure build up valve.

Answer 10

a. Vent valve.

Question 11

Before beginning a liquid oxygen (LOX) receipt, ensure the commercial delivery operator

a. reviews the AFTO Forms 244/245 for accuracy.
b. performs an odor test on the receiving cryotainer.
c. purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants.
d. signs the DD Form 250 in the quality assurance representative (QAR) block.

Answer 11

c. purges the transfer hose to remove potential contaminants.

Question 12

When preparing to issue liquid oxygen (LOX), what action, if any, should be taken if a review of a receiving tank’s AFTO Form 134 finds that the form is not properly filled out?

a. No action is required.
b. Do not service the receiving tank.
c. Inform aircraft maintenance of the discrepancy.
d. Contact the fuels service center and await further instructions.

Answer 12

b. Do not service the receiving tank.

Question 13

To what pressure range should source tank pressure be set for cryogenic issuing?

a. 10–15 psi.
b. 15–20 psi.
c. 20–30 psi.
d. 30–40 psi.

Answer 13

a. 10–15 psi.

Question 14

When preparing to issue liquid nitrogen (LIN), what action, if any, should you take if a receiving tank’s AFTO Forms 244/245 lists an open Red X condition?

a. No action is required.
b. Do not fill the receiving tank.
c. Notify the fuels control center (FCC) and request line expediter assistance.
d. Inform the fuels management team and await further instructions.

Answer 14

b. Do not fill the receiving tank.

Question 15

Which step should be taken if a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart fails an odor test?

a. Conduct another odor test.
b. Inform aircraftmaintenance.
c. Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.
d. Contact the fuels lab and request a correlation sample be taken.

Answer 15

c. Perform an odor test on the storage tank that serviced the cart.

Question 16

Approximately what size sample should be taken for an odor test?

a. 100 milliliter (ml).
b. 200 ml.
c. 300 ml.
d. 400 ml.

Answer 16

b. 200 ml.

Question 17

What symbol should you enter on the AFTO Form 244/245 if a routine inspection on a cryotainer goes overdue?

a. Red X.
b. Red dash.
c. Red cross.
d. Red diagonal.

Answer 17

b. Red dash.

Question 18

When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, what information should be entered in block 4?

a. The date the cart was filled.
b. The quantity issued to the cart.
c. The tank number of the issuing cryotainer.
d. The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

Answer 18

d. The initials of the individual that filled the cart.

Question 19

When documenting a cryogenic product issue to a liquid oxygen (LOX) cart on the AFTO Form 134, how should odor test results be annotated in block 2, column D?

a. As either “+” or “–” in column A.
b. As either “SAT” of “UNSAT” in column B.
c. As either “GO” or “NO GO” in column C.
d. As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.

Answer 19

d. As either “FAIL” of “PASS” in column D.

Question 20

When documenting a cryogenic product receipt on the DLA Form 2046, from which of the following documents is the vendors invoice obtained?

a. DD Form 250.
b. DD Form 250–1.
c. DD Form 1348.
d. DD Form 1348–1.

Answer 20

a. DD Form 250.

Question 21

How often should hot refueling personnel undergo certification for hot refueling operations?

a. Monthly.
b. Quarterly.
c. Semiannually.
d. Annually.

Answer 21

d. Annually.

Question 22

Who may approve deviations from hot refueling policies when combat or emergency situations require the use of hot refueling?

a. HQ USAF Deputy Chief of Staff for Installations & Logistics (A4/7).
b. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.
c. Wing commander.
d. Fuels management flight commander (FMFC).

Answer 22

b. Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

Question 23

Which aircraft does not require a hot brake check before entering the hot refueling pad?

a. B–1.
b. F–15.
c. F–16.
d. F–22.

Answer 23

b. F–15.

Question 24

When performing rapid defueling operations into fuel servicing vehicles, the high-level shutoff valve should be tested within the first

a. minute of fuel flow.
b. two minutes of fuel flow.
c. 250 gallons defueled.
d. 500 gallons defueled.

Answer 24

a. minute of fuel flow.

Question 25

When is a rapid defuel operation considered a hot defuel?

a. Whenever the provider aircraft has all engines running.
b. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.
c. Whenever the provider aircraft has any engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.
d. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has an engine located on the same side as the refueling receptacle running.

Answer 25

b. Whenever the source or provider aircraft has any engine running.

Question 26

Concurrent servicing operations supporting sortie generation operations (CSO/SGO) are not authorized on what aircraft?

a. A–10.
b. B–2.
c. F–15.
d. F–22.

Answer 26

b. B–2.

Question 27

Who is responsible for on-site supervision during all aspects of a concurrent servicing operations supporting combat sortie generation (CSO/CSG)?

a. Concurrent servicing supervisor.
b. Aircraft servicing supervisor.
c. Chief servicing supervisor.
d. Fuels operator.

Answer 27

a. Concurrent servicing supervisor.

Question 28

During concurrent servicing of cargo or passenger aircraft, deplaning personnel should not come with in a minimum of how many feet from any aircraft fuel vent outlet?

a. 10.
b. 20.
c. 25.
d. 50.

Answer 28

c. 25.

Question 29

Who is responsible for controlling and monitoring all concurrent servicing of cargo/passenger aircraft operations to include cargo/baggage loading/unloading, maintenance, fuel or oxygen servicing, and fleet servicing?

a. Passenger compartment monitor.
b. Fuels servicing supervisor.
c. Chief servicing supervisor.
d. Refueling panel monitor.

Answer 29

c. Chief servicing supervisor.

Question 30

During in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed, fuel servicing vehicle engines should not be allowed to operate for more than what maximum number of minutes?

a. 15.
b. 20.
c. 30.
d. 40.

Answer 30

b. 20.

Question 31

Crew members conducting in-shelter refueling with the aircraft entry doors closed should be limited to what maximum number of operations per duty day?

a. 2.
b. 3.
c. 4.
d. 6.

Answer 31

c. 4.

Question 32

During multiple source refueling, what action, if any, should be taken if backflow is detected?

a. No action is required.
b. Increase engine revolutions per minute (RPM).
c. Decrease the engine RPMs.
d. Stop the operation immediately.

Answer 32

d. Stop the operation immediately.

Question 33

When multiple source refueling, if multiple refueling units are located on the same side or wing of an aircraft, each vehicle

a. can begin fuel flow once positioned.
b. may leave the aircraft upon completion of fuel servicing.
c. should be positioned directly under the wing of the aircraft.
d. must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.

Answer 33

d. must remain positioned and bonded until fuel flow is terminated on all trucks on that side of the aircraft.

Question 34

When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) user interface terminal (UIT), what tab allows you to enter information about the fuels management flight to which the equipment is assigned?

a. PDA.
b. Wireless.
c. Device info.
d. Base.

Answer 34

d. Base.

Question 35

When configuring an Automated Point of Sale Device (APOSD) truck interface module (TIM), what settings screen allows you to add and edit information regarding the fueling unit to which the TIM is assigned?

a. Basic configuration.
b. Device configuration.
c. Fuel point configuration.
d. Meter configuration.

Answer 35

c. Fuel point configuration.

Question 36

While performing expediter duties, what action must you take if you notice an unsafe fueling operation?

a. Immediately terminate the operation.
b. Correct the deficiency and allow the operation to continue.
c. Closely monitor the operation and notify the fuels service center.
d. Allow the operation to continue and report the discrepancy to the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCIOC) of fuels distribution.

Answer 36

a. Immediately terminate the operation.

Question 37

Which of the following operations requires a fuels expediter be used?

a. Return-to-bulk (RTB).
b. Ground fuel servicing.
c. Aircraft fueling.
d. Fillstand.

Answer 37

c. Aircraft fueling.

Question 38

Each R–20 multi-aircraft servicing platform is equipped with how many feet of communication wire?

a. 1,000.
b. 1,500.
c. 3,000.
d. 4,500.

Answer 38

b. 1,500.

Question 39

What type of hose should be used on the discharge side of the R–18 for transfer operations?

a. 4-inch hard hose.
b. 4-inch collapsible hose.
c. 6-inch hard hose.
d. 6-inch collapsible hose.

Answer 39

c. 6-inch hard hose.

Question 40

How many fillstand assemblies are included in the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) system?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.

Answer 40

b. 2.

Question 41

At a minimum, how often should the R–18 pumping unit oil filter be changed?

a. Every 250 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.
b. Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.
c. Every 250 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first.
d. Every 500 hours of operation or annually, whichever comes first.

Answer 41

b. Every 500 hours of operation or semiannually, whichever comes first.

Question 42

What is the proper tire pressure setting for the R–18 pumping unit?

a. 30 pounds per square inch (psi).
b. 65 psi.
c. 75 psi.
d. 100 psi.

Answer 42

c. 75 psi.

Question 43

How often should the sump tank on the R–19 filter separator unit be drained?

a. Daily.
b. Weekly.
c. Monthly.
d. Quarterly.

Answer 43

a. Daily.

Question 44

Which condition does not require replacement of filter elements on the R–19 filter separator unit?

a. A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.
b. A reading of 22 psid on the DP gauge.
c. Elements that have been in use for 36 months.
d. Filter separator vessel performance is questionable.

Answer 44

a. A reading of 16 psid on the differential pressure (DP) gauge.

Question 45

What pressure should the surge suppressor gauge on the R–20 multi-aircraft servicing unit indicate when the fueling system is not operating?

a. 45 psi.
b. 75 psi.
c. 90 psi.
d. 150 psi.

Answer 45

c. 90 psi.

Question 46

The micronic filter elements on the R–20multi-aircraft servicing unit should be replaced when the differential pressure (DP) reading exceeds

a. 10 psid.
b. 15 psid.
c. 20 psid.
d. 25 psid.

Answer 46

b. 15 psid.

Question 47

When setting up the communication panel on an R–18, what action should you take first?

a. Turn off the panel power switch.
b. Turn on the battery master switch.
c. Set the station unit identification (ID) switch to the desired number.
d. Place the manual/remote control switch in the MANUAL position.

Answer 47

a. Turn off the panel power switch.

Question 48

When performing off load operations with the Fuels Operational Readiness Capability
Equipment (FORCE) system, the deadman switch on the communications panel of the R–18 pumping unit should be placed in what position?

a. ON.
b. OFF.
c. OFFLOAD.
d. NO DEADMAN.

Answer 48

d. NO DEADMAN.

Question 49

When performing transfer operations with an R–18 pumping unit, what reading should the oil pressure gauge indicate if the unit is operating properly?

a. 25 ± 5 pounds per square inch (psi).
b. 50 ± 10 psi.
c. 85 ± 5 psi.
d. 90 ± 10 psi.

Answer 49

b. 50 ± 10 psi.

Question 50

When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–18 pumping unit, the throttle control should manually be set to what revolution per minute (rpm) setting?

a. 1,550.
b. 1,850.
c. 1,950.
d. 2,250.

Answer 50

d. 2,250.

Question 51

When performing fuel servicing operations with an R–20multi-aircraft servicing platform, in what position should the manual/remote control switch on the communications panel be placed?

a. ON.
b. OFF.
c. REMOTE.
d. MANUAL.

Answer 51

c. REMOTE.

Question 52

When preparing an R–18 for shipment, dispose of all drained fuel in accordance with

a. local environmental regulations.
b. local and federal environmental regulations.
c. federal environmental regulations.
d. local, federal and international environmental regulations.

Answer 52

b. local and federal environmental regulations.

Question 53

When reconstituting Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment (FORCE) equipment, all rolling stock (e.g., R–18s, R–19s, and R–20s) should be drained in accordance with

a. local transportation guidelines.
b. Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM) 23–221, Fuels Logistics Planning.
c. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 24–203, Preparation and Movement of Air Force Cargo.
d. Technical Order (TO) 37A9–3–5–61, Fuels Operational Readiness Capability Equipment
(FORCE).

Answer 53

a. local transportation guidelines.

Question 54

What is the simplest and most expedient method of fuel resupply when operating from a host nation airfield?

a. Ocean tanker or barge.
b. Inland petroleum distribution system or tank trucks.
c. Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery system.
d. The same source of supply used by the host airfield.

Answer 54

d. The same source of supply used by the host airfield.

Question 55

What organization normally provides management of overland petroleum support, including inland waterways, to US land-based forces of all Department of Defense (DOD) components?

a. US Army.
b. US Air Force.
c. Joint Petroleum Office (JPO).
d. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.

Answer 55

a. US Army.

Question 56

What is the maximum number of gallons an Aerial Bulk Fuel Delivery System (ABFDS) carries per sortie?

a. 3,000.
b. 6,000.
c. 15,000.
d. 30,000.

Answer 56

d. 30,000.

Question 57

What organization is responsible for the procurement of fuel at deployed locations?

a. Major command (MAJCOM).
b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
c. Joint Petroleum Office (JPO).
d. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.

Answer 57

d. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.

Question 58

When selecting a site for bladder operations, the site should have less than what degree of slope?

a. 2°.
b. 3°.
c. 4°.
d. 5°.

Answer 58

b. 3°.

Question 59

When performing fuels mobility site planning, what organization should be your first source of information for infrastructure availability?

a. Responsible major command (MAJCOM).
b. Air Force Petroleum Agency (AFPA).
c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)-Energy.
d. National Geospatial-Intelligence Agency (NGA).

Answer 59

a. Responsible major command (MAJCOM).

Question 60

With which of the following alternate fuels should special precautions be taken due to its high volatility?

a. JP–5.
b. JP–8.
c. Jet A–1.
d. Jet B.

Answer 60

d. Jet B.

Question 61

What component of a unit type code (UTC) defines the basic mission the UTC is capable of accomplishing?

a. Mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement.
b. Manpower force element listing (MFEL).
c. Logistics detail (LOGDET).
d. Title.

Answer 61

a. Mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement.

Question 62

What software database is used to identify a unit type code’s (UTC) ability to perform its mission capabilities (MISCAP) statement and identify shortages?

a. AEF reporting tool (ART).
b. Logistics Module (LOGMOD).
c. Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).
d. Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

Answer 62

a. AEF reporting tool (ART).